2023 Mid-Year CPT/HCPCS Code Set Updates

Editor's Notes

• #7: Proprietary names in parenthesis at the end and in my references I have all the company websites. 0387U – AMBLor melanoma prognostic test- From company called AMLo Biociences. New test based on two protein markers (AMBRA1 and loricrin) that are normally present in the upper layer of the skin (epidermis). Loss of both of these markers in the skin overlying the tumor in early stage (Stage I and II) melanomas is associated with high risk of progression of the tumor, while one or both are retained in the epidermis overlying low-risk tumours. 0388U- InVisionFirst- Lung Liquid Biopsy- From a company called Neo Genomics. Liquid biopsy test that detects the genes that are relevant to the treatment and management of advanced non-small cell lung cancer. With tissue based testing sometimes there’s inadequate or insufficient tissue, challenging biopsy locations, and the turn around time may be longer. This test has a turnaround time for test results in 7 days. More sensitive and specific than tissue biopsy to accurately identify tumor mutations found at very low levels in the blood. 0389U- KawasakiDx. Company called mProbe. Developed a test for Kawasaki disease, which is acute vasculitic lesion of unknown etiology in infants and children. The clinical diagnosis is mainly based on clinical features combined with systemic vasculitis and laboratory tests. Intravenous immunoglobulin is the usual treatment. Early dx is the most effective way to avoid higher risk of complications. Traditional dx methods rely on clinical experience of physicians which can lead to delayed or missed treatment. This blood test can diagnose at a very early stage in children when they first start running fever and it’s over 90% accurate. 0390U-PEPredictDx. Same company mProbe. Developed a test for earlier screening of pre-eclampsia. Typical timeframe that preeclampsia can be predicted is about 20 weeks of pregnancy. This test can predict preeclampsia as early as 11 weeks- 90% accuracy rate. So the patient has two extra months of treatment than they would get with typical testing. 0391U- Strata Select. Strata Oncology. Strata Select is a pan-solid tumor molecular profiling test for patients with advanced cancer that provides treatment selection guidance for immunotherapy. So it helps the physician to avoid treatment options n which the patient isn’t likely to respond and avoid unnecessary combination chemotherapy.
• #8: 0392U Medication Management Neuropsychiatric Panel. Company called Genetworx developed a test that looks at patient’s genetics to help determine the most effective medication(s) for them for things like depression, anxiety, ADHD. Many times patients have to try out different ones to see which work for them… or which doesn’t give them undesirable side effects. So using their genes to make the determinations helps to see which medications will work for them to eliminate the “Trying out” of different medications. 0393U SYNTap® Biomarker Test. Company called Amprion. Test is done on cerebrospinal fluid. Can tell patients proactively how their brains are aging prior to symptoms. Helps early diagnosis of brain diseases such as parkinsons, Lewy bodies, alzheimers, and dementia aiding in preventative measures. 0394U PFAS Testing & PFASure. National Medical Services Labs. A series of tests that to help determine the effects of environmental exposure on human health. These tests also provide invaluable insights on levels of environmental chemicals and information about their potential toxicity. (examples- carbon monoxide, oil spill exposures, pesticides etc. long list on website) NMS Labs has two distinct panels that can be done depending on specific needs 0395U OncobiotaLUNG. Company called Micronoma. A liquid biopsy assay for lung cancer detection in early stages by looking for microbiome markers. 0396U Spectrum PGT-M. Company called Natera. Developed genetic testing to boost IVF success. Evaluates embryos for chromosomal abnormalities and known inherited genetic conditions. Embryo biopsy and parental blood/cheek swab. Results only take 5-7 days.
• #9: 0397U Agilent Resolution ctDx FIRST. Company called Resolution Bioscience. Liquid biopsy for non small cell lung cancer and provides information such as tumor mutation profiling and gene information that assists with choosing treatment. 0398U ESOPREDICT® Barrett's Esophagus Risk Classifier Assay. Company called Previse. analyzes changes in your DNA that may help your gastroenterologist predict whether your Barrett’s esophagus will progress to esophageal cancer in the future. 0399U, FRAT® Folate Receptor Antibody Test, Company called Religen. A blood test taken by pregnant women that Assesses the ability of folate (folic acid) to enter the brain of the fetus by looking for certain antibodies. If folate cannot be distributed to the brain properly it can cause issues such as neural tube defects and autism spectrum disorders. 0400U Genesys Carrier Panel. Company called Genesys Diagnostics. A screening that tests for genes that can be related to certain heredity conditions such as cystic fibrosis, fragile X syndrome, etc to see the risk of passing along to your child. 0401U CARDIO inCode-Score (CIC-SCORE). Company called GENinCode. A genetic test that evaluates the risk for having a cardiovascular event bc they state that genetics make a 50% contribution to the development of cardiovascular events. A significant proportion of events take place in individuals classified in the low and moderate risk groups based on classical cardiovascular risk factors. The inclusion of the genetic load in the clinical assessment makes it possible to attain a more accurate and reliable overall cardiovascular risk score, and identify those patients at highest risk, who may need adjustments to their therapy and therapeutic goals.
• #10: 0791T, GaitBetter uses gamification and semi-immersive VR to simulate motor-cognitive challenges that patients experience in everyday life. Clinically proven to accelerate more positive outcomes and reduce falls by over 70%, GaitBetter’s innovative solution enables clinicians to tailor therapy intensity and specificity to the unique needs of their patients. Harnessing AI-based gait tracking, patients play a fun and safe ‘game’ as they see their feet movements projected into a VR environment displayed on a TV screen in front of them. Easily added to any treadmill, patients face virtual obstacles to improve gait while performing complex tasks requiring attention, memory, motor planning and execution to enhance motor-cognitive skills. This innovative dual-tasking approach combined with gamified therapy accelerates outcomes while keeping patients immersed, happy and motivated. 0793T Thermal ablation is done using extreme heat (or in some instances cold) (this will be done through a catheter with a probe in this procedure). Innervate means to supply nerves to, to stimulate, or to supply with energy. So this procedure is the destruction of the nerves of the pulmonary arteries by using laser ablation. Don’t report the following with it because it’s included in the code. 75746, Angiography, pulmonary, by nonselective catheter or venous injection, radiological supervision and interpretation, 93503, Insertion and placement of flow directed catheter (eg, Swan-Ganz) for monitoring purposes, or 93568, Injection procedure during cardiac catheterization including imaging supervision, interpretation, and report; for nonselective pulmonary arterial angiography.
• #11: Code 0794T (pharmaco-oncologic treatment ranking) represents rules based algorithm–generated match scores that rank available monotherapies and drug combinations according to their ability to target the patient’s specific cancer biomarkers. These pharmaco-oncologic treatment ranking options are based only on current Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved drugs but may include both on-label and off-label uses for targeted therapies, and additional information may also be provided on potential active clinical trials that include specifically matched, currently available, therapy options. 0792T- Silver diamine fluoride (SDF) is a liquid substance used to help prevent tooth cavities (or caries) from forming, growing, or spreading to other teeth. Most dentists use a liquid form of SDF containing at least 38 percent of the SDF solution. It’s applied topically, meaning that it’s applied directly to the surface of your teeth.
• #12: For insertion of a complete dual-chamber leadless pacemaker system, report 0795T.  A complete dual-chamber leadless pacemaker system includes two pulse generators, each with a built-in battery and electrode. Implantation of this system is performed using a catheter under fluoroscopic guidance via transvenous access. One pacemaker is implanted in the right atrium, and one is implanted in the right ventricle. Rarely, for clinical reasons, a complete dual-chamber leadless pacemaker system may be completed in stages, with one pacemaker implanted into the right ventricle at the initial procedure and the other implanted into the right atrium at a subsequent session Report 0796T- For insertion of a leadless pacemaker into the right atrium when a single chamber right ventricular leadless pacemaker already exists, in order to complete the dual-chamber leadless pacemaker system Report 0797T- For insertion of only the right ventricular pacemaker component of a dual-chamber leadless pacemaker system. 33274, Transcatheter insertion or replacement of permanent leadless pacemaker, 75820, Venography, extremity 76000, Fluoroscopy 76937, Ultrasound guidance for vascular access 77002, Fluoroscopic guidance for needle placement 93566, Injection procedure during cardiac catheterization 0795T. Whole system shouldn’t be reported twice or with a part of the system (0796T or 0797T)
• #13: 0798T is the whole complete system being removed. (right atrial and right ventricular components) For removal of only the right atrial leadless pacemaker component of a complete dual-chamber leadless pacemaker, report 0799T. For removal of only the right ventricular leadless pacemaker component of a complete dual-chamber leadless pacemaker, report 0800T. Do not report with imaging such as Venography, fluoroscopy, ultrasound, heart cath codes – all included in the procedure Do not report with 33275 which is transcatheter removal of a permanent leadless pacemaker and don’t report the removal of the whole system (0798T) with removal of parts of the system (0799T and 0800T)
• #14: For removal and replacement of a complete dual-chamber leadless pacemaker system, report 0801T. For removal and replacement of only one pacemaker component of a complete dual-chamber leadless pacemaker system, Report: 0802T right atrial pacemaker component 0803T right ventricular pacemaker component (when part of a dual-chamber leadless pacemaker system) Do not report these with 33274 and 33275 which is the insertion and replacement or removal of a permanent leadless pacemaker. These codes should not be used with the dual chamber leadless pacemaker codes and should also not be used in place of the codes if the right ventricular single chamber leadless pacemaker that you are inserting is part of a dual chamber system. Also again won’t report these with the imaging codes or heart cath codes. Won’t report with the codes we went over previously for the insertion and removal of the system. If the system is removed and replaced you use these codes rather than the prior codes.
• #15: As stated previously.
• #16: For programming device evaluation of a dual-chamber leadless pacemaker system, report 0804T. Device evaluation code 93279 may not be reported in conjunction with dual-chamber leadless pacemaker system codes 0795T, 0796T, 0797T, 0798T, 0799T, 0800T, 0801T, 0802T, 0803T. This is not going to be done on the same DOS as the procedure. Codes 0805T, 0806T are used to report transcatheter superior and inferior vena cava prosthetic valve implantation (ie, caval valve implantation [CAVI]). 0805T is for the percutaneous femoral vein approach and 0806T is the open approach Codes 0805T, 0806T include the work, when performed, of vascular access, placing the access sheath, transseptal puncture, advancing the caval valve delivery systems into position, repositioning the device(s) as needed, and deploying the device(s). Also includes any Angiography and radiological supervision and interpretation performed to guide CAVI (eg, guiding device placement and documenting completion of the intervention) are included in these codes. We’ll get into some more specifics about this in later slides Don’t report these codes in conjunction with 33210/33211 for temporary pacemaker insertions or with code 93662 for intracardiac echocardiography
• #17: -Minimally invasive transcatheter bicaval system for patients with TR and right heart failure. The implantation of self-expanding valves into the superior (SVC) and inferior (IVC) vena cava effectively abolishes caval reflux and increases cardiac output by reducing backward regurgitant flow into patients with clinically relevant TR. This will help eliminate peripheral venous congestion reducing right heart failure symptoms and improving the overall clinical condition of patients.
• #21: This is performed to evaluate lung function. Ventilation is one of two components of lung function, ventilation and perfusion. Ventilation refers to the ability of the air to reach all areas of the lung. This code is not for the actual test… it’s for the analysis of the results using a software that analyzes cinefluorograph images in combination with a CT image to quantify ventilation of pulmonary tissue, thereby providing support to physicians in their assessment of patients with lung diseases. The XV Lung Ventilation Analysis Software measures the tissue motion of the lung, at all locations throughout the lung, and at all phases of the breath. It uses these motion measurements to calculate the 4-dimensional (4D) ventilation of lung tissues 0807T- do not report with fluoroscopy codes, pulmonary ventilation imaging codes, perfusion and ventilation codes, all included within the code. 0808T- do not report with the codes mentioned that can’t be reported with 0807T, but also added CT scan codes here. CT scan is already included. Difference between these two codes, the first is using a previously acquired CT image.. The second is using a CT scan that was taken at that time for the purpose of this ventilation analysis and is included in the code.
• #22: When you wanted to do a percutaneous arthrodesis of the sacroiliac joint utilizing both a transfixation device and an intra-articular implant you would have to use 27299 which is the unlisted procedure of the pelvis or hip joint. Now we have this new code for that circumstance. SI joint procedures include two distinct types: one type that uses laterally placed transfixing devices via a transiliac approach (crossing the joint), and another that uses intra-articular placement of bone allograft products or devices typically placed via a posterior, or “dorsal,” approach (within the joint). Picture 1: Lateral transiliac transfixing devices. (A) Typical lateral transiliac trajectory. (B) Posterolateral transiliac trajectory. Picture 2: bone implant in the sacroiliac joint to stabilize and fuse it.
• #23: Not a whole lot of information on this. Mostly used with ocular gene and cellular therapy. The subretinal route is used because other deliveries of the medication can lead to damage of the retina so they need to be very specific about how this is delivered. Subretinal injection, delivers the therapeutic suspension immediately under the sensory retina, into the subretinal space, a virtual space between the photoreceptors and the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) Since the placement of the needle has to be so precise they are exploring using microprecision robot systems for this procedure, but it’s not currently in use.to my knowledge (article was from last year) 0810T- Do not use with 67036, 67039, 67040, 67041, 67042, 67043- codes for vitrectomy and this procedure code includes vitrectomy. 0810T, https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fmed.2022.846782/full
• #24: “RSV” Usually relate this with babies or young children but it can actually be dangerous for seniors too (particularly if they have underlying heart conditions, lung disease, or weakened immune systems). First RSV vaccine – 60 years in the making. Keep eye out.. More RSV vaccines on the way. All the work on the RSV vaccine actually helped with speeding the development of the Covid vaccine. Late 1960s vaccine developed and tested on animals.. Given to children… looked promising but trial found that 80% of patients who received the vaccine required hospitalization compared to 5% who had placebo and there were also deaths. This lead to many of the guardrails currently in place around clinical trials for vaccines.
• #31: CMS put out very limited information on these C9150- Xenon Xe 129 is a contrast agent composed of hyperpolarized gas. Upon inhalation, the hyperpolarized xenon 129 gas is distributed throughout the lungs. MRI, immediately following HP129Xe administration, allows for the visualization of lung structures based on the distribution pattern of the gas. This may aid in the diagnosis of certain lung abnormalities C9151- Used to treat adults with a disease called paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH). Disorder that leads to impaired production of blood cells. C9784 – procedure used to address obesity. It can reduce the size of the stomach without the need for an incision through the skin. Performed with an endoscopic stitching device to reduce the size of the stomach and to shorten and reshape the stomach which helps it to empty into the intestines slower (making you feel fuller longer), minimally invasive, less risk for complications, and it is also reversible. So the traditional laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy also reduces the stomach size but it does so by removing a piece of the stomach. In this procedure they insert the endoscopic stitching device thru mouth and stitch stomach in a folded over type shape. https://www.hopkinsmedicine.org/health/treatment-tests-and-therapies/endoscopic-sleeve-gastroplasty. Link to video of procedure. C9785- This procedure is for patients who regain weight after gastric bypass surgery. aims to reduce the size of the opening between the stomach pouch and the small intestine to slow stomach emptying and help you feel fuller longer. Surgeon inserts an endoscope through patient’s mouth and guides it into the stomach pouch that had been created during the previous gastric bypass surgery. Heat treatment is applied to the edge of the gastric outlet (which is the opening between the gastric pouch and the small intestine.. Once the heat treatment is applied to the gastric outlet, the doctor uses a suturing device on the end of the endoscope to tighten the gastric outlet and reduce it approximately 8-10 mm. When this opening is enlarged, it makes the patient feel hungry faster because food is emptied faster. So by narrowing this outlet it will help the food to empty to the small intestine slower and the patient to feel fuller longer. C9786- “to describe the diagnostic aid service for routine functional cardiovascular assessment using echocardiography.” This is just a software that helps with analyzing echo images and creates a report for the doctor to review.
• #32: C9787- non invasive method to assess gastric function. Electrodes are placed on the abdomen to detect electrophysiological biomarkers, such as slow wave direction, and simultaneously the patient is digitally logging their symptoms.
• #33: https://www.cms.gov/files/document/2023-hcpcs-application-summary-quarter-1-2023-drugs-and-biologicals-updated-04/28/2023.pdf page 52 all codes These HCPCS codes were created because they are products that are approved under the NDA or BLA that are rated as not therapeutically equivalent to their reference listed drug in the FDA’s orange book that has an existing code , so they are considered “single source” products. NDA is an application to permit the sale and marketing of a new drug in the United States. Drugs that are approved via an NDA pathway are regulated under Section 505 of the Food, Drug, & Cosmetics (FD&C) Act. A BLA is a request to introduce, or deliver for introduction, a biological product into interstate commerce The Orange Book is a list of drugs and pharmaceuticals that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved as both safe and effective. Although it is commonly called the Orange Book, its formal name is Approved Drug Products with Th erapeutic Equivalence Evaluations. The Orange Book is useful for finding generic drug equivalents, which may often be much lower cost for patients. A therapeutically equivalent drug must meet all the criteria of pharmaceutically equivalent drugs (same active ingredient, same dosage/concentration/strength, same route of delivery) and also have the same form/identity (e.g., tablet or capsule) as the brand drug. Additionally, it must also be tested for bioequivalence, meaning they are processed and metabolized by the body in the same way. Single source drug means a drug that is produced and distributed under an original New Drug Application approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration. A drug ceases to be a single-source drug when the same drug in the same dosage form and strength manufactured by another manufacturer is approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration under the provisions for an Abbreviated New Drug Application. Not going to go through these products to tell you it’s indications because these products aren’t new, many have been around for years and you probably have heard of many of these already, these particular ones are just not considered therapeutically equivalent so a new code was needed. tps://www.cms.gov/files/document/2023-hcpcs-application-summary-quarter-1-2023-drugs-and-biologicals-updated-04/28/2023.pdf page 52 all codes
• #34: All codes. https://www.cms.gov/files/document/2023-hcpcs-application-summary-quarter-1-2023-drugs-and-biologicals-updated-04/28/2023.pdf page 52
• #35: Pg 52
• #36: Brand names are listed behind the code description J2249- The FDA approved indication is for the induction and maintenance of procedural sedation in adults undergoing procedures lasting 30 minutes or less. J2329-FDA-approved as a cytolytic antibody indicated for the treatment of relapsing forms of multiple sclerosis, to include clinically isolated syndrome, relapsing-remitting disease, and active secondary progressive disease, in adults. J2561-approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) indicated for the treatment of neonatal seizures in term and preterm infants. J2806-approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) indicated in adults to stimulate gallbladder contraction, to be assessed by various methods of diagnostic imaging, or to be obtained by a duodenal aspiration sample of concentrated bile for analysis of cholesterol, bile salts, phospholipids, and crystals. Sincalide can stimulate pancreatic secretion in combination with secretin prior to obtaining a duodenal aspirate for analysis of enzyme activity, composition, and can accelerate the transit of a barium meal through the small bowel, thereby decreasing the time and extent of radiation associated with fluoroscopy and x-ray examination of the intestinal tract. J1440 Just a note, this is a reused HCPCS code that previously expired 12/31/2013. REBYOTA® was approved by the Food & Drug Administration (FDA) indicated for rectal administration for the prevention of recurrence of Clostridioides difficile infection (CDI) in individuals 18 years of age and older, following antibiotic treatment for recurrent CDI. J1961- FDA-approved as a human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV1) capsid inhibitor, to be used in combination with other antiretroviral(s); and is indicated for the treatment of HIV-1 infection in heavily treatment-experienced adults with multidrug resistant HIV-1 infection failing their current antiretroviral regimen due to resistance, intolerance, or safety considerations.
• #37: J9029- instilled once every three months into the bladder via a urinary catheter, adenovirus vector-based gene therapy for intravesical use for the treatment of adult patients with high-risk Bacillus Calmette-Guérin unresponsive non-muscle invasive bladder cancer with carcinoma in situ with or without papillary tumors. J9056- indicated for the treatment of adult patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and indolent B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) that has progressed during or within six months of treatment with rituximab or a rituximab-containing regimen J9058- indicated for treatment of adult patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), whose efficacy relative to first line therapies other than chlorambucil has not been established, and indolent B-cell non-Hodgkins lymphoma (NHL) that has progressed during or within six months of treatment with rituximab or a rituximab-containing regimen. J9059- indicated for the treatment of adult patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and indolent B-cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL) that has progressed during or within six months of treatment with rituximab or a rituximab-containing regimen. J9063- antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) directed against folate receptor alpha, a cell-surface protein highly expressed in ovarian cancer. According to the applicant, this drug was granted accelerated approval for the treatment of adult patients with folate receptor alpha-positive, platinum-resistant epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube, or primary peritoneal cancer, who have received 1 to 3 prior system treatment regimens J9259- a microtubule inhibitor indicated for the treatment of and administered intravenously (IV) by a healthcare professional for the following indications. Metastatic breast cancer after failure of combination chemotherapy for metastatic disease or relapse within 6 months of adjuvant chemotherapy; prior therapy should have included an anthracycline unless clinically contraindicated., Another indication is for locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) as a first-line treatment in combination with carboplatin in patients who are not candidates for curative surgery or radiation therapy, metastatic adenocarcinoma of the pancreas as a first-line treatment in combination with gemcitabine. J9323-a folate analog metabolic inhibitor indicated for patients with locally advanced or metastatic, non-squamous non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) who have a creatinine clearance (calculated by Cockcroft-Gault equation) of 45 mL/min or greater.
• #38: J9347- a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4) blocking antibody indicated, in combination with durvalumab, for the treatment of adult patients with unresectable hepatocellular carcinoma (uHCC). C J9350 pg 9- This is a reused HCPCS that expired 12/31/2010. ) is a bispecific CD20-directed CD3 T-cell engager indicated for the treatment of adult patients with relapsed or refractory follicular lymphoma after two or more lines of systemic therapy. LUNSUMIO™ is designed to enable a patient’s own immune system to target and eradicate B-cells, including those that cause malignant disease. J9380 pg 11- This is a reused HCPCS that expired 12/31/2010. ™ is a bispecific B-cell maturation antigen - directed CD3 T-cell engager indicated for the treatment of adult patients with relapsed or refractory multiple myeloma who have received at least four prior lines of therapy, including a proteasome inhibitor, an immunomodulatory agent and an anti-CD38 monoclonal antibody. J9381- Its function is as a CD3-directed antibody to delay the onset of Stage 3 type 1 diabetes (T1D) in adult and pediatric patients aged 8 years and older with Stage 2 T1D.
• #39: Q4272- a single-layer, decellularized, dehydrated human amniotic membrane allograft that is intended for use as a cover or barrier for acute and chronic wounds and to provide protective coverage from the surrounding environment for acute and chronic wounds. applied directly to the wound; it adheres to the wound bed without fixation. Q4273- is a tri-layer, Q4274 - dual-layer, (same as above) Q4275 - dehydrated allograft that consists of a dehydrated triple layer amnion allograft tissue matrix and will accommodate a variety of handling characteristics. Q4276 -a sterile dehydrated dual layered human amniotic membrane allograft. ORION Amniotic Membrane is intended to serve as a barrier or cover for acute and chronic wounds and for use as a barrier to protect wounds from the surrounding environment. Mentioned that it is sterilized by e-beam to meet a sterility assurance level of 10-6. Q4277- WoundPlus™ Membrane consists of dehydrated and devitalized human derived amniotic membrane that has been processed with HydraTek™ technology. WoundPlus™ Membrane is a single layer amnion-only membrane allograft intended for use as a barrier, wrap or cover for acute and chronic wounds.
• #40: Q4278- minimally manipulated, lyophilized, non-viable cellular allograft derived from human amniotic membrane. Q4280 -a lyophilized amniotic membrane allograft that is aseptically processed to preserve the native extracellular matrix and endogenous proteins. Xcell Amnio Matrix® acts as a barrier and provide protective coverage from the surrounding environment for acute and chronic wounds such as partial and full thickness Wounds, Q4281- are dehydrated amniotic membrane allograft. Barrera™ SL and Barrera™ DL are intended to serve as a protective wound cover or barrier to offer protection from the surrounding environment in wounds, including surgically created wounds Q4282-dual amnion allograft is derived from the amnion layer of the fetal membrane and is processed using aseptic techniques. The product is terminally sterilized via electron-beam irradiation Q4283 - a triple-layer decellularized, dehydrated human amniotic membrane, sterilized using e-beam irradiation. Biovance® 3L is intended to be used as a cover or to protect from the surrounding environment in wound and surgical repair and reconstruction procedures Q4284 -an amnion derived allograft for management of wounds and burn injuries. DermaBind SL™ is a sterile, single use, dehydrated allograft derived from donated human amnion membrane. is fully resorbable and does not have to be removed from the wound bed. Q5131- approved as a biosimilar to Humira® (adalimumab). IDACIO® is a tumor necrosis factor blocker indicated for reducing signs and symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, Crohn’s disease, ulcerative colitis and plaque psoriasis. I
• #44: C9149– previously mentioned is being replaced by new code J9381 Injection, teplizumab-mzwv, 5 mcg