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Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS)
Practice Questions 2024/2025
1. A patient with suspected ACS is placed on a cardiac monitor. The patient's blood
pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Which medication would be most appropriate for this
patient?
Answer: Intravenous fluids (to improve blood pressure).
2. During the assessment of a patient, a healthcare provider notes chest pain that
radiates to the left arm. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
Answer: Administer aspirin (unless contraindicated).
3. A patient is being treated for acute pulmonary edema. Which position should the
healthcare provider place the patient in for optimal comfort and oxygenation?
Answer: Sitting upright with feet dangling.
4. In a patient with a suspected acute coronary syndrome, which laboratory test is
essential for confirming myocardial ischemia?
Answer: Cardiac troponin levels.
5. During CPR, chest compressions should be delivered at a depth of at least how
many inches?
Answer: At least 2 inches.
6. A patient presents with altered mental status and signs of hypoperfusion. The
provider suspects shock. What is the most appropriate first step in management?
Answer: Establish intravenous access and administer fluids.
7. What is the significance of a heart rate greater than 150 beats per minute in a
patient with tachycardia and dyspnea?
Answer: Potentially indicates a significant cardiovascular compromise.
8. During intubation, what is the most critical consideration to ensure proper
placement of the endotracheal tube?
Answer: Confirm the tube is in the trachea by auscultation and capnography.
9. If a patient in cardiac arrest develops a wide-complex tachycardia during
resuscitation efforts, what is the recommended treatment?
Answer: Immediate defibrillation (if pulseless).
10.A patient receiving mechanical ventilation has an elevated plateau pressure of 35
cm H2O. What does this indicate?
Answer: Potential increase in airway resistance or decreased lung compliance.
11.In a patient with suspected stroke, the healthcare team performs the FAST
assessment. The "T" in FAST stands for what?
Answer: Time to call for emergency medical services.
12.A patient with chest pain has an ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What
condition is the patient likely experiencing?
Answer: Inferior ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI).
13.Which medication is indicated for a patient with symptomatic bradycardia?
Answer: Atropine.
14.In the case of a respiratory failure, which arterial blood gas (ABG) finding would
indicate hypercapnia?
Answer: An elevated arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) level.
15.A healthcare provider is preparing to administer nitroglycerin to a patient with
chest pain. What is an essential check before administration?
Answer: Confirm the patient's blood pressure is above 90/60 mmHg.
16.In a patient experiencing hypertensive crisis, which medication class is typically
used for immediate management?
Answer: Antihypertensives (e.g., nitroglycerin or labetalol).
17.For a patient undergoing synchronized cardioversion, which rhythm indicates
the need for immediate action?
Answer: Atrial fibrillation with significant symptoms (e.g., hypotension).
18.During a code blue scenario, what is the first step after confirming
unresponsiveness of the patient?
Answer: Call for help and activate the emergency response team.
19.When a patient presents with dyspnea and wheezing, what initial management
should be prioritized?
Answer: Administer bronchodilators (e.g., albuterol).
20.In a suspected anaphylactic reaction, which medication is lifesaving and should
be administered immediately?
Answer: Epinephrine.
21.A patient with acute coronary syndrome is experiencing nausea. Which
medication can be administered to help alleviate this symptom?
Answer: Ondansetron (Zofran).
22.In assessing a patient with pneumonia, what is an expected finding on lung
examination?
Answer: Dullness to percussion over affected lung areas.
23.What is the optimal head tilt-chin lift maneuver used for in unconscious
patients?
Answer: To maintain a patent airway.
24.In a patient experiencing ventricular fibrillation, what is the first intervention?
Answer: Immediate defibrillation.
25.In a patient with suspected myocardial infarction, which symptom is most
characteristic?
Answer: Crushing chest pain radiating to the arm or jaw.
26.An arterial blood gas shows a pH of 7.28 and a PaCO2 of 55 mmHg. What is the
likely acid-base disturbance?
Answer: Respiratory acidosis.
27.In patients with signs of stroke, which imaging modality is typically used to
differentiate between hemorrhagic and ischemic stroke?
Answer: CT scan of the head.
28.When is the use of chest compressions halted during a code blue?
Answer: Only when a defibrillator is delivering a shock or if return of spontaneous
circulation (ROSC) occurs.
29.What is the significance of a decreased cardiac output in a patient?
Answer: It can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and shock.
30.In a resuscitation scenario, what is the recommended compression rate for
adults?
Answer: 100 to 120 compressions per minute.
31.A patient in respiratory distress is experiencing a paradoxical pulse. What does
this indicate?
Answer: Possibly cardiac tamponade or significant respiratory distress.
32.If a patient exhibits severe agitation and confusion, what is the initial suspected
cause?
Answer: Hypoxia or hypercapnia.
33.In managing a patient with a suspected drug overdose, what is the priority
intervention?
Answer: Airway management and monitoring vital signs.
34.How is the effectiveness of CPR monitored?
Answer: By assessing for signs of circulation and capnography values.
35.What is a common side effect when administering adenosine for supraventricular
tachycardia (SVT)?
Answer: A brief period of asystole or bradycardia.
36.In a cardiac patient, an increase in central venous pressure (CVP) indicates
what?
Answer: Fluid overload or right heart failure.
37.If a patient has sinus tachycardia with a heart rate of 130 bpm but is otherwise
stable, what does this usually signify?
Answer: Physiological response to stress or pain.
38.During a code, which position should the patient be in before administering a
shock?
Answer: Supine, clear of any objects on or around them.
39.A patient with acute exacerbation of COPD is put on a non-rebreather mask.
What is an expected outcome?
Answer: Improved oxygen saturation.
40.In a cardiac arrest situation, what is the target end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) during
CPR?
Answer: 10 to 20 mmHg.
41.A patient suffering from CHF is presenting with acute pulmonary edema. What
medication can provide rapid diuresis?
Answer: Furosemide.
42.In cases of suspected aortic dissection presenting with chest pain, what should be
initiated immediately?
Answer: Blood pressure control (typically with beta-blockers).
43.What is the first step in assessing a patient’s airway during resuscitation?
Answer: Immobilize the spinal cord if trauma is suspected.
44.In a patient with new-onset afib and rapid ventricular response, what medication
is often used for rate control?
Answer: Beta-blockers.
45.A patient is resuscitated and has regained spontaneous circulation. What is the
purpose of post-cardiac arrest care?
Answer: To improve neurological outcomes and manage hemodynamic stability.
46.When characterizing bowel sounds in a patient with abdominal pain and rigidity,
what finding is suggestive of an obstruction?
Answer: High-pitched tinkling sounds.
47.What initial evaluation should be performed for a patient with suspected
pericarditis?
Answer: ECG to check for characteristic changes.
48.How can healthcare providers assess for adequate perfusion during cardiac
resuscitation?
Answer: By checking the patient's pulse quality and skin color.
49.What clinical sign might indicate the presence of a tension pneumothorax in a
patient?
Answer: Tracheal deviation away from the affected side.
50.In a patient with severe bradycardia associated with signs of shock, which is the
most appropriate medication to administer?
Answer: Atropine.

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ACLS New 50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2024.pdf

  • 1. Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) Practice Questions 2024/2025 1. A patient with suspected ACS is placed on a cardiac monitor. The patient's blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Which medication would be most appropriate for this patient? Answer: Intravenous fluids (to improve blood pressure). 2. During the assessment of a patient, a healthcare provider notes chest pain that radiates to the left arm. What is the most appropriate initial intervention? Answer: Administer aspirin (unless contraindicated). 3. A patient is being treated for acute pulmonary edema. Which position should the healthcare provider place the patient in for optimal comfort and oxygenation? Answer: Sitting upright with feet dangling. 4. In a patient with a suspected acute coronary syndrome, which laboratory test is essential for confirming myocardial ischemia? Answer: Cardiac troponin levels. 5. During CPR, chest compressions should be delivered at a depth of at least how many inches? Answer: At least 2 inches.
  • 2. 6. A patient presents with altered mental status and signs of hypoperfusion. The provider suspects shock. What is the most appropriate first step in management? Answer: Establish intravenous access and administer fluids. 7. What is the significance of a heart rate greater than 150 beats per minute in a patient with tachycardia and dyspnea? Answer: Potentially indicates a significant cardiovascular compromise. 8. During intubation, what is the most critical consideration to ensure proper placement of the endotracheal tube? Answer: Confirm the tube is in the trachea by auscultation and capnography. 9. If a patient in cardiac arrest develops a wide-complex tachycardia during resuscitation efforts, what is the recommended treatment? Answer: Immediate defibrillation (if pulseless). 10.A patient receiving mechanical ventilation has an elevated plateau pressure of 35 cm H2O. What does this indicate? Answer: Potential increase in airway resistance or decreased lung compliance. 11.In a patient with suspected stroke, the healthcare team performs the FAST assessment. The "T" in FAST stands for what? Answer: Time to call for emergency medical services.
  • 3. 12.A patient with chest pain has an ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What condition is the patient likely experiencing? Answer: Inferior ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI). 13.Which medication is indicated for a patient with symptomatic bradycardia? Answer: Atropine. 14.In the case of a respiratory failure, which arterial blood gas (ABG) finding would indicate hypercapnia? Answer: An elevated arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) level. 15.A healthcare provider is preparing to administer nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain. What is an essential check before administration? Answer: Confirm the patient's blood pressure is above 90/60 mmHg. 16.In a patient experiencing hypertensive crisis, which medication class is typically used for immediate management? Answer: Antihypertensives (e.g., nitroglycerin or labetalol). 17.For a patient undergoing synchronized cardioversion, which rhythm indicates the need for immediate action? Answer: Atrial fibrillation with significant symptoms (e.g., hypotension). 18.During a code blue scenario, what is the first step after confirming unresponsiveness of the patient? Answer: Call for help and activate the emergency response team.
  • 4. 19.When a patient presents with dyspnea and wheezing, what initial management should be prioritized? Answer: Administer bronchodilators (e.g., albuterol). 20.In a suspected anaphylactic reaction, which medication is lifesaving and should be administered immediately? Answer: Epinephrine. 21.A patient with acute coronary syndrome is experiencing nausea. Which medication can be administered to help alleviate this symptom? Answer: Ondansetron (Zofran). 22.In assessing a patient with pneumonia, what is an expected finding on lung examination? Answer: Dullness to percussion over affected lung areas. 23.What is the optimal head tilt-chin lift maneuver used for in unconscious patients? Answer: To maintain a patent airway. 24.In a patient experiencing ventricular fibrillation, what is the first intervention? Answer: Immediate defibrillation. 25.In a patient with suspected myocardial infarction, which symptom is most characteristic? Answer: Crushing chest pain radiating to the arm or jaw.
  • 5. 26.An arterial blood gas shows a pH of 7.28 and a PaCO2 of 55 mmHg. What is the likely acid-base disturbance? Answer: Respiratory acidosis. 27.In patients with signs of stroke, which imaging modality is typically used to differentiate between hemorrhagic and ischemic stroke? Answer: CT scan of the head. 28.When is the use of chest compressions halted during a code blue? Answer: Only when a defibrillator is delivering a shock or if return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) occurs. 29.What is the significance of a decreased cardiac output in a patient? Answer: It can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and shock. 30.In a resuscitation scenario, what is the recommended compression rate for adults? Answer: 100 to 120 compressions per minute. 31.A patient in respiratory distress is experiencing a paradoxical pulse. What does this indicate? Answer: Possibly cardiac tamponade or significant respiratory distress. 32.If a patient exhibits severe agitation and confusion, what is the initial suspected cause? Answer: Hypoxia or hypercapnia.
  • 6. 33.In managing a patient with a suspected drug overdose, what is the priority intervention? Answer: Airway management and monitoring vital signs. 34.How is the effectiveness of CPR monitored? Answer: By assessing for signs of circulation and capnography values. 35.What is a common side effect when administering adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)? Answer: A brief period of asystole or bradycardia. 36.In a cardiac patient, an increase in central venous pressure (CVP) indicates what? Answer: Fluid overload or right heart failure. 37.If a patient has sinus tachycardia with a heart rate of 130 bpm but is otherwise stable, what does this usually signify? Answer: Physiological response to stress or pain. 38.During a code, which position should the patient be in before administering a shock? Answer: Supine, clear of any objects on or around them. 39.A patient with acute exacerbation of COPD is put on a non-rebreather mask. What is an expected outcome? Answer: Improved oxygen saturation.
  • 7. 40.In a cardiac arrest situation, what is the target end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) during CPR? Answer: 10 to 20 mmHg. 41.A patient suffering from CHF is presenting with acute pulmonary edema. What medication can provide rapid diuresis? Answer: Furosemide. 42.In cases of suspected aortic dissection presenting with chest pain, what should be initiated immediately? Answer: Blood pressure control (typically with beta-blockers). 43.What is the first step in assessing a patient’s airway during resuscitation? Answer: Immobilize the spinal cord if trauma is suspected. 44.In a patient with new-onset afib and rapid ventricular response, what medication is often used for rate control? Answer: Beta-blockers. 45.A patient is resuscitated and has regained spontaneous circulation. What is the purpose of post-cardiac arrest care? Answer: To improve neurological outcomes and manage hemodynamic stability. 46.When characterizing bowel sounds in a patient with abdominal pain and rigidity, what finding is suggestive of an obstruction? Answer: High-pitched tinkling sounds.
  • 8. 47.What initial evaluation should be performed for a patient with suspected pericarditis? Answer: ECG to check for characteristic changes. 48.How can healthcare providers assess for adequate perfusion during cardiac resuscitation? Answer: By checking the patient's pulse quality and skin color. 49.What clinical sign might indicate the presence of a tension pneumothorax in a patient? Answer: Tracheal deviation away from the affected side. 50.In a patient with severe bradycardia associated with signs of shock, which is the most appropriate medication to administer? Answer: Atropine.