ASIS CPP Study Flash Cards and Quiz

By Brandon Gregg, CPP
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CPP Study Guide

CPP Study Guide
How to Study the CPP:
 Read over 500 slides, deleting the slides you know the
answer to.
 Use the last 300 practice quizzes to test yourself.
 Purchase or find “The Complete Guide of the CPP
Exam”, it reads like a book of answers, no filler, fluff or
20 ASIS books to read.
 Make more slides if needed
 Repeat
 Take CPP Test, good luck!
 Send me an email when you pass 

CPP Study Guide
This Powerpoint was made by collecting all the open
source CPP study guides I could find online and then
some. If you have your own slides, please send me a
copy so I may add to the slides.
Thanks again for everyone that helped put this
together!

Control over the entry of
personnel and materials is the
most important countermeasure
to bombs

The emergency plan is tested at
least annually

Data media must be protected in
specially insulated records
containers which protect the
contents against temperatures up
to 150 F and 80% humidity

The automatic sprinkler
system is ordinarily activated by
the melting of a metal seal and
water then flows through the
system when the head valves are
released

Government and industry share
the responsibility for emergency
and disaster planning

The emergency plan must be
distributed to all personnel with
responsibility for action

A “bomb blanket” is used only by
specifically trained personnel

“Vital Records” are those
necessary to insure the survival
of the business. Vital records
usually constitute no more than 2
percent of a corporation’s records

Responsibility for a shutdown
should be assigned to persons
familiar with the process

The emergency plan is activated
by the facility manager, the
President, or the CEO

The emergency plan should be
directive in nature

In a fire, the facility must have
“the capability to respond quickly
with well trained personnel to
contain and extinguish the fire”.

In a high rise building, partial
evacuation includes the floor
above and the floor below

The most common of all terrorist
tactics is bombing

In dealing with plant fires,
mutual assistance and prior
coordination with the fire
department is essential. The
critical element is the ability to
respond quickly with well
trained personnel to contain
and extinguish the fire

A tidal wave (TSUNAMI) is
caused by underwater
disturbances

A “hurricane warning” is issued
when it is determined that winds
of 74 mph or higher will be
encountered

“Tornadoes” are violent local
storms with whirling winds that
can reach 200 - 400 m.p.h. The
width of a tornado ranges from
200 yards to one mile and travels
5-30 miles along the ground at
speeds of 30-70 m.p.h.

Tornado watch - tornadoes are
expected to develop
Tornado warning - tornado has
actually been sighted in the
area

Severe thunderstorm - possibility
of frequent lightning and/or
damaging winds of greater than 50
m.p.h., hail and heavy rain.
Severe thunderstorm watch -
possibility of tornadoes,
thunderstorms, frequent lightning,
hail and winds greater than 75
m.p.h.

Heavy snow warning - an
expected snowfall of 4 inches or
more in a 12-hour period or 6
inches or more in a 24-hour
period

Blizzard - the most dangerous
of all winter storms.

Blizzard warning - considerable
snow and winds of 35 m.p.h. or
more are expected.
A severe blizzard warning -
very heavy snowfall is expected
with winds of at least 45 m.p.h.
and temperatures of 10 degrees
or lower.

A large proportion of
energy in a nuclear
explosion is emitted in the
form of light and heat and
is generally referred to as
Thermal radiation

The one thing that distinguishes
disasters or major emergencies
from the emergencies plant
personnel deal with each day is
the need for coordinated
emergency operations

A community based
emergency control center must
be established to coordinate all
efforts in a major emergency

“Emergency readiness” means
preparation has reached the
point where you are prepared to
react promptly to save life and
protect property if the plant is
threatened or hit by a major
emergency

Bomb Threat - a search is made
after every bomb threat call.
The facility manager should
make the decision as to who
should search

The decision to evacuate a
building upon the receipt of a
bomb threat should be made by a
senior member of management

Fire loading is the amount of
combustible materials that
occupy its interior spaces

When a bomb threat is received,
the following are notified, in order :
a. Persons responsible for
search and evacuation
b. Local authorities
c. Explosive demolition teams;
and
d. Medical facilities

A clear zone with a radius of at
least 300 feet should be
established around a suspicious
object including the floors above
and below

The purposes of emergency
planning are to:
a. Anticipate the emergency
b. Provide action during the
emergency; and
c. Return to normal operations

In assessing the vulnerability of
individual facilities, major factors
considered are:
a. Environment
b. Indigenous
c. Economic

The basic emergency plan
should be made up of three
elements:
1. Authority
2. Types of emergencies
3. Plan execution

The value of an emergency plan is that it:
a. Provides a written record and means of
communicating information throughout the
organization
b. Assures that all procedures fit into an integrated
plan
c. Promotes uniformity
d. Assures a permanent record of decisions and
acquired knowledge
e. Provides a means of orientation of new
employees into emergency responsibilities
f. Permits management to delegate specific
authorities
g. Presents a public relations medium for communicate
to employees, customers and stockholders

Every industrial firm, regardless
of size, should establish an
internal organization that will be
able to protect life and property in
time of any emergency

The Vital Records Protection Plan should be tested
at least once a year.
The tests of Vital Records Program should verify that
vital records needed after a disaster are:
a. Current
b. Protected sufficiently against natural
disasters, nuclear detonation and other
perils
c. Retrievable as needed in usable form

Strike
The most frequent strike is the
“economic strike”, which must
be preceded by at least 60 days
notice

Strike
The “unfair labor practice strike”
can occur suddenly with little or no
effective planning

Strike
The most important outside
contact will be with local police

Strike
A sound policy with respect to
police arrests would be to not
attempt to influence the police
against initiating prosecutions where
police are complaining witnesses

Strike
Documentary surveillance of
workers engaged in legal and
legitimate labor practices such as
legal picketing during a strike could
amount to an unfair labor practice

Terrorism
Kidnapping is a classic act of
terrorism

Terrorism
For the most effective personal
protection of a possible kidnapping
target, a minimum of two (2)
bodyguards is recommended

Terrorism
The payment of ransom or
complying with any criminal
demand, without company
approval, could render the payer
civilly liable.

Terrorism
The best way to determine if a
hostage is alive is with direct
communication

The four legs of fire:
a. Heat
b. Fuel
c. Oxygen, and a
d. Chemical reaction

Several by products
accompany every fire:
a. Smoke
b. Gas
c. Heat
d. Expanded air

Fire Classifications:
Class “A” - Ordinary combustibles (waste
paper, rags, and furniture)
Extinguish with Water or water fog
(Green triangle) Soda and Acid
Class “B” - Gas, grease oil, volatile fluids
Extinguish with CO2 or water fog
(Red Square) dry chemical
Class “C” - Electrical fires
Extinguish with non-conductive agent
(Blue circle) CO2
Class “D” - combustible metals
Extinguish with Dry powder
(Yellow star) Dry powder

Water fog is very effective for
Class “A” and “B” fires

A normal fire proceeds through
4 basic stages:
1. Incipient Stage - no smoke at this point
2. Smoldering Stage - smoke begins to
appear
3. Flame Stage - actual visible fire
4. Heat Stage - heat is intense and
building up

The principal fire sensors are:
 Ionization detector - useful in giving early warning.
 Photoelectric smoke detector - when source of
light is interrupted, unit alarms
 Infrared flame detector - reacts to emissions from
flame
 Thermal detectors - operates on a significant
change in temperature

Manual fire alarm stations are of
two types:
 1. Local alarms – alerting personnel in building
 2. Station alarms – signal is transmitted directly
to a monitoring station

The causes of most fires
are:
Carelessness
Ignorance

Most fires
are electrical in
origin

More fire fatalities are caused
by toxic gases than by the
flames

The major causes of death in a
building fire are:
 a. Toxic gases
 b. Smoke
 c. High temperatures
 d. CO2
 e. Fear and resultant actions
 f. The fire itself

Most sprinklers will operate at
temperatures between 130 and
165 F.

Halogenated agents
(1211, 1302)
are non-corrosive chemical agents
used for extinguishing fires in
areas containing computers and
electrical equipment

A fire door is for the purpose of
impeding the spread of fire

Automatic fire doors are held
open until there is sufficient
combustion to trigger the door
closing devices

The focus of disaster control
planning is on solutions to major
problems and to prevent a
disaster from becoming a tragedy

The three principles of disaster
control planning are:
a. Coordinated planning;
b. Mutual assistance; and
c. Community resources

In the organizational structure of proprietary firms,
security may provide both line and staff functions
a. When advising senior executives, the
security manager performs “staff”duties
b. In security operations, the security manager
carries out “line” duties
As a general rule, “line” duties are considered to be
operational in nature and “staff” duties are of a
support nature

When security managers
exercise authority delegated by a
senior executive to whom they
report, such authority is known as
“functional” authority

Security functions cut across
departmental lines and consist of
involvement into every activity of
the company but should not
involve significant interference

Probably the most common
security management failure is
the inability to delegate
responsibility and the authority
necessary to carry it out

“Span of control” is a
management term which refers
to the number of personnel over
which one can effectively
supervise

The largest single item of
expense in the security
operation is the cost of the
security personnel

The number of security personnel
required to cover a single post
around the clock on three eight-
hour shifts is 4-1/2 to 5 persons
Not 3

“Chain of command” is a
management term which refers
to the path along which
authority flows

Well-trained, well-supervised
security personnel may be the
best possible protection
available to a company

The accounting department of
a company is the most
vulnerable to major loss due
to crime

“Unity of command” is a
management concept which
means that an employee should
have only one immediate
superior to whom the
employee should report

The security manager should have
the necessary authority to carry out
responsibilities. To accomplish this,
the security manager should occupy a
position where the manager reports
directly to a vice-president or
higher

The “Theory X” management
theory holds that the average
employee has little ambition,
dislikes work and must be
coerced, controlled and directed
to achieve organizational
objectives - Douglas McGregor

The “Theory Y” management
theory holds that the average
employee does not dislike
work, is self-directed, is
creative and imaginative,
accepts responsibility and is
committed to achieving
organizational needs and
objectives -
Douglas McGregor

Theory X and Theory Y
were developed by
Douglas McGregor

Those in management who believe
the behavioral assumption of
“Theory X” take an autocratic
approach to get work done.
Whereas “Theory Y” encourages
managers to support and
encourage employees in efforts to
higher achievement

The three main theories of
organizational behavior are:
a. Autocratic theory
b. Custodial theory
c. Supportive theory

The “autocratic theory” holds that
management is all-powerful and
employees are obligated to
follow orders without question

The “custodial theory” holds
that the aim of the company is
to make the employee happy and
contented through economic
benefits and thus they will be
positively adjusted to their work.
This theory does not motivate
employees to produce to their
full capacity

The “supportive theory” holds
that through good leadership,
management will provide a
climate where employees will
take on added responsibilities
and thus make greater
contributions to the growth of
the company.
Leadership: “We rather than
they”

“Herzberg’s theory” is a
management theory which holds
that motivation comes from work
achievement satisfaction and
not from such things as salary
and job security

“Theory Z” is a recent
management style used
effectively by the Japanese.
This theory emphasizes
humanized working conditions
along with attention by
management to enhance trust
and close personal relationships

“Management by objectives”
also known as “MBO” was
introduced by Peter Drucker. In
this approach, both subordinate
and superior agree on
measurable goals to be achieved
primarily by the subordinate over
a stated period of time

A “budget” is a plan stated in
financial terms. It sets forth in
dollars the necessary
allocation of funds to achieve
the plan

“Risk analysis” is a
management method used to
minimize risks through
application of security
measures commensurate with
the threat

The major resource required for
a risk analysis is
manpower

The most important
management skill
is the ability to
communicate effectively

Written communication
is the best means to
communicate

The primary objective in
implementing a protection
program within an organization
should be to motivate every
employee to become part of the
protection team

Both private security and public
law have, as their primary
mission, the prevention of
crime and protection of
persons and property

“Economic crime” is defined as the
illicit behavior having as its object
the unjust enrichment of the
perpetrator at the expense of the
economic system as a whole

Private security relies upon both
commercial security services and
government agencies for
intelligence gathering and crisis
management planning

Private security frequently avoids
or bypasses police with regard to
white collar or economic crime

Business crime is most
effectively attacked through
sound management controls.
The emphasis on loss prevention
rather than the “offender”
involved in the incident is a
distinguishing characteristic of
private security.

About 95% to 99%
of activated alarms
are “false”

The main deterrent value of a
burglar alarm system is that the
alarm signal enunciated locally or
transmitted to a central station
brings a police response

Employee theft
was the most frequently
investigated crime by
private security

As a general rule, local law
enforcement has very little effect
on many crimes against
business. Exceptions are
burglaries, robberies and arson

Frequently cited measures for
improving private security are:
a. More or better training
b. Mandated training
c. Improved selection process
d. Higher wages
e. Establishment or
improvement of licensing
and regulation

Two problems in police and
security relationships which seem
to have the greatest intensity of
feelings are:
a. Secondary employment or
moonlighting by police
officers in private security
b. Police response to activated
alarms which are largely
false

The two major components of
economic crime are white collar
and ordinary crime

80% of computer security
incidents result from insider
attacks by dishonest and
disgruntled employees

Only 1% of computer security
incidents annually are attributed
to “hackers”

The practice of preventing
unauthorized persons from
gaining intelligence information
by analyzing electromagnetic
emanations from electronic
equipment such as computers, is
often termed “tempest”

In the year 2000, expenditures
for private security industry will
be $104 billion while public law
enforcement expenditures will be
only $44 billion by 2000

Employment in private security is
projected to grow at 2.3% per
annum to 2000 while law
enforcement growth will be one
percent annually

The term “narcotic” in its medical
meaning refers to opium and
opium derivatives or synthetic
substitutes

“Drug dependence” is a condition
resulting from repeated use
whereby the user must
administer progressively larger
doses to attain the desired effect,
thereby reinforcing compulsive
behavior

“Physical dependence” refers to an
alteration of the normal functions
of the body that necessitates the
continued presence of a drug in
order to prevent the withdrawal or
abstinence syndrome

The poppy
(papaver somnifferum)
is the main source of the
non-synthetic narcotics

Examples of synthetic narcotics,
which are produced entirely
within the laboratory, are
meperidine and methadone

Depressants have a potential for
both physical and psychological
dependence. Some examples :
a. Chloral Hydrate
b. Barbiturates
c. Benzodiazepines

When “depressant” drugs are
used to obtain a “high” they are
usually taken in conjunction with
another drug, such as alcohol

“Stimulants” are drugs which
may produce a temporary
sense of exhilaration,
superabundant energy and
hyperactivity including
extended wakefulness.
Examples are cocaine and
amphetamines

The two most prevalent
stimulants are nicotine and
caffeine, both accepted in our
culture

The most potent stimulant of
natural origin is cocaine which is
extracted from the leaves of the
coca plant

Excessive doses of cocaine may
cause seizures and death. There
is no “safe” dose of cocaine

“Marijuana” refers to cannabis
plant parts and extracts that
produce somatic or psychic
changes in humans

The hemp plant grows wild
throughout most of the tropic and
temperate regions of the world

“Hallucinogenic” drugs distort the
perception of objective reality.
Examples are:
a. LSD
b. Mescaline and peyote
c. Phencyclidine (PCP)
d. Amphetamine Variants
(such as DOM and DOB)

Long after hallucinogens are
eliminated from the body, users
may experience “flashbacks”

DOM, DOB, JDA, MDMA, DET
and MDA are hallucinogens which
are synthesized in the laboratory

Another source of hallucinogens
(psilocybin and psilocyn) is
psilocybe mushrooms

“Designer” drugs are analogues of
controlled substances with
slight variations in their chemical
structure so as not to be
specifically listed as a controlled
substance

A “drug” is a substance which,
because of its chemical make-up,
alters the mood, perception or
consciousness of the user. All
drugs are not illegal.

The most abused “drug” is alcohol
and the most used “drug”
also alcohol

“Tolerance” is a body condition
wherein ever-increasing
amounts of a drug are needed to
gain the desired effect

The street name for
PCP
is
“angel dust”

The person most likely to
become an alcoholic is a white
male over 40 who is living alone

The following behavioral characteristics are
associated with substance abuse:
a. Abrupt changes in attendance, quality of work
grades and work output
b. Attitude changes
c. Withdrawal from responsibility
d. Breakdown in personal appearance
e. Wearing sunglasses at inappropriate times
f. Wears long-sleeved garments to hide needle
marks
g. Association with known substance abusers
h. Excessive borrowing of money
I. Stealing small items from home, work or school
j. Secretive habits

Internal Accounting - Audit
 To insure correctness and accuracy of
accounting records
 Not to detect theft and fraud
 More losses due to accounting errors than
by theft

External Audit
Valuable because the persons
conducting the audit do not
know your business / company

Financial Aspects
“CL” - Current Liability
“L/T” - Long term Liability

Payroll
 Biggest problem is “Ghosting”
 Paying people that don’t exist
 Can use “Pay-out” to detect Ghosting
 manually paying each employee
 Recommended twice a year

Internal Cash
Best way to handle is using two
people at all times to handle
cash situations

Payables
Money owed to vendors

Receivables
Money owed by customers

General Management
Line Executives are those who
are delegated chain of
command authority to
accomplish specific objectives
in the organization.

General Management
The security manager, in
exercising authority delegated
by the senior executive to
whom the security manager
reports, is exercising
functional authority

General Management
Chain of Command is the path
along which authority flows

General Management
 Span of Control - the number of personnel which
one individual can effectively control
 1 supervisor to 3 employees - ideal
 1 supervisor to 6 employees - good
 1 supv to 12 employees - Acceptable

General Management
Unity of Command - means
that an employee should be
under the direct control of only
one immediate supervisor

General Management
The most common
management weakness is the
failure to properly delegate
responsibility and the authority
to carry out the responsibility.

Organizational Chart
Horizontal plane - indicates the
divisions of areas of responsibility
Vertical plane - defines the levels
of authority

General Management
Organizational structure
should be flexible to be most
effective

Behavioral Theories
 Dr. Abraham Maslow developed a five-step
process which describes man’s behavior in terms of
the needs he experiences. These needs are:
 Food and shelter (basic needs)
 Safety - such as security, protection and avoidance of
harm and risk
 To belong
 Ego status - receiving some special recognition
 Self-actualization, such as being given assignments
which are challenging

Behavioral Theories
 Frederick Herzberg’s “Motivation-Hygene
Theory” - defined two independent categories of
needs - hygene factors and motivators.
 Hygene Factors - salary, fringe benefits, security
(Civil Service), rules and regulations and
supervision.
 Motivators - Challenging assignment, increased
responsibility, recognition for work and individual
growth

Security’s Role
Security provides protection
services for the organization.
The protective service of
prevention is a primary
service provided.

Key Resources
 Human resources - identification of staffing needs
and selection, training, leading, and directing, and
retaining of effective personnel
 Financial resources
 Administrative resources
 Operational resources- basic and technology
based equipment to complete the mission

Budgeting and Planning
 A budget, a plan in financial terms, is an essential
element of management planning and control.
Three purposes for budgeting:
 Estimate the costs and expected revenues of
planned activities
 Provide a warning mechanism when variances
occur in actual numbers
 Exercise uniformity in fiscal control

 If the contribution of an operating function cannot
be quantified or cannot be shown to result in
greater net revenue, it is an axiom of sound
management that the function be reduced or
eliminated.

Zero based budgeting requires
that the benefits from an activity
be weighed against the benefits to
be lost if the planned activity is
carried out at a lesser level or not
done at all.

 Budgeting approaches can be bottom up and top
down or top down and bottom up.
 Top down and bottom up is preferred by some
because senior management initiates the process
by establishing acceptable expenditure limits and
guidelines prior to detailed planning by middle or
operating management

Line item budgets - each item is listed
by separate line
Program budgets - funds are allocated
by specific activity
Capital budgets - used for infrequently
purchased high dollar items

Budget costs are classified under one
of three categories:
 Salary expenses -
 Sundry expenses - all ongoing non-salary expenses
 capital expenses - for physical improvements,
physical additions or major expenditures for
hardware. Generally considered one time
expenses

A budget is also an instrument which
records work programs in terms of
appropriations needed to put them to
work.
It is also a management tool which is
devised to ensure that work programs
are carried out as planned

Carry budget out in three dimensions:
The operation/project must unfold as
planned
The operation/project must take place
when planned
It will not exceed the planned costs.

Budgets are normally
prepared annually or
biannually

Planning
Planning is an activity concerned
with proposals for the future, an
evaluation of those proposals, and
methods for achieving the
proposals

Management
Management is the activity
which plans, organizes and
controls activities in an
organization

M.B.O.
Management by objective
(MBO) is a systematic way of
achieving agreed to goals set
ahead of time.

Risk Assessment
 The possibility and probability of a risk resulting in
loss depends on the risk itself and the
preventative measures taken.
 Defining the problem
 Loss event profile
 Loss event probability
 Loss event criticality

Risk Assessment
Methods for handling a risk;
Accept
Eliminate
Reduce
Transfer (insurance)

Risk Management
 Crime and incident analysis is one of the first
tools to be applied to the assessment of risks
in order to determine vulnerability.
 When assessing vulnerability and the
response to risks, PML factors must be
considered.

Risk Management
PML stands for:
 Possible Maximum Loss - max loss sustained if a
given target is totally destroyed or removed
 Probable Maximum Loss - amount of loss a target
is likely to sustain
ALE stands for:
 Annual Loss Expectancy

Risk Management
Five principal crime risk
management methods:
Risk Avoidance
Risk Reduction
Risk Spreading
Risk Transfer
Risk Acceptance

Risk Management
Two basic types of protection
against crime are:
Fidelity and Surety Bonds
Burglary, robbery and theft insurance

Communications
The art of effective
communication is the most
important skill for successful h.
When a job is done poorly, it is
usually because the manager
failed to communicate clearly.

A.S.I.S. Ethics
 Perform professional duties
 observe the precepts of truthfulness, honesty and
integrity
 be faithful and diligent in discharging professional
responsibilities
 competent in discharging responsibilities
 Safeguard confidential information
 Not maliciously injure reputation of colleagues

CPO / LPO
 Crime Prevention Officer (CPO)
 a public servant with police powers
 Loss Prevention Officer (LPO)
 private sector individual deriving authority
from an employer

CPTED
Crime prevention through
environmental design (CPTED)
advocates that the proper
design and effective use of the
building environment leads to a
reduction in crime and in the
fear of crime.

Environmental Security
 Environmental Security (E/S) is an urban
planning and design process which integrates
crime prevention with neighborhood design
and urban development.
 Has little or no effect on white collar crime,
embezzlement, and fraud

Defensible Space by Oscar Newman
 Territoriality - attitude of maintaining perceived
boundaries. Outsider quietly recognized,
observer Natural Surveillance - ability of
inhabitants of particular territory to casually and
continually observe public areas.
 Image and Milieu - involve the ability of design to
counteract the perception that the area is isolated
and vulnerable to crime.
 Safe area - locales that allow for high degree of
observation by police

Security Survey
The cost of protection is measured
in:
Protection in depth
Delay time

Internal Theft
The greatest ongoing
threat to business.

Internal Losses
Pilferage - stealing in small
quantities over a long period of time
Embezzlement - taking
money/property entrusted to their
care
Shrinkage - loss of inventory
through any means

Employee Theft
Two major causes of employee
theft are:
personal problems
environment (inadequate
socialization)
Research indicates that dissatisfied
employees are most frequently
involved in internal theft.

Theft Triangle
 Consists of three elements:
 Motivation, and
 Opportunity, and
 Rationalization
 Loss prevention techniques are designed to
eliminate the opportunity

Security Tools
Deter criminal attack
Detect attacks that occur
Delay attack to allow time for
response by authorities
Deny access to selected targets

Crime Analysis
Data Collection
Analysis
Dissemination
Feedback

Safety and Loss Prevention
Unsafe acts cause 85% of
all accidents
Unsafe conditions cause
the remaining 15%

Safety and Loss Prevention
Incident - is anything from
serious injury to a breakdown in
quality control.
Accident - is an undesired
event resulting in physical harm
to a person or damage to
property.

Management
 Matrix management uses assets over a wide
spectrum of activity by forming ad hoc teams to
work on shorter term projects.

Liaison
 A linking up or connecting of parts of a whole in
order to bring about proper coordination of
activities.

Liaison
 Private security occasionally assists in law
enforcement investigations.
 Providing u/c operators, surv equip, CCTV, money
for rewards, O/T pay
 Information is the most frequently exchanged item.

Liaison
10 % to 30 % of all calls for
police service were for alarms
95% to 99% are false

Liaison
By the year 2000, the ratio of
private security personnel to
public police will be three to
one respectively.

Economic Crime
Financially motivated crime
with a direct impact on the
economy

Economic Crime
Indirect costs of economic
crime include:
Effects on business;
Effects on government; and
Effect on the public

Economic Crime
Liability is the largest
indirect cost of economic
crimes for the past 20 years

Substance Abuse
Narcotics - effects
Generally, there is no loss
of motor coordination or
slurred speech.

Substance Abuse
The poppy, cultivated in
many countries around the
world, is the main source of
non-synthetic narcotics

Substance Abuse
 Morphine
 One of the most effective drugs known for
the relief of pain.
 Codeine
 It is by far the most widely used “natural
occurring narcotic”.

Substance Abuse
 Thebaine
 the principal alkaloid in a species of poppy
which has been grown experimentally in the
U.S.
 converted into a variety of medical compounds
including codeine.

Substance Abuse
Etorphine and Diprenorphine
made from Thebaine
Etorphine is more than a
thousand times as potent as
morphine in it’s analgesic,
sedative and respiratory
depressant effect

Substance Abuse
Hydromorphone
Highly marketable with a
potency two to eight times as
great as morphine.

Substance Abuse
Meperidine (Pethidine)
Probably the most widely
used drug for the relief of
moderate to severe pain

Substance Abuse
Narcotic Antagonists
A class of compounds
developed to block and reverse
the effects of narcotics

Substance Abuse
Chloral Hydrate
The oldest of sleep inducing
drugs
liquid with a slightly acrid odor
and a bitter, caustic taste

Substance Abuse
Benzodiazepines
Depressants which relieve
anxiety, tension and muscle
spasms as well as producing
sedation and preventing
convulsions.

Substance Abuse
Stimulants
Of all abused drugs,
stimulants are the most
powerfully reinforcing.

Substance Abuse
Stimulants
The two most prevalent
stimulants are nicotine in
tobacco and caffeine.

Substance Abuse
Cocaine
The most potent stimulant
of natural origin.
Designated as a narcotic in
the US CSA

Substance Abuse
 Khat
 Compulsive use may result in manic behavior
with grandiose delusions or in a paranoid type
of illness, sometimes accompanied by
hallucinations.

Substance Abuse
Alcohol
The most used and abused
recreational drug. Physical
dependence can occur if
alcohol is taken regularly in
large quantities.

Drug Screening
 Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique
(EMIT) screens
 easy to administer and relatively inexpensive
 Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry
 used for confirming tests
 Initial positives are confirmed before any
personnel action is taken.
 Confirming tests should be done on the same
specimen.

Drug Screening
 To avoid liability in the screening process:
 Notify all to be tested of the screening process.
 Get consent from persons tested.
 Provide prior notice to incumbents that testing is a
condition of continued employment.
 Define the circumstances under which testing is
done.

Drug Screening
 To avoid liability in the screening process:
 Insure a positive identification and chain of custody
for specimen collection, identification and handling.
 Limit dissemination of test results.
 Maintain an Employee Assistance Program.
 Regularly verify results from test facilities.

A confidential informant is one
who furnishes information on the
expectation that his/her identity
will not be disclosed

Questions are the principal
tools of interviewing

In interviewing, leading or
suggestive questions which tend
to influence the answers given by
a subject should be avoided
while asking for the original
information.

When interviewing, the most
efficient means of resolving an
issue is to have the questions
converge on it by progressing
from the “general” to the
“specific.”

The place of an interview should
be well-lighted, adequately
ventilated, comfortably furnished
with a minimum of distraction

All admissions or confessions
must be voluntary

An “interview” is the questioning of a
person who has or is believed to have
information of official interest to the
investigation
Whereas
An “interrogation” is the questioning of
persons suspected of having committed
offenses or of persons who are reluctant
to make full disclosure of information in
their
possession and pertinent to an
investigation

As a general rule, the investigator
does not take notes during the
interrogation in order to keep from
disrupting the interrogator’s rhythm.

The most positive means of
identifying people is the
science of fingerprints

To a large measure, the
success of a polygraph
examination depends upon the
professional capabilities of the
investigator

“Control Questions” are used in
polygraph examinations to
determine whether the person is
a suitable subject for the
polygraph test and whether
capable of producing a specific
physical response

In crime scene searches, the
first thing for the investigator to
do is provide for any needed
medical attention and protect
the scene

Types of crime scene searches
are:
a. Circle search
b. Strip search
c. Grid search
d. Zone or sector search

The most important rule in
crime scene photography is to
photograph all evidence or
possible evidence before
anything is moved or touched

With regard to the collection of
evidence, “Chain of custody” is
a chronological written record
of those individuals who have
had custody of the evidence
from its initial acquisition until
its final disposition

A “Questioned Document” is a
document whose genuineness
is questioned, normally because
of origin, authenticity, age or
circumstances under which the
document was written

An “exemplar” is a document
requested by the investigator
which duplicates the text of a
questioned document and is
known to be the product of a
particular person or machine

There is no specific format for
the taking of notes required
during an investigation

Written statements used in
recording investigative facts
are primarily of the following
types:
a. Affidavit
b. Question/answer statement
c. Unsworn statements
d. Memorandum of interview

There are many qualifications to
be a good undercover investigator
such as:
a. Willingness to do the job
b. Self-confidence
c. Resourcefulness and
adaptability
d. Initiative and judgment
e. Patience

Probably the most important
aspect of an undercover operation
is a credible cover or background
story used by the undercover
agent

Knowing when and how to close
an undercover operation is as
important as knowing how to start
and proceed

The three most frequently used
investigative techniques are:
a. Informants
b. Surveillance
c. Undercover

There are two major types of
surveillance:
a. Physical
b. Technical

Surveillance is defined generally
as the secretive and continuos
observation of persons, places
and things to obtain information
concerning the activities and
identities of individuals

One of the most important
qualifications of the person
selected to conduct a physical
surveillance is to be able to
blend into the environment with
“normal” appearance

One of the most important rules
of physical surveillance is:
“DON’T LOOK THE SUBJECT
IN THE EYE”

As a general rule, sensitive
investigative reports, such as
undercover reports, should be
disseminated on a:
“need-to-know”
basis

The primary type of evidence to
be collected at a crime scene is
that which is relevant

A knowledge of basic accounting
terms is necessary in white-collar
investigations. Two important
terms are:
a. “Accounts payable”
money owed to suppliers
b. “Accounts receivable”
money owed by customers

One of the most common errors
made in the interrogation of a
subject in a larceny case is failure
to ask if he/she stole the object

An “open-ended” question affords
the interviewee opportunity to reply
in a narrative fashion
A “closed-ended” question
restricts an interviewee in the
amount of information given during
a reply

A friendly approach is
considered to be the most
productive in interviews

Many experts feel that the
reason a person steals the first
time is because the
“opportunity” was present

Searching motor vehicles for
contraband poses special
problems. One area often
overlooked is the “hub caps” of
a vehicle.

Counterfeiting of checks and
other documents has increased
primarily because of
sophistication of color-copying
machines

An oral confession, as well as
one which is not signed, still
has legal value

Proprietary Resources
 1. It is better to staff a proprietary
investigative unit with personnel who have
acquired prior investigative experience
 2. The investigator’s job should be
regarded as an “exempt” job because it is
considered to be “professional” to the extent it
requires special preparation

Proprietary Resources
 3. The two most important expensive items in
the budget of an investigations unit are:
 Personnel costs
 Communications cost

Evidence
 In obtaining known specimens of hair from victim
and/or suspect, submit at least 50 hairs from
various areas of the head
 A questioned specimen of writing should be
placed in a cellophane envelope and sealed

Evidence
 Charred documents should be placed on top of
loose cotton in a box and delivered to the
laboratory in person

Interviews and Interrogations
 The techniques most commonly used during an
interrogation are:
 Sympathetic
 Logic and reasoning

Interviews and Interrogations
 Two main approaches used in interrogations:
 Indirect approach
 exploratory in nature
 Direct approach
 suspect’s guilt is reasonably certain

Devices to detect deception
 Polygraph
 records changes in respiration, blood pressure,
pulse and skin’s sensitivity to electricity
 Psychological stress evaluation
 does not require body attachment
 It records and analyzes stress-related components
of the human voice
 with or without knowledge of individual being tested

Devices to detect deception
 Voice analyzer
 does not require body attachment
 Records sub-audible tremors in speech on a digital
tape
 Processes speech electronically and provides
immediate results for single or multiple-word
questions

Surveillance
 A surveillance can be either covert or overt
 Two basic forms of surveillance
 Physical - done by humans
 Technical - done by technical and electronic
equipment
 The most difficult type of surveillance is the
“moving surveillance.” This entails following the
subject wherever he goes

Claims Investigations
 Interviews in claims investigations should result in
obtaining statements
 A claims report serves several purposes:
 Provides a permanent record
 Provides a summary of all claims
 Brings together the various parts of the file

Embezzlement
 One of the most effective counter-measures
against embezzlement is a disciplined
environment with appropriate audits and other
appropriate safeguards

Fraud
 The most difficult type of fraud to deal with is the
fraudulent accident/injury claim, because no
preventive measure can be effectively instituted

Espionage
 The unethical practice of one company to learn
the secrets of their competitors

Explosions
 An explosion is defined as a sudden, violent and
noisy eruption, outburst or discharge by materials
acted upon with force such as fire, shock or
electrical charge which causes the material, either
solid or liquid, to convert into gas and violently
expand or burst

Explosions
 Three basic rates of explosions are:
 Flash fire
 Explosions
 Detonations
 multiple or compounded explosions

Explosions
 Two general types of substances with detonation
capabilities:
 Low explosives - Black powder, nitrocellulose,
smokeless powder
 High explosives - nitroglycerin, dynamite, nitro
starch, TNT, picric acid, mercury fulminate, tetryl,
lead azide nitromannite

Sabotage Investigation
 Any willful act designed to hinder or obstruct the
purposes for which a company operates.
 It is very difficult to identify and prove acts of
sabotage.
 A common method of sabotage is arson
 Quite effective and tends to destroy evidence

Theft investigation
 An effective “loss control program” will do much to
prevent internal theft.

Undercover Investigation
 Placement technique: The method to place the
agent in the undercover role. The job must cover
the area involved, have few controls and allow
the investigator to appear ordinary. The “tailor-
made job” should be avoided

Undercover Investigation
 Costs: Include the nominal wage paid to the
agent(s), the payroll taxes, and the fee paid to the
agency. The expense is the reason for daily
reports and informed control.
 Use undercover investigation when there is no
alternate method available

The basis for any industrial
espionage prevention program is
protection of information

There are many kinds of
information which a company
would like to keep in a
confidential status but not all
such information could be
classified as “trade secrets”

One definition of “trade secret” is “information
including formula, pattern, compilation, program,
device, method, technique or process that;
a. Derives independent economic value, actual
or potential, from not being generally known to
and not being readily ascertainable by proper
means, by other persons who can obtain
economic value from its disclosure or use,
and
b. Is the subject of efforts that are reasonable
under the circumstances to maintain its
secrecy.

“Proprietary information” is
information of value owned by or
entrusted to a company which
relates to the operations of the
company and which has not been
disclosed publicly

A “trade secret” is part of a
company’s proprietary information
but not all propriety information
necessarily fits the definition of
“trade secret” information

Generally “trade secrets” are given
a higher degree of legal protection
than other proprietary information

There are three basic
requirements of a “trade secret”
a. Must be of competitive
advantage
b. Must be secret
c. Must be used in the business
of the owner

Information must meet the following requirements
to fit the definition required of a “trade secret”
a. Must be specifically identifiable
b. Cannot be found in publicly accessible
sources
c. Should be disclosed by owner only to those
under a duty to protect secrecy
d. Persons afforded knowledge of secret
information must know it to be
confidential
e. The owners must be able to show they have
instituted adequate protective measures to
safeguard secrecy of date

Unless the owner of a trade secret
can furnish proof of diligent care
in the protection of a trade secret,
such trade secret may be lost

Patent laws provide that an
inventor who first develops a new
machine, manufacturing process,
composition or matter, plan or
design that is sufficiently novel
and useful can apply for and
receive an exclusive right to that
invention for a period of 17 years

“Inadvertent disclosure”
probably is the chief reason for
loss of information about
sensitive operations

One method important in
protection of sensitive information
is installing an effective
“awareness program” to assure
all employees are aware of the
existence of sensitive data in the
company and their
responsibilities in protecting such

Another important protective
device is the use of
“nondisclosure
agreements”(employee patent and
secrecy agreements) from
employees in which the employees
acknowledge their fiduciary
responsibility

A “non-competitive agreement”
is agreement on part of employee
upon leaving employment of one
company that the employee will
not accept employment with a
defined competitor for a stated
period of time

A telephone instrument may
also be utilized as a listening
device

In an electronic
countermeasure survey, note
that light switches and
electrical outlets are favorite
places to install listening devices

Most loss of proprietary information
occurs because of negligence

One very important protective
measure used to safeguard
sensitive data is to disclose
such only in a need-to-know
basis

through industrial espionage
methods or other methods of
outside theft accounts for a smaller
loss than through negligence;
however, the loss through outside
theft is more dangerous because
the data stolen is usually the most
valuable

One of the biggest problems in
designing a proprietary
information protection program is
caused by the large amount of
vital data processed and analyzed
electronically

Employees are the greatest
vulnerability in a proprietary
information protection program.
Accordingly, an employee
awareness program is necessary
whereby they are educated with
regard to their responsibilities in
protecting sensitive data.

Definitions
Proprietary Information
Information over which the
possessor asserts ownership and
which is related to the activities or
status of the possessor in some
special way

Definitions
Patent
A government grant conveying
and securing the exclusive right to
make, use, and sell an invention
for a term of years (seventeen)

Trade Secret
A trade Secret is a process or device
for continuous use in the operation of
the business
For trade secret protection, must
prove
 Secrecy
 Value
 Use in the owner’s business

Trade Secret
Trade Secret information is
entitled by law to more
protection than other kinds
of proprietary information

Trade Secret
The following are not trade
secrets:
Salary information
Rank surveys
Customer usage evaluation
Profitability margins
Unit costs
Personnel changes

Trade Secret / Patent
A trade secret remains secret as
long as it continues to meet
trade secret tests but the
exclusive right to patent
protection expires after 17
years

Trade Secret / Patent
 Since anyone can purchase a patent, there are
not industrial espionage targets in a patented
invention
 Trade Secrets are targets

Proprietary Information
 Two approaches used to deal with P.I.:
 “Property Concept”
 regards the information as having independent
value if it amounts to a trade secret
 “Fiduciaries”
 Imposition of duties upon certain classes of people,
other than the owner not to use or divulge info
without owner’s consent.

Proprietary Information
There are 3 broad threats to
proprietary information:
 It can be lost through inadvertent disclosure
 It can be deliberately stolen by an outsider
 It can be deliberately stolen by an insider

Competitive Intelligence Gathering
The most important function of
competitive intelligence gathering is
to alert senior management to
marketplace changes in order to
prevent surprise

Competitive Intelligence Gathering
A rich source of information is in
the information provided to
government regulators
Never reveal information to anyone
that you would not reveal to a
competitor

Industrial Espionage
Industrial espionage is the theft of
information by legal or illegal means.
It is more dangerous than
inadvertent disclosure by
employees in that highly valuable
information is stolen for release to
others who plan to exploit it.

Protection Programs
 The vulnerability assessment is conducted
from the perspective of the competitor and
considers:
 What critical information exists
 The period of time when the information is critical.
This may be a short period or may be for the life of
a product
 The identity of employees and indirect associates
who have access to the information

Eavesdropping Tactics &
Equipment
 “Wiretapping” - is the interception of
communication over a wire w/o participants
consent and requires physical entry into the
communication circuit
 “Bugging” - interception of communication w/o
participants consent by means of electronic
devices and w/o penetration of a wire.

Eavesdropping Tactics &
Equipment
 Eavesdropping is a psychological
traumaticEmployee experience for the victim.
 It is the most devastating of espionage
techniques.

Wired microphones
 Carbon microphone
 commonly used in a standard telephone handset
 Crystal microphone
 generates a small electrical current when the crystal is
vibrated by sound waves
 Contact microphone
 installed on a common wall with the target area

Wired microphones
 Spike microphone
 installed in a hole in the common wall
(not fully through)
 Dynamic microphone
 movement of a small wire near a permanent magnet
converts sound into electrical energy. Good
eavesdropping device which operates as a
loudspeaker in reverse

Wired microphones
 Pneumatic cavity device
 has a specially designed small cavity which picks up
surface vibrations. (Glass tumbler effect)
 Condenser microphone
 high fidelity use. Fragile and sensitive
 Electret microphone
 used primarily in P.A. and audio recording. (Extremely
small)

Wired microphones
 Omnidirectional microphone
 used in conferences. Picks up sound from many
directions around the room
 Cardioid microphone
 picks up sound from directly in front of mic
 Parabolic microphone
 gathers audio energy and directs it to a conventional
microphone in the center of a dish-type reflector

Wireless microphones
 A radio frequency (RF) device. Consists of:
A microphone
A transmitter
A power supply
An antenna; and,
A receiver

Light transformation
 1. Infrared light wave transmissions use light
waves invisible to the human eye. Sound waves
are converted to electronic impulses and the
pulses are used to modulate infrared light waves.
Similar to a TV remote

 2. Laser (Light Amplification by Stimulated
Emission of Radiation) transmission of sound does
not require any equipment in the surveillance area.
A laser beam focused on a window pane or a
reflective object in the room. The vibrating glass
modulates a reflected laser beam. Rarely used due
to interference.

 3. Fiber optic laser transmission uses a
communications grade glass fiber, filled with laser
light, routed through the surveillance area. Sound
waves cause the fiber to vibrate slightly, altering the
laser light.

Electromagnetic radiation
 Detectable electromagnetic energy is
generated by electronic information processing
devices. Detection is possible for several
hundred feet. The “faraday cage” or “tempest
shielding” is used for very sensitive equipment.

Telephone eavesdropping
Digital systems - originally thought
to be secure:
 Digit stream can be recorded and converted to
analog and speech.
 The control system is available from an on-site
terminal or from off-site through the network.
(Remote Maintenance Access Terminal) (RMAT)

The Eavesdropping Threat
 Risk for the electronic eavesdropper is low:
 electronic eavesdropping is easily committed
 chances are low that victim will find the device
 chances low, if found, can be tied to eavesdropper
 prosecution of eavesdropping cases is rare; and,
 the reward far outweighs the risk

Miscellaneous
Plenum
space above a dropped ceiling
Variable Path Encryption (VPE)
 is particularly useful to secure cellular signals.
A call is made to a toll-free number of the
VPE provider. A unit attached to the cellular set
and a unit at the VPE provider alter the
communication between them. The signal is
sent in the clear from the VPE provider to the
intended destination of the call

Miscellaneous
Time domain reflectometry
an electronic picture of the
telephone line at a given time which
is compared to the same line at a
future time

Miscellaneous
Audio masking
generation of noise at the
perimeter of the secure area to
cover or mask conversation. Music
is not used; “white” or “pink” noise is
not as easily filtered from the tape

In implementing an asset
protection program, one primary
objective should be to motivate all
employees to become part of the
protection program

All asset protection programs
should provide for adequate
feedback on the part of
participants

Although the chief executive in
charge of asset protection should
have knowledge of security
procedures and techniques, it is
more important that such executives
be able to manage and implement
the required systems approach

The three basic security
processes are:
a. Information
b. Physical
c. Personnel

Of the three basic security
processes, personnel security
is considered to be the most
critical

The basic elements of the personnel security process are:
a. Protects the organization against undesirable persons
through appropriate recruitment and hiring
safeguards
b. Protects the organization against dishonest
employees through appropriate control safeguards
c. Protects employees from discriminatory hiring or
termination procedures

In screening an applicant for a
potential position, the most
expensive technique should be
conducted last. For example,
an applicant should be
interviewed before conducting a
background investigation

Some deception practices to be on
the lookout for on applications
during the screening process prior to
hiring are:
a. Use of the term “self-employed”
to hide a “negative” period of time
b. Failure to sign the application
c. Failure to list supervisor
d. Gaps in employment or
residence

The concept of “security
awareness” is primarily a state of
mind. It is not the same as either
training or education but is
definitely related to both

One well known honesty test is the
“Reid Report”. This is a written
honesty test designed to reveal a
person’s trustworthiness and
attitude toward honesty

A popular psychological test used
by employees in personnel
screening procedures is the
Minnesota Multiphasic
Personality Investor (MMPI).
This test is designed to show
habits, fears, sexual attitudes,
depression, and evidence of
social introversion.

The two major tools used in
employee selection procedures
are:
a. The application
b. The interview

but necessary in the personnel security
process. The major purposes of this type
of investigation are:
a. To verify information on the application
form
b. To ascertain past employment experience
c. To obtain other information pertinent to
hiring decision either derogatory or
positive

The theft triangle sides consist of:
a. Motive
b. Desire
c. Opportunity

As a general rule, the questions relating to
the following should not be asked of
applicants during the screening process in
order to conform to equal employment
opportunity rules and regulations:
a. Race or ethnic background
b. Age, sex or marital status
c. Religion
d. Children
e. Disability

Approximately 10% of the
completed applications will have
falsifications serious enough for
management review before
making an offer of employment
“Rule of Ten”

The most important information
gathering tool in a background
investigation is the completed
application form

As a general rule, no application
more than 90 days old should be
considered without a re-interview
of the applicant

The principal behind integrity
tests is that an individual who
has developed strong attitudes
towards honesty is less likely to
engage in dishonesty than an
individual who possesses
weaker attitudes towards
dishonesty.

Employment gaps of more than
one month must be explained

The job description for a position
must include accurate
specifications and genuine skill
requirements which are described
concisely and without prejudice.

Purpose and Function
 Personnel Security’s primary purpose is to insure
that a firm hires employees best suited to assist
the firm in achieving its goals, and after hired,
assist in providing the necessary security to the
employees while they are carrying out their
functions

Purpose and Function
 Vulnerability to losses caused by employees is
measured in part by the character of the
employees, their awareness of assets protection
requirements, and their motivation to cooperate
 Personnel Security is the most critical because
theft is committed by people

The Job Description
 Accurate job specifications increase objectivity in
making selection decisions and reduce the
likelihood that irrelevant criteria and personal bias
will influence the decision

The Application
 There are virtually no restrictions on what can
be asked of an individual once an offer of
employment has been made.

Education
 Approximately 5 % of all professional applicants
falsify some aspect of their educational
background.

Interview
 A personal interview of each applicant should be
conducted by an trained interviewer

Background Investigation
 Should be completed prior to allowing the
applicant to commence employment
 The most important information gathering tool
in a background investigation is the completed
application form

Background Investigation
 At least five consecutive immediately preceding
years of employment are verified
 Personal contact is by far the most desirable
method of investigation

Psychological Testing
 A process whereby a subject’s reaction to a future
situation is predicted by an analysis of his/her
responses to a questionnaire.

 Types of psychological tests
 Skills and Aptitude tests
 for office, clerical, production and service positions
 Personality Inventories
 those with access to dangerous facilities
 Integrity Surveys
 for retail, leisure, hotel, financial, and fast food positions

 Integrity tests can be “clear purpose” tests which ask
direct questions or “veiled purpose” tests in which it
is not obvious that integrity is the primary concern.

 Integrity tests can be:
 pre-employment tests which measure the applicant’s
attitude toward counterproductive work behavior
 Incident specific questionnaires which are used to
determine who committed a specific act
 Persons who find these tests offensive are twice
as likely to admit to a criminal or drug abuse
behavior or to display counterproductive work
attitudes

Miscellaneous Matters
 Military service should be confirmed by having the
applicant submit a copy of the service record
forms.
 Bonding is used by some firms as a type of
insurance in the event that the company internal
controls prove ineffective and a loss occurs.
 Bonding should never be considered as an
alternative to an effective security program

The Bill of Rights
is the
first ten amendments
to the
Constitution of the U.S.

First amendment
provides
for freedom of speech, religion,
press, assembly and to petition
the government

Second amendment
provides the right to
keep arms (weapons)

Forth amendment
prohibits
unreasonable searches and
seizures and also sets out the
requirement that a warrant be
supported by probable cause

Fifth amendment
prohibits
double jeopardy, compulsory
self incrimination, and
deprivation of life, liberty or
property without due process

Sixth amendment provides that
the accused have a speedy
public trial, know the charges
against him, confront
witnesses against him, have
compulsory process to obtain
his witnesses, and have
assistance of a counsel for his
defense

Seventh amendment
provides
the right to trial by jury

Eighth amendment
prohibits
excessive bail, excessive fines
and
cruel and unusual punishment

“Miranda warning” must be given
before “custodial” interrogation. The
suspect is advised:
a. You have the right to remain silent
b. Anything you say may be used
against you
c. You have the right to contact an
attorney
d. If you cannot afford an attorney,
one will be provided free of
charge

Generally, Miranda warnings
need not be given by security
officers

The crime of “robbery” is the
unlawful taking of property from
the immediate possession of
another by force or the threat of
force

“Larceny” is the unlawful taking
of property from the possession
of another with the intent of
depriving the owner of it
permanently

“Vicarious liability” is the legal
concept which holds the employer,
as well as the employee, liable if
the “wrong” was committed while
the employee was acting within the
scope of employment

Vicarious Liability
 An employer may avoid liability for the
tortious acts of another if the hiring contract is
such that the relationship of “independent
contractor” on the part of the tort feasor has
been established.

Vicarious Liability
 But, the employer may be held liable for the acts of
an independent contractor when:
 The work contracted for is wrongful per se
 The work contracted for is a public nuisance
 The work contracted for is inherently dangerous
 The act of the independent contractor violates a duty
imposed on the employer by contract.
 The wrongful act by the independent contractor
violates a statutory duty.

“Respondeat superior” is the legal
rule that an employer is responsible
for the action or lack of action of an
employee taken within the course of
employment.
Respondeat Superior (Let the master
respond)

Basic Aspects
Respondeat Superior:
The right of control and not
necessarily the exercise of
that right is the test of the
relation of the master to the
servant.

Note the difference between a
“crime” and a “tort”.
A crime is a violation of the
government’s penal laws;
whereas a tort is a legal wrong
done to another person
(a civil wrong)
No agreement between parties is
required.

A
crime can also be a tort
examples:
battery
trespass
assault

Most crimes are of two primary
types;
a. The federal definition of a
“felony” is: a crime
punishable by imprisonment for
a term exceeding one year
b. A “misdemeanor” is any
crime which is not a felony

“Corpus delicti” is a legal term for
the “body of the crime” or the
elements of the crime which must
be proved.
It does not mean a dead body

Treason is the only crime
specifically mentioned in the U.S.
Constitution

The criminal code of the United
States is found in Title 18

There are no Federal common
law crimes

Essential elements of the crime of negligence:
a. A duty owed by the defendant to the
injured party
b. A violation of that duty by failure to
follow a required standard of conduct
c. A causal connection between the
negligent conduct and the harm
d. Actual loss or damage to the plaintiff

A fidelity bond is insurance on a
person covering that person’s
dishonesty

“Strict liability” refers to the legal
concept that one may be held
responsible for some acts without
the necessity to prove criminal
intent (mens rea). Strict liability
statutes are usually in the areas of
public health, safety and welfare
and they are generally classified as
“mala prohibitum”

“Compensatory damages”
are
actual damages
directly
related to the amount of the loss

“Punitive damages” are
designed to punish the defendant
and to deter him, and others,
from a repetition of the wrongful
act

Generally,
searches by security officers
are not subject to constitutional
regulation under the 4th
Amendment

In judging whether certain
conduct is negligent, the law
uses the standard of
reasonableness. The
“reasonable person” is one of
ordinary prudence who exercises
due care in a situation such as
that under litigation

“Deadly force”,
as a general rule, should be used
by law enforcement officers as a
last resort and then only when
the life of the officer or another
person is in jeopardy

An “express contract” is one
which is clear, definite, direct,
and spelled out by explicit words

An “implied contract” is one
which is not spelled out clearly
by explicit words, but is
interpreted by analyzing
surrounding circumstances or
the actions of the persons
involved

“Entrapment” is a defense in
which the defendant alleges that
he was induced by government
officers or agents to commit a
crime which he would not have
committed without the
inducement

Statements made by subjects
being interrogated must be
“voluntary”

The concept of the grand jury
originated in England

An “indemnity bond” is an
insurance contract designed to
reimburse an individual or
organization for possible
losses of a particular type

A “citizen’s arrest” is an arrest
by a private person, rather than
by a public law enforcement
officer. This authority originated at
common law and is the authority
of most arrests by proprietary and
contract security officers

A law enforcement officer may
arrest for a felony based solely
on “probable cause”.

A private security officer may
arrest for a felony based in
“probable cause”, but there is no
margin for error; otherwise, a suit
for false arrest may be litigated

The “plain view” doctrine holds
that if police, in the course of
lawful duty, recognize a plainly
visible item as evidence of a
crime, the item may be seized
and admitted in a criminal trial

Probable Cause is that
combination of facts and
circumstances which would
warrant a person of reasonable
caution and prudence to believe
that a crime has been committed
and that the person to be arrested
is the one who committed the
crime.

The Supreme Court of Terry v.
Ohio authorized “stop and frisk”
technique without probable cause
where an experienced officer had
good reason to suspect criminal
activity which was dangerous to
the officer or others

The undercover agent must know
the law regarding “entrapment.”
“Entrapment” is defined as the acts
of officers of the government in
inducing a person to commit a crime
not contemplated by him/her in
order to initiate a criminal
investigation

Under no circumstances will an
undercover agent be permitted to
engage in “malum in se” crime
such as murder, burglary, rape,
arson, robbery, etc.

The Fair Credit Reporting Act,
among other things, requires
written notice to the applicant
prior to an investigation by a
third party
(Consumer Reporting Agency)

As a general rule, it is
permissible to ask about possible
“convictions” but not “arrests” on
the employment questionnaire

Basic Aspects
Civil law is the statutory and
common law in which private
rights and remedies are found.
Of the 50 titles of the United
States Code, 49 deal primarily
with civil matters.

Basic Aspects
 Express Contract is an actual agreement of the
parties, the terms of which are openly uttered or
declared at the time the contract is made.
 Implied Contract is one not created or evidenced
by the explicit agreement of the parties, but is
inferred by law.

Basic Aspects
Price is the dollar value stated
in the contract.
Reasonable value is the dollar
value of goods and/or services
determined by a court or
arbitrator.

Basic Aspects
In the transportation of goods,
recovery of damages may be
estopped by a “time bar” clause
in the shipping documents
(contracts).

Basic Aspects
 The concept of tort liability operates to:
 Compensate a victim for his loss
 Act as a deterrent for future conduct of the same
kind
 Serve as evidence of society’s disapproval of
the wrong

Basic Aspects
The basic elements of
intentional tort liability are:
An act or omission
Which brought about the intended
result

Basic Aspects
 Examples of intentional torts:
 Battery
 Assault
 False imprisonment
 Trespass to land or to chattels (Conversion)
 Fraud / Misrepresentation
 Defamation
 Invasion of privacy

Basic Aspects
 Generally, proprietary security officers are
servants, whereas contract security personnel
are employees of the supplying agency and
therefor may not be considered servants of
the employing organization.

“Stare Decisis”
The Law of Precedence

Felony
Federal statutes provide for five
classes of felonies ranging is
punishment from imprisonment
for a term exceeding one year
to death or life imprisonment.

Misdemeanor
Three classes of
misdemeanors:
 Class A - One year or less but more than 6
months
 Class B - Six months or less, but more than
30 days
 Class C - Thirty days or less, but more than
5 days

Infraction
Federal statutes provide for one
class of infraction for which the
penalty ranges from 5 days or
less imprisonment to no
authorized penalty.

“Mala in se”
Those crimes which are bad in
themselves, ie...
Murder
Rape
All Common Law crimes were
mala in se.

“Mala prohibita”
Those acts which are
considered “offenses” by the
passage of statutes. Generally
no criminal intent is required;
the mere accomplishment of the
act is sufficient for criminal
liability.

Corpus delicti
 The body of the crime. The combination of the
elements which provide proof of the crime is the
corpus delicti.
 Consists of:
 Mens Rea (criminal intent)
 Actus Rea (the forbidden act)
 Coming together of the above two

Law of Causation
 There must be a cause and effect relationship
between the act of the accused and the resulting
harm. The Law of Causation - a person is
presumed to intend the natural and probable
consequences of his act. But, the accused takes
his victims as he finds him.

“Motive”
Motive is not an essential
part of a crime; it is not part
of the corpus delicti.

Most crimes require the
combination of an act and an
intent, which must be
simultaneous.

“Negligence” differs from
“recklessness,” in that in
recklessness, conduct is
governed by the actual state of
mind of the accused.

“Alibi”
The alibi defense is one of
physical impossibility. The
testimony of an alibi witness
must cover the entire time of
the crime.

“Mistake of Fact”
 The “Mistake of Fact” defense is used when
one commits a violation of the law in good
faith with a reasonable belief that certain facts
existed, which would make the act innocent if
indeed they did exist.

Laws of Arrest
 The basic elements which constitute an arrest
are:
 A purpose or intention to effect the arrest
 An actual or constructive seizure or detention of the
person to be arrested
 A communication by the arresting officer to the
arrestee of his intention to place him under arrest.
 An understanding by the person to be arrested that
he is being arrested.

Laws of Arrest
The mere words “you are
under arrest:” will not
satisfy the seizure or
detention element of
arrest.

Laws of Arrest
A warrant is an order for the
arrest of a person.
A summons directs the
defendant to appear before a
court at a stated time and place.

Laws of Arrest
When a private citizen acts in aid
of a known law enforcement officer,
the citizen has the same rights and
privileges as the officer and is
protected from liability even if the
officer was acting illegally.

Laws of Arrest
 Generally, private citizens may arrest any
person who has committed an offense in their
presence or for a felony not committed in their
presence. BUT, the arrest can be justified only
by further showing that the felony was actually
committed by the person arrested.

Search and Seizure
 The “Exclusionary Rule” excludes evidence,
otherwise admissible, obtained by methods
which violate Constitutional guarantees of the
Forth Amendment which protects an individual
in his person and property.

The “Tainted Fruit of the Poisonous
Tree” doctrine is that any and all
evidence obtained as a result of an
unreasonable search cannot be used
against the accused. Any other
evidence obtained as a result of the
original unlawful invasion is dubbed the
“tainted fruit of the poisonous tree” and
may not be used against the person
whose privacy was violated.

4th Amendment
 The 4th Amendment does not specifically
authorize a search without a warrant. We
have legal searches without a warrant
because of court decisions.

Searches
 A private security officer has only the search
authority of a private citizen.
 The Fourth Amendment does not apply to
searches by private persons.
 Evidence discovered by private search is
admissible in a criminal trial and is not subject
to the Exclusionary Rule.

Confession / Admission
 A confession is a statement in which a person
acknowledges guilt of a crime.
 An admission is a statement in which a person
admits a fact or facts which would tend to prove
him guilty of a crime, but which does not
constitute a full acknowledgement of guilt of a
crime.

Confession / Admission
The fundamental test
regarding the use of
confessions and
admissions is the “free and
voluntary” test.

Federal Bureau of
Investigation (DOJ)
 Investigative Jurisdiction over Federal criminal
violations and concurrent jurisdiction with the
DEA on Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs.
Includes the:
 National Depository of Fingerprints;
 National Crime Information Center (NCIC);
 National Center for the Analysis of Violent
Crime;

Federal Bureau of
Investigation (DOJ)
National Center for the Analysis of
Violent Crime;
Violent Criminal Apprehension
Program;
Forensic Science Training and
Research Center;
National Bomb Data Center

U.S. Marshall’s Service
(DOJ)
 Operational priorities include:
 Physical security for Federal courts
 Custodian of Federal evidence
 Service of Federal Criminal and civil process
 Witness-protection program
 Federal Assets Forfeiture and Seizure
 Transportation of Federal prisoners
 Conduct fugitive investigations

Immigration and Naturalization
Service (DOJ)
 Responsible for administering U.S.
Immigration and Naturalization laws.
 Regulates non-resident aliens
 Determines admissibility of aliens into this
country.
 Handles deportation proceedings

U.S. Secret Service
(Treasury Department)
Responsible for the protection of
the President, Vice-President and
their families as well as other
designated persons.
Investigative responsibilities include
counterfeiting, credit card fraud and
bank failures

Customs Service
Enforces customs-related
laws and regulations
Collect import duties.

Internal Revenue Service
Administers and enforces Federal
tax laws.
Special intelligence division
investigates organized crime,
gambling, and tax stamp
violations.

B.A.T. F.
 Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearm
 Administration and enforcement of U.S.
gun and explosive laws.
 Training and investigative assistance in
arson and bomb investigations.
 Trace of weapons for law enforcement
agencies

Defense Investigative Service
(Department of Defense)
Administers the Defense
Industrial Security
Program.

F.E.M.A.
Federal Emergency
Management Agency
An independent agency
Primary responsibility of dealing
with disaster planning.

F.E.M.A.
The Director of FEMA reports
to the President and works
closely with the National
Security Council, Cabinet, and
White House staff

Coast Guard
(Department of Transportation)
Security and safety of ports.
Investigations of marine-related
accidents, casualties and
violations.
Safety standards for commercial
vessels.

Federal Aviation Administration
Issue and enforcement of rules
and regulations for air commerce
and air safety.
Certification of airports and
inspection of air-navigation
facilities.

Federal Highway Administration
Regulatory jurisdiction over
safety and performance of
commercial motor carriers
engaged in interstate
commerce. Authorized to
investigate violations of:

Federal Highway Administration
Highway Safety Act
Interstate Commerce Act
Explosive and Dangerous
Articles Act

U.S. Army Corp of Engineers
Flood control planning
should be coordinated with
the U.S. Corp of Engineers.

“NOAA”
Progressive situation reports of
floods are available from the
National Oceanic and
Atmosphere Administration
(NOAA).

National Weather Service
 The NWS begins issuing hurricane advisories
as soon as there are indications a hurricane is
forming and it is given a name. The purpose
of an advisory is to:
 Tell where the storm is located
 Intensity of winds
 Speed and direction of movement

Bureau of Vital Statistics
Records of births,
marriages and deaths

The Age Discrimination in
Employment Act of 1967
Prohibits discrimination
against applicants or
employees over 40 years of
age.

Equal Pay Act of 1963
 Requires that employees receive equal pay
for equal work, requiring equal skill, effort and
responsibility regardless of sex; however, the
employer may pay different rates at different
establishments.

The National Labor Relations
Act
 Known as the “Wagner Act”
 The basic test of an unfair labor practice is
whether it results in coercion or discrimination
prohibited by the labor act.

Act
 Management representatives may not attend a union
meeting.
 Undercover operations are neither conducted nor
authorized where and when labor organizing efforts or
labor problems are occurring.

Act
Advise security personnel that
their actions will be considered
“employer actions”.

Act
 When an employee reasonably believes that an
interview may lead to or result in disciplinary
action and requests that a union representative
be present, union representation must be
allowed (The Weingarten Rule).

Act
Management is not required
to advise an employee of this
right of representation or to
“bargain” with the union
representative.

Act
The NLRA specifically
provides that guards and
non-guard employees
cannot be members of the
same bargaining unit.

The Labor Management
Relations Act
Known as the Taft-Hartley Act
Forbids unions from:
Coercing an employer to pay for
work not performed
(Featherbedding)

Labor Management Reporting
and Disclosure Act
 Known as the Landrum-Griffin Act
 Established safeguards and restrictions on union
officers and management conduct regarding their
members, also prohibits either union or employer
from “Hot Cargo” agreements.

Labor Management Reporting
and Disclosure Act
 A “Hot Cargo” agreement is defined as one
where the employer agrees to cease doing
business with any person or to cease dealing in
any products of another employer.

Strikes
 Economic Strike - The most frequent type
 takes place where there is a vote to stop work
because a satisfactory employment agreement has
not been negotiated.
 Economic strikes must be preceded by at least a
60-day notice that the union desires to modify the
existing collective bargaining agreement.

Strikes
The Unfair Labor Practice Strike
 When strikers strike to force discontinuance of an alleged
violation by an employer of the labor law.
 This type of strike permits no time for effective
planning by security.
 All striking employees who request to return to their jobs
must be allowed to do so by their employer.

Strikes
Three phases of security
involvement during strikes:
Pre-strike planning stage
Strike operation plan phase
Post-strike intelligence phase

Strikes
The main goals of the
security force during labor
disturbances should be:
 To lessen potential for violence
 To adequately deal with violence when it occurs
 To prevent death, injury, and damage to property
 To maintain order
 To preserve the integrity of the work site.

Strikes
The security strike operations
plan is a comprehensive
statement of all policies,
procedures and activities to be
done during the strike period.

Strikes
The security strike operations
plan
 The plan should be made available to each security
supervisor and higher manager.
 It should not contain sensitive information
 Effective planning of access control indicates uses the
fewest entries possible and those used should be
located where easily policed.
 Management should develop a prior policy, which is
understood and adhered to by all parties, regarding
arrests during a strike. A sound policy would be not to
agree to amnesty for serious offenses (felonies).

Strikes
 The chief weapon of the strikers is the ability
to discourage people from entering plant
premises and to prevent movement of goods
and materials to and from the plant.

Strikes
 “Lockout” - is the refusal of management to
allow members of the bargaining unit on the
premises. A “lockout” may be used legally in the
face of an imminent violent strike; however,
notice of a “lockout” must be given to the
bargaining unit or a charge of unfair labor
practice could result.

Occupational Safety and
Health Act (OSHA)
 The Williams-Steiger Occupational Safety
and Health Act (29 USC 651-678) was
signed into law in December 1970 and
became effective on April 28, 1971. The
primary responsibility for administration
of this act falls upon the Department of
Labor.

Health Act (OSHA)
 The statute states that every employee “affecting
Firearm” is subject to the provisions of OSHA.
This means just about all employees in every
industry are covered. One exception is the
mining industry.

Health Act (OSHA)
 The general purpose of OSHA is to provide safe
and healthful Firearm conditions for employees.
 All businesses are required under OSHA to
have a person or persons trained in first aid
available.

Health Act (OSHA)
 OSHA Form #200 - a log and summary of
occupational injuries and illness.
 OSHA Form #101 - a supplemental record of
occupational injuries and illness.

Health Act (OSHA)
 An “injury” results from a single incident. A one
time chemical exposure is an injury.
 An “illness” is an abnormal condition or disorder
caused by exposure to environmental factors in
employment.

Health Act (OSHA)
 Records on all work-related deaths, injuries, and
illnesses must be current and must be available to
Labor Department inspectors upon request. All
records concerning injury/illness must be
maintained for at least 5 years.

Health Act (OSHA)
 If an on-the-job accident results in the death of an
employee or the hospitalization of 3 or more
employees, the nearest OSHA office must be
contacted within 8 hours.

Health Act (OSHA)
 In Marshall vs. Barlow, the Supreme Court held
that officials of OSHA cannot inspect businesses
without first obtaining warrants. This ruling
does not apply to a few specialized industries
such as firearms and liquor industries.

Health Act (OSHA)
 It is not necessary for OSHA inspectors to show
“probable cause” to obtain a warrant. The
inspectors only must show that the inspection is
part of a general administrative plan to enforce
the safety laws.

Health Act (OSHA)
When they find conditions of
“imminent danger”,
compliance officers may
REQUEST, not demand
shutdown.

Health Act (OSHA)
Most citations allege violations
of specific safety and health
standards or of the posting and
record keeping requirements.

Health Act (OSHA)
 Citations based on the “general duty” clause are
increasing in frequency and will further increase
if OSHA tries to regulate conditions such as
workplace violence. There is no “free first bite” !!

Health Act (OSHA)
Citations are not issued to
employees. A citation is
issued to the employer if
employees fail to comply with
safety and health standards.

Health Act (OSHA)
Types of citations include;
Imminent Danger
Serious Violation
Non-serious Violation
De Minimis Violation
Willful Violation
Repeated Violation

Health Act (OSHA)
 Types of citations include;
 Imminent Danger
 any condition or practice such that a danger
exists which could reasonably be expected to
cause death or serious physical harm
immediately, or before the imminence of such
danger can be eliminated through the
enforcement procedures provided by this act.

Health Act (OSHA)
 Serious Violation
 a substantial that death or serious physical harm
could result and the employer knew, or with the
exercise of reasonable diligence, should have
known of the hazard. A fine not exceeding
$7,000 must be assessed.

Health Act (OSHA)
 Non-serious Violation
 The condition is likely to cause injury, but not
death or serious physical harm, or the employer
did not know of the hazard. (A tripping hazard
on a level surface). A fine of $7,000 or less may
be imposed.

Health Act (OSHA)
Types of citations include;
De Minimis Violation
No immediate or direct
relationship to safety or health.

Health Act (OSHA)
 Willful Violation
 The employer intentionally or knowingly
violated the act, or was aware of a hazard and
made no attempt to correct it. The minimum
penalty is $5,000 - max. of $70,000

Health Act (OSHA)
 Repeated Violation
 ar second or subsequent citation for violation of
the same standard or general duty clause. The
minimum penalty is $5,000 - max. of $70,000.

The American With Disabilities Act
of 1990 (ADA)
 Regulations to implement Title 1 years
Employment) are issued by the Equal
Opportunity Employment Commission
(EEOC). The regulations cover all employers
with 15 or more employees in industries
affecting commerce.

of 1990 (ADA)
 Those not protected under the Act:
 Transvestites (Section 508)
 Current illegal drug users (Section 510)
 Homosexuals, bisexuals, persons with
sexual behavior or compulsive gambling
disorders, kleptomaniacs, and pyromaniacs
(Section 511)

of 1990 (ADA)
 Any medical examination or inquiry into the
disability of an applicant y employee is
prohibited unless the employer can show a job
relationship and a consistent business necessity.
Medical examinations after an offer of
employment has been made must be given to all
prospective employees.

of 1990 (ADA)
Readily achievable means easily accomplished
without much difficulty or expense.
Accessibility means free of barriers that could
prevent a person with impaired mobility from getting to a
desired location in the facility, or to use lavatories,
lounges, lunchrooms, public telephones, drinking
fountains or other amenities.

of 1990 (ADA)
 The World Health Organization (WHO) definition
of “impairment” is a permanent or transitory
psychological, physiological, or anatomical loss or
abnormality of structure or function (an amputated
limb, paralysis after polio, diabetes, mental
retardation, impaired hearing or sight).

of 1990 (ADA)
 The WHO definition of “disability” includes
restrictions on,I or the prevention of, carrying out
an activity because of an impairment, in the
manner or within the range considered normal for
a human.

of 1990 (ADA)
Under the ADA, a “disability” is
a physical or mental impairment
that substantially limits one or
more of the major life activities
of an individual.

of 1990 (ADA)
 The WHO defines “handicap” as a disability which
interferes with what is expected at a particular time
in one’s life (inability to care for oneself,
communicating thoughts and concerns,
developing a capacity for independent economic
activity).

Federal Sentencing Guidelines
The 1987 Individual
Sentencing Guidelines
tended to narrow the range
of punishment for a certain
crime and to standardize
sentencing.

The 1991 Organizational
Sentencing Guidelines cover
anti-trust, money laundering,
fraud, ERISA, securities, and
environmental law violations.

 A $20 million gain to a company from an anti-trust
violation could result in a criminal fine ranging
from $1 million to $80 million depending on the
guidelines applied.

The deterrence and detection
objectives are reached by
requiring every company:
To make restitution to any party
injured by the criminal conduct; and
To pay a fine which is not tax
deductible

The fine consists of a “base
fine” which is multiplied by a
“culpability score” to
determine a minimum and a
maximum range within which
the court impose a fine.

The “base fine” is the greater of:
The pre-tax gain to the company
from the crime, or
The loss to any party intentionally
injured by the crime, or
From $5,000 to $72,500, determined
from a “level of seriousness” table.

In determining the
“culpability score”, every
business starts with a rating
of 5 and aggravating or
mitigating factors move the
score within the range of 0 to
10.

Aggravating factors, include;
 Participation, tolerance, or disregard of criminal
conduct by high level personnel or substantial
authority personnel in a large organization. (Add 5
points).
 A history of similar conduct within the last 5 years.
(Add 2 points)
 Obstruction of justice in the course of the
investigation, prosecution or sentencing. (Add 3
points)

Mitigating factors, include;
 Self-reporting, cooperation with an investigation, and
accepting responsibility for the conduct of the
organization. (Subtract 5 points)
 An effective compliance program(s) to prevent and
detect criminal conduct. (Subtract 3 points)

An effective
compliance program
has seven mandatory
components:

1. Establishment of compliance
standards which are reasonably
capable of preventing criminal
conduct.
2. Specific responsibility for high
level management to oversee the
standards.

3. Communication of standards
and offering training in compliance
issues to employees.
4. Tests of the compliance system
with auditing, monitoring, and
other tests designed to detect
criminal conduct.

5. Due care to insure that
discretionary authority is not
delegated to individuals with a
propensity to engage in illegal
conduct.
6. Enforcement using disciplinary
procedures which include provisions
for discipline of individuals who fail

7. All reasonable steps, after an
offense has been detected, to
prevent a future similar
occurrence.

A determination, after the
fact, that an effective
compliance program did not
exist will probably result in a
probation status which may
require that the company:

1. Publicize its criminal acts at its
own expense as directed by the
court.
2. File periodic financial reports
with the court
3. Submit to periodic examination
by court appointed experts.

One 100 watt light bulb
equals approximately
1700 lumens

Illuminance
a. measured in Lux, representing the
number of lumens per square
meter or Foot-candles (FC), the number
of Lumens per square foot
b. One Foot-candle is equal to 10.76
Lux
(approximately to a ratio of 1:10)

Candle power - one candle power is the
amount of light emitted by one standard
candle
Lumen - One lumen is the amount of light
required to light an area of one square foot to
one candle power
Foot candle - One foot candle equals one
lumen of light per square foot of space. The
intensity of illumination is measured in foot
candles

Specifications:
carries the most weight and is
considered the controlling
document of the construction

Three basic types of glass:
1. Sheet Glass : least expensive and
most vulnerable to breakage
2. Plate Glass : mirrors
3. Float Glass : most recent
advance in glass manufacture

Tempered Glass:
a. treated to resist breakage
b. 3 to 5 times stronger
Laminated Glass:
a. used in Detention Facilities
b. Highly shatter resistant

Bullet resisting glass:
a. Laminated glass
b. “spalding” will not occur
** small fragments that fall off
the backside of the material

Acrylic glass:
a. good for bullet resisting
applications
b. not good for burglary
resistance

SAFES:
Class M: 1/4 hr
Class 1: 1/2 hr
Class 2: 1 hr
Class 3: 2 hrs
Note: A burglary safe is not
normally fire rated

4 stages of fire
1. Incipient stage
2. Smoldering stage
3. Flame stage
4. Heat stage

Color Rendition
The ability of a lamp to
faithfully reproduce the
colors seen in an object
measured as a Color Rendition
Index (CRI) on a scale of 0 to 100

Color Rendition
Index
Incandescent : 100
Halogen : 100
Fluorescent : 75-100
Metal Halide : 70
Mercury Vapor: 50
High pressure sodium: 20
Low pressure sodium : 5

Protective Lighting
There are 8,760 hours in a
year
a lamp that is on for 8 hours
a day will burn for 2,290
hours per year

A cost benefit analysis is a
direct comparison of the costs
of the operation of the security
unit and all security measures
with the amount of corporate
property saved or recovered as
well as reduction of losses
caused by injuries and lost
production time.

No security measure should be
recommended which is not
cost effective

The perimeter band of lighting
must provide a minimum
intensity of 0.2 foot candles,
measured horizontally 6 inches
above ground, at least 30 feet
outside the exclusion area barrier

are:
a. Breaking an electrical circuit
b. Interrupting a light beam
c. Detecting sound
d. Detecting vibration
e. Detecting a change in
capacitance due to
penetration of an electrostatic
field

The three main lines of defense for
physical security are:
a. Perimeter barriers - located at outer
edge of property - first line of
defense
b. Exterior walls, ceilings, roofs and
floors of buildings themselves,
considered the second line of
defense
c. Interim areas within the building

Specifications regarding use of chain-link fences are as follows:
a. Must be constructed of 7 foot material excluding top guard
b. Must be of 9 gauge or heavier
c. Mesh openings are not to be larger than 2” per side
d Should be a twisted and barbed salvage at top and
bottom
e. Must be securely fastened to rigid metal or
reinforced concrete posts set in concrete
f. Must reach within 2 inches of hard ground or paving
g. On soft ground must reach below surface deep enough to
compensate for shifting soil or sand

The most frequently used
fencing for security purposes is
chain-link fencing

An advantage of chain-link
fencing is that it affords visibility
on both sides of the perimeter
barrier to police and security
officer

The cone of illumination from
light source should be directed
downward and away from the
structure or area protected and
away from security personnel
assigned to such protection

Any safe that weighs less than
750 pounds should be
anchored to building structure

Combination to safe locks and
padlocks should be changed at
least once each 12 month period
and on the loss or possible
compromise of the combination, or
on the discharge, suspension or
reassignment of any person
having knowledge of combination

Inventories of key systems
should be conducted at least
annually

There is a similarity between
physical security surveys and crime
prevention surveys, but one of the
differences is that physical security
measures are oriented more toward
the security of property and
facilities whereas crime prevention
measures focus on the deterrence of
criminal activity regardless of the
physical safeguards available.

The number of personnel required
to cover a single post around the
clock providing coverage for three
eight-hour shifts is 4-1/2 (5 actual
persons).
This allows for vacations, sick leave,
etc.

Where possible, the parking area
should be separated from all other
areas of the facility

A vibration sensor detects forced
entry through metal barriers
placed over windows and
ventilators or attempts to drill,
saw or cut through walls, ceilings,
floors or doors

As a general rule, windows less
than 18 feet from the ground or
less than 14 feet from trees,
poles or adjoining buildings
should be protected if they are
larger than 96 square inches in
area

Signs are advisable at no more
than 100 foot intervals along the
perimeter stating that the
property is not open to the
public and intruders will be
prosecuted

A clear zone of 50 feet or more
should exist between the
perimeter barrier and
structures within the protected
area except when a building
wall constitutes part of the
perimeter barrier

Gaseous discharge lamps are
mercury vapor lamps (soft blue
light) and sodium vapor lamps
(soft yellow light). They require
2-5 minutes to light when cold
and longer periods to re-light
when hot.

A light source for perimeter
fence lighting should be located
sufficiently within the protected
area and above the fence so the
light pattern will cover a
ground area

Barriers
 Two major categories
 Structural
 Natural
 Three basic purposes
 Deter/delay
 Psychological deterrent
 Supplement and/or complement security needs

Barriers
 When the greatest degree of security is
essential, two lines of structural barriers should
be installed on the perimeter. These barriers
should be separated by not less than 15 feet and
not more than 150 feet for best protection and
control

Barriers
 Four types of fencing authorized for use in
protecting restricted areas are:
 Chain-link
 Barbed wire
 Concertina
 Barbed tape

Barriers
 Chain-link
 Must be 7 foot high excluding top guard
 9 gauge or heavier
 Mesh openings not to be larger than 2 inches
 twisted and barbed salvage at top and bottom
 fastened to rigid metal or reinforced concrete posts
set in concrete
 Must reach within 2” of hard ground or paving
 Soft ground - reach deep enough to compensate for
shifting soil

Barriers
 Chain-link
 Most frequently used fencing for security purposes
 Disadvantage of chain-link fencing is that it creates
an “institution-like atmosphere”

Barriers
 Barbed wire
 Standard barbed wire is twisted, double-strand, 12
gauge wire, with 4 point barbs spaced an equal
distance apart
 Not be less than 7 feet high, excluding top guard
 Firmly attached to posts not more than 6’ apart
 Distance between strands not more than 6” and at
least one wire will be interlaced vertically and midway
between posts.

Barriers
 Concertina wire
 Is a commercially manufactured wire coil of high-
strength-steel barbed wire clipped together at
intervals to form a cylinder
 Opened concertina wire is 50 feet long and 3
feet in diameter

Barriers
 Barbed tape
 Composed of three things
 Barbed wire
 Barbed tape dispenser
 Concertina tape
 Barbed tape is fabricated from a steel strip with a
minimum breaking system of 500 lbs.
 7/16” barbs spaced at 1/2” intervals along each
side

Barriers
 Top Guard
 An overhang of barbed wire or barbed tape along
the top of the fence, facing outward and upward at
approximately a 45-degree angle.
 Top guard supporting arms will be permanently
affixed to the top of the fence posts to increase the
overall height of the fence at least one foot.

Barriers
 Top Guard
 Three strands of barbed wire, spaced 6 inches
apart, must be installed on the supporting arms

Barriers
 Manhole covers
 10 inches or more in diameter, must be secured to
prevent unauthorized opening
 Over 50% of all break-ins are through window
glass

Alarms
 Fail-Safe
 A term applied to a system designed so that if a
component fails to function properly the system will,
by a signal or otherwise, indicate its incapacity
 False Alarm
 Activation of sensors for which no cause can be
determined

Alarms
 Microwave Sensor
 A radio/radar frequency (RF) transmitter having a
frequency range of GHz, which detects motion
 Passive Ultrasonic Sensor
 Detects the sound of forced entry throughout walls,
ceilings and doors

Alarms
 Ultrasonic
 The frequency range of sound that is above the
capabilities of normal human hearing. In intrusion
detection systems, it usually varies between 21,500
and 26,000 Hz

Alarms
 Types of alarm systems
 Electro-mechanical - Metallic foil, Magnet
Switches, Wire Service Detection, Pressure Mats,
Ribbons or Wafers
 Volumetric - Capacitance, Vibration, Microwave,
Ultrasonic, Passive Infrared, Photo Electric

Alarms
 Types of alarm detection systems
 Local alarm system - activate a visual or audible
signal in the immediate vicinity of the object of
protection
 Auxiliary system - the installation-owned system
is a direct extension of the police and/or fire
alarm system. This is the least effective system

Alarms
 Central station system - Alarms are transmitted to
a central station outside the installation from which
appropriate action is taken such as notifying local
police or fire departments

Alarms
 Proprietary system - Similar to the central station
system, except is owned by and is located on the
installation. The response to the alarm is by the
installation’s own security or fire-fighting personnel
 It has been estimated that 90-98% of all alarms
are false

Protective Lighting
 Protective lighting should enable security force
personnel to observe without being seen.
 Four general types of protective lighting:
 Continuous - most common
 Standby
 Movable
 Emergency

Protective Lighting
 Continuous Lighting (CL)
 Two primary methods of employing CL
 Glare projection
 Controlled lighting
 Quartz Lamps
 Emit a very bright white light and snap in rapidly
 Excellent for use along perimeters and in critical areas
 Frequently used at very high wattage

Protective Lighting
 Floodlights
 Directional, with some diffusion to light specific areas
 Searchlights
 concentrated beam, used for illumination of
boundaries

Protective Lighting
 Fresnels
 Wide beam units for long horizontal strips. They
project a narrow beam approximately 180 degrees in
the horizontal and from 15 -30 degrees in the vertical
plane. An appropriate application is to light
parameters since little light is lost vertically
 Street Lights
 Diffused light widely used in parking areas

Safes and Vaults
 UL Money Safe Classifications
 TL-15 - 750 pounds or anchored / Body is 1”
steel or equal
 TL-30 - 750 pounds or anchored
 TRTL-30 - At least 750 pounds
 TRTL-30X6 - At least 750 pounds / 6 sides
 TXTL-60 - At least 1,000 pounds / resist attack
with 8 oz of nitroglycerin or it’s equal

Safes and Vaults
 Burglary-resistive safe
 As a general rule, require the door be made of steel at
least 1-1/2 inches thick
 Vaults are described as enlarged safes
 Alarms for vaults:
 Capacitance
 Vibration

Locks and Key Systems
 Cypher locks - digital combination door
locking device
 Disc tumbler locks - often called wafer locks
 Lever locks - Used in safe deposit boxes
and are difficult to pick

A new organization should not be
developed to handle emergency
situations, but existing organizations
should be prepared to take care of
the situations

A search is made after every
bomb threat call

The search includes common
areas, occupied areas, and
unoccupied areas

Locks and Key Systems
 In selecting combination numbers, multiples and
simple ascending or descending arithmetical series
should be avoided

2. A cooperative organization of
industrial firms, business firms, and similar
organizations within an industrial
community that are united by a voluntary
agreement to assist each other by providing
materials, equipment and personnel needed
to ensure effective industrial disaster
control during emergencies is called:
 a. Emergency Squads
 b. Mutual Aid Association
 c. Community Emergency Cooperatives
 d. Disaster Control Squads

3. Which of the following procedures
should not be advocated as part of
emergency planning?
 a. Emergency plan should be in writing
 b. Emergency plan should be revisited as
needed
 c. Distribution should be limited to senior
management
 d. Plan should be tested through practice

4. The greatest single destroyer of
property is:
 a. Bombs
 b. Sabotage
 c. Fire
 d. Earthquakes

5. Responsibility for shutdown of
machines in the plant as a result of
disaster should be assigned to:
 a. The security officers on duty
 b. The maintenance persons on duty
 c. The persons familiar with the
shutdown process
 d. The plant manager

6. In the event the media makes
contact as a result of a crisis situation,
they should:
 a. Be given “no comment”
 b. Be put in touch with person designated
in the emergency plan for orderly
release of information
 c. Be put in contact with the president of the
company
 d. Be put in contact with the plant manager

7. Which of the following does not fit
into good emergency planning?
 a. An individual should be appointed as
coordinator
 b. Plan should be reduced to writing
 c. Plan should be simple
 d. A new organization should be
developed to handle emergency
situations

8. The ionization fire detector warns
of fire by responding to:
 a. Invisible products of combustion
emitted by a fire at its earliest stages -
incipient stage
 b. Infrared emissions from flames
 c. Light changes
 d. Smoke

9. The fire detector which responds
to a predetermined temperature or to
an increase in temperature is known
as:
 a. Ionization detector
 b. Photoelectric smoke detector
 c. Infrared flame detector
 d. Thermal detector

10. The fire detector which responds
to changes or interruption in the light
source is known as:
 a. The ionization detector
 b. The photoelectric smoke detector
 c. The infrared flame detector
 d. The thermal detector

11. After a bomb threat is made, if
suspicious object is found during
search, it should be:
 a. Handled with great care
 b. Disarmed immediately
 c. Reported immediately to the
designated authorities
 d. Placed in a bucket of water

12. The removal of any suspected
bomb should be by:
 a. Proprietary guard force
 b. Office employees
 c. Professional bomb-disposal personnel
 d. The patrol office of the city police
department

13. Which of the following is not
suggested behavior for the victim of a
kidnapping?
 a. Stay calm
 b. Do not cooperate with captors
 c. Do not try to escape unless good chance
of success
 d. Try to remember events

14. In connection with corporate
kidnappings by terrorist, the decision
as to whether ransom is to be paid
should be made by:
 a. Local police
 b. Spouse or blood relative of victim
 c. City government
 d. Highest corporate level

15. Which of the following should not
be applicable to the development of an
effective emergency disaster plan:
 a. Plan should be written
 b. It should involve the minimum number
of people possible in the preparation of
the plan
 c. It should contain an inventory of available
resources
 d. It should list preventative measures

16. Earthquake emergency plans
should stress safest place during a
quake is:
 a. Within work area under pre-selected
cover
 b. At work in open spaces away from
building
 c. At home
 d. In a building made of concrete

17. In a strike, the refusal by
management to allow members of the
bargaining unit on the premises is
called:
 a. A lockout
 b. Shutout
 c. Lock in
 d. Permissive picketing

18. At the time of a strike, if no guard
force is available, the following action
should be taken:
 a. Immediately hire one
 b. Mobilize supervisory personnel into a
patrol group
 c. Have police come on property to act as
security force
 d. Have maintenance employees trained to
act as guards

19. In a labor dispute which of the
following measures is not advisable:
 a. Change all perimeter gate padlocks
 b. Issue special passes to non-striking
employees
 c. Notify employees who go to work to keep
windows rolled up
 d. Armed guards

20. Usually the most difficult part of
an Executive Protection Plan is:
 a. To secure trained personnel
 b. To initiate liaison with Federal Agencies
 c. To initiate liaison with local authorities
 d. To convince the executive being
protected on the need for such
protection

22. Of all reported bomb threats, it is
estimated that the percentage of real
threats is:
 a. 2-5%
 b. 7-10%
 c. 15%
 d. Less than 1%

23. A full evacuation of a building
should be ordered upon receipt of a
bomb threat when:
 a. The caller is credible and refuses to
name a specific bomb location
 b. Any threat is received
 c. Threat is received during working hours
 d. The caller has a foreign accent

24. You are charged with the responsibility for
formulating a disaster plan to handle
emergencies which arise as a result of
earthquakes. Which of the following warnings
to be issued to employees as to their actions
during the shaking should not be included in
the plan?
 a. If employees are outside, proceed to
the nearest building and head for the
basement
 b. If employees are indoors at the time of the
shaking, they should stay there
 c. If inside, take cover under sturdy furniture
 d. If inside, stay near center of building

25. Earthquakes constitute a definite concern to
the emergency management responsibilities of
security managers in certain areas of the country.
Accordingly, it is incumbent upon our security
professionals to have a clear understanding of the
basic facts concerning earthquakes. Which of the
following is an incorrect statement?
 a. Earthquakes are unpredictable and strike
without warning
 b. Earthquakes may last from a few seconds
to as much as 5 minutes
 c. The actual movement of the ground in
an earthquake is usually the direct
cause of injury or death ( Falling
materials is cause)

26. Potential disasters caused by man should be
included when developing a firm’s emergency plan.
One of the most common man-made disasters is the
plant fire. Which of the following is considered to
be the most important aspect of plans coping with
major plant fires?
 a. To make certain that the plant’s fire-fighting
equipment is adequate and in good operating
condition
 b. To make certain plant personnel are well-
trained in fire-fighting techniques
 c. To make certain that mutual assistance
agreements have been
developed with local governments,
other plants and nearby installations

27. Compared with other plant emergencies, bomb
threats present a highly complex problem for plant
management and emergency service personnel. Which
of the following actions should not be in the bomb threat
emergency plan as it is incorrect?
 a. Planning to meet the threat should include
contact with nearby military explosive
ordnance disposal detachment (EODD)
 b. Prior planning should include contact with the
local police department
 c. Training programs for plant specialists in
handling improvised explosive devices
should be utilized when available from the military
EODD
 d. The Chief of Police must make the decision
whether or not to evacuate building after a
bomb threat has been received

28. The continuity of business and industrial
leadership and direction are essential parts of
all industrial emergency plans. The following
specific measures should be included in the
development of a plan for continuity of
leadership except:
 a. Assure a functioning board of directors
 b. Establish lines of succession for key
officers and operating personnel
 c. Establish an alternate company
headquarters
 d. Provide for special stockholder’s
meeting immediately after attack to
provide for methods of operation

29. In reviewing the emergency plans of the XYZ
Corporation, the legal counsel of the firm notes that
there is a definite possibility that a quorum of the board
of directors cannot be readily assembled which will not
allow action in accordance with law. Which of the
following methods generally would not be acceptable to
remedy this legal problem?
 a. Reduce the quorum number if allowed by the state
 b. Summary filling of board vacancies if allowed by the
state
 c. Establishment of an emergency management
committee, if allowed by the state
 d. Utilizing chain of command, execute
proper power of attorney papers for the
top 3 officials so the most senior could
execute legal affairs if board not

30. In devising plans to protect vital records during
an emergency, a prime decision to make would be
the identification of vital records. Whether such
records are vital depends, to a large extent, upon
the type of business conducted. However, as a
general rule, all of the following would be
considered vital to any corporate organization
except:
 a. The incorporation papers
 b. Personal identification fingerprints of
employees
 c. The by-laws of the corporation
 d. The stock record books
 e. B of Dir minutes and certain corporate fin
records

31. Which of the following statements
is incorrect in selecting records to be
included in a vital records program:
 a. Management should protect vital records by
systematically determining what
information is vital
 b. The vital records protection program is an
administrative device for preserving existing
records
 c. If a particular record does not contain vital
information, it has no place in the
company’s vital records protection program -
even though having other value to the company
 d. Decision making in determining individual vital
records should be rapid. A record either contains
vital information or it does not

32. Effective protection of this vital information
in a data environment is complicated for a
number of reasons. Which of the
following is incorrect in this regard:
 a. A nuclear detonation produces an electro-magnetic pulse
(EMP) which could cause considerable damage.
However well tested EMP protective devices are
available (wrong)
 b. Formerly dispersed information is consolidated, which
intensifies its exposure to possible destruction or
compromise
 c. The data processing medium is extremely vulnerable to a
wide variety of perils such as fire, water, dirt and
hazardous chemical gases
 d. Both the computer and the area in which it is located
must be protected along with the vital information

33. The president of the ZYX Company expresses
concern relative to the company’s ability to act in time of
emergency to protect life and property. He instructs that
you undertake the necessary action to establish the
desired emergency capability within the facility. Which
of the following should be the first step in initiating this
action?
 a. Contact established guard companies to
make bids to oversee the operations
 b. An emergency coordinator should be
appointed at the corporate level
 c. Make a physical survey of the plant
 d. Form a committee of key executives to
operate out of the command center

34. In establishing a disaster plan, provision
should be incorporated which would permit you
to be prepared for a variety of emergency
situations. Which of the following probably
would not have a key role in such plans?
 a. Employee welfare service
 b. Rescue teams
 c. The recreational coordinator
 d. Radiological Defense Service

35. Perhaps one of the most difficult tasks in
planning for disasters and emergencies is the
actual formulation of a basic disaster plan.
Which of the following is an incorrect procedure
in developing such a plan?
 a. The basic plan should provide for coordination of
government and company actions before and
during a disaster
 b. A glossary of terms used should be included
 c. There should be a listing of types of emergencies
limited to those experienced by the
company in the past
 d. The plan should utilize appendices as needed such as
maps, call-up lists and mutual aid agreements

36. While protection of people is the first
priority in emergency planning, shutdown
procedures must be thorough and done by those
who are trained to do so. Your disaster plans
should have such shutdown procedures assigned
to:
 a. The security force
 b. The plant manager
 c. Employees on each shift who handle
these procedures on a regular basis
 d. The fire brigade

37. In order to adequately plan for emergencies, the
security manager must make certain that this
corporation has access to all necessary resources that
will save lives, minimize damages, and insure the
continued operation of rapid restoration of damaged
member plants. Most plants assure access to such
resources by:
 a. Providing for a budget which will supply all the
resources needed to cope with a major emergency
 b. Establishing appropriate liaison with the police, fire,
rescue and medical forces of the community to provide
services as needed
 c. Relying upon their own self-help organization and
equipment and joining hands with other plants
in the community for mutual aid

38. In forming an industrial mutual aid
association, a number of definitive plans must
be made. Which of the following is not true and
should not be relied upon in formulating these
plans?
 a. Each member firm must be willing to
defray Industrial Mutual Aid Association
expenses
 b. Capital outlay and operating costs are
usually modest
 c. The basic operating element of a mutual
aid association is an operating board
 d. Any industrial mutual aid association
should be established in advance of

39. A key role in any emergency will be
played by the plant manager or in his place,
such authorized official as emergency
coordinator or security chief. Which of the
following should not be done personally by this
official
 a. Take personal charge off all operations at
the disaster scene
 b. Activate the plant center
 c. Alert and inform head of local government
emergency coordinator
 d. Brief plant control center staff on the
emergency

40. The keys to the success of any
emergency organization and plan are
training and testing. In designing effective
testing procedures, the following are all
valid observations except:
 a. Records should be maintained so
deficiencies can be corrected following the
test
 b. The testing exercise should be as realistic
as possible
 c. Plenty of advance notice should be given
so all possible preparations can be
made
 d. One of the best times to test the plant
emergency plan is in coordination

1. One supervisor can effectively
control only a limited number of
people and that limit should not be
exceeded. This principle is called:
 a. Unity of command
 b. Supervisory limits
 c. Span of control
 d. Line of discipline

2. An important principle of
organization is that an employee should
be under the direct control of one and
only one immediate supervisor. This
principle is :
 a. Unity of command
 b. Supervisory limits
 c. Span of control
 d. Line of discipline

3. From an organizational
standpoint, the head of security should
report to:
 a. Superintendent of buildings
 b. Manager of buildings and grounds
 c. Head housekeeper
 d. A vice-president or higher

4. The most conspicuous role of the
security department in any
organization is that of:
 a. Educational services
 b. Management services
 c. Special services
 d. Protective services

5. Training sessions consisting of a
security awareness program for new
employees should be conducted by:
 a. Special training officers
 b. Security personnel
 c. Consultants skilled in training
 d. Member of management

6. There are necessary and legitimate
exceptions to the principle of unity of
command. One condition which sometimes
allows for shifting in supervision is:
 a. When order is given by the rank of captain or
above
 b. When order is given by the head of a
department
 c. When the order is given by the head of
internal affairs
 d. During emergencies

7. Perhaps the most common
shortcoming in the security industry
is:
 a. Lack of support by top management
 b. Failure to properly prepare and equip
new supervisors with tools to discharge
their important responsibilities
(supervisor training)
 c. Lack of planning
 d. Lack of monetary resources

8. As a rule, which department of the
company administers the recruiting
activity?
 a. The security department
 b. Administrative department
 c. Personnel department
 d. Internal affairs

9. In non-entry level recruiting, the
recommended technique is:
 a. “Blind ad”
 b. Open advertisement in newspaper
 c. Advertisement in trade journal
 d. By word of mouth on selective basis

11. The heart of personnel selection
is:
 a. Polygraph test
 b. Review of application
 c. Interview
 d. Background investigation
a. The security manager director
b. The security supervisor
c. A security line employee
d. A personnel interviewer
10. Every applicant’s first interview
should be with:

recommended policy with regard to
security manuals?
 a. It must be updated on a regular basis
 b. Employees should not be allowed to
have possession of it
 c. The manual should be put in the hands
of all regular security personnel
 d. It should include procedural instructions
for specific incidents

13. Discipline is primarily the
responsibility of:
 a. The supervisor
 b. The employee
 c. The security manager or director
 d. The inspection division

14. Among classical theories of
human behavior in the work
environment, one emphasizes negative
aspects of employee behavior which is
known as:
 a. The autocrat theory
 b. The custodial theory
 c. The supportive theory
 d. McGregor’s “Theory X”

15. Among classical theories of human
behavior in the work environment is one
which suggests that employees do not
inherently dislike work and will actually
seek responsibility and better performance
if encouraged to do so. It is known as:
 a. McGregor’s “Theory Y”
 b. McGregor’s “Theory X”
 c. The supportive theory
 d. The motivation theory

16. Dr. Frederick Herzberg developed a
position that motivation comes from work
itself, not from those factors such as salary
and job security. This theory is known as:
 a. The supportive theory
 b. The work motivation theory
 c. The custodial theory
 d. McGregor’s “Theory X”

17. Which of the following is not an
advantage of using in-house (career)
personnel?
 a. Career personnel develop a loyalty to the
department
 b. Career personnel tend to be more ambitious
 c. There is more stability among career
personnel
 d. Career personnel constitute a fixed,
limited cadre or pool of manpower
resources

18. Which of the following is known to
be one of the disadvantages of
contract security services?
 a. Turnover
 b. Cost
 c. Manpower resource
 d. Skills

19. Ideally, the person who should
conduct the inspection of a security
department is:
 a. An outside consultant
 b. The second ranking person
 c. The security director or security manager
 d. The ranking sergeant

20. The process of determining the
probability and cost of potential loss is
known as:
 a. Probability analysis
 b. Risk assessment
 c. Potential loss analysis
 d. Physical survey

22. The ultimate responsibility for the
internal security in a department
should rest with:
 a. The president
 b. Chairman of the board
 c. Security director
 d. The line supervisor

23. The behavioral scientist whose
key concept is that every executive
relates to his subordinates on the
basis of a set of assumptions termed
theory X and theory Y was formulated
by:
 a. Abraham Maslow
 b. Douglas McGregor
 c. Warren Bennis
 d. B.F. Skinner

24. The issuance of weapons to
guards is usually not justified:
 a. In a situation where deterrence is needed in
handling control of large amounts of cash
 b. In situations in which terrorism is a real threat
 c. In situations where there would be greater
danger to life without weapons than with them
 d. In a situation where there is no danger to
life safety

25. In issuing policy statements
regarding the handling of disturbed
persons, the primary consideration is:
 a. Legal liability to the disturbed
 b. Reducing the disturbed person to a
form of benevolent custody and
eliminating the immediate
danger
 c. Legal liability to employees and third
persons if restraint not achieved
 d. Employee-community public relations

26. Spotting the individual loss
events that might take place is the
primary step in dealing with security
vulnerability. This process is called
 a. Loss event probability
 b. Threat assessment process
 c. Loss event profile
 d. Actual threat analysis

27. The likelihood or probability of
risks affecting the assets becoming
actual loss events is known as:
 a. Loss event probability
 b. Loss event profile
 c. Threat analysis control
 d. Threat target control

29. Which of the following is considered to be one of the
3 basic functions of risk management?
 a. Lock control
 b. Barrier control
 c. Disaster management
 d. Loss control
a. Loss event profile
b. Loss event probability
c. Loss event criticality
d. Security survey analysis
28. The impact or effect on the enterprise
if the loss occurs is known as

30. Oscar Neuman published a classic in
which he presented ideas and applied
strategies from the New York public housing
project to aid in reducing the risk of being
victimized and reducing fear of crime when on
the streets. What is the name of this book?
 a. Crime Prevention
 b. Crime Reduction
 c. Defensible Space
 d. Crime in Architectural Planning

31. From a security perspective, what
is the first factor to be considered in
facility construction?
 a. The identity of experienced consultants
 b. An effective security plan
 c. An architect with knowledge of physical
security
 d. The building site itself

32. A critical on-site examination and
analysis of an industrial plant business, home
or public or private institution to ascertain
the present security status, to identify
deficiencies or excesses to determine the
protection needed to make
recommendations to improve the overall
security is the definition of :
 a. Security survey
 b. Risk analysis
 c. Full-field inspection
 d. Crime prevention assessment

33. There are two generally accepted
definitions of risk. These are more
commonly known to risk managers
and security officers as:
 a. Potential risk and dynamic risk
 b. Profit risk and dynamic risk
 c. Potential risk and pure risk
 d. Pure risk and dynamic risk

34. The most effective deterrent to
shoplifting is:
 a. Highly competent and educated security
officers
 b. Widespread use of sensor devices
 c. Well positioned CCTV’s
 d. Well trained personnel

36. Many experts agree that the most important
deterrent to internal theft is:
 a. Threat of dismissal
 b. Fear of discovery
 c. Threat of prosecution
 d. Conscience pangs
35.A simplified answer to the question of why employees
steal is:
a. Sickness in family
b. To feed a drug habit
c. To live on a higher level
d. The theft triangle

37. Crime analysis is a key element in
focusing the use of police and security
resources to address crime problems.
Data collection and analysis are two
specific steps. The other two are:
 a. Inspection and discovery of facts
 b. Response and feedback
 c. Feedback and corrective action
 d. Dissemination and feedback

38. It is generally accepted that
insurance rates are dependent upon
two primary variables. These are:
 a. Cost of claims and competitors rates
 b. Competition among insurance companies and
frequency of claims
 c. Cost of claims and frequency of claims
 d. Cost of claims and government regulations

39. The basic types of protection
which security personnel realize as
best can be described by the
following:
 a. Fidelity Bonds
 b. Surety Bonds
 c. Burglary/Robbery/Theft Insurance
 d. All of the above

40. Bonds which require that an
employee be investigated by the
bonding company to limit the risk of
dishonesty, and if that trust is violated,
the insurance company must
indemnify the employer, are called:
 a. Surety Bonds
 b. Fidelity Bonds
 c. Insurance Bonds
 d. Blanket Bonds

41. Protection for a corporation, if
there is a failure to perform specified
acts within a certain period of time, is
known as a:
 a. Contract Bond
 b. Blanket Bond
 c. Surety Bond
 d. Fiduciary Bond

42. The urban planning and design
process which integrates crime
prevention techniques with
neighborhood design is known as:
 a. Urban Development Planning
 b. Conceptual Modeling in Architecture
 c. Environmental Design
 d. Environmental Security (E/S)

43. The ability of design to counteract
the perception that the area is isolated
and criminally vulnerable is known as:
 a. Natural Surveillance Techniques
 b. Image and Milieu
 c. Soft Area Protection
 d. Territorial Cleansing

44. The greatest ongoing threat to any
business is:
 a. Shoplifting
 b. Shrinkage
 c. Internal Theft
 d. Pilferage

45. Pilferage is defined as stealing in
small quantities over a long period of
time. The taking of property entrusted
to someone’s care is called:
 a. Mistake of fact
 b. Misprison of a felony
 c. Uttering
 d. Embezzlement

46. The theft triangle consists of the
following components:
 a. Desire, skill and training
 b. Motivation, skill and opportunity
 c. Opportunity, desire and skill
 d. Motivation, opportunity and
rationalization (Desire)

47. A line item budget is the
traditional and most frequently used
method of budgeting. Two other
commonly used budgeting techniques
include:
 a. Management and program budgets
 b. Capital and program budgets
 c. Program and exception item budgets
 d. Fund allocation and capital budgets

48. A management tool wherein there
is a systematic method of achieving
agreed upon goals set in advance is
known as :
 a. Matrix Management
 b. Proactive Management
 c. Scheduling Management
 d. Management by Objective

49. The activity concerned with
proposals for the future, an analysis of
these proposals and method for
achieving them is known as:
 a. Effective Management
 b. Evaluation Techniques
 c. Planning
 d. Budgeting

50. A key element in focusing the use
of police and security resources to
address crime problems is commonly
called:
 a. Data collection and analysis
 b. Systematic evaluation of data available
 c. Crime analysis
 d. Analysis and feedback

51. According to estimates, about 1/3
of all business failures are
caused by:
 a. Thefts by outsiders (non-employees)
 b. Thefts by employees
 c. Mismanagement
 d. Poor quality of product

52. The major item conspicuously
absent from police-based crime
prevention programs was:
 a. Comprehensive training program
 b. Manpower dedicated to crime
prevention concepts
 c. The input of huge number of persons
employed in private security
 d. Use of up-dated technology

53. What was the most frequent
recommendation made by both law enforcement
and security managers to improve private
security and their working relationships with
police?
 a. Higher entry-level pay
 b. Upgrading quality of security personnel
 c. A planned educational program involving both
police and private security
 d. Requirement of being armed

54. The most frequently shared
resource between law enforcement
and private security is:
 a. CCTV and other surveillance equipment
 b. Personnel
 c. “Buy money” for stolen goods
 d. Reward money

55. The main objective of private security
is:
 a. To apprehend those who steal property
from their firms
 b. To protect assets and prevent losses
 c. To assist police in investigations of
crimes
 d. To prevent unauthorized persons entry
on firm’s property

56. What is the most frequently
investigated crime by private security?
 a. Employee theft
 b. Shoplifting
 c. Bad checks
 d. Embezzlement

57. The two major components of
economic crime have been:
 a. Employee theft and corporate bribery
 b. Fraud and embezzlement
 c. White collar and ordinary crime
 d. Computer and ordinary crime

58. The practice of preventing
unauthorized persons from gaining
information by analyzing
electromagnetic emanations from
electronic equipment is often termed:
 a. Tempest
 b. Veiling
 c. Bugging
 d. Hardening

59. Which of the following is not a
correct statement with regard to
narcotics?
 a. The term “narcotic” in it’s medical meaning
refers to opium and opium derivatives or
synthetic substitutes
 b. They are the most effective agents known for
the relief of intense pain
 c. They have been used for a long period of time
as a remedy for diarrhea
 d. They tend to intensify vision and increase
alertness

60. Which of the following
characteristics does not pertain to
morphine?
 a. It is the principal constituent of opium
 b. Its legal use is restricted primarily to
hospitals
 c. It tastes sweet and is marketed in the
form of yellow crystals
 d. Tolerance and dependence develop
rapidly

61. Most of this substance is produced
from morphine; but it is often combined with
other products such as aspirin or Tylenol. It
is often used for the relief of coughs; and it
is by far the most widely used natural
occurring narcotic in medical treatment. It
is:
 a. Barbiturates
 b. Mescaline
 c. Chloral Hydrate
 d. Codeine

62. German scientists synthesized
methadone during World War II because of a
shortage of morphine. Which of the
following is not characteristic of methadone
and it’s usage ?
 a. Although chemically unlike morphine and
heroin, it produces many of the
same effects
 b. It was distributed under such names as
amidone, dolophine, and methadone
 c. It was widely used in the 1960’s in the
treatment of narcotic addicts.
 d. It is only effective when administered
by injection

63. Which of the following characteristics do
not pertain to the use or effects of depressants
generally?
 a. The usual methods of administration are
oral or injected.
 b. Excessive use results in drunken behavior
similar to that of alcohol
 c. There is no danger of tolerance
developing
 d. Taken as prescribed, they may be
beneficial for the relief of anxiety
and tension

64. Another widely abused depressant is
methaqualone. All of the following are
factually descriptive of methaqualone
except one. Identify this exception.
 a. It is chemically unrelated to the
barbiturates
 b. It was once mistakenly thought to be
effective as an aphrodisiac.
 c. It is administered orally
 d. It is one of the depressants that does
not lead to tolerance and dependence.

65. All of the following are controlled
substances grouped as stimulants except
one. Identify the exception.
 a. Cocaine
 b. Amphetamines
 c. Phenmetrazine
 d. Mescaline

66. All of the following are factual
statements descriptive of illicit cocaine
except one, which is:
 a. It is distributed on the street as a white to
dark brown powder.
 b. It is often adulterated to about half its
volume by a variety of other ingredients.
 c. This substance is only used through
the process of injection
 d. It is popularly accepted as a recreational
drug

67. Which of the following is another
name for cocaine ?
 a. Adipex
 b. Bacarate
 c. Piegine
 d. Snow

does not pertain to cocaine ?
 a. It has a medical use as a sedative
 b. There is a possibility that sustained use
could result in physical dependence
 c. There is a high possibility that sustained
use could result in psychological
dependence
 d. Tolerance is a distinct possibility

69. The effects of illusions and
hallucinations with poor perception of time
and distance possibly indicates the use of
which of the following substances ?
 a. Cannabis
 b. Hallucinogen
 c. Stimulants
 d. Depressants

70. All of the following are
hallucinogens except:
 a. LSD
 b. Marihuana (it is also a hallucinogen)
 c. Mescaline
 d. Phencyclidine

71. The source of marihuana is the:
 a. Peyote cactus
 b. Mushrooms
 c. Coca plant
 d. Cannabis plant

72. Cannabis products are usually
taken:
 a. Through sniffing
 b. Injection
 c. Smoking
 d. By rubbing into the skin

73. The condition whereby a user develops
an attachment to the use of a substance due
to it’s ability to satisfy some emotional or
personality need of the person is known as:
 a. Tolerance
 b. Physical dependence
 c. Addiction
 d. Psychological Dependence

74. The state of periodic or chronic
intoxication produced by the repeated
consumption of a substance is known as:
 a. Tolerance
 b. Addiction
 c. Habituation
 d. Drug dependence

legitimate purpose of an investigation
for employee misconduct?
 a. To determine whether company rules
have been violated
 b. To ascertain whether company policies
have been violated
 c. To catalog information of employees
which might be derogatory for future
use
 d. To determine if state or federal laws have
been violated

2. The investigator’s best approach
to questioning relies on the following:
 a. Most suspects will lie or circumvent the
truth
 b. A suspect is innocent until proven
guilty
 c. A key suspect is guilty and evidence must
be found to substantiate that feeling
 d. A signed statement in the form of a
confession must be obtained

3. In conducting gambling
investigations, the staff investigator
should:
 a. Cooperate with local, county, state or
federal law enforcement
 b. Not use undercover operatives
 c. Wiretap the employees home telephone
 d. Search the lockers of all suspects

investigative resources should not
normally be used in a gambling
investigation conducted by a
proprietary investigative force.
 a. Closed circuit TV cameras
 b. Undercover operatives
 c. Telephone surveillance
 d. Fluorescent powder

5. In investigating homicide and
suicide the best source would
probably be:
 a. County coroner’s office
 b. Health office
 c. State attorney general’s office
 d. Federal law enforcement

6. To obtain information concerning
marriage licenses an investigator
would contact the:
 a. Appropriate health department
 b. Tax bureau
 c. Bureau of Vital Statistics
 d. Appropriate court

7. In conducting a “claim”
investigation where the claim is a
serious one and where there is cause
for doubt in connection with the loss
or claim, the type of investigation to be
used is:
 a. Telephone
 b. Mail
 c. Personal contact
 d. Undercover

8. A yellow colored crystalline solid
pertains to the following explosive:
 a. TNT
 b. Dynamite
 c. Nitroglycerin
 d. Picric acid

high explosive?
 a. Nitrocellulose
 b. Nitroglycerin
 c. Dynamite
 d. Nitro starch

10. One of the following is not
considered an element of the common
law crime or arson:
 a. Commercial building
 b. Malicious
 c. Burning
 d. Willful

requirement for a successful
undercover investigation:
 a. A qualified investigator
 b. A plausible cover story
 c. An effective control scheme
 d. Developing necessary evidence for
prosecution

12. If necessary to terminate an
undercover investigation which one of
the following actions should not be
done:
 a. Withdraw agent safely
 b. Withdraw agent immediately
 c. Salvage as much of the result of date
 d. Reveal identity of the agent

13. The principal item of expense in
an investigations budget will be:
 a. Communications
 b. Equipment
 c. Maintenance
 d. Personal costs

14. The single most important
administrative control in handling
investigations is:
 a. Indexing
 b. Case assignment
 c. Case review
 d. Documentation of status

15. As a general rule the number of
consecutive years of employment or
non-employment to be verified
preceding the date of investigation are:
 a. 5 years
 b. 7 years
 c. 3 years
 d. 2 years

16. Any investigation containing
unfavorable information should be
retained in file for a period of not less
than:
 a. 1 year
 b. 5 years
 c. 3 years
 d. 2 years

17. The rule which states that
approximately one in ten applications
will have major omissions which will
require going back to the applicant is
called:
 a. The Rule of Ten
 b. The Rule of Nine
 c. The 1-10 Rule
 d. The Verification Rule

18. Which of the following should be
interviewed last or near the end of an
investigation under usual
circumstances:
 a. Those with extensive information
 b. Those preparing to take a trip out of area
 c. Those likely to be hostile
 d. Those with less than extensive
information

19. If interviewee during
investigations is hostile, it is
preferable to conduct the interview at:
 a. The security office
 b. Home of the interviewee
 c. A neutral spot
 d. In an automobile

characterization regarding investigative
surveillance is not true?
 a. They are expensive
 b. They are time-consuming
 c. They are often non-productive
 d. They are illegal in most jurisdictions

21. The process whereby
communications are intercepted or
recorded is known as:
 a. Physical surveillance
 b. Technical surveillance
 c. Surreptitious surveillance
 d. Black bag operations

22. It is becoming increasingly more
difficult to do a good pre-employment
background investigation because :
 a. Expense
 b. Lack of skilled investigators
 c. Various laws and court decisions
which inhibit the use of techniques
and/or instruments available
 d. Uncooperative attitude of persons
interviewed

23. Interviews should be conducted:
 a. In the company of the suspect’s attorney
 b. In an area where distractions are
minimal
 c. In a comfortable room which is well
furnished like home
 d. In an area where light is focused in
suspect’s face

24. The most consistently available
and most valuable sources of
information are:
 a. Documents at the scene
 b. Fingerprints on the objects involved
 c. Persons involved in the incident
 d. Telephone records of calls into and out of
the area

25. An undercover operator should
be:
 a. A member of the investigative staff of the
organization
 b. A trusted employee in the department
under investigation
 c. Unknown by anyone likely to be in the
target population
 d. An off-duty law enforcement officer

26. One of the objectives of an
undercover investigation is not to:
 a. Establish a method of diversion of goods
 b. Ascertain the level of organized labor
activity in the work force
 c. Provide information for personnel action
 d. Obtain evidence of past or future crime

27. Which of the following is not true
concerning a witness:
 a. A witness must have directly observed
the incident
 b. A person who heard the accused make
certain remarks may be a witness
 c. Provide information for personnel action
 d. A person with knowledge of the
whereabouts of the accused at the time of
the incident may be a witness

28. In an incident investigation, the
general rule is to first interview
persons who:
 a. Are not likely to be available for later
interview
 b. Are likely to be hostile
 c. Have the most extensive information
about the incident
 d. Are familiar with some part of the subject
matter

29. A subject who has a sixth grade
education has a statement typed for him
by the investigator. Which of the
following should not be included in the
typed statement:
 a. Profanity used by the subject
 b. The actual sentences spoken by the
subject
 c. Highly complex sentences and large
words
 d. References to witnesses to the incident

regarding communications with an
undercover agent:
 a. Normal contact is initiated by the agent
 b. The contact telephone should be
answered with the name of the
company
 c. An alternate contact telephone number
should be established
 d. The telephones should be reserved
exclusively for investigations

compilation of information which is
used in one’s business and which
gives him an opportunity to gain an
advantage over competitors who do
not know or use it is:
 a. A monopoly
 b. An unfair trade practice
 c. A trade secret
 d. A patent

2. Probably the main reason for loss
of sensitive information is:
 a. Inadvertent disclosure
 b. Deliberately stolen by outsider
 c. Industrial espionage
 d. Deliberately stolen by insider

3. The primary tool of pre-
employment screening is the:
 a. Interview
 b. Application form
 c. The investigation
 d. The investigator

4. Competitive intelligence gathering is a
legitimate activity which is engaged in by
many firms throughout the world. The most
important function of competitive
intelligence is to:
 a. Alert senior management to
marketplace changes in order to
prevent surprise
 b. Alert senior management as to the
personal habits of competitive senior
management
 c. Alert government intelligence agencies to
marketplace changes
 d. Alert senior management to changes in
protocol in foreign countries

5. The instrument used to monitor
telephone call by providing a record of
all numbers dialed from a particular
phone is called:
 a. A wiretap
 b. A bug
 c. An electronic surveillance
 d. A pen register

6. A clandestine listening device,
generally a small hidden microphone
and radio transmitter is known as :
 a. A bug
 b. A wiretap
 c. A tempest
 d. A beeper

7. A microphone with a large disk-
like attachment used for listening to
audio from great distances is known
as:
 a. Contact microphone
 b. Spike microphone
 c. Parabolic microphone
 d. Moving coil microphone

8. Sound waves too high in
frequency to be heard by the human
ear, generally above 20 KHZ are known
as:
 a. Microwaves
 b. Ultrasonic
 c. High frequency
 d. Short-wave

9. Two methods of protection
against telephone line eavesdropping
are apparently reliable. The first
method is “don’t discuss sensitive
information” and the other is:
 a. To use a wire tap detector
 b. To use a radio jammer
 c. To use an audio jammer
 d. To use encryption equipment

10. The unauthorized acquisition of
sensitive information is known as:
 a. Industrial espionage
 b. Embezzlement
 c. Larceny
 d. False pretenses

11. Proprietary information is:
 a. Information which must be so classified
under government order
 b. Private information of highly sensitive
character
 c. Defense data which must be classified
according to federal regulations
 d. Anything that an enterprise considers
relevant to its status or operations and
does not want to disclose publicly

12. A trade secret is:
 a. Any formula, pattern, device or
compilation of information which is used
in one’s business and which gives that
business an opportunity to gain an
advantage over competitors who do not
know or use it
 b. All information about a company which the
company desires to protect
 c. Information of a company which is registered
as such with the Patent Office
 d. Information so designated by the government

13. The control software of a Private Board
Exchange (PBX) can be accessed and
compromised by calling the telephone
number of a device on the PBX from a
computer and modem. The name of this PBX
device is the:
 a. Time Domain Reflectometer
 b. Remote Maintenance Access Terminal
 c. Current Carrier Signaling Port
 d. Internal and Remote Signal Port

14. Which of the following is generally
not true in regard to proprietary
information?
 a. Secret information does not have to be
specifically identifiable
 b. Secret information must be such that it
can be effectively protected
 c. The more narrowly a business defines
what it regards as secret, the easier it is to
protect that body of information
 d. It is difficult to protect as a trade secret
that which can be found in publicly
accessible sources

15. With respect to trade secrets, it may be
decided that its disclosure by another was innocent
rather than wrongful even in the case where the
person making the disclosure really was guilty of
malice or wrong intent. This situation may occur
when:
 a. There is absence of evidence that an
owner has taken reasonable precautions
to protect confidential information
 b. The trade secret was not registered
 c. The trade secret did not involve national
defense information
 d. The trade secret was not in current use

16. The class of person under a duty
to safeguard a proprietary secret is
known as:
 a. Agents
 b. Principals
 c. Fiduciaries
 d. Business Associates

17. Which of the following is not a correct
statement, or a general rule, involving the
protection of proprietary information?
 a. By operation of common law employees are
presumed to be fiduciaries to the extent they may
not disclose secrets of their employers without
authorization
 b. As a class, employees are the largest group of
persons bound to secrecy because of their status or
relationship
 c. Other than employees, any other persons to be
bound to secrecy must agree to be so bound
 d. Any agreements to be bound must always be in
writing and are not implied from acts

18. Probably the chief reason for the
loss of information about sensitive
operations is:
 a. Deliberately stolen by an outsider
 b. Loss by fire or other disaster
 c. Deliberately stolen by insider
 d. Lost through inadvertent disclosure

19. The term “eavesdropping” refers
to:
 a. Wiretapping only
 b. “Bugging” only
 c. Both wiretapping and “bugging”
 d. Mail covers

20. A microphone which has the
characteristics of requiring no power source
to operate it, is quite small, relatively
difficult to detect, and is offered by
equipment suppliers in such items as cuff
links and hearing aides is known as:
 a. Carbon microphone
 b. Dynamic microphone
 c. Contact microphone
 d. Parabolic microphone

21. A microphone which is normally
installed on a common wall adjoining a
target area when it is impractical or
impossible to enter the area to make a
microphone installation is:
 a. Carbon microphone
 b. Dynamic microphone
 d. Parabolic microphone

with regard to electronic
eavesdropping:
 a. A listening device installed in a wire will cause
a crackling sound, click or other noise
than can be heard on the line
 b. An effective countermeasures survey to detect
evidence of electronic eavesdropping in telephone
equipment must be conducted by a person
technically familiar with such equipment
 c. All wiring should be traced out and accounted for
in a countermeasures survey
 d. In a countermeasures survey to detect
electronic eavesdropping. A physical
search should be utilized as well as
an electronic search

23. In designing a proprietary
information protection program, the
area of greatest vulnerability is:
 a. Personnel files
 b. Marketing data
 c. Employees
 d. Computers

24. Two of the three most common
methods of information losses are
inadvertent disclosure and industrial
espionage. Which of the following is the
third:
 a. Newspaper articles
 b. Television
 c. Magazine articles
 d. Theft by an insider

is incorrect with regard to an
information security program?
 a. A good information security program will
provide absolute protection against an enemy
spy
 b. The information security program is an attempt to
make theft of sensitive information difficult,
not necessarily eliminate it
 c. A trust relationship must be established and
maintained with employees
 d. The good will and compliance of employees is
crucial for success

26. Vital records normally constitute
the following percentage of the
company’s total records:
 a. 2%
 b. 5%
 c. 10%
 d. 15%

27. A specially constructed
microphone attached directly to an
object or surface to be protected and
which responds only when the
protected object or surface is
disturbed is known as:
 a. Parabolic microphone
 b. Special audio microphone
 d. Surreptitious microphone

28. “Social engineering” is:
 a. The conversation involved in the beginning of
a romantic relationship
 b. A function of the personnel department in
which like persons are teamed together
in workshops or seminars for maximum
productivity
 c. The subtle elicitation of information
without revealing the true purpose of
the call
 d. The specific design of a business structure to
facilitate the interaction of the inhabitants

29. A former employee, who had access to your
trade secret information, is now employed by a
competitor and is apparently using the trade secret
information to gain market share. There are several
serious factors you should consider before you institute
litigation in the matter. Which of the following is not a
serious factor to be considered?
 a. You may have to expose the very secrets you are
attempting to protect
 b. The cost of the litigation may exceed the value of
the secret information
 c. You may lose your case
 d. Other employees may leave the company and
attempt to use trade secret information in the
business of a new employer

30. Electromagnetic radiation is
detectable electromagnetic energy is
generated by electronic information
processing devices. Which of the
following is used to protect very
sensitive equipment?
 a. A current carrier device
 b. Pneumatic cavity shielding
 c. Tempest shielding
 d. Pen register shielding

1. Of all security processes, the most
critical is:
 a. Information
 b. Personnel
 c. Physical
 d. Perimeter

2. The concept that an individual
should be aware of the security program
and persuaded that the program is
relevant to his or her own behavior is
known as:
 a. Security consciousness
 b. Security awareness
 c. Security motivation
 d. Motivation analysis

3. The theory that the human organism is
motivated by an ascending series of needs and
that once the lower needs have been satisfied,
they will be supplanted by the higher needs as
motives for behavior is known as:
 a. Maslow’s “Hierarchy of Prepotency”
 b. McGregor”s Theory X
 c. McGregor”s Theory Y
 d. Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory

example of the intelligence test:
 a. Stanford-Binet IQ Test
 b. Henman-Nelson IQ Test
 c. Armed Forces General Classification
 d. Manual Placement Test

5. Which of the following is not a basic
requirement for handling pre-
employment interviews:
 a. Interview must be voluntary
 b. Interviews to be effective should be
conducted with a friend of applicant
present
 c. Interview must be unbiased
 d. Interviewer should not give out
information

6. The basic principle of personnel
security is:
 a. To weed out bad apples among employees
after they are located
 b. Education is the key to loss prevention
 c. Attitudes and honesty of rank and file
employees are key to minimizing theft
losses
 d. Terminate undesirables

7. Probably the single most important
safeguard for preventing internal theft is:
 a. An extensive statement of personal
history
 b. The personal interview
 c. Interviewing reference
 d. Upgrading the screening of new
employees

8. An employer may not question an
applicant on which of the following:
 a. Unexplained gaps in the employment
history
 b. Unsatisfactory interview
 c. An arrest for a crime against property
 d. A conviction for a crime against property

9. Questioning an employee should be:
 a. Behind a closed door
 b. With the door open
 c. Closed and locked door
 d. At a police station

10. Impelling type of leadership tends to
reduce employee dishonesty
because:
 a. It sets a good example
 b. It creates discipline
 c. It reduces employee frustration
 d. It improves morale

11. Non-directional counseling of upset
employees:
 a. Should not be used because it is not
effective
 b. Does not carry the danger inherent in
giving advice
 c. Does not directly advise, criticize or try to
help
 d. Involves primarily being a good listener

12. The first skill the manager must learn
is:
 a. How to give orders
 b. How to check up on procedures
 c. How to maintain authority
 d. The ability to listen

13. On the whole, employees are:
 a. Easily tempted
 b. Honest
 c. Indifferent
 d. Conscientious, honest individuals who
have the firm’s best interest at heart

14. In conducting interviews during a
background investigation, the investigator
should more appropriately tell the person
being interviewed that the employee is:
 a. Being considered for a promotion
 b. Suspected of wrongdoing
 c. Being investigated in connection with a
position of trust
 d. Tell the interviewee nothing

15. The frequency of reinvestigation of
the “financial life style” inquiry should
generally be:
 a. Never
 b. Every 6 months
 c. Every year
 d. Every 18 months

16. Any investigation which includes
unfavorable information, or which results
in an adverse employment decision,
should be:
 a. Retained in file for a minimum of three
years
 b. Retained in file for a minimum of five years
 c. Retained in file for one year
 D. Destroyed when the employment decision is
made

with regard to a resume?
 a. It does not provide the information which
the company requires
 b. It is never accepted in lieu of a completed
application form
 c. It is always accepted and is reviewed as
part of the investigation
 d. It is an acceptable form of information
for a professional position

18. The persons who find integrity tests
offensive are:
 a. Twice as likely to admit to criminal or
drug abuse behavior
 b. No more likely than anyone else to
admit to criminal or drug abuse behavior
 c. Sensitive persons who should not be
required to take the test
 d. Usually found to have a violent criminal
past

19. Completed background
investigations:
 a. If apparently completed favorable, may be
reviewed by an investigative clerk
 b. If apparently completed favorable or
containing unfavorable information, are
reviewed by a responsible supervisory
security employee
 C. If containing unfavorable information,
should be immediately referred to legal counsel
 d. Should be reviewed jointly by the Human
Relations Director and the Security Director

20. The qualifications and background of an
applicant are considered in light of the needs of the
company to perform duties of a specific position. Which
of the following is not accurate regarding the job
description for the position:
 a. It must include accurate specifications and genuine
skill requirements
 b. The details of the description may tend to
exclude certain groups of people
 c. The specifications and skills should be described
concisely and without prejudice
 d. The job description should be intentionally vague in
order to allow the max number of applicants to qualify for
the position

1. In substance, a crime is:
 a. A violent act
 b. A violation of one’s privacy
 c. An act or omission prohibited by law
for which a penalty is provided
 d. A public wrong

2. The Federal definition of a felony
is any offense:
 a. Which calls for punishment
 b. Punishable by death
 c. For which the minimum penalty is $500
 d. Punishable by imprisonment for a
term exceeding one year

3. In federal courts, the usual
prosecutor is:
 a. The district attorney
 b. The state’s attorney
 c. The commonwealth attorney
 d. The U.S. Attorney

4. The main purpose of a grand jury
is to:
 a. Determine whether or not an individual has
committed a crime
 b. Determine guilt
 c. Determine whether there is sufficient
evidence that a crime has been committed and
that the accused probably committed it
 d. Determine the nature of the punishment

5. The purpose of bail is to:
 a. Confine the accused pending trial
 b. To take dangerous offenders off the streets
 c. Make certain each accused is offered his
constitutional right to put up security in
order to gain his release
 d. To assure the appearance of the accused
in court

6. In a criminal trial, the burden of
proof required to find guilt is:
 a. Preponderance of evidence
 b. Beyond a reasonable doubt
 c. Reasonableness of presentation
 d. Amount necessary to convince a
majority of jurors

7. The release of a convicted person
under certain conditions without
having to be imprisoned is known as:
 a. Probation
 b. Parole
 c. Corpus Juris
 d. Detainer

8. The release from confinement of a
person who has served part of a
sentence is called:
 a. Probation
 b. Parole
 c. Reprieve
 d. Commutation

9. The process in which a court
abides by a previous court decision is
known as:
 a. Corpus Delicti
 b. Habeas corpus
 c. Ex-post facto
 d. Stare decisis

10. The crime of unlawful entry into or
remaining within a building, with intent
to commit some crime therein is:
 a. Robbery
 b. Trespass
 c. Burglary
 d. Embezzlement

11. To make proof of intent easier in
proving shoplifting, many stores have
a policy which requires apprehension
of a suspect to be made:
 a. After the accused leaves the premises
 b. As soon as the theft occurs
 c. As soon as the material is concealed
 d. Only on issuance of a warrant

12. The private person generally may
arrest without a warrant:
 a. For a felony
 b. For misdemeanors
 c. For a crime committed in his presence
 d. Where he had “reasonable cause” to
believe the person arrested committed
the crime

13. The Supreme Court decision which holds
that no suspect, in a custodial environment,
may be asked any questions until he has first
been warned that he need not make any
statement and advised of other rights is the:
 a. McNabb decision
 b. Mallory decision
 c. Ennis decision
 d. Miranda decision

14. The Amendment to the U.S.
Constitution which deals with
searches and seizures is:
 a. 1st Amendment
 b. 4th Amendment
 c. 5th Amendment
 d. 6th Amendment

15. As a general rule, searches may
be made of employee lockers and
desks located on the premises of the
company:
 a. If consent is given by the employee
 b. Under no circumstances
 c. If done by local police
 d. If done by the security manager

16. When a law enforcement agent
induces the commission of a offense
not otherwise contemplated, the
accused may use an affirmative
defense known as:
 a. Hearsay
 b. Illegally induce crime
 c. Ex-post facto
 d. Entrapment

17. The imputation of another’s
negligence to the employer is
described as:
 a. Gross liability
 b. Vicarious liability
 c. Agency liability
 d. Net liability

18. A willful or negligent wrong done
by one person to another is a :
 a. Crime
 b. Misdemeanor
 c. Felony
 d. Tort

19. The unlawful taking of property by
force or threat of force
constitutes the crime of:
 a. Burglary
 b. Robbery
 c. Assault and battery
 d. Larceny

20. The act of inducing a person to
commit a crime for the purpose of
having him arrested is known as:
 a. Solicitation
 b. Entrapment
 c. Nolo contendre
 d. Misprison

21. Deadly force may be used to
defend yourself if you:
 a. Reasonably believe deadly force is
necessary to protect yourself or
another from unlawful use of
deadly force of a third party
 b. Your home is broken into
 c. You are protecting your property
 d. You are attacked by a drug dealer

22. The prohibition against being tried
twice for the same crime is found in
the:
 a. First Amendment
 b. Third Amendment
 c. Fifth Amendment
 d. Fourteenth Amendment

23. In a criminal prosecution the
measure of evidence used to find the
accused guilty is:
 a. Beyond a reasonable doubt
 b. Probable cause
 c. Suspicion
 d. Preponderance of evidences

24. “Strict liability” in tort involves:
 a. Specific instructions given a security
officer by a supervisor
 b. Comparative negligence by anyone in
any occupation
 c. Intentional liability
 d. An ultra-hazardous or abnormally
dangerous activity

26. An employer is responsible for the
acts of his or her employee committed
within the:
 a. Employee’s scope of employment
 b. Area of the place of business
 c. Employer’s area of primary activity
 d. Employee’s area of primary activity

27. The relationship in which two
parties agree that one will act as the
representative of the other is known
as:
 a. Contractual relationship
 b. Fiduciary relationship
 c. Partnership relationship
 d. Agency relationship

28. An agent can ordinarily act for the
principal in such a way to make the
principal legally responsible provided
the agent:
 a. Is authorized by the principal to act that way
 b. Acts reasonably
 c. Notifies the principal within 24 hours
 d. Is eighteen years of age

29. If “S”, while acting within the
scope of employment, injures “T” and
“T” dies, the employer of “S” can be:
 a. Held liable in a civil suit for damages
 b. Subjected to criminal liability
 c. Held liable for both civil and criminal action
 d. Criminally liable if the act is malicious

30. The Constitutional Amendment
which provides that no person shall be
denied life, liberty, or property without
due process of law is:
 a. First Amendment
 b. Second Amendment
 c. Fifth Amendment
 d. Eighth Amendment

31. The right to have the assistance of
counsel for one’s defense is provided
by the:
 a. Second Amendment
 b. Fifth Amendment
 c. Sixth Amendment
 d. Eighth Amendment

32. The primary duty of a grand jury
is:
 a. Ascertain if the accused is guilty
 b. Determine probable cause
 c. Determine if a conspiracy exists
 d. Determine if an investigation should be
opened

33. According to the U.S. code, a
felony is any offense:
 a. Punishable by death
 b. Punishable by imprisonment of three
years or more
 c. Punishable by imprisonment exceeding
one year
 d. Punishable by imprisonment for a
term exceeding one year

34. The affirmative act of concealing
the commission of a felony, cognizable
by a court of the U.S., by someone
having knowledge of the felony is a
violation called
 a. Misprison of a felony
 b. Accessory
 c. Subornation of perjury
 d. Obstruction of justice

35. When a law enforcement agent
induces the commission of an offense,
the process is called:
 a. Accessory before the act
 b. Misprison of a felony
 c. Entrapment
 d. Stare decisis

36. Wrongful appropriation of the
personal property of another to the use
of the taker is a tort called:
 a. Conversion
 b. Larceny
 c. Trespass
 d. Embezzlement

37. A writ issued by a court directing
the recipient to appear and testify is a:
 a. Warrant
 b. Subpoena
 c. Writ of Mandamus
 d. Writ of prohibition

38. The general rule as to the amount
of force a security officer is permitted
to use in order to accomplish a lawful
arrest is:
 a. The amount needed to assure that the
security officer is not injured
 b. Up to and including deadly force
 c. The maximum amount
 d. Only such force as is reasonably
necessary

39. If a grand jury finds that probable
cause exists that the accused
committed the crime alleged, the grand
jury then:
 a. Issues an information
 b. Issues an indictment
 c. Issues a mittimus
 d. Enters a finding of guilty

40. The usual charge placed against
someone who has made an erroneous
arrest is:
 a. Kidnapping
 b. False imprisonment
 c. Assault and battery
 d. Malicious prosecution

41. The federal agency in charge of
disaster planning is:
 a. Federal Emergency Management Agency
 b. Office of Civil Defense
 c. Department of the Army
 d. Department of the Interior

42. One of the following is not
prohibited by the Federal Civil Rights
Act during an investigation:
 a. Asking questions as to religious affiliation
 b. Asking questions as to prior convictions
 c. Directing inquiry into areas of race or
color for discriminating purposes
 d. Directing inquiry into areas of religion or sex
for discriminating purposes

43. Questions on an application blank
or field investigative inquiries dealing
with union membership or affiliation
should be avoided as they may lead to
charges which constitute violations of:
 a. National Labor Relations Act
 b. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
 c. The Civil Rights Act of 1976
 d. The Fair Credit Reporting Act

44. A question on the application
form inquiring about prior arrests is on
its face illegal as a violation of:
 a. The National Labor Relations Act
 b. The Federal Tort Claim Act
 c. The Omnibus Crime Control Act
 d. The Civil Rights Act of 1964

45. Usually in facilities where visitors
are to be escorted, this is done by:
 a. Guards
 b. Individuals being visited
 c. Special escort service
 d. Supervisor of unit visited

1. The degree of protection desired
in any installation is predicated upon
an analysis of the following two
factors:
 a. Cost and environmental conditions
 b. Criticality and vulnerability
 c. Cost and vulnerability
 d. Cost and criticality

2. The process used by the security
manager in establishing priorities of
protection of assets is known as:
 a. Security survey
 b. Vulnerability study
 c. Risk analysis
 d. Inspection review

3. The type of fencing generally used
for protection of permanent limited and
exclusion areas is:
 a. Chain link
 b. Concertina
 c. Barbed wire
 d. Barbed tape

4. For general security usage,
excluding the top guard, chain link
fence should be:
 a. 7 gauge wire and a min. of 10 feet high
 b. 9 gauge wire and eight feet high
 c. 9 gauge wire and seven feet high
 d. 10 gauge wire and seven feet high

5. Excluding the top guard, standard
barbed wire fencing intended to
prevent human trespassing should be
not less than:
 a. 7 feet high
 b. 6 feet high
 c. 10 feet high
 d. 8 feet high

6. In a barbed wire fence, the
distance between strands should not
exceed:
 a. 4 inches
 b. 3 inches
 c. 5 inches
 d. 6 inches

7. Standard barbed wire is twisted
double-strand:
 a. 9 gauge wire
 b. 14 gauge wire
 c. 13 gauge wire
 d. 12 gauge wire (with 4 point barbs)

8. Top guard supporting arms
should be permanently affixed to the
top of the fence posts to increase the
overall height of the fence at least:
 a. 2 feet
 b. 1 foot
 c. 3 feet
 d. 3-1/2 feet

9. A top guard must consist of:
 a. 3 strands of barbed wire or tape
 b. 2 strands of barbed wire or tape
 c. 4 strands of barbed wire or tape
 d. 6 strands of barbed wire or tape

10. Strands of barbed wire or tape
used as a top guard on a fence should
be spaced:
 a. 2 inches apart
 b. 3 inches apart
 c. 4 inches apart
 d. 6 inches apart

characteristic of protective lighting is
incorrect?
 a. Lighting is expensive to maintain
 b. It usually requires less intensity than
working light
 c. It may also provide personal protection
by reducing advantages of concealment
 d. It should not be used as a psychological
deterrent only

12. Lighting units of 4 general types are
used for protective lighting systems.
Which of the following is not used:
 a. Continuous
 b. Intermittent
 c. Standby
 d. Moveable
 e. Emergency

13. A series of fixed luminaries
arranged to flood a given area
continuously during the hours of
darkness with overlapping cones of
light. It is called:
 a. Continuous lighting
 b. Intermittent lighting
 c. Standby lighting
 d. Moveable lighting

14. Piers and docks located on an
installation should be safeguarded by
illuminating both water approaches
and the pier area. Decks on open piers
should be illuminated to at least:
 a. 1.5 foot candles
 b. 2.0 foot candles
 c. 0.5 foot candles
 d. 1.0 foot candles

15. The intrusion detection system in
which a pattern of radio waves is
transmitted and partially reflected back
to the antenna is known as:
 a. Ultrasonic system
 b. Microwave system
 c. Electrostatic system
 d. Capacitance system

16. The intrusion detection system
which is used on a safe, wall and
openings therein in an effort to establish
an electrostatic field around the object to
be protected is known as a:
 a. Ultrasonic system
 b. Microwave system
 c. Capacitance system
 d. Electro-mechanical system

with regard to lock and key systems?
 a. The lock is the most accepted and widely
used security device of the basic safeguards in
protecting installations
 b. The locking system should be backed up
with other security
 c. A high-quality, pick-proof lock is
considered a positive bar to entry
 d. Most key locks can be picked by an
expert in a few minutes

18. The type of lock generally used on
automobiles, desks and cabinets is:
 a. Pin tumbler
 b. Warded
 c. Combination
 d. Wafer

with regard to door latches:
 a. A deadbolt latch may be used on almost
any door
 b. A deadbolt latch is easy to install
 c. A deadbolt latch is inexpensive
 d. Chain latches are highly recommended as
effective security measures

20. Inventories of key systems should
be conducted at least:
 a. Annually
 b. Quarterly
 c. Semi-annually
 d. Monthly

21. A sentry dog can normally not
operate a full effectiveness at:
 a. Ammunition storage areas
 b. Gasoline storage areas
 c. Radar sites
 d. Warehouses

22. Non-insulated security containers
must satisfactorily pass a drop test of:
 a. 15 feet
 b. 20 feet
 c. 22 feet
 d. 30 feet

approved UL record safe
classification:
 a. 350-4
 b. 350-3
 c. 350-2
 d. 350-1

24. The acceptable vault construction
of insulated doors is a minimum
reinforced thickness of:
 a. 12”
 b. 10”
 c. 8”
 d. 6”

25. Which of the following would be
an acceptable computer media storage
classification:
 a. 350-4
 b. 450-4
 c. 250-4
 d. 150-4

26. UL classified safes must be
anchored to the floor or weigh at least:
 a. 750 lbs.
 b. 1,000 lbs.
 c. 1,250 lbs.
 d. 1,500 lbs.

27. A “re-lock” on a vault
automatically stops the bolt
mechanism from operating when:
 a. A switch is flipped
 b. A timer is used
 c. When there is an attack on the door or
combination lock
 d. Locked by remote control

28. Security vaults differ from safes in
that:
 a. They are tested by Underwriters
Laboratories for burglary resistance
 b. They do not have both fire and burglary
resisting properties
 c. Steel is used
 d. They are permanently affixed to
building

29. The weakness of the burning bar
as a burglar tool is:
 a. It will not burn through concrete
 b. Produces large volumes of smoke
 c. Actual heat is not intense enough
 d. It requires tanks of hydrogen

correct with regard to safes?
 a. UL classification labels are removed
from all safes exposed to fires
 b. Record safes are designed to resist fires
only
 c. Money safes have accredited fire
resistance
 d. Quality equipment should be purchased
only from reputable dealers

31. The symbol “TRTL” indicates:
 a. Safe is resistant to torches
 b. Safe is resistant to tools
 c. Safe is resistant to both torches and tools
 d. Nothing pertaining to torches or tools

32. Illumination intensity minimums
for lighting of the perimeter of
restricted area is:

33. The temperature at which paper
may be destroyed is:
 a. 200 degrees F
 b. 250 degrees F
 c. 300 degrees F
 d. 350 degrees F

34. Electronic process media can
begin to deteriorate at:
 a. 100 degrees F
 b. 125 degrees F
 c. 150 degrees F
 d. 200 degrees F

35. The interior height of a vault
should not exceed:
 a. 8 feet
 b. 9 feet
 c. 10 feet
 d. 12 feet

36. A system using inaudible sound
waves to detect the presence of an
intruder or other disturbance of the
inaudible sound system is known as:
 a. Motion detection system
 b. Sonic motion detection
 c. Ultrasonic motion detection
 d. Radio frequency motion detection

37. The weakest area in a window is
usually:
 a. The sash
 b. Frames
 c. Glass
 d. The putty

38. Which of the following is
considered to be the most resistant to
blast from explosion?
 a. Thick brick or concrete walls
 b. Thick earthen barricades
 c. Steel-frame building walls
 d. Thick, reinforced concrete walls

39. A type of glass used in street-level
windows or displays where security is
necessary and which is composed of
two sheets of ordinary glass bonded to
an intervening layer of plastic material
is known as:
 a. Tempered glass
 b. Plastic coated glass
 c. Vinyl coated glass
 d. Laminated glass

40. The type of glass which is often
utilized for both safety and security
purposes because it is 3 to 5 times
stronger than regular glass and 5
times as resistant to heat is:
 a. Tempered glass
 b. Coated glass
 c. Plastic coated glass
 d. Reflected glass

41. The mechanical lock longest in
use and which has practically no
security value is:
 a. The lever lock
 b. The warded lock
 c. The wafer tumbler lock
 d. The pin tumbler lock

42. Probably the most widely-used
lock for both exterior building doors
and interior room doors is the:
 a. Warded lock
 b. Pin tumbler lock
 c. Disc tumbler lock
 d. Lever lock

authentic characterization of the guard
operation:
 a. Guards are costly
 b. Guards are generally recognized as an
essential element in the protection of assets and
personnel
 c. Guards are the only element of protection
which can be depended upon to give
complete security
 d. Guards can also perform as a public relations
representative when properly trained

44. Each guard post that is manned
24 hours a day, 7 days a week
requires:
 a. 3 guards
 b. 6 guards
 c. 2 guards
 d. 4.5 guards

45. Identify the act which basically
prohibits discrimination, discharge,
failure or refusal to hire, on any of the
grounds of race, color, religion, sex or
national origin:
 a. Fair Credit Reporting Act
 b. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
 c. First Amendment
 d. Omnibus Crime Control Act

46. One of the main reasons for not
arming private security guards is:
 a. The cost of extra equipment
 b. The extra salary costs
 c. Very few are qualified to handle them
 d. The typical business or government
facility is not customarily a place
where violent crime occurs

47. The argument usually used by
contract guard representatives as a
selling point in their service is:
 a. Better trained
 b. Non-union
 c. No administrative problems
 d. Reduction in cost

48. The most important written
instructions for the guard force are
known as:
 a. Memoranda
 b. Post orders
 c. High policy
 d. Operational orders

49. Which of the following should be
a required criteria of post orders?
 a. Each order should deal with multiple
subjects
 b. The orders should be detailed
 c. The orders should be written at the
lowest level possible
 d. Orders should be indexed sparingly

50. The guard’s primary record of
significant events affecting facility
protection is called:
 a. The guard log
 b. Ingress log
 c. Egress log
 d. Daily record manual

51. The sensor which is used when
air turbulence is present in the
protected room and when there are no
potential false alarms sources outside
the room and in the field of the
detector is:
 a. Acoustic detector
 b. Vibration detector
 c. Microwave motion detector
 d. Ultrasonic motion detector

52. The sensor which is used when
light air turbulence, vibration and
motion outside the room are present
is:
 a. Acoustic detector
 b. Vibration detector
 c. Microwave motion detector
 d. Ultrasonic motion detector

53. Foil used as a detector on a glass
window to signal a surreptitious or
forcible penetration is an example of :
 a. Microwave sensor
 b. Capacitance sensor
 c. Vibrator sensor
 d. Electro-mechanical sensor

54. The type of sensor designed to
place a current-carrying conductor
between an intruder and an area to be
protected is known as:
 a. Electro-mechanical sensor
 b. Microwave sensor
 c. Capacitance sensor
 d. Audio sensor

55. The kind of sensor which is based on
the Doppler Principle - named after the
Austrian scientist who originated the
concept is:
 a. Electro-mechanical sensor
 b. Microwave sensor
 c. Capacitance sensor
 d. Audio sensor

56. The sound wave sensor is
commonly referred to as :
 a. Proximity detector
 b. Radar
 c. Vibration detector
 d. Ultrasonic detector

57. The type of sensor which is not
influenced by exterior noise; which
reacts only to movement within a
protected area; and which can be
adjusted so the movement of air
caused by fire will activate an alarm is
known as:
 a. Proximity detector
 b. Ultrasonic sensor
 c. Electro-mechanical sensor
 d. Audio sensor

58. A personal identification method
based on the length of each finger of
one hand from base to tip and the
width of the hand inside the thumb is
called the:
 a. Henry fingerprint system
 b. Hand geometry identification
 c. The Bertillion method
 d. Basch-Lomb method

59. A visual indicator that shows from
which of several zones or buildings an
alarm signal has originated is called:
 a. An annunciator
 b. Contact device
 c. Break alarm
 d. Cross alarm

60. A specially constructed
microphone attached directly to an
object or surface to be protected and
which responds only when the
protected object or surface is
disturbed is known as:
 a. Parabolic microphone
 b. Special audio device
 d. Surreptitious microphone

with regard to establishing an
identification of personnel system to
control movement?
 a. The ID card or badge should be designed in a
relatively complicated manner to avoid
duplication
 b. The ID card should be designed as simple as
possible
 c. Procedures should be designed to show
employees what to do when ID card is lost
 d. Details should be prepared and disseminated
as to where, when, and how the badge
should be worn

62. The most vulnerable link in any
identification system is?
 a. Poor quality of badges
 b. Perfunctory performance of duty
 c. Badges not large enough
 d. Educational background of security
officers

63. The use of a simple word or phrase
during a normal conversation to alert other
security personnel that an authorized person
has been forced to vouch for an unauthorized
individual is called?
 a. Word alert
 b. Security alert
 c. Code one
 d. Duress code

64. The practice of having at least 2
authorized persons, each capable of detecting
incorrect or unauthorized procedures with
respect to the task being performed will be
present during any operation that affords
access to sensitive areas is called:
 a. The sensitive material rule
 b. Controlled presence rule
 c. Two-man rule
 d. Controlled access rule

65. Unavoidable drainage ditches, culverts,
vents, ducts and other openings should be
protected by securely fastened welded bar
grills when the have a cross-sectional area
greater than:
 a. 10 square inches
 b. 48 square inches
 c. 64 square inches
 d. 96 square inches

66. As a general rule, between the
perimeter barrier and structures within
the protected area, except when a
building is a part of the perimeter
barrier, there should be a clear zone of
at least:
 a. 50 feet
 b. 40 feet
 c. 30 feet
 d. 20 feet

67. Measured horizontally 6 inches
above the ground and at least 30 feet
outside the exclusion area to barrier,
the perimeter band of lighting must
provide a minimum intensity of:

68. Which of the following principles
of protective lighting is not correct?
 a. Lighting should not be used alone. It
should be used with other measures such
as fixed security posts, fences, etc.
 b. Glaring lights should be in the eyes of the
intruder
 c. A large amount of light should be
focused on security patrol routes
 d. Adequate, even light should be upon
bordering areas

installation
should be safeguarded by illuminating
both water approaches and the pier area.
Decks on open piers should be
illuminated to at least:

69b. The water approaches (extending
to a distance of 100 feet from the pier)
should be illuminated to at least:

70. Before installing protective
lighting adjacent to navigable waters,
the the following agency should be
consulted for approval:
 a. Bureau of Customs
 b. Transportation Department
 c. Local Police Department
 d. U.S. Coast Guard

71. An alarm system in which the
installation-owned system is a direct
extension of the civil police and/or fire
alarm system is known as:
 a. Local alarm system
 b. Central station system
 c. Auxiliary system
 d. Proprietary system

72. Which of the following types of
locking devices is generally
considered to have the poorest
security value:
 a. Key locks
 b. Cypher locks
 c. Conventional combination locks
 d. Manipulation-resistant combination locks

73. Money safes are classified by
both Underwriters Laboratories (UL)
and:
 a. The Bureau of Standards
 b. The Insurance Services Office (ISO)
 c. The FBI
 d. The Federal Reserve Board

74. Vaults will usually be designed to
meet fire protection standards specified
by:
 a. American Society for Industrial Security
 b. National Fire Protection Association
 c. Local fire department
 d. All of the above

75. A major study on private security
was prepared by:
 a. International Association of Chiefs of
Police
 b. American Society for Industrial Security
 c. Private Security Task Force of the
National Advisory Committee on Criminal
Justice Standards and Goals
 d. The Brookings Institute

76. According to a Rand Corporation
study made in 1971 regarding guards,
the typical private guard is:
 a. An aging black male
 b. Poorly educated and poorly paid
 c. Well educated and poorly paid
 d. Middle-aged white

Searches made during work hours as a
result of a bomb threat call should be
made by:
 a. Local Police Department
 b. Military Police
 c. Federal investigative personnel
 d. Employees familiar with work area
where bomb is reportedly located

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