Cat 2005 paper with key proton training solutions

M-PP-01 A2.1 www.TestFunda.com
Before the Test:
1. DO NOT REMOVE THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL TO START IS GIVEN.
2. Keep only a pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing
instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device
or loose paper. These should be left at a place indicated by the invigilator.
3. Use only HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet.
4. Enter in your Answer Sheet: (a) in Box 3, the Test Form Number that appears at the bottom of this page, (b) in
Box 4, the Test Booklet Serial Number that appears at the top of this page.
5. Ensure that your personal data have been entered correctly on Side - II of the Answer Sheet.
6. Ensure that you have entered your 8-digit Test Registration Number in Box 2 of the Answer Sheet correctly.
Start entering the number from the leftmost cell, leaving the last three cells blank.
At the start of the Test:
1. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Test Booklet.
2. This Test Booklet contains 22 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet,
verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. If there is a problem with your Test Booklet,
immediately inform the invigilator. You will be provided with a replacement.
How to answer:
1. This test contains 90 questions in three sections. There are 30 questions in Section I, 30 questions in
Section II and 30 questions in Section III. You have two hours to complete the test. In distributing the time
over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections.
2. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully
and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. Each question has only one
correct answer.
3. For a wrong answer you will lose one-third of the marks allotted to the question.
4. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet.
5. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Students found violating the instructions will be disqualified.
After the Test:
1. At the end of the test, remain seated. The invigilator will collect the Answer Sheet from your seat. Do not leave
the hall until the invigilator announces “You may leave now”. The invigilator will make this announcement only
after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the students in the room.
2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you.
Test Form Number: 111
PREVIOUS CAT QUESTION PAPER
CAT 2005A2

CAT 2005
Section I
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
1. If x = (163 + 173 + 183 + 193), then x divided by 70
leaves a remainder of
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 69 (4) 35
2. A chemical plant has four tanks (A, B, C, and D),
each containing 1000 litres of a chemical. The
chemical is being pumped from one tank to
another as follows:
From A to B @ 20 litres/minute
From C to A @ 90 litres/minute
From A to D @ 10 litres/minute
From C to D @ 50 litres/minute
From B to C @ 100 litres/minute
From D to B @ 110 litres/minute
Which tank gets emptied first and how long does
it take (in minutes) to get empty after pumping
starts?
(1) A, 16.66 (2) C, 20
(3) D, 20 (4) D, 25
3. Two identical circles intersect so that their
centres, and the points at which they intersect,
form a square of side 1 cm. The area in sq. cm of
the portion that is common to the two circles is
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) √
4. A jogging park has two identical circular tracks
touching each other, and a rectangular track
enclosing the two circles. The edges of the
rectangles are tangential to the circles. Two
friends, A and B, start jogging simultaneously
from the point where one of the circular tracks
touches the smaller side of the rectangular track.
A jogs along the rectangular track, while B jogs
along the two circular tracks in a figure of eight.
Approximately, how much faster than A does B
have to run, so that they take the same time to
return to their starting point?
(1) 3.88% (2) 4.22%
(3) 4.44% (4) 4.72%
5. In a chess competition involving some boys and
girls of a school, every student had to play exactly
one game with every other student. It was found
that in 45 games both the players were girls, and
in 190 games both were boys. The number of
games in which one player was a boy and the
other was a girl is
(1) 200 (2) 216 (3) 235 (4) 256
Instructions for questions 6 and 7:
Answer the following questions based on the
information given below:
Ram and Shyam run a race between points A and B,
5 km apart. Ram starts at 9 a.m. from A at a speed of
5 km/hr, reaches B, and returns to A at the same
speed. Shyam starts at 9:45 a.m. from A at a speed of
10 km/hr, reaches B and comes back to A at the same
speed.
6. At what time do Ram and Shyam first meet each
other?
(1) 10:00 a.m. (2) 10:10 a.m.
(3) 10:20 a.m. (4) 10:30 a.m.
7. At what time does Shyam overtake Ram?
(1) 10:20 a.m. (2) 10:30 a.m.
(3) 10:40 a.m. (4) 10:50 a.m.
(1) 0 < R ≤ 0.1 (2)0.1 < R ≤ 0.5
(3) 0.5 < R ≤ 1.0 (4) R > 1.0
9. What is the distance in cm between two parallel
chords of lengths 32 cm and 24 cm in a circle of
radius 20 cm?
(1) 1 or 7 (2) 2 or 14
(3) 3 or 21 (4) 4 or 28
10. For which value of k does the following pair of
equations yield a unique solution for x such that
the solution is positive?
x² – y² = 0
(x – k)² + y² = 1

CAT 2005
(1) 2 (2) 0
( )√ ( ) √
Questions 11 to 30 carry 2 marks each.
11. Let n! = 1 × 2 × 3 × ... × n for integer n ≥ 1. If
p = 1! + (2 × 2!) + (3 × 3!) + … + (10 × 10!), then
p + 2 when divided by 11! leaves a remainder of
(1) 10 (2) 0 (3) 7 (4) 1
12. Consider a triangle drawn on the X-Y plane with
its three vertices at (41, 0), (0, 41) and (0, 0),
each vertex being represented by its (X, Y)
coordinates. The number of points with integer
coordinates inside the triangle (excluding all the
points on the boundary) is
(1) 780 (2) 800 (3) 820 (4) 741
13. The digits of a three-digit number A are written
in the reverse order to form another three-digit
number B. If B > A and B − A is perfectly divisible
by 7, then which of the following is necessarily
true?
(1) 100 < A < 299 (2) 106 < A < 305
(3) 112 < A < 311 (4) 118 < A < 317
14. If a1 = 1 and an + 1 – 3an + 2 = 4n for every positive
integer n, then a100 equals
(1) 399 – 200 (2) 399 + 200
(3) 3100 – 200 (4) 3100 + 200
15. Let S be the set of five digit numbers formed by
the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, using each digit exactly
once such that exactly two odd positions are
occupied by odd digits. What is the sum of the
digits in the rightmost position of the numbers in
S?
(1) 228 (2) 216 (3) 294 (4) 192
16. The rightmost non-zero digit of the number
302720 is
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 7 (4) 9
17. Four points A, B, C and D lie on a straight line in
the X-Y plane, such that AB = BC = CD, and the
length of AB is 1 metre. An ant at A wants to
reach a sugar particle at D. But there are insect
repellents kept at points B and C. The ant would
not go within one metre of any insect repellent.
The minimum distance in metres the ant must
traverse to reach the sugar particle is
( ) √ ( )
( ) ( )
18. If x ≥ y and y > 1, then the value of the expression
( ) ( )
(1) –1 (2) –0.5 (3) 0 (4) 1
19. For a positive integer n, let Pn denote the product
of the digits of n, and Sn denote the sum of the
digits of n. The number of integers between 10
and 1000 for which Pn + Sn = n is
(1) 81 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 9
20. Rectangular tiles each of size 70 cm by 30 cm
must be laid horizontally on a rectangular floor of
size 110 cm by 130 cm, such that the tiles do not
overlap. A tile can be placed in any orientation so
long as its edges are parallel to the edges of the
floor. No tile should overshoot any edge of the
floor. The maximum number of tiles that can be
accommodated on the floor is
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
21. In the X-Y plane, the area of the region bounded
by the graph of |x + y| + |x – y| = 4 is
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 20
22. In the following figure, the diameter of the circle
is 3 cm. AB and MN are two diameters such that
MN is perpendicular to AB. In addition, CG is
perpendicular to AB such that AE : EB = 1 : 2, and
DF is perpendicular to MN such that NL : LM = 1 :
2. The length of DH in cm is

CAT 2005
( ) √ ( )
( √ )
( )
( √ )
( )
( √ )
23. Consider the triangle ABC shown in the following
figure where BC = 12 cm, DB = 9 cm, CD = 6 cm
and ∠BCD = ∠BAC. What is the ratio of the
perimeter of the triangle ADC to that of the
triangle BDC?
(1) 7/9 (2) 8/9 (3) 6/9 (4) 5/9
24. P, Q, S, and R are points on the circumference of a
circle of radius r, such that PQR is an equilateral
triangle and PS is a diameter of the circle. What is
the perimeter of the quadrilateral PQSR?
( ) ( √ ) ( ) ( √ )
( ) ( √ ) ( ) √
25. Let S be a set of positive integers such that every
element n of S satisfies the conditions
a. 1000 ≤ n ≤ 1200
b. every digit in n is odd
Then how many elements of S are divisible by 3?
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12
√ √ √ √
Then x equals
( ) ( ) (
√
)
( ) (
√
) ( ) √
27. Let g(x) be a function such that
g(x + l) + g(x – l) = g(x) for every real x. Then for
what value of p is the relation g(x + p) = g(x)
necessarily true for every real x?
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 6
28. A telecom service provider engages male and
female operators for answering 1000 calls per
day. A male operator can handle 40 calls per day
whereas a female operator can handle 50 calls
per day. The male and the female operators get a
fixed wage of Rs. 250 and Rs. 300 per day
respectively. In addition, a male operator gets Rs.
15 per call he answers and a female operator gets
Rs. 10 per call she answers. To minimize the total
cost, how many male operators should the
service provider employ assuming he has to
employ more than 7 of the 12 female operators
available for the job?
(1) 15 (2) 14 (3) 12 (4) 10
29. Three Englishmen and three Frenchmen work for
the same company. Each of them knows a secret
not known to others. They need to exchange
these secrets over person-to-person phone calls
so that eventually each person knows all six
secrets. None of the Frenchmen knows English,
and only on Englishman knows French. What is
the minimum number of phone calls needed for
the above purpose?
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 15
30. A rectangular floor is fully covered with square
tiles of identical size. The tiles on the edges are
white and the tiles in the interior are red. The
number of white tiles is the same as the number
of red tiles. A possible value of the number of tiles
along one edge of the floor is
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 16
C M
NG
A
F
B
D
E O
H L
A
B C
D
9
12
6

CAT 2005
Section II
Instructions for questions 31 - 34:
The passage given below is followed by a set of
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to
each question.
A game of strategy, as currently conceived in game
theory, is a situation in which two or more "players"
make choices among available alternatives (moves).
The totality of choices determines the outcomes of
the game, and it is assumed that the rank order of
preferences for the outcomes is different for different
players. Thus the "interests" of the players are
generally in conflict. Whether these interests are
diametrically opposed or only partially opposed
depends on the type of game.
Psychologically, most interesting situations arise
when the interests of the players are partly coincident
and partly opposed, because then one can postulate
not only a conflict among the players but also inner
conflicts within the players. Each is torn between a
tendency to cooperate, so as to promote the common
interests, and a tendency to compete, so as to enhance
his own individual interests.
Internal conflicts are always psychologically
interesting. What we vaguely call "interesting"
psychology is in very great measure the psychology of
inner conflict. Inner conflict is also held to be an
important component of serious literature as
distinguished from less serious genres. The classical
tragedy, as well as the serious novel, reveals the inner
conflict of central figures. The superficial adventure
story, on the other hand, depicts only external
conflict; that is, the threats to the person with whom
the reader (or viewer) identifies stem in these stories
exclusively from external obstacles and from the
adversaries who create them. On the most primitive
level this sort of external conflict is psychologically
empty. In the fisticuffs between the protagonists of
good and evil, no psychological problems are involved
or, at any rate, none are depicted in juvenile
representations of conflict.
The detective story, the "adult" analogue of a juvenile
adventure tale, has at times been described as a
glorification of intellectualized conflict. However, a
great deal of the interest in the plots of these stories
is sustained by withholding the unraveling of a
solution to a problem. The effort of solving the
problem is in itself not a conflict if the adversary (the
unknown criminal) remains passive, like Nature,
whose secrets the scientist supposedly unravels by
deduction. If the adversary actively puts obstacles in
the detective's path toward the solution, there is
genuine conflict. But the conflict is psychologically
interesting only to the extent that it contains
irrational components such as a tactical error on the
criminal's part or the detective's insight into some
psychological quirk of the criminal or something of
this sort. Conflict conducted in a perfectly rational
manner is psychologically no more interesting than a
standard Western. For example, Tic-tac-toe, played
perfectly by both players, is completely devoid of
psychological interest. Chess may be psychologically
interesting but only to the extent that it is played not
quite rationally. Played completely rationally, chess
would not be different from Tic-tac-toe.
In short, a pure conflict of interest (what is called a
zero-sum game) although it offers a wealth of
interesting conceptual problems, is not interesting
psychologically, except to the extent that its conduct
departs from rational norms.
31. According to the passage, internal conflicts are
psychologically more interesting than external
conflicts because
(1) internal conflicts, rather than external
conflicts, form an important component of
serious literature as distinguished from less
serious genres.
(2) only juveniles or very few "adults" actually
experience external conflict, while internal
conflict is more widely prevalent in society.
(3) in situations of internal conflict, individuals
experience a dilemma in resolving their own
preferences for different outcomes.
(4) there are no threats to the reader (or viewer)
in case of external conflicts.
32. Which, according to the author, would qualify as
interesting psychology?

CAT 2005
(1) A statistician's dilemma over choosing the
best method to solve an optimisation
problem.
(2) A chess player's predicament over adopting a
defensive strategy against an aggressive
opponent.
(3) A mountaineer's choice of the best path to
Mt. Everest from the base camp.
(4) A finance manager's quandary over the best
way of raising money from the market.
33. According to the passage, which of the following
options about the application of game theory to a
conflict-of-interest situation is true?
(1) Assuming that the rank order of preferences
for options is different for different players.
(2) Accepting that the interests of different
players are often in conflict.
(3) Not assuming that the interests are in
complete disagreement.
(4) All of the above
34. The problem solving process of a scientist is
different from that of a detective because
(1) scientists study inanimate objects, while
detectives deal with living criminals or law
offenders.
(2) scientists study known objects, while
detectives have to deal with unknown
criminals or law offenders.
(3) scientists study phenomena that are not
actively altered, while detectives deal with
phenomena that have been deliberately
influenced to mislead.
(4) scientists study psychologically interesting
phenomena, while detectives deal with
"adult" analogues of juvenile adventure tales.
The sentences given in each question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence
is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order
of sentences from among the four given choices to
construct a coherent paragraph.
35.
A. Similarly, turning to caste, even though being
lower caste is undoubtedly a separate cause
of disparity, its impact is all the greater when
the lower-caste families also happen to be
poor.
B. Belonging to a privileged class can help a
woman to overcome many barriers that
obstruct women from less thriving classes.
C. It is the interactive presence of these two
kinds of deprivation- being low class and
being female- that massively impoverishes
women from the less privileged classes.
D. A congruence of class deprivation and gender
discrimination can blight the lives of poorer
women very severely.
E. Gender is certainly a contributor to societal
inequality, but it does not act independently
of class.
(1) EABDC (2) EBDCA
(3) DAEBC (4) BECDA
36.
A. When identity is thus ‘defined by contrast’,
divergence with the West becomes central.
B. Indian religious literature such as the
Bhagavad Gita or the Tantric texts, which are
identified as differing from secular writings
seen as ‘western’, elicits much greater
interest in the West than do other Indian
writings, including India's long history of
heterodoxy.
C. There is a similar neglect of Indian writing on
non-religious subjects, from mathematics,
epistemology and natural science to
economics and linguistics.
D. Through selective emphasis that point up
differences with the West, other civilizations
can, in this way, be redefined in alien terms,
which can be exotic and charming, or else
bizarre and terrifying, or simply strange and
engaging.
E. The exception is the Kamasutra in which
western readers have managed to cultivate
an interest.
(1) BDACE (2) DEABC
(3) BDECA (4) BCEDA
37.
A. This is now orthodoxy to which I subscribe-
up to a point.

CAT 2005
B. It emerged from the mathematics of chance
and statistics.
C. Therefore the risk is measurable and
manageable.
D. The fundamental concept: Prices are not
predictable, but the mathematical laws of
chance can describe their fluctuations.
E. This is how what business schools now call
modern finance was born.
(1) ADCBE (2) EBDCA
(3) ABDCE (4) DCBEA
Each question has a base word that is used in the
options given below. Choose the option in which the
usage of the word is inappropriate.
38. NEAR
(1) I got there just after you left – a near miss!
(2) She and her near friend left early.
(3) The war led to a near doubling of prices.
(4) They came near to tears seeing the plight of
the victims.
39. HAND
(1) I have my hand full, I cannot do it today.
(2) The minister visited the jail to see the breach
at first hand.
(3) The situation is getting out of hand here.
(4) When the roof of my house was blown away,
he was willing to lend me a hand.
40. FOR
(1) He has a great eye for detail.
(2) We are waiting for the day.
(3) I can’t bear for her to be angry.
(4) It couldn’t be done for ever.
each question.
Crinoline and croquet are out. As yet, no political
activists have thrown themselves in front of the royal
horse on Derby Day. Even so, some historians can
spot the parallels. It is a time of rapid technological
change. It is a period when the dominance of the
world's superpower is coming under threat. It is an
epoch when prosperity masks underlying economic
strain. And, crucially, it is a time when policy-makers
are confident that all is for the best in the best of all
possible worlds. Welcome to the Edwardian Summer
of the second age of globalisation.
Spare a moment to take stock of what's been
happening in the past few months. Let's start with the
oil price, which has rocketed to more than $65 a
barrel, more than double its level 18 months ago. The
accepted wisdom is that we shouldn't worry our little
heads about that, because the incentives are there for
business to build new production and refining
capacity, which will effortlessly bring demand and
supply back into balance and bring crude prices back
to $25 a barrel. As Tommy Cooper used to say, 'just
like that'.
Then there is the result of the French referendum on
the European Constitution, seen as thick-headed
luddites railing vainly against the modern world.
What the French needed to realise, the argument
went, was that there was no alternative to the
reforms that would make the country more flexible,
more competitive, more dynamic. Just the sort of
reforms that allowed Gate Gourmet to sack hundreds
of its staff at Heathrow after the sort of ultimatum
that used to be handed out by Victorian mill owners.
An alternative way of looking at the French "non" is
that our neighbours translate "flexibility" as "you're
fired".
Finally, take a squint at the United States. Just like
Britain a century ago, a period of unquestioned
superiority is drawing to a close. China is still a long
way from matching America's wealth, but it is
growing at a stupendous rate and economic strength
brings geopolitical clout. Already, there is evidence of
a new scramble for Africa as Washington and Beijing
compete for oil stocks. Moreover, beneath the surface
of the US economy, all is not well. Growth looks
healthy enough, but the competition from China and
elsewhere has meant the world's biggest economy
now imports far more than it exports. The US is living
beyond its means, but in this time of studied
complacency a current account deficit worth 6
percent of gross domestic product is seen as a sign of
strength, not weakness.

CAT 2005
In this new Edwardian summer, comfort is taken
from the fact that dearer oil has not had the savage
inflationary consequences of 1973-74, when a
fourfold increase in the cost of crude brought an
abrupt end to a postwar boom that had gone on
uninterrupted for a quarter of a century. True, the
cost of living has been affected by higher transport
costs, but we are talking of inflation at 2.3 per cent
and not 27 per cent. Yet the idea that higher oil prices
are of little consequence is fanciful. If people are
paying more to fill up their cars it leaves them with
less to spend on everything else, but there is a
reluctance to consume less. In the 1970s unions were
strong and able to negotiate large, compensatory pay
deals that served to intensify inflationary pressure. In
2005, that avenue is pretty much closed off, but the
abolition of all the controls on credit that existed in
the 1970s means that households are invited to
borrow more rather than consume less. The knock-on
effects of higher oil prices are thus felt in different
ways - through high levels of indebtedness, in inflated
asset prices, and in balance of payments deficits.
There are those who point out, rightly, that modern
industrial capitalism has proved mightily resilient
these past 250 years, and that a sign of the enduring
strength of the system has been the way it apparently
shrugged off everything - a stock market crash, 9/11,
rising oil prices - that have been thrown at it in the
half decade since the millennium. Even so, there are
at least three reasons for concern. First, we have been
here before. In terms of political economy, the first
era of globalisation mirrored our own. There was a
belief in unfettered capital flows, in free trade, and in
the power of the market. It was a time of massive
income inequality and unprecedented migration.
Eventually, though, there was a backlash, manifested
in a struggle between free traders and protectionists,
and in rising labour militancy.
Second, the world is traditionally at its most fragile at
times when the global balance of power is in flux. By
the end of the nineteenth century, Britain's role as the
hegemonic power was being challenged by the rise of
the United States, Germany, and Japan while the
Ottoman and Hapsburg empires were clearly in rapid
decline, Looking ahead from 2005, it is clear that over
the next two or three decades, both China and India -
which together account for half the world's
population - will flex their muscles.
Finally, there is the question of what rising oil prices
tell us. The emergence of China and India means
global demand for crude is likely to remain high at a
time when experts say production is about to top out.
If supply constraints start to bite, any declines in the
price are likely to be short-term cyclical affairs
punctuating a long upward trend.
41. By the expression 'Edwardian Summer', the
author refers to a period in which there is:
(1) unparalleled luxury and opulence.
(2) a sense of complacency among people
because of all-round prosperity.
(3) a culmination of all-round economic
prosperity.
(4) an imminent danger lurking behind
economic prosperity.
42. What, according to the author, has resulted in a
widespread belief in the resilience of modern
capitalism?
(1) Growth in the economies of Western
countries despite shocks in the form of
increase in levels of indebtedness and
inflated asset prices.
(2) Increase in the prosperity of Western
countries and China despite rising oil prices.
(3) Continued growth of Western economies
despite a rise in terrorism, an increase in oil
prices and other similar shocks.
(4) The success of continued reforms aimed at
making Western economies more dynamic,
competitive and efficient.
43. Which of the following best represents the key
argument made by the author?
(1) The rise in oil prices, the flux in the global
balance of power and historical precedents
should make us question our belief that the
global economic prosperity would continue.
(2) The belief that modern industrial capitalism
is highly resilient and capable of overcoming
shocks will be belied soon.
(3) Widespread prosperity leads to neglect of
early signs of underlying economic weakness,
manifested in higher oil prices and a flux in
the global balance of power.

CAT 2005
(4) A crisis is imminent in the West given the
growth of countries like China and India and
the increase in oil prices.
44. What can be inferred about the author's view
when he states, 'As Tommy Cooper used to say
"just like that"'?
(1) Industry has incentive to build new
production and refining capacity and
therefore oil prices would reduce.
(2) There would be a correction in the price
levels of oil once new production capacity is
added.
(3) The decline in oil prices is likely to be short-
term in nature.
(4) It is not necessary that oil prices would go
down to earlier levels.
each question.
While complex in the extreme, Derrida's work has
proven to be a particularly influential approach to the
analysis of the ways in which language structures our
understanding of ourselves and the world we inhabit,
an approach he termed deconstruction. In its simplest
formulation, deconstruction can be taken to refer to a
methodological strategy which seeks to uncover
layers of hidden meaning in a text that have been
denied or suppressed. The term ‘text’, in this respect,
does not refer simply to a written form of
communication, however. Rather, texts are something
we all produce and reproduce constantly in our
everyday social relations, be they spoken, written or
embedded in the construction of material artifacts. At
the heart of Derrida's deconstructive approach is his
critique of what he perceives to be the totalitarian
impulse of the Enlightenment pursuit to bring all that
exists in the world under the domain of a
representative language, a pursuit he refers to as
logocentrism. Logocentrism is the search for a
rational language that is able to know and represent
the world and all its aspects perfectly and accurately.
Its totalitarian dimension, for Derrida at least, lies
primarily in its tendency to marginalize or dismiss all
that does not neatly comply with its particular
linguistic representations, a tendency that,
throughout history, has all too frequently been
manifested in the form of authoritarian institutions.
Thus logocentrism has, in its search for the truth of
absolute representation, subsumed difference and
oppressed that which it designates as its alien ‘other’.
For Derrida, western civilization has been built upon
such a systematic assault on alien cultures and ways
of life, typically in the name of reason and progress.
In response to logocentrism, deconstruction posits
the idea that the mechanism by which this process of
marginalization and the ordering of truth occurs is
through establishing systems of binary opposition.
Oppositional linguistic dualisms, such as
rational/irrational, culture/nature and good/bad are
not, however, construed as equal partners as they are
in, say, the semiological structuralism of Saussure.
Rather, they exist, for Derrida, in a series of
hierarchical relationships with the first term normally
occupying a superior position. Derrida defines the
relationship between such oppositional terms using
the neologism différance. This refers to the
realization that in any statement, oppositional terms
differ from each other (for instance, the difference
between rationality and irrationality is constructed
through oppositional usage), and at the same time, a
hierarchical relationship is maintained by the
deference of one term to the other (in the positing of
rationality over irrationality, for instance). It is this
latter point which is perhaps the key to
understanding Derrida's approach to deconstruction.
For the fact that at any given time one term must
defer to its oppositional 'other', means that the two
terms are constantly in a state of interdependence.
The presence of one is dependent upon the absence
or 'absent-presence' of the 'other', such as in the case
of good and evil, whereby to understand the nature of
one, we must constantly relate it to the absent term in
order to grasp its meaning. That is, to do good, we
must understand that our act is not evil for without
that comparison the term becomes meaningless. Put
simply, deconstruction represents an attempt to
demonstrate the absent-presence of this oppositional
'other', to show that what we say or write is in itself
not expressive simply of what is present, but also of
what is absent. Thus, deconstruction seeks to reveal
the interdependence of apparently dichotomous
terms and their meanings relative to their textual
context; that is, within the linguistic power relations

CAT 2005
which structure dichotomous terms hierarchically. In
Derrida's own words, a deconstructive reading "must
always aim at a certain relationship, unperceived by
the writer, between what he commands and what he
does not command of the patterns of a language that
he uses. . . .[It] attempts to make the not-seen
accessible to sight."
Meaning, then, is never fixed or stable, whatever the
intention of the author of a text. For Derrida, language
is a system of relations that are dynamic, in that all
meanings we ascribe to the world are dependent not
only on what we believe to be present but also on
what is absent. Thus, any act of interpretation must
refer not only to what the author of a text intends, but
also to what is absent from his or her intention. This
insight leads, once again, to Derrida's further
rejection of the idea of the definitive authority of the
intentional agent or subject. The subject is decentred;
it is conceived as the outcome of relations of
différance. As author of its own biography, the subject
thus becomes the ideological fiction of modernity and
its logocentric philosophy, one that depends upon the
formation of hierarchical dualisms, which repress and
deny the presence of the absent ‘other’. No meaning
can, therefore, ever be definitive, but is merely an
outcome of a particular interpretation.
45. According to the passage, Derrida believes that:
(1) Reality can be construed only through the
use of rational analysis.
(2) Language limits our construction of reality.
(3) A universal language will facilitate a common
understanding of reality.
(4) We need to uncover the hidden meaning in a
system of relations expressed by language.
46. To Derrida, 'logocentrism' does not imply:
(1) A totalitarian impulse.
(2) A domain of representative language.
(3) Interdependence of the meanings of
dichotomous terms.
(4) A strategy that seeks to suppress hidden
meanings in a text.
47. According to the passage, Derrida believes that
the system of binary opposition
(1) represents a prioritization or hierarchy.
(2) reconciles contradictions and dualities.
(3) weakens the process of marginalization and
ordering of truth.
(4) deconstructs reality.
48. Derrida rejects the idea of 'definitive authority of
the subject' because
(1) interpretation of the text may not make the
unseen visible.
(2) the meaning of the text is based on binary
opposites.
(3) the implicit power relationship is often
ignored.
(4) any act of interpretation must refer to what
the author intends.
Instructions for questions 49 – 52:
Each of the following questions has a paragraph from
which the last sentence has been deleted. From the
given options, choose the one that completes the
paragraph in the most appropriate way.
49. The audiences for crosswords and sudoku,
understandably, overlap greatly, but there are
differences, too. A crossword attracts a more
literary person, while sudoku appeals to a keenly
logical mind. Some crossword enthusiasts turn up
their noses at sudoku because they feel it lacks
depth. A good crossword requires vocabulary,
knowledge, mental flexibility and sometimes
even a sense of humor to complete. It touches
numerous areas of life and provides an "Aha!" or
two along the way. ________
(1) Sudoku, on the other hand, is just a logical
exercise, each one similar to the last.
(2) Sudoku, incidentally, is growing faster in
popularity than crosswords, even among the
literati.
(3) Sudoku, on the other hand, can be attempted
and enjoyed even by children.
(4) Sudoku, however, is not exciting in any sense
of the term.
50. Most firms consider expert individuals to be too
elitist, temperamental, egocentric, and difficult to
work with. Force such people to collaborate on a
high- stakes project and they just might come to
fisticuffs. Even the very notion of managing such
a group seems unimaginable. So most

CAT 2005
organizations fall into default mode, setting up
project teams of people who get along nicely.
________
(1) The result, however, is disastrous.
(2) The result is mediocrity.
(3) The result is creation of experts who then
become elitists.
(4) Naturally, they drive innovations.
51. Federer's fifth grand slam win prompted a
reporter to ask whether he was the best ever.
Federer is certainly not lacking in confidence, but
he wasn't about to proclaim himself the best ever.
"The best player of this generation, yes", he said,
"But nowhere close to ever. Just look at the
records that some guys have. I'm a
minnow".________
(1) His win against Agassi, a genius from the
previous generation, contradicts that.
(2) Sampras, the king of an earlier generation,
was as humble.
(3) He is more than a minnow to his
contemporaries.
(4) The difference between ‘the best of this
generation' and ‘the best ever' is a matter of
perception.
52. Thus the end of knowledge and the closing of the
frontier that it symbolizes is not a looming crisis
at all, but merely one of many embarrassing fits
of hubris in civilization's long industry. In the
end, it will pass away and be forgotten. Ours is
not the first generation to struggle to understand
the organizational laws of the frontier, deceive
itself that it has succeeded, and go to its grave
having failed. ________
(1) One would be wise to be humble.
(2) But we might be the first generation to
actually reach the frontier.
(3) But we might be the first generation to deal
with the crisis.
(4) However, this time the success is not illusory.
Each of the questions consists of a certain number of
sentences. Some sentences are grammatically
incorrect or inappropriate. Select the option that
indicates the grammatically correct and appropriate
sentence(s).
53.
A. When virtuoso teams begin their work,
individuals are in and group consensus is out.
B. As project progresses, however, the individual
stars harness themselves to the product of the
group.
C. Sooner or later, the members break through
their own egocentrism and become a plurality
with single-minded focus on the goal.
D. In short, they morph into a powerful team
with a shared identity.
(1) A and C (2) A and D
(3) B and D (4) A, C and D
54.
A. Large reductions in the ozone layer, which sits
about 15-30 km above the Earth, take place
each winter over the Polar regions, especially
the Antarctic, as low temperatures allow the
formation of stratospheric clouds that assist
chemical reactions breaking down ozone.
B. Industrial chemicals containing chlorine and
bromine have been blamed for thinning the
layer because they attack the ozone molecules,
making them to break apart.
C. Many an offending chemicals have now been
banned.
D. It will still take several decades before these
substances have disappeared from the
atmosphere.
(1) D only (2) B and D
(3) A and D (4) A and C
55.
A. The balance of power will shift to the East as
China and India evolve.
B. Rarely the economic ascent of two still
relatively poor nations has been watched with
such a mixture of awe, opportunism, and
trepidation.
C. Postwar era witnessed economic miracles in
Japan and South Korea, but neither was
populous enough to power worldwide growth
or change the game in a complete spectrum of
industries.

CAT 2005
D. China and India, by contrast, possess the
weight and dynamism to transform the 21st-
century global economy.
(1) A, B and C (2) A and D
(3) C only (4) C and D
56.
A. People have good reason to care about the
welfare of animals.
B. Ever since Enlightenment, their treatment has
been seen as a measure of mankind's
humanity.
C. It is no coincidence that William Wilberforce
and Sir Thomas Foxwell Buxton, two leaders
of the movement to abolish the slave trade,
helped found the Royal Society for the
Prevention of Cruelty to Animals in 1820s.
D. An increasing number of people go further:
mankind has a duty not to cause pain to
animals that have the capacity to suffer.
(1) A and D (2) B only
(3) A and C (4) C and D
Each of the following questions has a
sentence/paragraph with one italicized word that
does not make sense. Choose the most appropriate
replacement for that word from the options given
below the paragraph.
57. Intelligent design derives from an early 19th-
century explanation of the natural world given by
an English clergyman, William Paley. Paley was
the populariser of the famous watchmaker
analogy. Proponents of intelligent design are
crupping Paley's argument with a new gloss from
molecular biology.
(1) destroying (2) testing
(3) resurrecting (4) questioning
58. Women squat, heads covered, beside huge piles
of limp fodder and blunk oil lamps, and just about
all the cows in the three towns converge upon
this spot. Sinners, supplicants and yes, even
scallywags hand over a few coins for a crack at
redemption and a handful of grass.
(1) shining (2) bright
(3) sputtering (4) effulgent
59. It is klang to a sensitive traveller who walks
through this great town, when he sees the streets,
the roads, and cabin doors crowded with beggars,
mostly women, followed by three, four, or six
children, all in rags and importuning every
passenger for alms.
(1) amusing (2) irritating
(3) disgusting (4) distressing
60. Or there is the most fingummy diplomatic note on
record: when Philip of Macedon wrote to the
Spartans that, if he came within their borders, he
would leave not one stone of their city, they
wrote back the one word - "If".
(1) witty (2) rude
(3) simple (4) terse

CAT 2005
Section III
Answer questions 61 to 64 based on the following information:
A management institute was established on January 1, 2000 with 3, 4, 5, and 6 faculty members in the Marketing,
Organisational Behaviour (OB), Finance, and Operations Management (OM) areas respectively, to start with. No
faculty member retired or joined the institute in the first three months of the year 2000. In the next four years, the
institute recruited one faculty member in each of the four areas. All these new faculty members, who joined the
institute subsequently over the years, were 25 years old at the time of their joining the institute. All of them joined
the institute on April 1. During these four years, one of the faculty members retired at the age of 60. The following
diagram gives the area-wise average age (in terms of number of completed years) of faculty members as on April 1
of 2000, 2001, 2002, and 2003.
61. From which area did the faculty member retire?
(1) Finance (2) Marketing (3) OB (4) OM
62. Professors Naresh and Devesh, two faculty members in the Marketing area, who have been with the Institute
since its inception, share a birthday, which falls on 20th November. One was born in 1947 and the other one in
1950. On April 1 2005, what was the age of the third faculty member who has been in the same area since
inception?
(1) 47 (2) 50 (3) 51 (4) 52
63. In which year did the new faculty member join the Finance area?
(1) 2000 (2) 2001 (3) 2002 (4) 2003
64. What was the age of the new faculty member, who joined the OM area, as on April 1, 2003?
(1) 25 (2) 26 (3) 27 (4) 28
49.33
50.5
50.2
45
44
51.5
49
43
45
52.5
45
44
46
47.8
46
45
40
45
50
55
Marketing OB Finance OM
2000
2001
2002
2003

CAT 2005
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.
State
Total Area
(in million
hectares)
% of Area Under
Rice Cultivation
Production
(in million tons)
Population
(in millions)
Himachal Pradesh 6 20 1.2 6
Kerala 4 60 4.8 32
Rajasthan 34 20 6.8 56
Bihar 10 60 12 83
Karnataka 19 50 19 53
Haryana 4 80 19.2 21
West Bengal 9 80 21.6 80
Gujarat 20 60 24 51
Punjab 5 80 24 24
Madhya Pradesh 31 40 24.8 60
Tamil Nadu 13 70 27.3 62
Maharashtra 31 50 48 97
Uttar Pradesh 24 70 67.2 166
Andhra Pradesh 28 80 112 76
65. Which two states account for the highest productivity of rice (tons produced per hectare of rice cultivation)?
(1) Haryana and Punjab (2) Punjab and Andhra Pradesh
(3) Andhra Pradesh and Haryana (4) Uttar Pradesh and Haryana
66. How many states have a per capita production of rice (defined as total rice production divided by its population)
greater than Gujarat?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
67. An intensive rice producing state is defined as one whose annual rice production per million of population is at
least 400,000 tons. How many states are intensive rice producing states?
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
Answer questions 68 and 70 based on the following information:
The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides
information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar)
and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication
Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG).

CAT 2005
SI
No.
Name Gender Designation Age Group
Committed to
projects during
Interested in
workshop on
1 Anshul M Mgr Y Jan, Mar CS, EG
2 Bushkant M Dir I Feb, Mar BO, EG
3 Charu F Mgr I Jan, Feb BO, CS
4 Dinesh M Exe O Jan, Apr BO, CS, EG
5 Eashwaran M Dir O Feb, Apr BO
6 Fatima F Mgr Y Jan, Mar BO, CS
7 Gayatri F Exe Y Feb, Mar EG
8 Hari M Mgr I Feb, Mar BO, CS, EG
9 Indira F Dir O Feb, Apr BO, EG
10 John M Dir Y Jan, Mar BO
11 Kalindi F Exe I Jan, Apr BO, CS, EG
12 Lavanya F Mgr O Feb, Apr CS, EG
13 Mandeep M Mgr O Mar, Apr BO, EG
14 Nandlal M Dir I Jan, Feb BO, EG
15 Parul F Exe Y Feb, Apr CS, EG
16 Rahul M Mgr Y Mar, Apr CS, EG
17 Sunita F Dir Y Jan, Feb BO, EG
18 Urvashi F Exe I Feb, Mar EG
19 Yamini F Mgr O Mar, Apr CS, EG
20 Zeena F Exe Y Jan, Mar BO, CS, EG
M = Male, F = Female; Exe = Executive, Mgr = Manager, Dir = Director; Y = Young, I = In-between, O = Old
For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one
should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he or she is not interested in. An employee
cannot attend the workshop on
 Communication Skills, if he or she is committed to internal projects in the month of January;
 Business Opportunities, if he or she is committed to internal projects in the month of February;
 E-governance, if he or she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.
68. Assuming that Parul and Hari are attending the workshop on Communication Skills (CS), then which of the
following employees can possibly attend the CS workshop?
(1) Rahul and Yamini (2) Dinesh and Lavanya
(3) Anshul and Yamini (4) Fatima and Zeena
69. How many Executives (Exe) cannot attend more than one workshop?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 15 (4) 16
70. Which set of employees cannot attend any of the workshops?
(1) Anshul, Charu, Eashwaran, and Lavanya (2) Anshul, Bushkant, Gayatri, and Urvashi
(3) Charu, Urvashi, Bushkant, and Mandeep (4) Anshul, Gayatri, Eashwaran, and Mandeep

CAT 2005
Answer questions 71 – 74 based on the following information:
In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an
Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the
final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays
the lowest seeded player (seed # 32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the
31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of
first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of
match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second
round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is
designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between
the winner of match No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed
for later rounds as well.
Seed # Name of Player Seed # Name of Player Seed # Name of Player
1 Maria Sharapova 12 Mary Pierce 23 Silvia Farina Elia
2 Lindsay Davenport 13 Anastasia Myskina 24 Tatiana Golovin
3 Amelie Mauresmo 14 Alicia Molik 25 Shinobu Asagoe
4 Kim Clijsters 15 Nathalie Dechy 26 Francesca Schiavone
5 Svetlana Kuznetsova 16 Elena Bovina 27 Nicole Vaidisova
6 Elena Dementieva 17 Jelena Jankovic 28 Gisela Dulko
7 Justine Henin 18 Ana Ivanovic 29 Flavia Pennetta
8 Serena Williams 19 Vera Zvonareva 30 Anna Chakvetadze
9 NadiaPetrova 20 Elena Likhovtseva 31 Ai Sugiyama
10 Venus Williams 21 Daniela Hantuchova 32 Anna-lena Groenefeld
11 Patty Schnyder 22 Dinara Safina
71. If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and only match
Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay Davenport in quarter finals,
in case Davenport reaches quarter finals?
(1) Justine Henin (2) Nadia Petrova
(3) Patty Schnyder (4) Venus Williams
72. If Elena Dementieva and Serena Williams lose in the second round, while Justine Henin and Nadia Petrova make
it to the semifinals, then who would play Maria Sharapova in the quarterfinals, in the event Sharapova reaches
quarterfinals?
(1) Dinara Safina (2) Justine Henin
(3) Nadia Petrova (4) Patty Schnyder
73. If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered ones) result in upsets, and
there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player facing Maria Sharapova in
semi-finals?
(1) Anastasia Myskina (2) Flavia Pennetta
(3) Nadia Petrova (4) Svetlana Kuznetsova

CAT 2005
74. If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would definitely
not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final?
(1) Amelie Mauresmo (2) Elena Dementieva
(3) Kim Clijsters (4) Lindsay Davenport
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies - A, B, C and D. Each of these
companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no
particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs.100. Venkat purchased only one stock of
each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30%, and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C
and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a
percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One
of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel
or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially
expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the
returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto
industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the
initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies, which did not announce extraordinarily good results,
the returns realized during the year
were the same as initially expected.
75. What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year?
(1) 30% (2) 35%
(3) 32.5% (4) Cannot be determined
76. If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would
necessarily be true?
I. Company A belonged either to Auto or to
Steel Industry.
II. Company B did not announce extraordinarily
good results.
III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. Company D did not announce extraordinarily good results.
(1) I and II only (2) II and III only
(3) I and IV only (4) II and IV only
77. If Venkat earned a 38.75% return on average during the year, then which of these statement(s)
would necessarily be true?
I. Company C belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
II. Company D belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.
(1) I and II only (2) II and III only
(3) I and IV only (4) II and IV only
78. If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good results, then
which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?

CAT 2005
I. Venkat earned not more than 36.25% return on average.
II. Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average.
III. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
(1) I and II only (2) II and IV only
(3) II and III only (4) III and IV only
Answer questions 79 to 82 based on the following
information:
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and
Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics.
The eventual winner is determined through several
rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each
member representing a different city. All the four
cities in contention are also represented in IOC.
 In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest
number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The
survivor after the last round of voting gets to host
the event.
 A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two
different cities in all rounds of voting combined.
(Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote
in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in
earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of
voting).
 A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round
if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that
round of voting.
 As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote
and vote for only one candidate city in any round of
voting.
The following incomplete table shows the
information on cities that received the maximum and
minimum votes in different rounds, the number of
votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that
were cast in those rounds.
Round
Total
votes
cast
Maximum
votes cast
Eliminated
City
No. of
votes
City
No. of
votes
1 London 30
New
York
12
2 83 Paris 32 Beijing 21
3 75
It is also known that:
 All those who voted for London and Paris in round
1, continued to vote for the same cities in
subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in
contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in
round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.
 Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted
either for Beijing or Paris in round 2.
 The difference in votes cast for the two contending
cities in the last round was 1.
 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1,
voted for Paris in round 3.
79. What percentage of members from among those
who voted for New York in round 1, voted for
Beijing in round 2?
(1) 33.33 (2) 50
(3) 66.67 (4) 75
80. What is the number of votes cast for Paris in
round 1?
(1) 16 (2) 18
(3) 22 (4) 24
81. What percentage of members from among those
who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were
eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London?
(1) 33.33 (2) 38.10
(3) 50 (4) 66.67
82. Which of the following statements must be true?
a. IOC member from New York must have voted
for Paris in round 2.
b. IOC member from Beijing voted for London in
round 3.
(1) Only a (2) Only b
(3) Both a and b (4) Neither a nor b

CAT 2005
information:
The table below presents the revenue (in million
rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms,
Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and
Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A, B, C and
D, in no particular order.
States
Firm
A
Firm
B
Firm
C
Firm
D
UP 49 82 80 55
Bihar 69 72 70 65
MP 72 63 72 65
Further, it is known that:
 In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest
market share.
 Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from
Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.
83. What can be said regarding the following two
statements?
Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share
in MP market.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s total revenue is more
than Profitable Ltd.
(1) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is
necessarily true.
(2) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is
necessarily false.
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.
(4) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true.
statements?
Statement 1: Aggressive Ltd.’s lowest revenues
are from MP.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s lowest revenues are
from Bihar.
a. If Statement 2 is true then Statement 1 is
necessarily false.
b. If Statement 1 is false then Statement 2 is
necessarily true.
c. If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is
necessarily true.
d. None of the above.
statements?
Statement 1: Honest Ltd. has the highest share in
the UP market.
Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. has the highest
share in the Bihar market.
(1) Both statements could be true.
(2) At least one of the statements must be true.
(3) At most one of the statements is true.
(4) None of the above
86. If Profitable Ltd.’s lowest revenue is from UP,
then which of the following is true?
(1) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.
(2) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from
Bihar.
(3) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from UP.
(4) No definite conclusion is possible.
information:
Help Distress (HD) is an NGO involved in providing
assistance to people suffering from natural disasters.
Currently, it has 37 volunteers. They are involved in
three projects: Tsunami Relief (TR) in Tamil Nadu,
FloodRelief (FR) in Maharashtra, and Earthquake
Relief (ER) in Gujarat. Each volunteer working with
Help Distress has to be involved in at least one relief
work project.
 A maximum number of volunteers are involved in
the FR project. Among them, the number of
volunteers involved in FR project alone is equal to
the volunteers having additional involvement in the
ER project.
 The number of volunteers involved in the ER
project alone is double the number of volunteers
involved in all the three projects.
 17 volunteers are involved in the TR project.
 The number of volunteers involved in the TR
project alone is one less than the number of
volunteers involved in ER Project alone.
 Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also
involved in at least one more project.
87. Based on the information given above, the
minimum number of volunteers involved in both
FR and TR projects, but not in the ER project is:
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

CAT 2005
88. Which of the following additional information
would enable to find the exact number of
volunteers involved in various projects?
(1) Twenty volunteers are involved in FR.
(2) Four volunteers are involved in all the three
projects.
(3) Twenty three volunteers are involved in
exactly one project.
(4) No need for any additional information.
89. After some time, the volunteers who were
involved in all the three projects were asked to
withdraw from one project. As a result, one of
the volunteers opted out of the TR project, and
one opted out of the ER project, while the
remaining ones involved in all the three projects
opted out of the FR project. Which of the
following statements, then, necessarily follows?
(1) The lowest number of volunteers is now in TR
project.
(2) More volunteers are now in FR project as
compared to ER project.
(3) More volunteers are now in TR project as
compared to ER project.
(4) None of the above
90. After the withdrawal of volunteers, as indicated
in Question 89, some new volunteers joined the
NGO. Each one of them was allotted only one
project in a manner such that, the number of
volunteers working in one project alone for each
of the three projects became identical. At that
point, it was also found that the number of
volunteers involved in FR and ER projects was
the same as the number of volunteers involved in
TR and ER projects. Which of the projects now
has the highest number of volunteers?
(1) ER (2) FR
(3) TR (4) Cannot be determined

Answer Key
SECTION I SECTION II SECTION III
Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans.
1 1 16 1 31 3 46 3 61 1 76 2
2 3 17 2 32 2 47 1 62 4 77 3
3 2 18 4 33 4 48 1 63 3 78 2
4 4 19 4 34 3 49 1 64 3 79 4
5 1 20 3 35 2 50 2 65 1 80 4
6 2 21 3 36 4 51 3 66 2 81 4
7 2 22 2 37 2 52 1 67 4 82 1
8 4 23 1 38 2 53 2 68 1 83 2
9 4 24 1 39 1 54 3 69 2 84 3
10 3 25 1 40 4 55 2 70 2 85 3
11 4 26 3 41 2 56 1 71 4 86 3
12 1 27 4 42 3 57 3 72 3 87 3
13 2 28 4 43 1 58 3 73 1 88 1
14 3 29 3 44 4 59 4 74 3 89 2
15 2 30 2 45 4 60 4 75 1 90 1

Cat 2005 paper with key proton training solutions

More Related Content

What's hot (17)

Similar to Cat 2005 paper with key proton training solutions (20)

More from Proton Training Solutions (12)

Recently uploaded (20)

Cat 2005 paper with key proton training solutions