Ccna 1 final exam answer v5

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CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02
2015 (100%)
1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?
 wiki
 e-mail
 weblog
 instant messaging
2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions
are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation?
(Choose three.)
 regenerating data signals
 acting as a client or a server
 providing a channel over which messages travel
 applying security settings to control the flow of data
 notifying other devices when errors occur
 serving as the source or destination of the messages
3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital
transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be
used?
 DSL
 dial-up
 satellite
 cell modem
 cable modem
4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices
must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network
technology is required to support this requirement?
 LAN
 MAN
 WAN
 WLAN
5. Referto the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS?

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CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer001 (v5.02, 2015)
 flash memory
 NVRAM?
 RAM
 ROM
 a TFTP server?
6. Which connection provides a secure CLI sessionwith encryption to a Cisco
network device?
 a console connection
 an AUX connection
 a Telnet connection
 an SSH connection
7. Referto the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but
receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

 The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
 The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
 The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
 The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.
8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after
issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?
 to restart the ping process
 to interrupt the ping process
 to exit to a different configuration mode
 to allow the user to complete the command
9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in
IOS?
 It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
 It exits configuration mode and returns to userEXEC mode.
 It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
 It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.
10. Referto the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand
new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display
after the command is issued??
 My Switch(config)#?
 Switch(config)#?
 MySwitch(config)#?
 My(config)#?
 Switch#
11. Referto the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to
switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which
password is needed to access userEXEC mode?

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 letmein
 secretin
 lineconin
 linevtyin
12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy
running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of
issuing this command?
 The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
 The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
 The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
 The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.
13. Referto the exhibit. Which action will be successful?
 PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.
 PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.
14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP operation of a
host?
 0.0.0.0
 0.0.0.1
 127.0.0.1
 192.168.1.1
 255.255.255.255
15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
(Choose three.)

 ARP
 DHCP
 DNS
 FTP
 NAT
 PPP
16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)
 ARP
 BOOTP
 ICMP
 IP
 PPP
17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and
technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?
 Request for Comments
 IRTF research papers
 protocol models
 IEEE standards
18. Which address on a PC does not change, evenif the PC is moved to a
different network?
 IP address
 default gateway address
 MAC address
 logical address
19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known
logical address and what message type does it use?
 ARP, multicast
 DNS, unicast
 DNS, broadcast
 ARP, broadcast
 PING, multicast
 PING, broadcast
20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on
a host?
 The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
 The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
 The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
 The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
 A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?
 It accepts frames from the physicalmedia.

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 It encapsulates upperlayer data into frames.
 It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
 It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.
22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?
 requiring proper grounding connections
 twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
 wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
 designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
 avoiding sharp bends during installation
23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling?
(Choose two.)
 Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.
 Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
 Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.
 Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
 Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode
cables.
24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
 logical address
 physical address
 data
 error detection
25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
 the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
 the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a
 crossoverEthernet cable connection
 the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copperor optical
cable
 the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected
26. Referto the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this
exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address
table that is associatedwith the Fa0/1 port?

 just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
 just the PC0 MAC address
 PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
 just the PC1 MAC address
 just the PC2 MAC address?
27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?
 A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
 An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not
supported in Layer 2 switches.
 A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
 A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports.
However, a Layer 2 switch does not.
28. What is the purpose of the routing process?
 to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
 to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
 to convert a URL name into an IP address
 to provide secure Internet file transfer
 to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses
29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing
multiple devices to share one public IP address?
 ARP
 DNS
 NAT
 SMB
 DHCP
 HTTP

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30. Referto the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1.
What is a description of the default gateway address?
 It is the IP address ofthe Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
 It is the IP address ofthe Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
 It is the IP address ofSwitch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
 It is the IP address ofthe ISP network device located in the cloud.
31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
 packet switching
 microsegmentation
 domain name resolution
 path selection
 flow control
32. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its
contents? (Choose two.)

 ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
 FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.
 RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.
 NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
 ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.
33. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration
information?
 NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
 NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode
 setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
 TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
 flash, ROM, setup mode
34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to
the destination?
 A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
 The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.
 The entire transmission is re-sent.
 The transmission continues without the missing portion.
35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)
 10.172.168.1
 172.32.5.2
 192.167.10.10
 172.20.4.4
 192.168.5.254
 224.6.6.6
36. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?
 4
 8
 16
 32
37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a
router?
 to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
 to enable the router as an IPv6 router
 to permit only unicast packets on the router
 to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group
38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source
address??
 FEC0::/10?
 FDFF::/7?
 FEBF::/10?

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 FF00::/8
39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
 to inform routers about network topology changes
 to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
 to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
 to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
40. Referto the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the
IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can
access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet sites by using
either FQDN or IP addresses. Basedupon the exhibit, what could account for
this failure?
 The DNS server addresses are incorrect.
 The default gateway address in incorrect.
 The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.
 The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.

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41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host
address?
 192.168.1.64/26
 192.168.1.32/27
 192.168.1.32/28
 192.168.1.64/29
42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from
servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be
applied to these devices?
 random static addresses to improve security
 addresses from different subnets forredundancy
 predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
 dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses
43. Referto the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?
 Site 1

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 Site 2
 Site 3
 Site 4
44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6?
(Choose two.)
 /62
 /64
 /66
 /68
 /70
45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through
DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network?
(Choose two.)
 DHCPDISCOVER
 DHCPOFFER
 DHCPREQUEST
 DHCPACK
 DHCPNACK
46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?
 to require users to prove who they are
 to determine which resources a user can access
 to keep track of the actions of a user
 to provide challenge and response questions
47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force
password attacks against the router?
 exec-timeout 30
 service password-encryption
 banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
 login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7
computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS
entries for this web page?
 ipconfig /all
 arp -a
 ipconfig /displaydns
 nslookup
49. Referto the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into
the R1 router:
R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

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When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address
should the administrator enter at the prompt?
 192.168.9.254
 192.168.10.1
 192.168.10.2
 192.168.11.252
 192.168.11.254
50. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

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51. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new
wireless routers? (Choose two.)
 broadcast SSID
 MAC filtering enabled
 WEP encryption enabled
 PSK authentication required
 default administrator password
52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time
a client associates with an AP?
 EAP
 PSK
 WEP
 WPA
53. Fill in the blank.

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TFTP is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is
used to transfer files.
54. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a
WLAN? (Choose two.)
 media
 wireless NIC
 customadapter
 crossovercable
 wireless bridge
 wireless client software
55. Consider the following range of addresses:
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::
…
2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::
The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60 .
56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all
options are used.)
CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 011 (v5.02, 2015)

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57. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three
functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this
conversation? (Choose three.)
58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?
 when a cellular telephone provides the service
 when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
 when a satellite dish is used
 when a regular telephone line is used
59. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library
database, and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If
network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be classified from
highest priority to lowest priority?
 audio conference, database,HTTP
 database,HTTP, audio conference
 audio conference, HTTP, database
 database,audio conference, HTTP
60. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the
IOS?
 RAM
 flash
 NVRAM
 disk drive
61. Which connection provides a secure CLI sessionwith encryption to a Cisco
switch?
 a console connection
 an AUX connection
 a Telnet connection
 an SSH connection
62. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS
process?
 Ctrl-Shift-X
 Ctrl-Shift-6
 Ctrl-Z
 Ctrl-C

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63. Referto the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand
new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display
after the command is issued??
 HR Switch(config)#?
 Switch(config)#?
 HRSwitch(config)#?
 HR(config)#?
 Switch#
64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network
administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the
result of issuing this command?
 The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
 The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
 The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
 The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.
65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so
that the switch can be managed remotely?
 FastEthernet0/1
 VLAN 1
 vty 0
 console 0
66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician
testing?
 the TCP/IP stack on a network host
 connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
 connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
 connectivity between two PCs on the same network
 physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network
67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

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68. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with
another host on a different network?
 switch
 hub
 router
 host
69. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company
backbone for a mission critical application. The technician notices that the
network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three
factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)
 the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
 the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
 the type of traffic that is crossing the network
 the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
 the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
 the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
70. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
 It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
 Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
 It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
 It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.

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 It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling
71. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)
 It is straightforward to troubleshoot.
 End devices are connected togetherby a bus.
 It is easy to add and remove end devices.
 All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.
 Each end systemis connected to its respective neighbor.
72. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the
receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?
 to determine the physical address of the sending device
 to verify the network layer protocolinformation
 to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
 to check the frame for possible transmission errors
 to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address ofthe receiving device
73. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a
received frame is not in the MAC table?
 It initiates an ARP request.
 It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
 It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
 It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.
74. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?
 cut-through
 store-and-forward
 fragment-free
 fast-forward
75. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination
when there are multiple routes available?
 the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
 the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
 the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
 the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network
76. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a
router? (Choose two.)
 stores routing tables
 allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard
 maintains instructions for POST diagnostics
 holds ARP cache
 stores bootstrap program

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77. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management
ports?
 A console port is used for remote management of the router.
 A console port is not used for packet forwarding.
 Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.
 Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status ofthe
management ports.
78. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to
the destination?
 The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
79. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address
11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?
 192.0.2.199
 198.51.100.201
 203.0.113.211
 209.165.201.223
80. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)
 10.20.30.1
 172.32.5.2
 192.167.10.10
 172.30.5.3
 192.168.5.5
 224.6.6.6
81. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8
block IPv4 bit space?
 private addresses
 public addresses
 multicast addresses
 experimental addresses
82. Referto the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach
the destination www.cisco.com??

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 11
 12
 13
 14
83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would
contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve
that? (Choose two.)
 192.168.1.16/28
 192.168.1.64/27
 192.168.1.128/27
 192.168.1.96/28
 192.168.1.192/28
84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing
100 hosts?
 /23
 /24
 /25
 /26
85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?

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 Transmission Control Protocol
 Real-Time Transport Protocol
 Secure File Transfer Protocol
 Video over Internet Protocol
86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?
 to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
 to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
 to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network
 to display the IP address,default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC
87. Referto the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the
exhibited output?
 The asterisk shows which file systemwas used to boot the system.
 The asterisk designates which file systemis the default file system.
 An asterisk indicates that the file systemis bootable.
 An asterisk designates that the file systemhas at least one file that uses that file system.
88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a
client establishes a connection with the AP?
 EAP
 PSK
 WEP
 WPA
Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on
the medium at the same time are known as full-duplex .
90. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options
are used.)

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91. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three
functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this
conversation? (Choose three.)
92. Referto the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the
company network that is shown?

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 area A
 area B
 area C
 area D
93. What is the purpose of having a converged network?
 to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
 to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
 to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
 to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure
94. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first employee
uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some
announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to
perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an
important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If
QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to
lowest of the different data types?

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 audio conference, financial transactions,web page
 financial transactions,web page, audio conference
 audio conference, web page, financial transactions
 financial transactions,audio conference, web page
95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and
routers run the IOS?
 RAM
 flash
 NVRAM
 disk drive
96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router.
After making the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the
copy running-config startup-config command. What will happen after this
command executes?
 The configuration will be copied to flash.
 The configuration will load when the router is restarted.
 The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
 The changes will be lost when the router restarts.
97. What information does the loopback test provide?
 The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.
 The device has end-to-end connectivity.
 DHCP is working correctly.
 The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
 The device has the correct IP address on the network.
98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
 It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
 It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the
medium.
 It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same
network interface and media.
 It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless
network?
 CSMA/CD
 priority ordering
 CSMA/CA
 token passing
100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC
value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?
 The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.

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 The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
 The switch drops the frame.
 The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to
notify the hosts ofthe error.
101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
 0.0.0.0
 255.255.255.255
 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
 127.0.0.1
 01-00-5E-00-AA-23
102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
 the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
 the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossoverEthernet cable
connection
 the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copperor optical
cable
 the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected
103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a
CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?
 cut-through switching
 store-and-forward switching
 fragment-free switching
 fast-forward switching
104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?
(Choose two.)
 adjacency tables
 MAC-address tables
 routing tables
 ARP tables
 forwarding information base (FIB)
105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executedby a router
when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another
network?
 It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.
 It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to
forward it toward
 the destination host.
 It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
 It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.
106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing
multiple devices to share one public IP address?
 ARP

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 DNS
 NAT
 SMB
 DHCP
 HTTP
107. Referto the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with
correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command
output not display any information about the directly connected networks??
 The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing
table.
 The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives
a packet.
 The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.
 The gateway of last resort was not configured.
108. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not
delivered to the destination?
 The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
109. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose
three.)
 TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

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 TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
 UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
 TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
 TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
110. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to
search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a
datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which
information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify the
destination web browser?
 the destination IP address
 the destination port number
 the source IP address
 the source port number
111. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session
with a server?
 Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in
order.
 A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
 A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
 Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.
112. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to
participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)
 MAC address
 IP address
 kernel
 shell
 subnet mask
113. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)
 The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
 A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.
 Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.
 Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
 Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
 Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upperlayer addresses.
114. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of
assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)
 It eliminates most address configuration errors.
 It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
 It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
 It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
 It reduces the burden on network support staff.
115. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

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 2001:DB8:BC15::0
 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0
 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0
116. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)
 compression
 addressing
 encryption
 session control
 authentication
117. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?
 to require users to prove who they are
 to determine which resources a user can access
 to keep track of the actions of a user
 to provide challenge and response questions
118. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each
time a client associates with an AP?
 EAP
 PSK
 WEP
 WPA
During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a
specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of
a Multicast message.
120. Match the description with the associatedIOS mode. (Not all options are
used.)

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CCNA 5 Answers:
 CCNA 1 Chapter 1 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)
 CCNA 1 Chapter and Final Exam Answer 2015 (100%)
 CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)
 CCNA 1 Practice Final Exam Answer v5.02 2015 (100%)
 CCNA 1 Pretest Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

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1
 CCNA 2 RSE Practice Skills Assessment â€“ PT 2015 (100%)
 ITE Chapter and Final Exam Answer 2015 (100%)
 ITE Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

Ccna 1 final exam answer v5

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