CSEC OA Syllabus.pdf

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CSEC®
Office
Administration
SYLLABUS
SPECIMEN PAPER
MARK SCHEME
SUBJECT REPORTS

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CSEC® Office Administration Free Resources
LIST OF CONTENTS
CSEC® Office Administration Syllabus Extract 3
CSEC® Office Administration Syllabus 4
CSEC® Office Administration Specimen Papers and Mark
Schemes
Paper 01 2011 80
Paper 02 2011 82
Paper 032 2011 113
CSEC® Office Administration Subject Reports
January 2004 Subject Report 132
May/June 2004 Subject Report 142

Office Administration Syllabus Extract
Office Administration is a Business Education subject concerned with the study of
administrative principles, policies, procedures and technological competencies
governing the modern office environment. The content and teaching strategies used
reflect current trends in the modern office. The syllabus aims to provide students with
knowledge, skills and attitudes for immediate access to entry-level positions such as
administrative assistants, clerical assistants, receptionists, record management
clerks, accounting clerks and factory and dispatch clerks and other related positions.
The syllabus adopts a practical approach, aimed at equipping students with the
technical and professional skills to perform effectively, and for mobility as
administrative support personnel within an organisation. Further, it seeks to nurture
and improve students’ social and personal management skills and foster the
development of a positive work ethic. In addition, the syllabus provides the
foundation for students desirous of furthering their education in other related fields.
The syllabus is arranged in 12 sections, sub-divided into specific objectives and
corresponding content.
• Section 1 Office Orientation
• Section 2 Communication
• Section 3 Recruitment and Orientation
• Section 4 Records and Information Management
• Section 5 Reception and Hospitality
• Section 6 Meetings
• Section 7 Travel Arrangements
• Section 8 Human Resources Management
• Section 9 Accounts and Financial Services
• Section 10 Procurement and Inventory Management
• Section 11 Sales, Marketing and Customer Service
• Section 12 Operations, Despatch and Transport services

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15
CARIBBEAN EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL
Caribbean Secondary Education Certificate®
CSEC
®
OFFICE ADMINISTRATION
SYLLABUS
Effective for examinations from May – June 2017

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15
Published by the Caribbean Examinations Council.
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or
transmitted in any form, or by any means electronic, photocopying, recording or otherwise without
prior permission of the author or publisher.
Correspondence related to the syllabus should be addressed to:
The Pro-Registrar
Caribbean Examinations Council
Caenwood Centre
37 Arnold Road, Kingston 5, Jamaica
Telephone Number: + 1 (876) 630-5200
Facsimile Number: + 1 (876) 967-4972
E-mail Address: cxcwzo@cxc.org
Website: www.cxc.org
Copyright © Caribbean Examinations Council (2013)
The Garrison, St Michael BB14038, Barbados

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15
Contents
RATIONALE......................................................................................................................................... 1
AIMS................................................................................................................................................... 1
GENERAL OBJECTIVES ........................................................................................................................ 2
SKILLS AND ABILITIES TO BE ASSESSED.............................................................................................. 2
ORGANISATION OF THE SYLLABUS .................................................................................................... 3
SUGGESTED TIMETABLE ALLOCATION............................................................................................... 3
RECOMMENDATIONS FOR TEACHING ............................................................................................... 3
CERTIFICATION .................................................................................................................................. 4
DEFINITION OF PROFILE DIMENSIONS .............................................................................................. 4
FORMAT OF THE EXAMINATIONS ..................................................................................................... 5
WEIGHTING OF THE EXAMINATION COMPONENTS ......................................................................... 6
REGULATIONS FOR PRIVATE CANDIDATES ........................................................................................ 6
REGULATIONS FOR RESIT CANDIDATES............................................................................................. 6
SECTION I: OFFICE ORIENTATION ...................................................................................................... 7
SECTION II: COMMUNICATION .......................................................................................................... 11
SECTION III: RECRUITMENT AND ORIENTATION............................................................................... 18
SECTION IV: RECORDS AND INFORMATION MANAGEMENT............................................................. 21
SECTION V: RECEPTION AND HOSPITALITY........................................................................................ 25
SECTION VI: MEETINGS...................................................................................................................... 27
SECTION VII: TRAVEL ARRANGEMENTS ............................................................................................. 30
SECTION VIII: HUMAN RESOURCES MANAGEMENT.......................................................................... 32

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15
SECTION IX: ACCOUNTS AND FINANCIAL SERVICES........................................................................... 35
SECTION X: PROCUREMENT AND INVENTORY MANAGEMENT......................................................... 39
SECTION XI: SALES, MARKETING AND CUSTOMER SERVICE ............................................................. 43
SECTION XII: OPERATIONS, DISPATCH AND TRANSPORT SERVICES.................................................. 47
GUIDELINES TO TEACHERS FOR THE CONDUCT OF SCHOOL-BASED ASSESSMENT…………………..…… 51

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15
The Office Administration Syllabus (CXC 27/0/SYLL 15) was amended in 2015 for first examination in
2017.
Teaching is expected to commence on the amended syllabus in September 2015.
The amendments to the syllabus are indicated by italics.
First issued 2004
Revised 2011
Amended 2013
Amended 2015
Please check the website, www.cxc.org for updates on CXC’s syllabuses.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 1
Office Administration Syllabus
 RATIONALE
Office Administration is a Business Education subject concerned with the study of administrative
principles, policies, procedures and technological competencies governing the modern office
environment. The content and teaching strategies used should therefore reflect current trends in the
office.
This Office Administration syllabus is designed to provide students with the knowledge, skills and
attitudes to function effectively within a modern office environment. The syllabus adopts a practical
approach, aimed at equipping students with the technical and professional skills to perform
effectively, as clerical and administrative support personnel within an organisation. It also provides
the foundation for students desirous of furthering their education in a range of disciplines including
Events Management, Human Resources Management, Office Administration, Chartered Accounting,
Procurement and Projects Management, and Logistics and Supply Chains Operations.
The syllabus seeks to instil tenets of the Ideal Caribbean Person as articulated by the CARICOM
Caribbean Education Task Force (CTF) and adopted by the CARICOM Heads of Government at their
18th
Summit. To this end the syllabus contains objectives and content intended to nurture and improve
students’ social responsibility, personal management skills and positive work ethic. In addition, in
keeping with the UNESCO Pillars of Learning, on completion of this course of study students will learn
to know, to be, to do, and to live together.
 AIMS
The syllabus aims to:
1. provide students with the knowledge, skills, attitudes and competencies to function in the
modern office environment;
2. develop awareness of the principles, policies, procedures and technological competencies
involved in office administration;
3. develop technical, human, planning, organising, problem-solving and management skills
necessary for functioning in a modern office environment;
4. provide students with the capability to adapt to changes that impact the business
environment;
5. help students appreciate the wide range of attitudes, attributes and behaviours necessary for
success and advancement in the world of work; and,
6. lay the foundation for career development and further studies in the business field.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 2
 GENERAL OBJECTIVES
On completion of the syllabus, students should:
1. acquire the knowledge and skills of office administration to function effectively in a modern
office environment;
2. develop problem – solving capabilities to function with minimum supervision;
3. develop the confidence and capability to respond effectively to new processes in the office;
4. acquire technological, communicative, problem – solving and attitudinal skills to function
effectively in the working environment;
5. acquire inter – personal skills to help foster organisational harmony and customer goodwill;
6. develop the confidence to seek promotional opportunities within the organisation;
7. develop the competency to choose from a wide range of career paths in the business field;
8. acquire knowledge and skills that would allow them to pursue further education in related
fields of business;
9. acquire skills to conduct self – directed investigations into alternative procedures and systems
that may assist in maximising the output of the office;
10. develop proper work ethics, social responsibility, and integrity that contribute in promoting a
positive image of the organisation in which they are employed;
11. develop the self-esteem and confidence to make an easy transition from school to the world
of work.
 SKILLS AND ABILITIES TO BE ASSESSED
1. Technical;
2. Communication;
3. Planning and organising;
4. Problem-solving; and,
5. Management.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 3
 ORGANISATION OF THE SYLLABUS
The syllabus is arranged in twelve SECTIONS, sub-divided into specific objectives and corresponding
content.
SECTION I - OFFICE ORIENTATION
SECTION II - COMMUNICATION
SECTION III - RECRUITMENT AND ORIENTATION
SECTION IV - RECORDS AND INFORMATION MANAGEMENT
SECTION V - RECEPTION AND HOSPITALITY
SECTION VI - MEETINGS
SECTION VII - TRAVEL ARRANGEMENTS
SECTION VIII - HUMAN RESOURCES MANAGEMENT
SECTION IX - ACCOUNTS AND FINANCIAL SERVICES
SECTION X - PROCUREMENT AND INVENTORY MANAGEMENT
SECTION XI - SALES, MARKETING AND CUSTOMER SERVICE
SECTION XII - OPERATIONS, DESPATCH AND TRANSPORT SERVICES
 SUGGESTED TIMETABLE ALLOCATION
It is recommended that a minimum of five 40-minute periods per week or the equivalent be allocated
to teaching the syllabus. This time should include at least one double period.
 RECOMMENDATIONS FOR TEACHING
To facilitate students’ attainment of the objectives of this syllabus, teachers are advised to engage
students in the teaching and learning activities listed below. These activities are designed to support
a learner-centred approach, encourage collaboration, and incorporate appropriate ICT tools where
necessary while catering to students with various learning styles.
1. Expose students to offices of varying types and sizes to facilitate comparison between offices.
2. Expose students to different types of office equipment. They should, for example, be able to
identify explain the use of equipment found in the modern office.
3. During the delivery of instruction, teachers should highlight those topics that are repeated
throughout the syllabus in order to indicate the relevance of the topic to the particular section,
for example:

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 4
(a) attributes;
(b) filling out forms; and,
(c) office equipment.
4. Use a variety of methodologies, such as role plays, case studies, simulations, field trips, games
and presentations by resource personnel. Practical assignments should be used where
possible.
5. Develop lessons using themes that encompass topics from different sections of the syllabus.
For example, the following themes could be taught as one extended lesson:
(a) plan the agenda for a meeting (SECTION II);
(b) conduct the meeting (SECTION VI);
(c) prepare the minutes of the meeting (SECTION VI);
(d) Travel Itinerary (SECTION VII); and,
(e) Monetary instruments (SECTION IX).
Where physical examples are not feasible, teachers are advised to utilise the resources of the Internet
and other electronic technologies.
 CERTIFICATION
The Office Administration syllabus will be examined at the General Proficiency at both the January and
May/June sittings. Candidates will be awarded an overall grade reported on a six-point scale. In
addition to the overall grade, candidates’ performance will be reported by a letter grade under profile
dimensions of Knowledge and Comprehension, and Application. These profile dimensions are
explained below.
 DEFINITION OF PROFILE DIMENSIONS
1. Knowledge and Comprehension
The ability to:
(a) state, list and identify facts, information, principles and procedures;
(b) explain and interpret procedures, actions and situations related to office
administration; and,
(c) use knowledge in familiar contexts.
2. Application
The ability to:
(a) use knowledge in unfamiliar circumstances;

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 5
(b) design and complete business documents;
(c) formulate plans for given activities;
(d) develop strategies to solve problems;
(e) compose various types of communicative materials and make inferences.
 FORMAT OF THE EXAMINATIONS
This examination is offered at the General Proficiency. The examination consists of Paper 01,
Paper 02 and Paper 03/1 (School-Based Assessment). Paper 03/2 (alternative to the School-Based
Assessment) is offered to Private candidates as an alternative to the School-Based Assessment.
Paper 01
(1 hour 15 minutes)
(60 marks)
A multiple-choice test consisting of 60 items.
The items will test knowledge and application of important facts,
concepts, principles, processes and procedures involved in office work
and the application of these. Items in the paper can come from all Sections
of the syllabus. The Knowledge and Comprehension profile and the
Application profile will be tested in a ratio of 2:1.
Paper 02
(2 hours)
(90 marks)
An essay paper divided into two sections:
Section I: Three compulsory questions drawn from Sections I – VII of the
syllabus.
Section II: Three compulsory questions drawn from Sections VIII – XII of
the syllabus and will focus on specialised departments in the
modern organisation.
Each question on this paper will be worth 15 marks to be distributed as
follows:
(i) Section I:
Question 1 - Knowledge and Comprehension 8 marks
Application 7 marks
Questions 2 and 3 - Knowledge and Comprehension 7 marks
Application 8 marks
(ii) Section II:
Knowledge and Comprehension 6 marks
Application 9 marks
Paper 03/1
(SBA)
(50 marks)
A set of assignments set and marked by the teacher using guidelines and
criteria provided in the syllabus. This Paper will be worth 25 per cent of
the final grade.
Paper 03/2
(50 marks)
(1 hour 30 minutes)
Paper 03/2 is a written examination designed for candidates whose
research projects cannot be monitored by tutors in a recognised
educational institution and who have been assigned by the Local Registrar
to write Paper 03/2 at a designated examination centre.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 6
 WEIGHTING OF THE EXAMINATION COMPONENTS
The weighting of the examination components is shown below.
Papers Profiles Paper 01
Multiple –
choice
Paper 02
Essay
Paper 03
SBA
Total Per cent
Knowledge and
Comprehension
40 40 - 80 40
Application 20 50 50 120 60
TOTAL 60 90 50 200 100
PER CENT 30 45 25 - 100
REGULATIONS FOR PRIVATE CANDIDATES
Private candidates must be entered for the examination through the local registrar in their respective
territories and will be required to sit Paper 01, Paper 02 and Paper 032 (the alternative to the School-
Based Assessment).
Paper 032 is a written examination designed for candidates whose research projects cannot be
monitored by tutors in a recognised educational institution and who have been assigned by the Local
Registrar to write Paper 032 at a designated examination centre. It will consist of a case study and
related questions.
 REGULATIONS FOR RESIT CANDIDATES
Resit candidates who have obtained 50 per cent or more of the total SBA marks will not be required
to repeat this component of the examination provided that they write the examination in the
academic year immediately following their first sitting of the examination. Resit candidates who failed
to achieve 50 per cent of the total SBA marks must repeat the project during the academic year in
which the examination is repeated. Resit candidates must indicate at registration that they are resit
candidates.
Private candidates will be required to resit all components of the examination.


CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 7
 SECTION I: OFFICE ORIENTATION
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES CONTENT
Students should be able to:
1. describe the role and functions
of the office in business
activities;
Role and functions of the Office in keeping with its
mission (commitment), vision (the means/the how)
and goals(measurable objectives):
(a) productivity;
(b) distribution and exchange of goods and
services;
(c) collection, processing and preservation of data
(manual);
(d) collection, processing and storage of data
(electronic);
(e) dissemination of information; and,
(f) organisational management and legal control.
2. describe how office structure
and activity may be organised
according to the size and nature
of a business;
Size and nature of a business will impact:
(a) the multiplicity of positions on staff;
(b) types and patterns of relationships (use of
organisational charts);
(c) nature of duties and responsibilities;
(d) deployment of employees;
(e) decisions regarding decentralisation or
centralisation (for example, reprographics,
word processing and records management);
and,
(f) extent of computer hardware/software usage.
3. compare different
types of office layouts;
Types of office layout:
(a) traditional (enclosed or cellular);
(b) open plan (modular); and,
(c) virtual office.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 8
SECTION I: OFFICE ORIENTATION (cont’d)
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
4. examine the ergonomics of the
office as it relates to comfort,
health and safety issues;
Ergonomics as it relates to comfort, health and safety
(a) layout and size;
(b) furniture and equipment;
(c) seating, lighting, ventilation, temperature; and,
(d) related injuries.
5. describe the contribution of
various types of equipment to
office efficiency;
Types and purpose of equipment used in general and
specialised office work, including:
(a) guillotine and shredder;
(b) photocopier, risograph, scanner, printer-laser,
inkjet, impact, plotter;
(c) computer;
(d) multimedia devices (digital camera,
projector);
(e) facsimile machine;
(f) laminator, binding machine; and,
(g) labelers.
6. propose desirable skills,
attitudes and attributes of office
personnel; and,
(a) Skills:
(i) literacy and numeracy;
(ii) computer literacy and proficiency in
the use of productivity tools;
(iii) effective communication;
(iv) time management; and,
(v) analytical, problem-solving.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 9
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
(b) Attitudes:
(i) team-spirit, group dynamics,
cooperation;
(ii) tolerance, appreciation of diversity;
(iii) safety consciousness;
(iv) environmental awareness; and,
(v) social responsibility.
(c) Attributes:
(i) regularity, punctuality;
(ii) positive work ethic;
(iii) ethics, integrity, honesty,
confidentiality;
(iv) willingness;
(v) deportment; and,
(vi) self-esteem, confidence.
7. assess the value of good human
relationships to office efficiency.
The importance of good relationships with:
(a) supervisors;
(b) colleagues; and,
(c) internal and external customers.
Suggested teaching and Learning Activities
To facilitate students’ attainment of the objectives of the Syllabus, teachers are advised to engage
students in the teaching and learning activities below. These activities are designed to support a
learner-centred, collaborative approach, and incorporate appropriate ICT tools where necessary while
catering to students with various learning styles.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 10
1. Have students engage in research on the dos and don’ts of the office. This research should
span the course and include aspects such as dress code, office layout, attitude, attributes, work
environment, and labour laws. The students should start a scrap book in which they display
relevant entries such as artefacts, magazine clippings and articles. Inform/ Remind students
that portions of this will be eventually incorporated into the SBA.
2. Develop or identify and study cases which highlight interpersonal relationships. Ensure that
aspects such as attitudes, conduct in office, handling issues in the office.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 11
 SECTION II: COMMUNICATION
1. describe the various channels
of communication used in the
office;
Channels of communication:
(a) Directional
(i) formal/official; and,
(ii) informal/ unofficial.
(b) Oral
(i) interviews;
(ii) meetings and conferences;
(iii) radio and television; and,
(iv) telephone; intercom.
(c) Electronic
(i) tele-conferencing, video-conferencing;
(ii) computer, Internet, intranet, world
wide web, electronic mail, social
media;
(iii) telephone; facsimile;
(iv) scanning, scan to email, scan to file;
and,
(v) telecommuting, telemarketing.
(d) Written
(i) letters;
(ii) memoranda;
(iii) agendas, notices of meetings;
(iv) reports, minutes;
(v) questionnaires;

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 12
SECTION II: COMMUNICATION (cont’d)
(vi) itineraries;
(vii) notices, press releases; and,
(viii) advertisements.
(e) Visual
(i) pictures, charts, graphs;
(ii) signals, signs;
(iii) multi-media presentations; and,
(iv) body language.
2. identify factors affecting the
selection of communication
channel;
Factors to be considered in selecting communication
channel:
(a) degree of urgency;
(b) genre (oral, written, electronic, visual);
(c) level of confidentiality, privacy;
(d) location and distance, time zones;
(e) cost, efficiency, effectiveness; and,
(f) audience size.
3. identify factors affecting the
flow of communication;
Communication flows:
(a) upward, downward, vertical, horizontal,
grapevine;
(b) Communication Climate
(i) closed; and,
(ii) open.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 13
4. discuss the barriers to
effective communication;
Barriers to communication, including:
(a) perceptual, cultural and personal bias;
(b) semantics;
(c) language;
(d) literacy skills; and,
(e) internal and external barriers .
5. Identify the various forms of
business structure;
Forms of decision–making business structures:
(a) Centralised:
Entreprenuerial/centralised.
(b) Decentralised
(i) pyramid;
(ii) matrix; and,
(iii) independent.
6. select appropriate types and
sizes of stationery for a variety
of uses;
(a) Types of stationery, for example:
(i) bond;
(ii) parchment; and,
(iii) NCR paper (no carbon required).
(b) Sizes of paper, envelopes and label dimensions
including:
Letter, legal, A4, A5, A6, DL, C4, C5
7. select relevant sources of
information;
Reference material including:
(a) dictionary, thesaurus;
(b) official gazettes;

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 14
(c) telephone directory;
(d) maps;
(e) schedules;
(f) post office guide;
(g) trade journals;
(h) Hansard; and,
(i) Internet, search engines.
8. describe proper techniques for
receiving and relaying
messages by telephone;
Telephone techniques:
(a) telephone etiquette;
(b) recording systems;
(c) receiving and delivering messages;
(d) use of the telephone directory;
(e) maintaining a personal and a company directory;
(f) functions and operations of automated
switchboards; and,
(g) paging devices.
9. Assess the communication
services offered by
telecommunication providers;
Telephone services:
(a) local, long distance and overseas calls;
(b) station-to-station, person-to-person, collect
calls, emergency calls;
(c) conference calls, video conferencing;
(d) call waiting, call forwarding, voice mail; speed
dialing, caller identification;

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 15
SECTION II: COMMUNICATON (cont’d)
(e) phone cards; electronic top-up machines;
(f) mobile phones; text messaging; instant
messaging;
(g) Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP); and,
(h) Skype.
10. describe the services available
for dispatching mail;
(a) Courier services:
(i) local; and,
(ii) overseas.
(b) Postal services:
(i) classification of mail (priority, first class,
express, standard);
(ii) delivery options (registered, express
delivery, recorded delivery, poste
restante); and,
(iii) courier services; Skybox.
11. outline procedures for sending
and receiving parcels; and,
Procedures for sending and receiving parcels:
(a) regulations for sending and receiving money and
other valuables;
(b) parcel post services - nature and use; and,
(c) packaging.
12. outline procedures for dealing
with incoming and outgoing mail
in large and small offices.
(a) Procedures for dealing with incoming mail:
(i) receiving;
(ii) recording;
(iii) stamping;

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 16
(iv) routing of mail;
(v) treatment of remittances and registered
mail; and,
(vi) archiving.
(b) Procedures for dispatching mail:
(i) sorting of mail;
(ii) preparation of mailing lists; and,
(iii) use of postage books.
(c) Automation of mailing activities in large offices:
(i) mail merge;
(ii) addressing machines;
(iii) franking machines;
(iv) letter openers;
(v) folding machines;
(vi) collating machines; and,
(vii) sealing machines.
To facilitate students’ attainment of the objectives of the syllabus, teachers are advised to engage
1. Have groups of students role play using different communication channels and techniques to
send and receive messages. Different aspects should be critiqued by peers.
These activities may be recorded and played back where possible so that students can hear
and/or see nuances such as the sound of your voice on a recording, and body language due to
involuntary actions and posture.
Discussions should be used to encourage students to use the correct jargon and to clarify
concepts.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 17
2. Arrange field trip to a telecommunications facility and have students use relevant data
collection instruments to investigate and document the types of communication devices seen
there. They should also observe and document aspects such as how these devices are used,
and the manners of the operators and other personnel. Where possible, arrangements should
be made for students to get hands-on experiences during this field trip. Trips should be
followed by class discussions and/ or written activities which require students to report their
findings and assess the situations observed, including services provided.
3. Arrange field trip to a traditional postal service organization and have students use relevant
data collection instruments to investigate and document the postal equipment, supplies, and
services provided there. They should also observe and document aspects such as how these
devices are used, and the manners of the operators and other personnel. Where possible,
arrangements should be made for students to get hands-on experiences during this field trip.
Trips should be followed by class discussions and/ or written activities which require students
to report their findings and assess the situations observed, including services provided.
4. Arrange field trip to a courier service company and have students use relevant data collection
instruments to investigate and document the types of equipment, supplies, communication
devices seen, and services provided there. They should also observe and document aspects
such as how the devices and equipment are used, and the manners of the operators and other
personnel. Where possible, arrangements should be made for students to get hands-on
experiences during this field trip. Trips should be followed by class discussions and/ or written
activities which require students to report their findings and assess the situations observed,
including services provided.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 18
 SECTION III: RECRUITMENT AND ORIENTATION
1. identify sources of information
on job opportunities;
Sources of job information:
(a) newspapers;
(b) employment agency;
(c) Internet, for example, Facebook, Twitter,
company websites;
(d) personal contact;
(e) trade journals;
(f) company newsletters;
(g) magazines; and,
(h) guidance counsellor.
2. outline factors to be considered
when seeking employment;
Factors to consider when seeking a position:
(a) career interest;
(b) job descriptions;
(c) personal taste;
(d) training and qualifications;
(e) salary, fringe benefits;
(f) location;
(g) image of the firm; and,
(h) career advancement.
3. prepare applications for a job; (a) Procedures for making applications:
(i) application forms;
(ii) letters;

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 19
SECTION III: RECRUITMENT AND ORIENTATION (cont’d)
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
(iii) curriculum vitae;
(iv) résumé; and,
(v) portfolio.
(b) Follow-up letters for each of the following
conditions:
(i) no reply received to application;
(ii) acceptance of job; and,
(iii) non-acceptance of job.
4. prepare other types of letters;
5. explain factors to be considered
when preparing for a job
interview; and,
Prepare various types of letters
(a) resignation from job;
(b) application for leave;
(c) application for vacation; and,
(d) acknowledgement.
Factors to be considered:
(a) selection of attire;
(b) deportment;
(c) research on organization;
(d) types of questions that may be asked by the
interviewer and the interviewee; and,
(e) Portfolio; evidence of qualifications.
6. demonstrate knowledge of the
requirements of the work
environment.
Knowledge of the work environment:
(a) labour laws; and,
(b) culture of school vs. organization.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 20
SECTION III: RECRUITMENT AND ORIENTATION (cont’d)
1. Have students (form groups and) conduct research on sources of job information, and list the
features, strengths, and weaknesses of each. The findings should be shared in class and used
to guide class discussion.
2. Have students form small groups and brainstorm factors that should be considered when a
person is seeking a job. This should be followed up by sharing using the jigsaw method and
general class discussion. Students should then compare the results of the activities and fill in
the gaps as necessary.
3. Have students select jobs advertised via newspapers or online, and prepare relevant
documents such as application letters/ forms, CVs and acceptance letters. These are to be used
to create a file using appropriate principles and standards.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 21
 SECTION IV: RECORDS AND INFORMATION MANAGEMENT
1. describe the characteristics of
an information management
system;
2. describe the duties of a records
management clerk;
(a) Characteristics of an information management
system:
(i) data input/data storage;
(ii) database management system;
(iii) processing: batch and real time;
(iv) retrieval of information;
(v) compressing (zipping) files for storage;
and,
(vi) archiving.
(b) Characteristics of an effective records
management system:
(i) Access protocols;
(ii) Security: physical and password;
(iii) accountability; and,
(iv) expansion.
Duties of a records management clerk:
(a) preparing documents;
(b) processing data;
(c) managing records; and,
(d) retrieving information/records.
3. maintain a records management
system by electronic and other
means;
(a) Classifications of Record Management Systems:
(i) alphabetical;
(ii) geographical;
(iii) subject;
(iv) numerical; and,
(v) chronological.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 22
SECTION IV: RECORDS AND INFORMATION MANAGEMENT (cont’d)
(b) Indexing: Methods and procedures for cross-
referencing:
(i) out sheets;
(ii) tickler file;
(iii) card indicators;
(iv) colour coding; and,
(v) searches, shared database.
4. outline the procedures for
dealing with inactive files;
Methods and procedures for dealing with inactive files:
(a) use of microfilming;
(b) retention periods;
(c) disposal of files;
(d) archiving;
(e) backing up to external storage media; and,
(f) Electronic Documents and Records Management
System.
5. describe the main legal
stipulations governing access to
and retention of documents;
Regulations related to:
(a) the right of access;
(b) limitations on the right of access;
(c) infringement of copyright;
(d) defamation;
(e) breach of confidence;
(f) secrecy provisions; and,
(g) Freedom of Information Act.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 23
6. explain the use of filing
equipment and supplies in
records and information
management; and,
Filing equipment and supplies:
(a) filing cabinets and folders; index cards;
(b) minute sheets;
(c) charge-out cards;
(d) dividers;
(e) treasury tags;
(f) fasteners;
(g) microfilm, microfiche; and,
(h) external storage media.
7. differentiate between
centralised and
departmental records
management systems.
(a) Centralised and departmental/decentralised
records management systems, advantages and
disadvantages.
(b) Organisation and operation of records
management systems for small and large-scale
businesses.
Suggested Teaching and Learning Activities
1. Divide class into groups and have each conduct research on regulations related to access to
and retention of documents. Their work is to be presented to the class and supported by
relevant examples especially of cases in their territories.
2. Arrange field trips for students to visit a warehouse and a records office, and use relevant
instruments and techniques to investigate and document their findings on the information
management systems found there. Their findings should guide class discussions as they
compare strategies/ methodologies used in each type of organisation, as well as the extent to
which each complied with established standards.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 24
3. Divide students into groups and assign them to departments in the school, such as
administrative office where they engage in hands-on activities including filing, batching, and
other relevant activities for short periods of time. Ask personnel in these departments to
provide on-the-job training to support what would have been covered theoretically in class,
then grade students’ performance and give narrative feedback to justify the ratings given.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 25
 SECTION V: RECEPTION AND HOSPITALITY
1. assess the contribution of the
reception desk to the welfare
of the organisation;
Contribution of reception desk:
(a) maintaining effective inter-personal
relationships between the organisation and
members of the public; and,
(b) promoting goodwill and a positive image of the
business.
2. identify the duties and
attributes of a receptionist;
(a) Duties and responsibilities of a receptionist:
(i) receiving and screening visitors;
(ii) introducing visitors using appropriate
protocol;
(iii) maintaining the reception register
(manual, electronic);
(iv) operating a switchboard;
(v) receiving letters and parcels;
(vi) managing and maintaining the reception
area; and,
(vii) receiving and filing business cards.
(b) Attributes:
(i) appropriate personal appearance and
grooming;
(ii) good temperament;
(iii) willingness to use initiative;
(iv) tact; and,
(v) articulate.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 26
SECTION V: RECEPTION AND HOSPITALITY (cont’d)
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
3. manage appointments for an
executive using electronic or
manual systems; and,
Managing appointments:
(a) procedures for making and cancelling
appointments on behalf of an executive;
(b) maintaining a diary;
(c) rescheduling; and,
(d) online schedules.
4. explain the importance and use
of electronic and manual
reminder systems.
Importance and use of the following reminder systems:
(a) tickler files;
(b) diaries; and,
(c) calendars (electronic/manual).
1. Assign individual students to the Administrative Office of the school for viable periods of time,
during which they act in roles such as receptionists, secretaries, operating switchboard, and
answering telephones. They should document and reflect on their experiences.
2. *Have students form small groups and simulate an interview. One person will be the
interviewee and the others will play different roles such as receptionist, and interview panel
member.
Attention should be paid to relevant areas such as deportment, appropriate list of questions
prepared and asked by panel, and criteria or rubrics used to rate the applicant.
3. * Design various forms, for example, appraisal.
4. * Students prepare a portfolio to include resumes, letter of application; application forms; job
specification; related advertisement; related documents (proof of qualification), follow-up
letters; letters of application; resignation.
*Also appropriate for Section 8

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 27
 SECTION VI: MEETINGS
1. define terms associated with
business meetings;
Familiarity with terms associated with business
meetings, including:
(a) ad hoc;
(b) verbatim;
(c) quorum;
(d) casting vote;
(e) adjourn;
(f) postpone;
(g) cancel;
(h) proposal;
(i) motion; and,
(j) resolution.
2. prepare documents associated
with meetings;
3. discuss the roles of personnel
associated with meetings;
Preparation of various documents used at meetings
(a) notice;
(b) agenda; and,
(c) minutes.
Roles and function of personnel associated with
meetings
(a) chair;
(b) secretary;
(c) treasurer;
(d) proxy; and,
(e) ex-officio.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 28
SECTION VI: MEETINGS (cont’d)
4. list the various types of
meetings;
Types of meetings:
(a) Formal
(i) General Meeting;
(ii) Annual General Meeting;
(iii) Extraordinary General Meeting;
(iv) Board and Committee meeting; and,
(v) Statutory Meetings.
(b) Informal
(i) Staff Meeting; and,
(ii) Departmental Meeting.
5. organise different types of
meetings;
(a) The importance of meetings and their purpose.
(b) Requirements before, during and after
meetings:
(i) supplies and equipment for different
meetings;
(ii) Meeting Protocol, for example, seating
arrangements; and,
(iii) Robert’s Rule of Order governing
meetings.
6. discuss basic legal requirements
of Annual General Meetings;
and,
Knowledge of the following Acts and terms:
(a) Company’s Act of relevant country;
(b) management structure of companies;
(c) officers, shareholders of companies;
(d) meeting proxies;
(e) corporate records; and,
(f) Articles of Incorporation.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 29
SECTION VI: MEETINGS (cont’d)
7. outline the follow-up procedures
related to decisions made at
meetings.
(a) Importance of minutes.
(b) Follow-up procedures related to decisions:
(i) filing and indexing of minutes;
(ii) acting on decisions taken at the meeting;
(iii) circulation of action sheet; and,
(iv) circulation of minutes.
1. Have individual students attend a meeting, collect related documents (within legal and ethical
parameters), and observe the proceedings in order to facilitate a critique based on the
principles and concepts related to meetings. Their presentations should include the
identification of the strengths and weaknesses as well as a list of recommendations as
necessary.
2. Each member of the class should arrange at least one meeting for an in-school or out-of-school
club or group of which they are a member. All relevant documents should be prepared and
included in a portfolio. (This may be a hard copy or an e-portfolio as is convenient to your
setting).

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 30
 SECTION VII: TRAVEL ARRANGEMENTS
1. outline the types of information
and services required for travel;
Information and services required for travel:
(a) tickets, e-tickets;
(b) preparation of itineraries;
(c) scheduling of appointments;
(d) making hotel reservations; and,
(e) preparing travel folders.
2. calculate time based on
knowledge of time differences
between two or more countries;
(a) Time zones and their significance.
(b) Expression of time in 12-hour, 24-hour format.
3. outline procedure for making
travel arrangements;
Procedures for making travel arrangements:
(a) Preferred dates of travel;
(b) Preferred time of travel;
(c) Selecting the appropriate carrier for the
destination;
(d) Ascertaining health and visa requirements;
(e) Restrictions for entering destination;
(f) Alternative travel routes and cost; and,
(g) Other services such as accommodation, travel,
tours that may be made.
4. interpret schedules; Air, sea and land travel schedules.
5. explain the necessity for various
travel documents; and,
Documents that may be required for travel:
(a) passport;
(b) visa;
(c) entry permit; and,
(d) health certificate.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 31
SECTION VII: TRAVEL ARRANGEMENTS (cont’d)
6. determine monetary
instruments for use during
travel.
Monetary instruments:
(a) travellers cheques;
(b) debit/credit cards;
(c) letters of credit;
(d) bank draft; and,
(e) cash.
1. Engage students in a research activity to collect travel documents such as e-tickets, traditional/
hard copies of tickets, schedules/itineraries, passports, visas, cheques, banking cards and
drafts. These are to be included in their scrapbooks and incorporated into their SBA as
appropriate.
2. Write the positions of some travelling officers as well as some international and local
destinations on strips of paper and drop them in a box. Have students each pick a strip of paper
from the box and work in random pairs as formed by the first person with the position of an
officer/public figure matched with the first destination, until everyone has a partner.
Each pair is responsible for preparing a travel itinerary for seven days for this person.
As far as is possible, the process should be authentic, and include the use of different media
and strategies such as online searches, telephone calls, and e-mails. The results should include
information such as flight numbers, times and dates, bus, train and ferry schedules, as well as
available and suitable accommodation, and meal arrangements for the person and entourage
where appropriate.
Each pair should prepare and submit a hard or soft copy of what would be finally given to the
person for whom the preparations were made.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 32
 SECTION VIII: HUMAN RESOURCES MANAGEMENT
1. describe the functions of the
Human Resource Management
office;
(a) Role and functions of the Human Resource
Management office:
(i) recruitment;
(ii) induction;
(iii) deployment;
(iv) appraisal;
(v) training;
(vi) staff welfare;
(vii) disciplinary procedures; and,
(viii) job description.
(b) Relationship with other departments and
importance of the Human Resource
Management office.
attributes of a clerk in the
Human Resource Management
office;
(a) Duties and attributes of a clerk in the Human
Resource Management office:
(i) maintain database of personnel records;
(ii) prepare for interviews;
(iii) attend to staff welfare; and,
(iv) assist with the functions of the Human
Resource Management Office.
(b) Attributes
(i) confidentiality;
(ii) patience; and,
(iii) tact.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 33
SECTION VIII: HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT (cont’d)
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
3. identify the benefits of
legislation related to workers’
welfare;
Benefits as outlined in:
(a) statutory provisions for employee protection;
(b) ILO conventions (Factories Act - protective
clothing and gear, workmen's compensation);
(c) Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA); and,
(d) Collective Agreements.
4. maintain records used in a
human resources office; and,
Maintenance of Records:
(a) contracts of employment, service records;
(b) types of leave;
(c) personal history/records;
(d) appraisal forms;
(e) job specification; and,
(f) job description.
5. describe the factors that
contribute to employee/
labour turnover in an
organisation.
(a) Internal factors:
(i) working conditions;
(ii) low salary;
(iii) lack of job satisfaction;
(iv) lack of training opportunities;
(v) redundancy; and,
(vi) resignation.
(b) External factors:
(i) state of the economy;
(ii) better opportunities;

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 34
SECTION VIII: HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT (cont’d)
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
(iii) competition for job placement;
(iv) migration; and,
(v) globalisation.
1. Invite HR manager to explain different aspects of this field. Have students prepare questions
based on the topics in the Section as they prepare for the Question and Answer session.
2. Students prepare a portfolio to include resumes, letter of application; job specification; related
advertisement; related documents (proof of qualification). Engage students in activities for
them to continue to build on their portfolio, scrapbook and SBA. For example, they can go on
site visits to continue research and for them to obtain and discuss documents such as contracts,
appraisal forms, job specifications, job descriptions, and Acts/laws/resolutions regarding
workers’ welfare.
3. Teacher should identify cases in their countries and immediate environment where possible,
where there has been staff turnover and have students identify and discuss the internal and
external factors that contributed to this turnover.
Using these cases as the subject of discussion students will role play a Radio or TV Talk Show
in which the contributing factors are highlighted and recommendations made. Students should
be guided to ensure that the discussions show clear understanding of concepts and content.
That is, questions and answers should be based on the content, the jargon should be
appropriately used, and recommendations are adequate and show a good understanding of
the roles and functions of Human Resource Management.
* See Section 5 for other related activities.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 35
 SECTION IX: ACCOUNTS AND FINANCIAL SERVICES
1. describe the role and functions
of the accounts office;
Role and functions of the accounts office:
(a) preparation of payroll;
(b) credit control;
(c) collection of accounts;
(d) treatment of debit and credit notes;
(e) preparation of audit; and,
(f) different types of bank accounts, for example,
current, savings, fixed deposit.
2. identify the duties
and attributes of a clerk in the
accounts office;
(a) Duties of a clerk in the accounts office:
(i) preparing payroll;
(ii) writing cheques;
(iii) reconciling accounts;
(iv) making ledger entries;
(v) preparing statement of accounts;
(vi) writing up the cash book; and,
(vii) preparing final accounts.
(b) Attributes:
(i) integrity;
(ii) confidentiality; and,
(iii) reliability.


CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 36
SECTION IX: ACCOUNTS AND FINANCIAL SERVICES (cont’d)
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
3. prepare simple documents in
the accounts office;
Documents:
(a) pay slip or payroll;
(b) currency memorandum;
(c) debit and credit notes;
(d) simple statements of account; and,
(e) cheques.
4. identify resources used in the
accounts office;
(a) Hardware resources:
(i) calculators;
(ii) adding machines;
(iii) computers; and,
(iv) printers; scanners; copiers.
(b) Software resources
(i) accounting packages; and,
(ii) spreadsheet packages.
5. identify types of Financial
Institutions;
(a) Credit Unions.
(b) Commercial Banks.
(c) Central Banks.
(d) Insurance Companies.
(e) Offshore Institutions.
(f) Investment Companies.
(g) Cambios/Bureaux de Change.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 37
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
6. outline the procedures for
making and receiving different
types of payments;
Payment through Financial Institutions:
(a) cash, cheques;
(b) credit cards;
(c) money orders, postal orders;
(d) electronic transfers, credit transfers;
(e) standing orders;
(f) bank drafts; and,
(g) letters of credit.
7. interpret the information on
cheques;
Types of cheques:
(a) open cheques;
(b) certified/managers cheques;
(c) counter cheques;
(d) crossed cheques; and,
(e) post-dated cheques/stale-dated cheques.
8. interpret entries in a bank
statement;
Identification and interpretation of entries in a bank
statement:
(a) debit and credit entries;
(b) service charges;
(c) outstanding cheques;
(d) outstanding deposits;
(e) standing orders;
(f) credit transfers;

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 38
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
(g) interest paid and received; and,
(h) (NSF) Insufficient funds/Refer to Drawer.
9. reconcile bank and cash book
balances; and,
10. prepare petty cash records.
Procedures for reconciling:
(a) bank statements with cash book balances; and,
(b) cash book balances with bank statements.
Procedures for the payment and control of petty cash
using the imprest system:
(a) vouchers;
(b) cash disbursements sheets; and,
(c) summarising expenses.
1. Students should continue research and collect different artefacts for their scrap books. These
should include types of cheques, bank drafts, pay slips, money orders, cards, payment
vouchers, and bank statements.
2. Students should visit different institutions from which they will collect, and prepare complete
business forms.
3. Students could visit an organization and observe their accounting and financial operations and
relevant documents (to the extent that confidentiality and integrity would permit).
4. In collaboration with the teacher(s) of Principles of Accounts and Principles of Business
students could engage in accounting and financial services activities. For example, have
students perform the role of payroll clerk. Identify the number of employees. Give criteria for
staff members. Have students calculate basic pay, overtime pay and gross pay. Using fixed
percentage students should be able to calculate Statutory Deductions, ITAX, NIS, prepare
Currency Memorandum, write cheques, make entries in ledgers and cash books.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 39
 SECTION X: PROCUREMENT AND INVENTORY MANAGEMENT
1. describe the functions of the
procurement and inventory
management office;
(a) Role and functions of the procurement office:
(i) determine items to purchase;
(ii) liaise with other departments; and,
(iii) manage inventory.
(b) Terminology and abbreviations used in
purchasing documents and literature:
(i) free on board (F.O.B.);
(ii) cost, insurance and freight (C.I.F.);
(iii) errors and omissions excepted (E & O.E);
(iv) cash on delivery (c.o.d.);
(v) excluding works (ex works); and,
(vi) discounts.
attributes of a clerk in the
purchasing department;
(a) Duties of a purchasing clerk:
(i) preparing and processing purchase and
stock requisitions;
(ii) filing of purchasing records;
(iii) maintaining stock records;
(iv) maintaining database of supplier
records; and,
(v) verifying orders received.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 40
SECTION X: PROCUREMENT AND INVENTORY MANAGEMENT (cont’d)
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
(b) Attributes
(i) integrity;
(ii) honesty;
(iii) initiative; and,
(iv) detail oriented.
3. outline procedures for
purchasing goods and acquiring
services;
(a) Factors influencing procedures:
(i) urgency;
(ii) cost;
(iii) incentives; and,
(iv) availability.
(b) Procedures for purchasing:
(i) catalogues and price lists;
(ii) tenders/inquiries;
(iii) quotations;
(iv) e-commerce;
(v) order placement; and,
(vi) shipment/delivery.
4. prepare documents used in the
purchase of goods and services;
Preparation and interpretation of:
(a) requisition forms (purchase and stock); and,
(b) order forms.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 41
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
5. explain the importance of
inventory management;
Importance of inventory management:
(a) prevention of pilferage;
(b) control of inventory;
(c) signaling of market trends;
(d) availability of capital;
(e) optimization of storage space; and,
(f) Just-in-Time (JIT).
6. maintain stock records (manual
and electronic).
Stock records:
(a) stock requisition forms and stock cards;
(b) storage of office supplies;
(c) reporting on stock levels; - Last-in-First-Out
(LIFO), First-in-First-Out (FIFO); Average Cost
(AVCO); and,
(d) use of software and electronic devices in stock
control, including inventory software, bar code
scanners.
1. Students could visit businesses to note electronic methods of procurement and inventory. (to
the extent that confidentiality and integrity would permit). They should make notes which will
be used to guide their discussions upon their return to the class.
2. Students should continue research and collection of different artefacts for their scrap books.
These should include stock card, stock requisition forms, and order forms.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 42
3. In collaboration with the teacher(s) of Principles of Accounts, Principles of Business and
Logistics and Supply Chain Operations, students could engage in procurement and inventory
management activities. For example, have students simulate businesses where they order
items and complete documents. Simulated exercises should include: FilFO- identify perishable
items for example fruits, dated tin products. LIFO- identify seasonal goods for example items
used only at certain times. Prepare stock card.
4. Invite resource persons, for example, from supermarket, the wharf, or airport, to discuss
inventory management.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 43
 SECTION XI: SALES, MARKETING AND CUSTOMER SERVICE
1. explain the functions of staff
involved in Sales, marketing and
Customer service;
(a) Functions of the sales office:
(i) maintenance of sales records;
(ii) calculation of commissions and
discount;
(iii) stock control;
(iv) liaising with other departments; and,
(v) customer follow-up.
(b) Functions of the marketing office:
(i) organising promotional activities;
(ii) designing marketing strategies;
(iii) budgeting;
(iv) advertising;
(v) branding;
(vi) liaising with advertising entities internal
and external to the office; and,
(vii) developing new markets/new products.
(c) Functions of the Customer Services Department
(i) ensure customer satisfaction;
(ii) handle customer complaints;
(iii) advise customer on product offerings;
(iv) answer questions/queries; and,
(v) liaise between customer and company.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 44
SECTION XI: SALES, MARKETING AND CUSTOMER SERVICE (cont’d)
2. identify duties of a clerk in the
sales office;
(a) Duties of a clerk in the Sales office:
(i) preparing sales documents;
(ii) filing of sales records; and,
(iii) maintaining mailing lists.
(b) Duties of a marketing clerk:
(i) Assist in preparing advertising material;
(ii) assisting with promotional activities;
(iii) maintaining mailing lists and records;
and,
(iv) assist in preparing press releases.
(c) Duties of a clerk in the customer services
department:
(i) interface with customer;
(ii) liaise between customer and company;
(iii) inform customers on promotions and
offers; and,
(iv) answer customer queries.
3. identify skills required by a clerk
in the sales marketing and
customer services offices;
Skills required of a clerk in the Sales office:
(a) basic information technology;
(b) proficiency in the use of productivity tools;
(c) data entry;
(d) proficiency in the use of organizational tools;
(e) filing; and,
(f) literacy/numeracy.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 45
4. prepare documents used in sales
and marketing;
Preparation of documents, including:
(a) quotations;
(b) invoices; and,
(c) proforma invoices.
5. distinguish among the different
types of discounts;
Types of Discounts:
(a) trade;
(b) cash;
(c) special/loyalty cards;
(d) quantity; and,
(e) goods on consignment.
6. outline the functions of the
Corporate Communications
Clerk.
Functions of the Corporate Communications Clerk:
Assists in:
(a) promoting and enhancing the corporate image
of the company;
(b) interfacing with media houses, advertising
agencies;
(c) producing company newsletter/magazine/
calendar;
(d) upkeep of company’s website;
(e) planning family day activities; and,
(f) coordinating and sponsoring events that show
the company’s corporate social responsibility.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 46
1. Students should continue research and collection of different artefacts for their scrap books.
These should include sales, marketing and customer service strategies used by organizations.
2. Invite resource persons from organisations to give presentations/ have discussions with
students.
3. In collaboration with teachers in other subject areas such as Visual Arts, English, Music,
Information Technology, Physical Education, and Principles of Business, arrange for students
to engage in activities where they prepare and or use sales, marketing, advertising and
promotional materials such as invoices, calendars, loyalty cards, newsletters, magazines,
websites, and press releases. During these activities they should simulate the duties and
functions of key persons in sales, marketing and customer service.
4. Arrange for students to participate in role play for different scenarios (for example, pleasant/
unpleasant customer). Have the class make notes and give feedback based on the principles
and concepts outlined in the syllabus.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 47
 SECTION XII: OPERATIONS, DISPATCH AND TRANSPORT SERVICES
1. explain the functions of the
operations, despatch and
transport office;
(a) Functions of the operations office:
(i) coordinating activities related to
production;
(ii) protecting workers and the
environment;
(iii) maintenance of factory records;
(iv) quality assurance; awareness of
standards, ISO;
(v) costing of finished products; and,
(vi) liaising with other departments.
(b) Functions of the despatch office:
(i) maintain documents for despatch of
goods;
(ii) maintain database of
couriers/contractors/agents;
(iii) work in collaboration with the sales
office;
(iv) adhere to statutory requirements; and,
(v) coordination of delivery of goods.
(c) Functions of the transport office:
(i) maintain transportation records;
(ii) maintain destination sheets;
(iii) liaising with customers; and,
(iv) maintenance of vehicles.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 48
SECTION XII: OPERATIONS, DISPATCH AND TRANSPORT SERVICES (cont’d)
2. explain the duties of a clerk in a
operations, dispatch and
transport office; and,
(a) Duties of a clerk in the operations office:
(i) preparation of shift roster;
(ii) preparation of daily production reports;
(iii) preparation of documents used in
production; and,
(iv) completion of forms used in factory
office. For example, job cards, job cost
cards, cost analysis, planning masters,
cost cards and time cards.
(b) Duties of a clerk in a dispatch office:
(i) completion of documents for dispatched
goods;
(ii) storage of information of couriers
employed;
(iii) maintaining database of couriers,
transport contractors and agents;
(iv) liaising with sales, customer services and
marketing departments;
(v) adhering to statutory requirements; and,
(vi) coordination of delivery of goods.
(c) Duties of a clerk in the transport office:
(i) maintain transportation records;
(ii) maintain destination sheets;
(iii) liaise with customers; and,
(iv) schedule maintenance of vehicles.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 49
SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES
CONTENT
3. interpret information on
prepare documents used in
operations, despatch and
transport.
Documents:
(a) delivery schedules;
(b) destination sheets;
(c) delivery notes, bills of lading;
(d) customs forms;
(e) insurance certificates;
(f) airway bills;
(g) manifest;
(h) export and import license;
(i) advice note;
(j) certificate of origin; and,
(k) freight note.
1. Student tours to manufacturing or transportation enterprises to view operations, dispatch and
transport services. Examine roles and functions of different departments or individuals in these
organizations, and compare with notes from source books.
2. In collaboration with the teacher(s) of Principles of Accounts, Principles of Business and
Logistics and Supply Chain Operations, students could visit a manufacturing enterprise or a
similar organization which forms part of a supply chain. They will use appropriate instruments
and techniques to collect and document relevant data on the operation, despatch and
transport services provided, and the way in which the organisation carries out its operations.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 50
3. After students would have researched and been guided through discussion of relevant
concepts, approaches and jargon, teacher should identify video presentations of companies’
operations, and have students watch these with the main purpose of critiquing them to show
their understanding of what they found during their research as well as what was shared
during the in-class discussions.
4. In small groups, students should be asked to p Plan an activity and calculate the total cost of
the activity. Different items should be listed. For example, the cost of labour and material.
Students should prepare documents for different costs. As much as is possible, students should
be encouraged to engage in meaningful activities which allow them to be completing aspects
of their SBAs as they collaborate with the groups to which they are assigned.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 51
 GUIDELINES TO TEACHERS FOR THE CONDUCT OF SCHOOL–BASED
ASSESSMENT
School-Based Assessment is an integral part of student assessment in the course covered by this
syllabus. It proposes to assist students with acquiring specific knowledge, skills and attitudes that are
critical to the subject. The activities for the Assessment are linked to the specific SECTIONS of the
syllabus and should form part of the learning activities enabling the student to achieve the related
objectives. It should be based on an investigation into a real or virtual office.
During the course of study of this subject, students obtain marks for the competence they develop
and demonstrate when undertaking their School-Based Assessment assignments. These marks
contribute to the final marks and grades that are awarded to students for their performance in the
examination.
The guidelines provided in this syllabus for selecting appropriate tasks are expected to assist teachers
and students with the selection of assignments that are valid for the purpose of School-Based
Assessment. These guidelines should assist teachers with awarding marks according to the degree of
achievement of the candidates in the School-Based Assessment component of the course. In order to
ensure that the scores awarded by teachers are aligned with CXC standards, the Council undertakes
the moderation of a sample of School-Based Assessment assignments marked by each teacher.
School-Based Assessment provides an opportunity to individualise a part of the curriculum to meet
the needs of students. It facilitates feedback to the students at various stages of the experience. This
helps to build the self – confidence of the students as they proceed with their studies. School-Based
Assessment further facilitates the development of essential research skills that allow the student to
function more effectively in his or her chosen vocation. School-Based Assessment, therefore, makes
a significant and unique contribution to the development of relevant skills in the students. It also
provides an instrument for testing them and rewarding them for their achievements.
RATIONALE FOR SCHOOL-BASEDASSESSMENT IN OFFICE ADMINISTRATION
The School-Based Assessment component of the Office Administration Syllabus is a single guided
research project consisting of objectives from one or more of the SECTIONS in the syllabus. The
project is intended to develop in the candidate an interest in self – directed investigation and the
collection of data in a scientific manner. The execution of the SBA project should lead to a sense of
accomplishment while facilitating the development of the basic skills of research. Teachers should
regard School-Based Assessment as an integral part of teaching the syllabus and not as a separate
entity.
The School-Based Assessment should:
1. provide the candidate with an opportunity to investigate an area of special interest within the
prescribed syllabus;
2. develop the candidate’s ability to conduct an enquiry and present the findings; and,
3. provide an opportunity for the teacher to be involved in the evaluation process.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 52
SBA REQUIREMENTS
Every candidate who enters for the Office Administration examination must submit an individual
project. Students may work individually or in groups to investigate a specific problem. However, each
candidate must produce an individual project. No two projects from the same group should be
identical. The project should not exceed 1,000 words in length and should include charts, graphs,
tables and pictures that are relevant to the topic being studied.
The teacher will be required to approve the problem to be investigated, guide the candidate during
the process of investigation, mark the completed work according to the guidelines provided by CXC
and submit the marks to CXC by April 30 in the year of the examination.
Students doing more than one subject in the Business cognate group may submit one SBA project under
a theme which covers the group.
SBA PROJECT COMPONENTS
A candidate’s project should be presented in a folder bearing the candidate’s number, name of subject
and the date submitted. The project may be submitted electronically and must be set out according
to the criteria outlined below. The project report will include:
(a) title page should be repeated for each section;
(b) table of contents should be relevant to each section;
(c) aims and objectives must be stated;
(d) methodology employed;
(e) letter, schedule, regulations, forms, graphics, charts; and,
(f) report (500-750 words), discussing:
(i) findings;
(ii) limitations; and,
(iii) recommendations.
TOPICS FOR SCHOOL-BASEDASSESSMENT
The project MUST be drawn from one or more aspects of the twelve SECTIONS of the syllabus.
Teachers are asked to assist candidates with the selection of topics appropriate for research from
within the prescribed Sections stated below. Candidates must choose tasks that are relevant to jobs
performed by entry – level personnel in the various departments of organisations.
Candidates are to choose from the following combination of topics when attempting the School-Based
Assessment:
School-Based Assessment Topics to be tested in the following years:
1. 2014 - Communication and Operation Dispatch and Transport Services.
2. 2015 - Office Orientation and Procurement and Inventory Management.
3. 2016 - Records and Information Management and Sales, Marketing and Customer
Service.
4. 2017 - Human Resource Management, Travel Arrangements and Recruitment and
Orientation.
5. 2018 - Reception and Hospitality and Meetings.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 53
SPECIFIC GUIDELINES FOR THE SBA
Criterion: Preparation
1. TITLE
Select a suitable topic for the Project and state the title clearly. The project must be
appropriate and relevant to the syllabus.
2. AIM
State the aims and objectives of the project. These should indicate what you hope to
accomplish/discover/learn more about in carrying out the Project.
3. CORRESPONDENCE
There should be a copy of a letter that you sent asking for permission to conduct the Project.
For example, seeking permission to visit a business place, an institution, an organisation
seeking to interview or observe person(s) on the job. It is expected that candidates will use a
business format and the language associated with the subject.
Criterion: Gathering Data
1. METHODOLOGY
Give a clear description of how, when and from whom you gathered information and indicate
the methods used to gather the information. Indicate if you used telephone interviews,
questionnaires or observations.
2. QUESTIONS
List the exact wording of questions asked and to whom they were directed. These should be
relevant to learning more about the topic of the Project.
3. SCHEDULE
The Schedule should be in a table format with three columns under the headings DATE,
ACTIVITY, and COMMENT. The dates should state on what date or over what time period the
activity took place. Activities should state exactly what took place. Comments should indicate
information such as the problems encountered, the need for repeating an activity, meeting
with a person or engaging in any kind of follow-up activity.
4. REGULATIONS
As a ‘visitor, ‘observer’ you would have to be aware of some of the regulations, staff rules,
health and safety practices that applied in the work environment where you carried out your
project. List ONE and indicate how it was relevant to your project.

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 54
Criterion: Presentation
1. REPORT
The written report component should be 500 – 750 words of the 1000 words required for the
project. The report must include:
(a) discussion of the findings (in relation to objectives);
(b) limitations of the research; and,
(c) recommendations on how the efficiency of the office can be improved using
technology.
2. OFFICE EQUIPMENT
The focus here will be on the development of candidates’ competence and also the efficiency of
equipment used in the office and he suitability of the equipment for the tasks for which they are used.
This information must be recorded in a table format under the headings DATE, EQUIPMENT USED,
PURPOSE, and SUITABILITY FOR TASK.
Candidates without access to equipment should make a statement about the improvement of
efficiency in the completion of tasks with the use of different types of equipment based on their
research.
SOURCES OF DATA AND INFORMATION
The Research activity for the SBA must be based on SECTIONS in the syllabus that could be combined
to investigate a problem or issue drawn from authentic practices in the modern day office. Primary
and secondary sources of data can be obtained directly from business organisations or simulations
should be created which imitate the conditions in the literature on Office Administration. Regardless
of the source, the candidate must observe rules of copyright and intellectual property laws.
MANAGEMENT OF THE PROJECT
The teacher must:
1. assist candidates in delineating suitable titles from the topics suggested for research; the topic
must be relevant to entry – level personnel;
2. approve candidates’ research topics;
3. advise candidates about the final date for completion and submission of the project;
4. ensure that syllabus content relevant to the project are adequately covered;
5. advise candidates about the nature of the task, the scope and depth required to achieve it
and the availability of resource material;
6. monitor candidates’ progress by advising them of the quality of their work and recommending
ways to improve the quality of the project;
7. ensure that the guidelines are closely followed and the criteria are adequately met;

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 55
8. collect and mark candidates’ projects; and,
9. keep records of candidates’ marks and submit these, together with samples of candidates’
work, as requested by CXC. Submission must be made via the SBA Data Capture Module of the
Online Registration System (ORS) found on the Council’s website www.cxc.org
DETAILED CRITERIA AND MARK SCHEME
CRITERION: 1
Preparation – Total 13 marks
Descriptor Marks
The candidate has:
1. included a title page;
(maximum 1 mark)
 Title page includes project title and names of
candidate, school and teacher, territory, candidate
number as a header.
 Title page is incomplete.
1
0
2. included a table of contents;
(maximum 2 marks)
 Table of contents includes:
(a) a heading and a list of topics;
(b) page numbers.
1
1
3. stated the title of the project;
(maximum 2 marks)
 Title of project is related to the objectives in the
syllabus and to the business being studied.
 Title of project is outside the scope of the syllabus
or not clearly stated.
2
1
4. listed TWO aims of the project;
(maximum 2 marks)
 Two Aims of the project are relevant, unambiguous
and clearly stated.
 One Aim of the project is irrelevant, ambiguous or
not clearly stated.
2
1
5. listed TWO functions of the
relevant department of the
firm chosen for the project;
and,
(maximum 2 marks)
 2 functions accurately listed.
 1 function accurately listed.
2
1

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 56
CRITERION: 1
Preparation – Total 13 marks
Descriptor Marks
6. prepared ONE piece of
correspondence requesting
permission to conduct the
project.
(maximum 4 marks)
NB. No marks will be awarded
for correspondence not
composed by the student as
evidenced by official circular
letter from teacher or
principal.
 Correspondence incorporates all aspects of a
business letter including:
(a) matching salutation/complimentary close;
(b) correct grammar/ spelling (no errors);
(c) relevant content;
(d) appropriate presentation.
1
1
1
1
TOTAL
13 marks
CRITERION 2
Gathering Data – Total 15 marks
Descriptor Marks
The candidate has:
1. described the methodology
employed for the project;
(maximum 3 marks)
 A specimen of a data gathering instrument is
submitted.
 An explanation of why the particular instrument was
chosen above all others is given.
 An explanation of how the instrument was used is
given.
1
1
1
2. listed FIVE questions asked of
personnel of the firm selected
for the project;
(maximum 3 marks)
NB. The questions may be
taken from the data gathering
instrument.
 Five questions are relevant to the aims of the
project, clear and unambiguous.
 Three to four questions are relevant to the aims of
the project, clear and unambiguous.
 One to two questions are relevant to the aims of the
project, clear and unambiguous.
3
2
1
3. submitted a schedule of
activities for conducting the
project; and,
(maximum 5 marks)
 Table provided with the headings showing ‘Dates’,
‘Activities’ and ‘Comments’ with 10 – 12 activities
listed.
 Sequence of activities is relevant to the project and
comments support the follow – up actions or the
decisions made. – 1 mark for every 3 activities
1
1 -4
4. submitted evidence of
regulations and Policies
governing the firm selected for
the project.
(maximum 4 marks)
 ONE piece of legislation governing the work place is
referenced.
 ONE piece of legislation governing the work place is
referenced.
1
1

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 57
CRITERION 2
Gathering Data – Total 15 marks
Descriptor Marks
 An explanation of how the candidate became aware
of the legislation is given.
 ONE of the health and safety practices observed
when carrying out the Project is stated.
 ONE staff rule with which the candidate had to
comply in carrying out the Project is stated.
1
1
1
TOTAL 15 marks
CRITERION 3
Presentation – Total 22 marks
Descriptor Marks
The candidate has:
1. presented a written report;
(maximum 8 marks)
 Limitations relevant and clearly stated.
 Limitations relevant but not clearly stated.
 Findings relevant and clearly discussed.
 Findings relevant but not clearly discussed.
 Recommendations relevant and clearly discussed.
 Recommendations relevant but not clearly
discussed.
2
1
3-4
1-2
2
1
2. assessed the impact of office
equipment used in the
business selected for the
project;
(maximum 4 marks)
 A 4 – column table completed with headings “Date”,
“Equipment used”, “Purpose of equipment” and
“Suitability for tasks” is completed.
 Accurate response on purpose and suitability of
equipment for task.
1
1-3
3. prepared a bibliography
acknowledging all sources of
information in alphabetical
order;
(maximum 2 marks)
 For persons interviewed, list comprises date, place
and job title.
 For publications list comprises the names of the
author, publisher and year published.
 For Internet sites list comprises the address of the
website, names of authors and organizations and
dates accessed.
2
4. presented information in a
logical manner using correct
grammar; and,
(maximum 4 marks)
 Information is well presented and ideas are
communicated in a highly effective manner with no
spelling or grammatical errors.
4

CXC 27/O/SYLL 15 58
CRITERION 3
Presentation – Total 22 marks
Descriptor Marks
 Information is presented in a very good and
meaningful manner with no more than two spelling
or grammatical errors.
 Information is fairly well organised and ideas are
communicated satisfactorily with no more than two
spelling or grammatical errors.
 Information showed weaknesses in syntax, spelling,
punctuation or the sequencing of ideas.
3
2
1
5. completed project with all
required components in an
acceptable manner.
(maximum 4 marks)
 All required components included.
 Use of appropriate chart/graphics to compliment
project.
 Overall appearance of project:
- very good;
- adequate.
1
1
2
1
TOTAL 22 marks
Western Zone Office
12 November 2014

Caribbean Secondary Education Certificate®
Specimen Papers and
Mark Schemes/Keys
Specimen Papers: - Paper 01
Paper 02
Paper 032
Mark Schemes and Keys: - Paper 01
Paper 02
Paper 032

C A R I B B E A N E X A M I N A T I O N S C O U N C I L
SECONDARY EDUCATION CERTIFICATE
EXAMINATION
SPECIMEN
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
FOR
Paper 01
READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY.
Each item in this test has four suggested answers lettered (A), (B), (C), (D). Read each item
you are about to answer and decide which choice is best.
Sample Item
A cheque is usually crossed in order to
Sample Answer
(A) prevent theft
(B) provide a means of tracing it A B C D
(C) supply a special endorsement
(D) allow a particular person to cash it
The best answer to this item is “provide a means of tracing it”, so answer space (B) has been
shaded.
Copyright © 2010 Caribbean Examinations Council
All rights reserved.
01237010/SPEC 2011

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GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
01237010/SPEC 2011
1. Which of the following organizations will at
some time be involved in office activities?
I. Schools
II. Recreational centres
III. Hair-dressing salons
IV. Departmental stores
(A) I only
(B) I and IV only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) I, II, III and IV
2. You are a clerk in a small organization. Your
supervisor is the secretary, and the head of the
organization is the General Manager. You
feel that some improvements can be made
in the filing system. Which of the following
actions should you take?
(A) Discuss your ideas with the secretary.
(B) Make the changes you feel are
necessary.
(C) Continue with the old system until
you are asked for an opinion.
(D) Discuss your ideas with the General
Manager.
3. Which of the following pieces of equipment
would be MOST useful in an office where
replicas of original documents are often
needed?
(A) Photocopier
(B) Ink duplicator
(C) Spirit duplicator
(D) Offset litho machine

Item 4 refers to the following list of duties.
1. Ascertain value of production
2. Conserve time and materials
3. Maintain control over the stores
4. Provide figures for final accounts
5. Keep management informed at all points
4. The duties listed above could BEST be
performed by the
(A) store clerk
(B) book keeper
(C) progress chaser
(D) cost accounts clerk

5. Your regular lunch hour is from 1200 hours
to 1300 hours, but you have an appointment
between 1300 hours and 1400 hours today.
You should request
(A) the Supervisor to change your lunch
hour
(B) that the Human Resource Manager
change your working hours
(C) that a colleague explains your
absence if anyone asks for you
(D) a switch today with a colleague who
has lunch from 1300 hours to 1400
hours

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01237010/SPEC 2011
6. Which of the following factors can
contribute to repetitive stress injuries?
I. Poor posture
II. Prolonged computer use
III. Occasional breaks
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
7. An officer left last night for a three-day
business conference in another Caribbean
territory. You have just seen on your
desk a copy of a short letter which you
had prepared for his folder. Which of the
following is the MOST appropriate action
to take?
(A) Send the details of the letter to him
by electronic mail.
(B) Send a copy of the letter to him by
special delivery.
(C) Tell him the details of the letter by
telephone.
(D) Assume that he no longer requires
the letter and file it.
8. The MOST appropriate purpose of a
memorandum is to communicate
(A) within an organization
(B) with external business associates
(C) informal confirmation of business
(D) messages received from external
callers
9. Which of the following methods can be used
for written communication to staff members?
I. Circulars
II. Letters
III. Index cards on files
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
10. Which of the following procedures may be
used to find a telephone number in the yellow
pages for Thompson Electrical Services?
I. Look for the section headed Services.
II. Look for the section headed
Electrical.
III. Look for Thompson Electrical
Services.
(A) III only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
11. Which of the following is NOT proper
telephone etiquette in a business
environment?
(A) Answering the telephone as soon as
it rings
(B) Thanking the customer for calling
(C) Allowing the person who called to
end the conversation
(D) Answering the phone with a cheery
“hello”

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01237010/SPEC 2011
12. It is your first day at work. The office
manager is discussing your duties with
you, in her office. During the course of
the meeting, she leaves the room to attend
to another matter. While she is away, her
cell phone which she had placed on the
table rings. Which of the following is the
MOST appropriate action for you to take?
(A) Try to find her.
(B) Let the cell phone ring.
(C) Answer the cell phone.
(D) Ask someone to answer the cell
phone.
13. Astaff member has asked the receptionist to
make a person-to-person call to Mr. Wray.
Which of the following procedures should
the receptionist use?
(A) Request an appointment for the
staff member to see Mr. Wray.
(B) Call Mr. Wray and ask him to
contact the staff member at his
convenience.
(C) Dial Mr. Wray’s number and
connect the staff member when
Mr. Wray is on the line.
(D) Dial Mr. Wray’s number and
connect the staff member.
14. The time in England is 5 hours ahead of the
time in Barbados. When it is 2:00 pm in
Barbados, what time is it in England?
(A) 0200 hours
(B) 1400 hours
(C) 1900 hours
(D) 2000 hours
15. Which of the following machines is NOT
likely to be found in a mailing room?
(A) Collating
(B) Sorting
(C) Franking
(D) Folding
16. To which of the following departments should
the mail clerk in a large company send a letter
which is addressed to the General Manager
and which outlines a complaint about the
non‑delivery of an assignment of goods?
(A) Sales
(B) Production
(C) General Administration
(D) Despatch and Transport
17. At XYZ Company, information from staff
files which are currently kept in the general
office has been leaked on many occasions.
Which of the following actions would
MOST likely increase employee data
security?
I. Use the alphabetic filing system for
staff files.
II. Use the numeric filing system for
staff files.
III. Ask each staff member to keep
his/her file.
IV. Store all staff files in the Human
Resources department.
(A) I and III only
(B) II and III only
(C) II and IV only
(D) III and IV only

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01237010/SPEC 2011
18. The accounts department has requested
a file from the central filing department.
Which of the following actions should the
file clerk take?
I. Make a record of the written
request.
II. Complete an “out” sheet and place
it in the file.
III. Ask the person receiving the file to
sign for it.
IV. Send the file with a request for it to
be returned in an hour’s time.
(A) I, II and III only
(B) I, II and IV only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) II, III and IV only
19. In a terminal digit filing system, a folder in
position 7 on shelf 4 of bay 36 should be
numbered
(A) 7436
(B) 4736
(C) 3674
(D) 3647
20. Which of the following files would be
MOST suitable for filing petty cash
vouchers?
(A) Circular rotary
(B) Concertina
(C) Visible index
(D) Card wheel index
21. Microfilm will be MOST useful when there
is limited space for the storage of
(A) inactive files
(B) temporary files
(C) documents transferred from
inactive files
(D) documents transferred between
active files
22. Which of the following situations would
MOST likely result in a supplier’s file being
classified as inactive?
(A) A supplier now sells a wider range
of goods.
(B) The organization has stopped
buying from a particular supplier.
(C) The supplier with which the
organization does business has
changed its name.
(D) The supplier with which the
organization does business has
changed its business address.
23. Which of the following is/are NOT needed
when using microfilming?
(A) Printer
(B) Roll of film
(C) Aperture cards
(D) Magnetic tape
24. Which of the following are desirable
attributes of a receptionist?
I. Initiative
II. Courtesy
III. Influence
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III

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01237010/SPEC 2011
25. Abusy receptionist remembers having taken
a call for a company executive from a regular
client but cannot find a record of the message.

Which of the following is the MOST
appropriate action for the receptionist to
take?
(A) Decide not to mention the call.
(B) Hope that the client calls again.
(C) Calltheclienttogettheinformation.
(D) Apologize to the executive and
explain that he/she was busy.
26. Areceptionist forgot to notify an executive
of an appointment with a consultant. When
the consultant arrives for the appointment,
the receptionist should immediately
(A) ask the executive if he/she would
meet with the consultant
(B) send the consultant into the
executive’s office
(C) offer to make another appointment
for the consultant
(D) tell the consultant that she made a
mistake about the date
27. The receptionist has been informed that Mr.
Bell will be out of the office for the day.
She has noticed that he has a number of
appointments scheduled for that day. What
action should she take?
(A) Explain his absence to clients when
they come to the office.
(B) Notify clients by telephone and
offer to make new appointments.
(C) Postpone all appointments for that
day by letter.
(D) RemindMr.Bellofhisappointments
and suggest that he uses another
day to be out of the office.
28. From which of the following can a person
who is travelling overseas obtain foreign
currency?
I. Commercial Bank
II. Central Bank/Treasury
III. Travel agent
IV. Embassy of the overseas country
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I, II and III only
29. Assume that you have been elected to be
secretary of your school’s Thrift Society.
One of your duties will be the preparation of
meeting agendas. Which of the following
gives the correct sequence of items on
an agenda?
I. Matters arising
II. New business
III. Approval of the minutes
IV. Any other business
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, I, IV
(C) III, I, II, IV
(D) III, I, IV, II
30. Which of the following is the MOST
appropriate time, for correcting the minutes
of a meeting?
(A) Anytime the Secretary or Chairman
detects an error
(B) At a meeting at which the minutes
are presented but before they are
adopted
(C) At the meeting at which the minutes
are presented but only after they
are adopted
(D) At a subsequent meeting following
the adoption of the minutes

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01237010/SPEC 2011
31. Whichofthefollowingdutiesareperformed
by a secretary prior to meetings?
I. Circulate minutes of last meeting
II. Arrange seating accommodation
III. Circulate notice and agenda
IV. Obtain Chairman’s signature on
minutes of last meeting
(A) I only
(B) II and III only
(D) I, III and IV only
32. Two staff members and a consultant
were invited to a management committee
meeting to discuss a particular item on the
agenda. Which of the following persons
should receive copies of the minutes of this
meeting?
I. Members of the management
committee who were present
II. Members of the management
committee who were absent
III. The two staff members
IV. The consultant
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
33. The Annual General Meeting for Info
Tech Ltd is being planned. Which of the
following MUST be circulated before this
meeting?
I. Notice of the meeting and agenda
II. Minutes of the last annual general
meeting
III. Minutes of the regular meeting
IV. Copy of the firm’s memoranda of
association
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) II and IV only
(D) III and IV only
appropriate sequence to be used when
writing a letter of application for a job?
I. Qualifications
II. List of references
III. Interest in the position
IV. Request for an interview
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) II, IV, I and III
(C) III, I, II and IV
(D) III, I, IV and II

35. The document which outlines the details for
a business trip for an executive is referred to
as
(A) a schedule
(B) a programme
(C) an itinerary
(D) a travelogue

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01237010/SPEC 2011
40. An employee became ill while on holiday and
will therefore be late in returning to work.
Which of the following persons should the
employee notify?
(A) Office clerk
(B) Receptionist
(C) General Manager
(D) Human Resource Manager
41. A company receives an invoice for goods
purchased on May 6, costing $1 350. The
terms written on the invoice are 2/10, N/30.
If the invoice is paid on May 8 how much
must be paid?
(A) $ 945
(B) $1 215
(C) $1 323
(D) $1 350
42. The term “By Returns” and a corresponding
credit of $80 on a statement of account mean
that a sum of $80 was
(A) paid to the seller
(B) paid to the buyer
(C) added to the amount owing
(D) deducted from the amount owing
43. Mr. Jones has an agreed credit limit of $250
at Trendy Clothing Store. He submits an
order for 5 school shirts each costing $60
to the store. Which of the following actions
should the store’s credit clerk take?
(A) Adjust the order and supply the
goods.
(B) Show the order to the Credit
Manager.
(C) Send a statement to the customer
showing overdue amount.
(D) Return the order to the customer
and request prior payment.
36. Which of the following documents must a
Caribbean citizen ALWAYS submit at a port
of entry before he/she can enter into a foreign
country?
I. Passport or travel permit
II. Vaccination certificate
III. Visitors’ visa
IV. Travellers cheques or bank draft
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
37. Sweet Lime Bottling Company is ISO-
certified. Which of the following is the
correct meaning of the acronym ISO?
(A) Information Service Organization
(B) Industrial Systems Operation
(C) International Organization for
Standardization
(D) Internal Sales Office
38. Which of the following functions are
performed by the Human Resource office?
I. Preparing job cards
II. Shortlisting job applications
III. Preparing wages and salaries for staff
IV. Arranging training and providing
welfare facilities for staff
(A) I and IV only
(B) II and IV only
39. Which of the following contributions is NOT
a fringe benefit for employees?
(A) Pension plan
(B) Training grant
(C) National insurance
(D) Medical insurance

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01237010/SPEC 2011
47. Mr Parker is trying to prepare a bank
reconciliation statement but is unable to
complete it because a cheque paid to the
utility company for $60 is unaccounted for.
In order to reconcile the bank statement
with the cash book, the $60 should be
(A) added to the cash book balance
(B) deducted from the cash book
balance
(C) added to the bank statement
balance
(D) deducted from the bank statement
balance
48. Which of the following would be the MOST
economical purchase price?
(A) $20 per 50 kg CIF
(B) $22 per 50 kg FOB
(C) $24 per 50 kg less 5% trade
discount
(D) $24 per 50 kg less 10% cash
discount
49. The Joy High School wants to build a new
canteen. In order to select the most suitable
firm for the job, the school should invite
competing firms to submit
(A) price lists
(B) catalogues
(C) statements
(D) tenders
50. Assuming a similar quality and quantity
of goods and the same rate of insurance
coverage, which of the following shipping
terms will give the greatest benefit to a
company purchasing goods?
(A) F.O.B.
(B) C.I.F.
(C) Ex works
(D) E & OE
Item 44 refers to the following information
which was extracted from a statement of
account.
Balance B/F $60 (Dr)
March 2, Invoice $150
March 4, Invoice $78
March 20, Debit Note $11.60
44. The amount outstanding on March 21 is
(A) $299.60
(B) $276.40
(C) $179.60
(D) $156.40
45. What should Mr Jones do if his cash book
and bank statement show a difference of
$20.00?
(A) Reconcile his bank statement with
his cash book.
(B) Regard the $20.00 as intertest on
his current account.
(C) Inform the bank that an error has
been made on his account.
(D) Write a cheque for $20.00 to
balance his statement with the
bank.
46. The cancelled cheques that one receives
with a bank statement are those cheques
which
(A) the bank dishonoured
(B) the bank exchanged for cash
(C) are more than 3 months old
(D) the account holder did not negotiate

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01237010/SPEC 2011
51. On the morning of April 20, the stock card
for leather bags showed that the stock in
hand was 650 bags. Later that day, 150
bags were received from the factory and
90 bags were sold. Which of the following
would show the entries in the order that
they would have been completed on the
stock card on April 20?
I. Issues 90, Balance 710
II. Receipts 150, Issues 90, Balance
710
III. Receipts 150, Balance 800
IV. Receipt 800, Issues 90, Balance
710
(A) II only
(B) IV only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
52. Which of the following activities are
normally carried out by the sales department
of a wholesale grocery?
I. Preparation of invoices
II. Completion of order forms
III. Submission of purchase requisitions
IV. Preparation of credit notes
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and IV only
53. Which of the following functions is NOT
typically performed by a sales clerk?
(A) Filing correspondence
(B) Despatching quotations
(C) Preparing the index of suppliers
(D) Dealing with telephone enquiries
54. Which of the following pieces of information
should be used in preparing a sales quotation?
(A) Terms, quantity, condition, goods
available
(B) Price, goods available, delivery
dates, terms
(C) Quantity, discounts, description,
delivery dates
(D) Trade price, quality, catalogue no.,
method of delivery

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01237010/SPEC 2011
55. Which of the following is the date on which the stock
clerk should have placed an order for paper?
(A) Jan 05
(B) Jan 07
(C) Jan 08
(D) Jan 10
57. Which of the following documents must be
prepared when exporting goods by air?
I. Airway bill
II. Bill of lading
III. Invoice
IV. Destination sheet
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) III and IV only
56. Which of the following documents originates
from the carrier as a contract between the
carrier and the supplier when goods are to
be shipped?
(A) Bill of lading
(B) Delivery note
(C) Despatch note
(D) Consignment note
Stock Record
Description: Broad paper Supplier: Getfers Ltd.
Stock Ref: 8/12 Max: 100 reams
Min: 20 reams
Date Order No. In Out Balance
2012
Jan 01 22
Jan 02 40/21 78 100
Jan 03 5c/8 14 86
Jan 04 BE/10 20 66
Jan 05 Tec/4 15 51
Jan 07 A/20 30 21
Jan 08 So/4 2 19
Jan 10 Ag/2 4 15

Item 55 refers to the stock card shown below.

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01237010/SPEC 2011
58. Which of the following actions does NOT
represent corporate social responsibility?
(A) Donating books to a school
(B) Sponsoring a local steel band
(C) Employing environmentally-
friendly policies
(D) Distributing vouchers at a corporate
function
59. Which of the following items usually
appears first on a resumé?
(A) Name
(B) Address
(C) Date of birth
(D) Telephone number
appropriate action to take if you are offered
a job which you do not wish to accept?
(A) Visit the human resource officer
and apologize for not taking the
job.
(B) Telephone the human resource
officer, thank him/her and advise
that you will not be taking the job.
(C) Write a letter thanking the human
resource officer but declining the
job offer.
(D) Decide that if the company does
not hear from you, they will know
you are not taking the job.
END OF TEST

EXAMINATION
SPECIMEN PAPER 01
KEY

EXAMINATION
SPECIMEN PAPER 2011
Item No. Key
1 D
2 A
3 A
4 D
5 D
6 B
7 C
8 A
9 C
10 D
11 D
12 B
13 C
14 C
15 A
16 A
17 C
18 A
19 D
20 B
21 A
22 B
23 D
24 A
25 C
26 A
27 B
28 A
29 C
30 B
Item No. Key
31 C
32 D
33 A
34 C
35 C
36 A
37 C
38 B
39 C
40 D
41 C
42 D
43 B
44 A
45 A
46 B
47 D
48 A
49 D
50 B
51 A
52 B
53 C
54 B
55 B
56 A
57 B
58 D
59 A
60 C

TEST CODE 01237020
SPEC 2015/01237020
CARIBBEAN SECONDARY EDUCATION CERTIFICATE®
EXAMINATION
SPECIMEN PAPER
Paper 02 – General Proficiency
2 hours
READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY.
1. This paper consists of SIX questions: THREE in SECTION I and THREE in SECTION II.
2. Answer ALL questions.
3. Write your answers in the spaces provided in this answer booklet.
4. Do NOT write in the margins.
5. You may use a silent, non-programmable calculator to answer questions.
6. If you need to rewrite any answer and there is not enough space to do so on the original
page, you must use the extra lined page(s) provided at the back of this booklet. Remember
to draw a line through your original answer.
7. If you use the extra page(s) you MUST write the question number clearly in the box
provided at the top of the extra page(s) and, where relevant, include the question
part beside the answer.
DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
01237020/SPEC 2015

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01237020/SPEC 2015
SECTION I
Answer ALL questions in this section.
1. (a) State TWO items of information that job applicants can obtain from the mission statement of
an organization.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(b) Businesses are expected to offer excellent customer service. Give TWO reasons why
excellent customer service is important to every business.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(c) Explain TWO reasons why it would not be wise to use the photocopying machine at your
school to reproduce more than 500 copies of a program for graduation.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(4 marks)
(d) It is the aim of Caribbean countries to develop literacy skills in school leavers in order to
ensure efficiency at the workplace.
Briefly describe TWO functions performed by EACH of the following clerks which require
the use of literacy skills.
(i) Human Resource Clerk
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)

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01237020/SPEC 2015
(ii) Records Management Clerk
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(e) Sasha Rae operates a small but well patronized beauty parlour in town. Since the opening of
a new housing scheme recently, her clientele has increased significantly. She is now
considering the following factors: size, layout, and furniture, as they relate to the comfort,
health and safety of her staff.
For EACH factor indicated above, identify ONE problem Sasha may experience as a result of
the increase in her clientele.
Size ............................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
Layout ........................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
Furniture ....................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(3 marks)
Total 15 marks

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01237020/SPEC 2015
2. (a) Elvis Jordon has been working as a bank teller for the past two years. He has been selected
for promotion to a position at another branch and is required to present a portfolio at the
interview.
List THREE items of information which he would need to include in his portfolio.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(3 marks)
(b) State TWO ways in which the receptionist can assist in maintaining a good interpersonal
relationship between the organization and members of the public.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(c) Your friend Dahlia wants to become a receptionist. Identify TWO attributes that she should
possess to carry out the job effectively.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)

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01237020/SPEC 2015
(d) Mid-Island Software Co. Ltd is a new computer firm which is located at 19 Palmer’s Crescent,
Castries, Saint Lucia. Recently, the firm advertised to fill a number of new positions,
including the post of receptionist.
Mr Ram Webb of 10 Highway Drive, Castries, Saint Lucia has applied for the post of
receptionist. Assume that you are Mrs Iris Field, assistant to the HR manager, draft a letter
for the HR manager’s signature to Mr Ram Webb, in the space provided below.
Acknowledge his application and interest in employment at the company.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(8 marks)
Total 15 marks

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01237020/SPEC 2015
3. (a) Provide the meaning of any TWO of the following terms as they relate to business meetings:
Cancel
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
Proposal
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
Motion
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(b) State TWO functions of the treasurer of an organization.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(c) Meetings usually follow the rules of Parliamentary Procedure, also known as Robert’s Rules
of Order, or norms for conducting meetings.
Study the items in Column 1 and rearrange any THREE of them in the order they would
appear on a meeting agenda. Write your response in Column 2.
Column 1
Items
Other business
Apologies for absence
Chairman’s report
Matters arising
(3 marks)
Column 2
Order of appearance on agenda
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………...
(3) …………………………………

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01237020/SPEC 2015
(d) Minutes of meetings are usually followed up with an action sheet.
Explain how the circulation of an action sheet could assist the chairman in ensuring a
successful meeting.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(e) Explain how business persons’ knowledge of time zones can assist them in conducting
meetings internationally.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(f) The following is part of a bus schedule for the Mercedes Bus Company.
{Route 2 – Weekend Morning Service
Saturday–Sunday Service starts at 8:00 a.m.} (1)
{Santa Cruz Bus Station 8:00 a.m. 9:00 a.m. 10:00 a.m. 11:00 a.m.} (2)
{Beadle’s Boulevard 8:10 9:10 10:10 {11:10
Leeds Street 8:20 9:20 10:20 11:20
Park Mountain Drive 8:30 9:30 10:30 11:30
Longwood Road} (3) 8:40 9:40 10:40 11:40} (4)
Write an interpretation, in sentence form, of the bracketed parts labelled (1), (2), (3) and (4)
on the bus schedule above.
(1) .............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................
(2) .............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................

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01237020/SPEC 2015
(3) .............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................
(4) .............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................
(4 marks)
Total 15 marks

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01237020/SPEC 2015
SECTION II
Answer ALL questions in this section.
4. (a) Actions taken by the Human Resource Department include carrying out disciplinary
procedures.
Identify TWO reasons for which employees may face disciplinary procedures.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(b) One of the statutory provisions for employee protection includes ‘equality’. What does this
law mean in relation to the employee?
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(c) Identify ONE compulsory deduction and ONE voluntary deduction that are taken from an
employee’s gross pay.
Compulsory: ..............................................................................................................................
Voluntary: ..................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)

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01237020/SPEC 2015
(d) Use the following information to complete the crossed cheque provided below.
Crossing: cheque to be paid only in the account of the payee
Drawee: Bank of Surety, College Crescent, Mainland
Drawer: Shirley Waite
Payee: Joe Marj
Cheque No. 101; A/c No. 2468
Amount: $2 005.50
Date: (Current)
Pay to ..................................................................................................
The sum of ..........................................................................................
..............................................................................................................
(9 marks)
Total 15 marks

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01237020/SPEC 2015
5. (a) Identify TWO attributes that a clerk in the purchasing department should possess.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(b) State TWO reasons why it is important to manage stock of all items used in a business.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)
(c) A customer’s bank statement shows an opening debit balance of $500. Explain what this
balance means in the customer’s account.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(2 marks)

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01237020/SPEC 2015
(d) On the stationery stock card provided on page 13, record the following information, to show
the correct balance on 20 December 2014.
Name of stationery: White Banker Envelopes
Item no: 10
Bin no: 7
Maximum level: 20 boxes
Minimum level: 8 boxes
Reorder level: 5 boxes
October 1: Balance in stock 12 boxes
October 15: Issued 5 boxes to HRM office, req. no. 2
November 5: Purchased 13 boxes from Quality
Stationery, Invoice no. 9
November 25: Issued 6 boxes to admin. office, req. no. 4
December 10: Issued 9 boxes to typing pool, req. no. 6
December 20: Purchased 15 boxes from Quality Stationery,
Invoice no. 11
The envelopes are stored in drawer no. 3.

- 13 -
01237020/SPEC 2015
STATIONERY STOCK CARD
Item name/number: White Banker Envelopes, 10 Maximum level:
Stock location: Drawer #3 Minimum level:
Bin number: 7 Reorder level:
Date 2014
Receipts Issues
Balance
Quantity Inv. No. Supplier Quantity Req. No. Department
(9 marks)
Total 15 marks

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01237020/SPEC 2015
6. (a) (i) List THREE duties of a marketing clerk.
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
(3 marks)
(ii) Identify THREE skills required by a sales clerk.
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
(3 marks)
(b) Barbados is a member of the International Organization for Standards (ISO). Green and
Stewart Company Limited is a medium-sized business in Barbados.
Outline FIVE conditions that Green and Stewart Co. Ltd would have to maintain before it
seeks to qualify as a member of the ISO.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(5 marks)

- 15 -
01237020/SPEC 2015
(c) Ryan and Reid Co. Ltd failed to pay attention to the important details in coordinating its
production activities and so did not make a profit.
Assume you are a member of staff in the operations department at this company. Recommend
FOUR actions the company could take/enforce to create an environment of profitability.
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
(4 marks)
Total 15 marks
END OF TEST
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS TEST.

- 16 -
01237020/SPEC 2015

01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
C A R I B B E A N E X A M I N A T I O N S C O N C I L
EXAMINATION
SPECIMEN PAPER
Paper 02 – GENERAL PROFICIENCY
KEY & MARK SCHEME

- 2 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
Paper 02 - General Proficiency
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
1
(a) Information job applicants can obtain from a mission
statement:
- Main purpose of the organization
- Activities of the business/what it does
- Justification for the existence of organization
- Who are their customers/who they strive to serve
1 mark for each correct response
2
(b) Importance of customer service:
- Promotes success/professionalism of business
- Influences customers’ buying habits
- Ensures customers’ positive buying experience
- Satisfies customers’ wants/needs
- Creates/enhances good customer relationship
2
(c) Reasons it would not be wise to use the photocopying
machine at your school to reproduce more than 500
programmes for graduation:
- Can be very expensive if print is done in colour
- Not suitable for large-volume copying
- Photocopiers at school may not be sophisticated enough
to reproduce quality/professional programmes for
graduation
- It may be more economical to outsource firms for the job
- Other equipment such as the computer/risograph would be
more suitable to reproduce that quantity of programmes
2 marks each for full response; 1 mark each for partial
response
4

- 3 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
1 cont’d
(d) (i) Functions performed by the clerks requiring the use of
literacy skills:
Human Resource Clerk:
- keeps accurate database of HR records
- processes records, e.g. contracts of employment,
medical/leave records
- stores records in a systematic format
- makes adequate preparation for interviews/suitable
room/adequate furniture
- short-lists applicants/invites short-listed applicants
for interview
- attends to staff welfare appropriately/refers employees
with personal/work related problems to relevant persons
for assistance/counseling
- prepares leave roster/job letters for employees
1 mark each for any two correct responses
2
(ii) Records Management Clerk:
- maintains the storage and retrieval systems
- demonstrates competence in preparing, classifying and
indexing documents
- prepares out cards/absent folder indicators for files out
on loan
- organizes records for filing using the various
classifications
- creates/drafts new files when required using the computer
- manages the retention and disposal of records
- locates and distributes files when needed
- knows how to print and withdraw documents from the system
2

- 4 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
1 cont’d
(e) Problems Sasha may face as a result of the increased
clientele:
Size:
- lack of space/work stations to work comfortably and
safely
- poor ventilation
- lack of easy access to amenities/supplies
- increased likelihood of injuries/accidents
1
Layout:
- lack of space for proper arrangement of furniture so as
not to block doors/exits
- cluttered aisles and walkways
- lack of space for adequate seating
- inadequate lighting/room for re-arrangement/change
1
Furniture:
- limited access to furniture that are used regularly
- inadequate supply of furniture to meet needs of the
staff
- inflexibility in the arrangement of office furniture
- varying sizes of chairs/tables and other furniture may
not be accommodated
1
1 mark each for correct response in each category
8 7

- 5 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
2
(a) Items of information that would be needed in portfolio to
take to the interview:
- certification/proof of additional qualifications
- character references
- valid identification
- letter of recommendation
- evidence of outstanding performance/awards/innovations
implemented
1 mark each for any three correct responses
3
(b) Ways the receptionist can maintain a good interpersonal
relationship between the organization and members of the
public:
- Greet callers politely/professionally/by name
- Provide timely/relevant information/pen to write in
visitors’ log
- Answer telephone promptly
- Respond appropriately to e-mail enquiries
- Treat people courteously at all levels
- Make visitors feel welcome
- Make eye contact when speaking
- Keep a smile/be pleasant at all times
- Help visitors with individual needs/point out
facilities
- Deal with appointments promptly/check waiting time and
remind persons they have come to see
2
(c) Attributes that are needed to carry out the job of a
receptionist effectively:
- Personal appearance/deportment/good grooming
- Smart/discreet/well-spoken/polite
- Tact/patience/pleasant/helpful
- Use of initiative
- Good articulation
- Good temperament/disposition
2

- 6 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
2 cont’d
(d) Draft letter of acknowledgement for signature: (1)
Mid-Island Software Co. Ltd.
19 Palmer’s Crescent
Castries, St. Lucia (1)
(Current date) (1)
Mr. Ram Webb
10 Highway Drive
Castries, St. Lucia (1)
Dear Mr. Webb
I hereby acknowledge receipt of your application for the
post of receptionist at Mid-Island Software Co. Ltd.(1)
We are in the process of reviewing all applications sent
to our company and will certainly communicate with you
within the next two weeks. (1)
Thank you for the interest shown in employment with our
company. Kind regards. (1)
Yours sincerely/respectfully (1)
__________________
Mrs. Iris Field
Award marks as follows:
- Draft letter of acknowledgement (1)
- Firm’s address/return address in correct position (1)
- Date in correct position according to style used (1)
- Inside/applicant’s address in correct position (1)
- Matching salutation and complimentary close (1)
- Acknowledging receipt of application for post of
receptionist at co. (1)
- Action/s taken by company (1)
- Appropriate closing paragraph (1)
8
7 8

- 7 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
3
(a) Meaning of terms as they relate to business meetings:
Cancel: to revoke, annul, make void; announce that a
planned event will not take place, for example,
call off a meeting
Proposal: a matter to be considered is made by individual
attending the meeting
Motion: formal step to introduce/propose a matter for
consideration and decision by the group; a
resolution that is proposed at a meeting
2
(b) Functions that the treasurer of an organization would
perform:
- Takes responsibility/custody of all funds belonging to
the organization
- Prepares/maintains financial records showing breakdown
of receipts, payments and cash balances
- Makes payments upon the signature of the board/duly
authorized person
- Approves the payment of bills/banking/book-keeping
- Financial planning/budgeting/reporting
- Liaises with members about financial matters
2
(c) Re-arranged items in the order they would appear on a
meeting agenda:
Table 1
Items Order of appearance on
agenda
Other business (1) Apologies for absence
Apologies for absence (2) Matters arising
Chairman’s report (3) Chairman’s report
Matters arising (4) Other business
3

- 8 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
3 cont’d
(d) How circulation of an Action Sheet could assist the chairman
in ensuring a successful meeting:
- Persons are reminded of deadline to complete tasks
- Action sheet contains the name of the organization, to
whom the task is assigned, the objective, action item,
when it is due, whether or not task is done and a comment
column
- Helps to achieve meeting’s objectives
- Ensures follow-up after the meeting
2 marks for correct full response; 1 mark for partial
response
(4
2
(e) How business persons’ knowledge of time zones can assist
them in conducting meetings internationally:
- Meetings/conferences/discussions can be held during
normal working hours in each country in a timely manner
- Travel times can be accurately calculated to ensure
punctuality and full coverage of meetings
- Knowledge of countries that are either ahead or behind
universal time and therefore, would know working hours
of business
2 marks for correct response; 1 mark for partial response
2
(f) Interpretation of bracketed parts labeled 1-4 on bus
schedule, in sentence form.
1) The Mercedes bus company travels along/plies Route 2 on
weekend mornings, Saturday-Sunday, starting at 8:00.a.m.
1
2) The bus station is at Santa Cruz, from which the bus can
be taken at 1-hour intervals, starting at 8:00 a.m. up
to 11:00 a.m.
1
3) The street stops are at: Beadle’s Boulevard, Leeds
Street, Park Mountain Drive and Longwood Road
1
4) The bus will be at the various stops/places from 11:10
to 11:40 a.m. each weekend morning
1
1 mark for each correct response in sentence form
(5
7 8

- 9 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
4
(a) Reasons for which employees may face disciplinary
procedures:
- Frequent/habitual lateness
- Irregularity/absenteeism
- Inability to do the work required
- Drug abuse/drunkenness on the job
- Unacceptable behaviour/fighting
- Theft/stealing from the organization
- Violence/abuse/harassment of co-workers
- Willful destruction of company’s property
2
(b) ‘Equality’ as a statutory provision for employee protection.
What it means:
- Legal rights should be observed despite ethnicity,
gender, religion, national origin, colour, place of
abode, sexual preferences and disability; there should
be fair wages and equal pay and benefits for similar
jobs being done
2
(c) Compulsory and voluntary deductions that are taken from an
employee’s gross pay:
Compulsory:
- Income tax
- National Insurance
- Education/National Housing
Voluntary:
- Health/Life Insurance
- Union dues
- Credit union
- Mortgage
1 mark for each correct response from the two categories
2

- 10 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
4 cont’d
(d) Crossed Cheque:
(Date) ____________________
Bank of Surety
College Crescent
Mainland
Pay Joe Marj
Two thousand and five dollars and 50 cents
Shirley Waite
101 2468
A/C
Payee
Only
Award marks as follows:
- Used parallel lines for crossing = 1 mark
- Inserted words in parallel lines = 1 mark
- Appropriate date = 1 mark
- Drawee/name/address of bank = 1 mark
- Payee’s name – Joe Marj = 1 mark
- Correct amount in words and figures = 2 marks
- Drawer’s name – Shirley Waite = 1 mark
- Serial/customer account numbers = 1 mark
9
6 9
$2 005.50

- 11 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
5
(a) Attributes of a clerk in the purchasing department:
- Honesty
- Initiative
- Integrity
- Detail-oriented
- Confidentiality
- Reliability
- Dependability
2
(b) Reasons it is important to manage stock of all items used
in a business:
- prevention of pilferage/stealing
- prevent spoils/obsolescence
- signaling of market trends
- to have on hand, stocks for customers/employees
- availability of capital
- to avoid excess stocks/overcrowding/cluttering of
warehouse
- to know when re-order point is reached
- to control insurance costs if premium is based on average
volume in stock over a period
2
(c) Interpretation of an opening debit balance of $500.00 on a
bank statement:
- This is an overdraft as of the beginning of the
month/previous balance
2

- 12 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Key: Question 5 (d):
STATIONERY STOCK CARD
Item name/number: White banker Envelopes,
10
Maximum level: 20 boxes
Stock location: Drawer no. 3 Minimum level: 8 boxes
Bin number: 7 Re-order level: 5 boxes
Date
2014
Receipts Issues
Balance
Quantity Inv.
No.
Supplier Quantity Req.
No.
Department
Oct.
1
12 boxes
Oct.
15
5 boxes 2 HRM Office 7 boxes
Nov.
5
13 boxes 9 Quality
Stationery
20 boxes
Nov.
25
6 boxes 4 Admin.
Office
14 boxes
Dec. 10 9 boxes 6 Typing pool 5 boxes
Dec. 20 15 boxes 11 Quality
Stationery
20 boxes

- 13 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
5 cont’d
(d) Award marks as follows:
- Maximum level/minimum level/re-order level = 1 mark
- Correct dates (6) = 1 mark
- Correct quantities for Receipts and Issues = 1 mark
- Correct Invoice Nos. = 1 mark
- Supplier: Quality stationery = 1 mark
- Correct Requisition Nos. = 1 mark
- Correct departments = 1 mark
- Correct balance of 20 boxes on December 20 = 2 marks
9
6 9

- 14 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
6
(a) (i) Duties of the marketing clerk:
- Assists with preparing advertising material
- Assists in the participating of sales promotion
- Assists in budgeting for marketing activities
- Liaises with media and advertising agencies
- Liaises with the mailroom
- Assists with preparing press releases
- Makes travel arrangements for marketing purposes
3
(ii) Skills required of the sales clerk:
- Computer skills
 spreadsheets (excel)
 Word processing
 database
- Literacy and numeracy
- Interpersonal skills
- Operates multimedia projector
- Using the fax machine
- Basic information technology skills
- Using reference tools
3
(b) Conditions to maintain within the company before ISO can
be considered:
- High quality management systems
- High quality of goods/services
- Wastes and errors kept at a minimum
- Safe environment for production and employees
- High level of productivity
- Cost of production controlled
- Frequent internal audits
- Production process open for continued improvement
- Safe products guaranteed
- Fair business practices conducted
- Free and fair global trading practices
- Trusted brand
- Legal requirements for trading observed
5

- 15 -
01237020/MS/SPEC 2015
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question K/C A
6 cont’d
(c) Actions the company could take/enforce to create an
environment of profitability:
- Plan the expected production levels
- Act immediately on orders placed for goods
- Ascertain the amount of raw materials for production
- Order sufficient raw materials for production
- Employ the number of persons to complete the job
- Ensure equipment needed for the production process is
serviced and ready for production
- Secure the best quality material for the job
- Provide safe working conditions for production workers
- Plan realistic delivery schedules for goods
- Meet all delivery deadlines set
4
6 9

01237032/SPEC 2011
TEST CODE 01237032/SPEC
FORM TP 01237032/SPEC 2011
EXAMINATION
SPECIMEN PAPER
Paper 032 – General Proficiency
1 ½ hours
In addition to the 1 ½ hours candidates are allowed 15
minutes to read through the paper. Writing MAY
begin during this time.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Candidates MUST use this answer booklet when responding to the questions. For EACH question,
write your answer in the space indicated and return the answer booklet at the end of the
examination.
2. Use the CASE to answer the questions.
DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

2
01237032/SPEC 2011
THE CASE
Expansion of Home Furnishings Ltd
Home Furnishings Ltd, a retail company that sells furniture and appliances, has its head office at 75
Bamboo Lane, Dominica, and is managed by Mrs Ann Taylor. The company has two subsidiary offices in
Jamaica and St Lucia, managed by Mr Green and Mr Xavier respectively. Home Furnishings Ltd is
seeking to expand and establish a new retail outlet in Barbados.
The company has scheduled a meeting of its divisional managers including those in the Jamaica and St
Lucia offices to apprise them of the proposed expansion.
The meeting will be held on Monday, 24 January 2012 at 10:00 a.m., Eastern Caribbean time at the head
office in Dominica.
All divisional managers are expected to attend the meeting. The time in Jamaica is one hour behind that of
the Eastern Caribbean.
Answer ALL questions.
1. Assume that you are Mrs Penny Hoad, administrative assistant to Mrs Ann Taylor, at the head office in
Dominica. Use the space provided to draft a MEMORANDUM which will be faxed to the divisional
managers in Jamaica and St Lucia to inform them of the meeting in Dominica.
(6 marks)

3
01237032/SPEC 2011
2. There are several ways to conduct a meeting with the staff in Dominica, St. Lucia and Jamaica, to
eliminate travel to Dominica.
Advise the company of TWO of the most appropriate methods for communicating with the three
locations simultaneously. Support your answer by indicating ONE advantage and ONE disadvantage
of EACH method chosen.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
(6 marks)

4
01237032/SPEC 2011
3. The management of Home Furnishings Ltd is concerned about the level of sales in each of its three
locations. As a result, the head office is compiling a sales report for the period January to June 2011, to
inform their decisions on the way forward. The sales figures in the three territories are given in the
table below.
Sales (‘000s)
Country Small Appliances Furniture Large Appliances
Dominica 150 50 300
St Lucia 200 100 250
Jamaica 400 75 500
(a) On the grid below, draw a bar chart comparing the sales figures in the three countries, for inclusion
in the report.
(8 marks)

5
01237032/SPEC 2011
(b) Identify ONE product line that should be reviewed before establishing the new retail outlet in
Barbados. Give ONE reason for your choice.
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
(2 marks)
4. From the first meeting, a follow-up meeting has been scheduled for all the company managers to
formulate strategies for the new office in Barbados. Sales levels for the first six months of 2011 for all
three product lines will also be discussed.
Draft a NOTICE of the meeting and an AGENDA, for Mrs Taylor’s signature, to be sent to all
divisional managers. The meeting will be held on 15 February 2012 at 1:30 pm in the Hadden Hall
Conference Room, Dominica.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
(7 marks)

6
01237032/SPEC 2011
5. In preparation for the meeting scheduled for 15 February 2012, travel arrangements must be made. All
travel activities are to be coordinated by the head office in Dominica. Use the space provided to make a
checklist of FOUR activities that must be addressed to facilitate travel arrangements to Dominica for
Mr Green and Mr Xavier.
(6 marks)

7
01237032/SPEC 2011
6. Home Furnishings Ltd will require sales clerks for its retail outlet in Barbados. The starting salary is
BDS $1 500 a month and applicants are required to have five CSEC passes at the General Proficiency
level including English Language, Mathematics and Office Administration. All applications must be
received by electronic mail (e-mail) before 30 June 2012. Applications must be addressed to the
Human Resource Manager and emailed to HRCarib@caribnet.com.
Draft an advertisement for the vacant posts.
(8 marks)

01237032/SPEC 2011
7. Your friend Robin Patrice has seen the advertisement and is interested in applying for one of the sales
positions. She has asked for your assistance in drafting a letter of application. Advise Robin on the
essential elements that should be included in her letter of application.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
(7 marks)
Total 50 marks
END OF TEST

01237032/K/MS/2011
HEADQUARTERS
EXAMINATION
PAPER 032 – General Proficiency
SPECIMEN PAPER
KEY AND MARK SCHEME

2
01237032/MS/SPEC 2011
PAPER 032 – GENERAL PROFICIENCY
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question Key A
1 MEMORANDUM
TO: Mr Green
Manager
Jamaica Branch
Mr Xavier
Manager
St Lucia Branch
FROM: Mrs Penny Hoad, Administrative Assistant
DATE: Current
RE: Proposed Office Site – Barbados
A meeting of all managers to discuss the subject
as captioned will be held on Monday,
24 January 2012 at 1000 hours Eastern Caribbean
time at the Head Office in Dominica.
All divisional managers are required to attend.
Further information will be forwarded to you in
due course.
1
1
1
1
1
1
Section II: 1(d)(ii)

3
01237032/MS/SPEC 2011
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question Key A
2 TELE-CONFERENCING
Advantages: Saves on cost of travel
Real time responses
Can be done using company
office/conference room/cafeteria
Enhances/Promotes communication and
coordination between and head
office
Flexibility in joining conference
whenever necessary
Disadvantages: Persons may constantly have to
identify self
No visibility
Might be difficult to control
depending on the size of staff
Telephone problems/Technical
failures
Poses challenge when dealing with
complex issues e.g.
negotiation/bargaining issues
ELECTRONIC INTER-OFFICE COMMUNICATOR (eg: Outlook,
MSN Messenger, Yahoo Messenger)
Advantages: Formal/written
Persons do not have to leave desk
Real time responses
Saves on cost of travel
Saves on cost of paper
Disadvantages: Less personal
More prone to misinterpretation
Not confidential

4
01237032/MS/SPEC 2011
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question Key A
2
(cont’d)
VIDEO CONFERENCING
Advantages:
Visibility
More personal
Real time responses
Identify with persons in other
regions
Disadvantages:
May have to rent a facility for
use
May have to move physical
location
Costly to set up
For any TWO appropriate methods -
1 mark each (2 x 1)
For TWO advantages - 1 mark each (2 x 1)
For TWO disadvantages - 1 mark each (2 x 1)
2
2
2
Section II: 1(c)(i)

5
01237032/MS/SPEC 2011
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question Key A
3a
OR
Chart Title
Bar Chart by either Product line or by Country
Labelling x axis
Labelling y axis
Legend
Plotting more than 6 values correctly (2 marks)
Plotting 3-5 values correctly (1 mark)
1
1
1
1
2
2
Section II: 1(e)(i)

6
01237032/MS/SPEC 2011
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question Key A
3 (b) Appropriate Product Identified (Large Appliances)
Supporting Reason – Sales are significantly lower
for the large appliances as compared with the
other product lines
1
1
Section II: 1(e)(i)

7
01237032/MS/SPEC 2011
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question Key A
4 NOTICE Heading
A meeting of all managers will be held on 15
February 2012 at Hadden Hall Conference Room,
Dominica at 1330 hours.
AGENDA
1. Opening Remarks / Prayer
2. Apologies for absence
3. Minutes of last meeting
4. Matters arising from minutes of last
meeting
5. Manager’s report re: Sales for January –
June 2011
6. Formulation of strategies for new office
in Barbados
7. Discussion of location and resources
required
8. Any other business
9. Date and time of next meeting
10. Adjournment of meeting
_____________ _______________
Date A. Taylor
Manager
Mark Scheme
 Stated Heading
 Date, time, venue and purpose
 Agenda items presented in a logical format
 Stated main item (to formulate strategies)
to be discussed in meeting
Agenda
 Stated at least FOUR (4) items on Agenda
 Dated document
 Included blank space for name of signatory
(Ann Taylor)
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
Section VI: 2(b)

8
01237032/MS/SPEC 2011
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question Key A
5
TRAVEL CHECKLIST
Heading (1 mark)
Any four correct items on check list (1 mark x 4)
Use of check box (1 mark)
1
4
1
Section VII: 1(a,d),4,5
Names of persons travelling
Dates of travel
Airline Arrangements / Reservations
Hotel Accommodation
Travel Documents
Monetary Documents/Foreign currency
Ground Transportation

9
01237032/MS/SPEC 2011
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question Key A
6 VACANCY
HOME FURNISHINGS LTD
Requires
SALES CLERKS
QUALIFICATIONS: CSEC General passes in :
Five subjects including
English Language
Mathematics
Office Administration
SALARY: Bds$1 500.00 monthly
CLOSING DATE: 30 June 2012
All applications should be emailed to
HRCarib@caribnet.com (1)
(1) Attention: HR Manager
HOME FURNISHINGS LTD
75 Bamboo Lane
DOMINICA
1
1
1
1
1
2
1
Section VIII: 1(a)(i)

10
01237032/MS/SPEC 2011
KEY AND MARK SCHEME
Question Key A
7 Important elements to be included in the letter
of application:
- A return address and date
- An inside address to the Human Resource
Manager
- An appropriate salutation
- Body of letter
 Purpose of letter (Paragraph 1)
 Brief personal data with reference to
the resume attached
 Request for interview and provision
of contact information
- Expression of appreciation for opportunity
to apply and complimentary, professional
close
1
1
1
3
1
Section III: 3(a)(ii)

REPORT ON CANDIDATES’ WORK IN THE
CARIBBEAN SECONDARY EDUCATION CERTIFICATE
JANUARY 2004
OFFICE PROCEDURES
Copyright© 2004CaribbeanExaminations Council
St Michael, Barbados
Allrightsreserved

- 2 -
GENERAL COMMENTS
There was an increase in the candidate population for Office Procedures for the
January sitting this year. Three papers were offered at the General Proficiency level:
Paper 1 - Multiple Choice
Paper 2 - Short Answer
Paper 3 / 2 - Alternative to the School-Based Assessment
The examination was designed to ensure broad coverage of the syllabus with objec-
tives chosen from all units.
Paper 01 – Multiple Choice
In this paper the knowledge and application of procedures associated with special-
ized office activities and clerical routines was tested. Although the overall perfor-
mance of the candidates was satisfactory, there was a marginal decline when com-
pared with January 2003. The overall mean of the paper was 35.54. Marks ranged
between 11 and 56 out of a maximum score of 60.
Paper 02 – Essay
This paper consisted of two sections. Section I was based on Units I to VI and XII
and was made up of four compulsory questions. These were attempted by the major-
ity of the candidates.
In Section II there were four optional questions, which assessed the content in Units
VII to X. Candidates were required to answer two questions from this section. The
mean was 47.87. Scores were in the range 0 – 78 out of a maximum of 90.
Paper 03/2 – Alternative to the School-Based Assessment (SBA)
This paper was designed to test the candidates’ ability to draw from their personal
experiences with routine office activities. These experiences may have been acquired
through observation or from engaging in the tasks as an employee. Candidates were
required to answer ten short essay-type questions based on a case study of a com-
pany called Millenium Petrochemicals.
The candidates’ performance was generally much improved compared to previous
examinations. The paper was based on the content of the Human Resource and Job
Exploration units of the syllabus. The overall mean was 28.54 out of 50.

- 3 -
DETAILED COMMENTS
Paper 02 - Essay
Section I was compulsory and each question was worth 15 marks.
Question 1
In Part (a), candidates were required to list three ways in which a clerk could display
good interpersonal skills when relating with supervisors. The performance was satis-
factory but a few candidates misinterpreted the question by stating ‘why good inter-
personal relationships should exist between the clerk and the supervisor.’ The re-
sponses indicated that candidates understood the importance of courtesy, attentive
listening and seeking clarification in the workplace.
In Part (b), candidates were required to state four procedures that were necessary in
the management of incoming mail. The performance was satisfactory except for a
minority who wrote about outgoing mail and not incoming mail. Many responses
were not in the sentence format.
In Part (c), candidates were required to write a memorandum to the Office Manager
reporting an incident in which a clerk was hit on the head by falling ceiling tiles. The
performance was highly satisfactory. There were instances where candidates wrote
letters instead of using the memorandum format. In a few cases, the reasons for
writing the memorandum were never made clear.
Question 2
In Part (a) (i), candidates were required to identify two items of information that
would be found on a business card. The majority of candidates were able to provide
information such as the position in the organization, contact numbers and the name of
the company.
In Part (a) (ii), candidates had to name one piece of equipment and one item of
supply, which are used in an electronic filing system. Some candidates were unable to
differentiate between equipment and supply. Listing equipment such as the facsimile,
printer or scanner and supply items such as pencils, stencils and diskettes would
have allowed candidates to gain the required marks.
In Part (a) (iii), candidates were required to list three supplies that are used for the
manual storage of paper records. Generally, this was done well by all the candidates.

- 4 -
In Part (b), candidates were required to apply their knowledge to assist in the selec-
tion of storage equipment for a new records management system. A checklist form
was provided. Candidates had to indicate four factors and four benefits that should
be considered when shopping for equipment. A guide was provided for the candi-
date. In some instances, candidates were unable to provide valid factors and ben-
efits. Some of the desired responses can be seen in the table below.
Factors for consideration Benefits
Confidentiality of records Security
Ease of use of equipment Easy access to records
Consideration of space Fits in with layout of office
Question 3
In Part (a), candidates had to define three terms that relate to meetings and many
candidates were unable to provide accurate definitions. The following responses would
have allowed candidates to gain the required marks.
i. Speaking through the chair – addressing the chairperson (only) when making
contributions
ii. Quorum – the minimum number of members required to be present before a
meeting can take place or before a decision can be taken.
iii. Casting vote – a second vote given to the chairperson to break a ‘tie’ of equal
number of votes for and against a particular motion
In Part (b) (i), candidates had to give two reasons why a passport may be required
for international travel outside of the Caribbean. In Part (b) (ii), they were required to
list two documents other than a passport that may be required for international travel
outside of the Caribbean. The performance on part (b) was satisfactory.
In Part (c) (i), candidates had to make arrangements for a meeting with Managers.
The e-mail message from the General Manager listed information, which had to be
used in the candidates’ responses. Candidates were also asked to identify three steps
that should be taken when making the arrangements for the meeting. In Part (c) (ii),
candidates were asked to write the notice for the meeting, which had to be sent to all
Managers. Some candidates were unable to use the information given in the question
to draft the notice.

The overall performance in this question was satisfactory. However, this is a critical
area for entry-level personnel and more should be done to ensure that candidates are
aware of all the relevant tasks in the organization of meetings.
Question 4
In Part (a), candidates were required to give the meaning of two terms that are
relevant to the job recruitment process. The majority of the candidates provided
responses that were correct.
In Part (b), candidates were asked to list details that should be considered when
preparing for a job interview. Many candidates could not provide information
about items to be considered ‘before’ the interview. Suggestions such as doing
research about the organization and the advertised position, arranging transporta-
tion to ensure punctuality, preparing questions for the interviewer and rehearsing
the proper mannerisms or responses with another person would have allowed
candidates to gain the required marks.
In Part (c), candidates were required to complete an application form for the
position of Receptionist at Communication Etc. Ltd. The majority of candidates
were able to score full marks. Some candidates did not use the assumed name
that was provided in the question but inserted information that may have been
their personal details. Candidates must guard against this sort of mistake in an
examination where anonymity is important.
Section II was made up of four optional questions and candidates were required
to answer two.
Question 5
In Part (a) (i), candidates had to identify three functions of the Human Resource
Office that are related to staff welfare. Some candidates did not identify functions
that were specific to staff welfare. These could have included factors such as ensur-
ing that the working conditions meet the legal requirements, providing staff benefits,
social facilities and providing information about medical plans and pensions.
In Part (a) (ii), candidates were required to identify three instances when a company
might administer disciplinary procedures to its employees. The majority of candi-
dates earned full marks.
In Part (b), candidates were required to assume the role of a clerk in the Human
Resource Office who noticed that important information was missing from the ser-
vice record of an employee. The majority were able to state two ways in which the
- 5 -

information could be acquired. However, the issue of confidentiality with regard to
accessing and storing the information was not adequately addressed.Am employee’s
right to privacy should be ensured so the access to employees’ records has to be
controlled.
Question 6
In Part (a), candidates listed three precautions that an accounts clerk must take
when writing cheques. The majority of the candidates earned full marks.
In Part (b), candidates were required to define three terms used in the accounts
office. This segment of the question was difficult for most candidates.
In Part (c) (i), candidates were asked to use the form provided to enter the petty cash
transactions. In Part (c) (ii), candidates had to calculate the total, balance the ac-
count, and record the balance at the end of the period. In Part (c) (iii), candidates
were required to restore the imprest using cheque No. 281, which was received on
January 1, 2004. Generally, the performance on this segment of the question was
satisfactory. However, some candidates were unable to restore the imprest and fol-
low the procedures requested in Part (iii) of the question.
Question 7
In Part (a) (i), candidates were required to list three departments of a large firm that
should receive a copy of a Purchase Order. Candidates gave satisfactory responses
to this part of the question. For Part (a) (ii), candidates had to explain how the
copies of the Purchase Order would be used by each department. Some candidates
could not explain why the copies had to be distributed. Information from the
following list would have helped candidates to gain the required marks.
Accounts – to pay for the item
Purchasing – to verify price, quantities ordered, delivered and received
Production – to verify price, quantity and quality
In Part (b) (i), candidates were asked to complete the stores’ requisition form pro-
vided. The majority of candidates earned full marks on this part of the question.
However, some candidates did not interpret the instructions accurately and disre-
garded the Manager’s role in approving all requests for supplies. They were required
to leave the spaces for ‘authorized by’ and ‘date’ blank.
- 6 -

In Part (b) (ii), candidates had to describe three steps that should be taken after the
stock requisition has been prepared, to ensure that the supplies are received by the
Human Resource Department. Many candidates were unable to accurately identify
these steps.
The following responses would have assisted candidates in acquiring the necessary
marks
- obtain approval from the Manager
- send the requisition to stores
- make an enquiry if the item is out of stock
- contact the supplier for a quotation
- prepare a purchase requisition
- when the items are delivered the Purchasing Department must notify the Hu-
man Resource Department
Question 8
In Part (a) (i), candidates listed three tasks performed by a Sales Clerk when assisting
with promotional activities. The majority of candidates received full marks. In Part
(a) (ii), they had to identify three pieces of equipment that the Sales Clerk may use
when performing promotional activities. The candidates’ responses were satisfac-
tory.
In Part (b) (i), candidates had to complete the invoice on the form provided, to reflect
the sales transaction on the form provided. Many candidates were unable to com-
plete the ‘Gross invoice total’, calculate the trade discount of 20 per cent, the 10 per
cent VAT and compute the correct total with accuracy. In Parts (b) (ii) and (iii),
candidates had to indicate how much would be expected to be paid if the debt was
paid by February 1 and February 29 respectively. This segment of the question
presented some difficulty to the majority of candidates who attempted this question.
Inadequate mathematical skills deterred candidates from acquiring marks.
PAPER 3/2 General Proficiency
The Alternative to the School-Based Assessment
In order to answer the ten compulsory, short-response questions, candidates were
required to read the stimulus material provided in the form of a case study on Millen-
nium Petrochemicals Inc.
- 7 -

The Case
The case provided a profile of Wynn Tate, who completed her secondary education
examinations with passes in six subjects. She showed interest in responding to an
advertisement for a clerk in the Human Resource Department of a company called
Milleneum Petrochemicals Inc. Miss Tate also identified the persons she wished to
use as referees as she prepared for the application process.
Question 1
Candidates were required to list four functions of the Human Resource Office. Per-
formance on this question was satisfactory.
Question 2
Candidates were required to identify three departments in the organization that would
interact with the Human Resource Office. In addition, they had to explain the reasons
for the interactions. Some candidates were unable to provide appropriate reasons for
the interactions. These suggestions may be helpful:
Accounts – for staffing purposes, payment of bills and/or salaries
Purchasing – for the procurement of supplies
Sales – for staffing purposes
Question 3
Candidates were asked to list four skills that would be useful to a junior Human
Resource clerk. Candidates provided very satisfactory performances.
Question 4
Candidates had to suggest three records that would be prepared by the Human Re-
source Office. Candidates gave satisfactory responses.
Question 5
In this question candidates were asked to identify three sources other than newspa-
pers, that may be a source of information about job opportunities. Candidates gave
satisfactory responses.
- 8 -

Question 6
In Part (a) of this question candidates were required to write an application letter in
response to the notice of an advertised position. The majority of candidates earned
close to the total marks on this segment of the question.
In Part (b), candidates had to complete the form provided to develop a Curriculum
Vitae from the case for the applicant Wynn Tate. Many candidates did not use the
information provided and opted to insert their personal information. This resulted in
the scores being unsatisfactory.
Question 7
Candidates were asked to list four ways in which Wynn could prepare for the job
interview. The majority of responses were satisfactory, which indicated that candi-
dates were familiar with this section of the syllabus.
Question 8
Candidates were asked to suggest four factors that might have contributed to the low
labour turnover rate at the company. The majority of responses indicated that candi-
dates were unaware of the meaning of the term ‘labour turnover’. The following
suggestions would have assisted candidates in attaining higher scores:
- satisfactory salary
- healthy work environment
- fringe benefits
- positive labour relations
- absence of strikes and layoffs
- opportunities for promotions
- access to locations
- availability of technology
Question 9
In this question candidates were asked to draw a bar graph on the form provided, to
show employment statistics. Many candidates did not attempt this question and in
other instances, they displayed inadequate mathematical skills in the presentation and
interpretation of data.
- 9 -

Question 10
Candidates were required to use the form provided to complete a performance
appraisal. Candidates were unsure of the types of responses that would be appropri-
ate measures of staff performance.
Comments for Teachers
Teachers should provide candidates with opportunities for:
1. Writing letters and memoranda;
2. Practice with the accounting exercises associated with the subject;
3. Practice in responding to a variety of questions from past papers and the item
banks of subject teachers;
4. Engaging in practical activities that would facilitate the application of math-
ematical skills in routine office work.
- 10 -

SECONDARY EDUCATION CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION
MAY/JUNE 2004
OFFICE PROCEDURES

- 2 -
OFFICE PROCEDURES
GENERAL PROFICIENCY EXAMINATION
JUNE 2004
GENERAL COMMENTS
Presently the CSEC examination in Office Procedures is offered at the General Proficiency level
only in January and June of each calendar year. The subject continues to be popular with students
of the Business subjects as evidenced by the increase in the population assessed this year. The
examination consists of four papers: Paper 01 – Multiple Choice; Paper 02 – Short Answer Essay;
Paper 03/1 – the School Based Assessment (SBA), and Paper 03/2 – the Alternative to the School
Based Assessment.
A satisfactory number of the stated objectives represented all of the Units in the Syllabus in this
examination. The responses from the candidates indicated that they were knowledgeable about
each of the objectives tested.
The overall performance in the compulsory section of the examination was satisfactory. There were
however some very good responses in both the compulsory and optional sections of the examination.
The deficiencies that were seen will be addressed in this report in the detailed comments on the
individual questions.
In this paper the knowledge and application of important facts, concepts, principles, processes and
procedures involved in routine clerical and office activities were tested. Candidates performed very
well on this paper with 64 per cent of them achieving Grades I – III an increase over 2003, when 61
per cent achieved the same.
Paper 02 – Essay
This paper consisted of two sections. Section 1 which was compulsory, was based on Units I – VI and
Unit XII of the Syllabus. In this examination, candidates were required to answer all of the four
questions. This candidate population is to be commended for responding to all of the questions.
Section II was optional and was based on Units VII – XI of the Syllabus. It was a test of the
knowledge and procedures associated with specialised office activities and routines. Candidates
were required to answer two of the four questions.
The performance of candidates on Paper 2 showed a significant decline compared to that of 2003
when 71 per cent of the candidates obtained Grades I – III. In 2004, 65 per cent achieved Grades I
– III. Candidates’ performance on the Application profile of this paper was generally satisfactory.
Paper 03 – School Based Assessment (SBA)
The School-Based Assessment of the examination was based on the Broad topic: Managing the
Human Resource Element in a Dynamic Work Environment, and objectives were tested from
Units VII and XII of the syllabus.
Candidates gave a highly satisfactory performance on this paper. Approximately 91 per cent of the
candidates achieved Grades I - III. This figure is comparable with 2003 when 90 per cent of the
candidates achieved the same.

- 3 -
The candidates submitted responses of a high quality which indicated that the topic was within
their competence. The candidates’ creativity was evident in the variety seen in their responses.
Paper 03/2 – Alternative to the School Based Assessment
Paper 03/2, the Alternative to the School Based Assessment (SBA) was a written examination,
targeting candidates who would not have the facility of supervision as in a school environment. The
objective of this paper was to test the candidates’ ability to use their personal experiences of routine
office activities acquired through observation, or from doing the practical office tasks assigned to
them as employees in order to solve office-related problems. This paper consisted of ten essay type
questions, based on a case study in an office environment.
The performance of candidates in this Alternative Paper showed a decline in 2004. Sixty-four per
cent of the candidates achieved Grades I - III, compared with 79 per cent in 2003.
DETAILED COMMENTS
Paper 02 – Essay
Section I comprised four compulsory questions.
Question 1
In this question, candidates were asked to describe two ways in which good interpersonal relationships
in the workplace affect customers, co-workers and the business itself.
Some candidates did not respond about good interpersonal relationships, but answered in the negative
stating instead the adverse effects of not having good interpersonal relations in the workplace.
Based on the responses of those candidates who had the correct focus, identification of the benefits
of good interpersonal relationships to the business was challenging for them. Their responses focussed
on the benefits of good interpersonal relationships to the persons associated with the business and
not the business itself.
In section (b) candidates were required to identify one type of operator-assisted telephone call. Most
candidates were able to identify calls as directory assistance, person-to-person, collect and conference.
In section (c) candidates were required to draft the Chairman’s Agenda using the details given in
the question. Generally, candidates acknowledged that the document had to be headed with the
name of the organization, and that the notice for the meeting should include the name, type of
meeting, date, venue and time of the meeting. While most candidates were able to use the information
given to itemize the agenda, a few candidates re-wrote the agenda items as a paragraph, exactly as
was stated on the question paper.
Very few candidates demonstrated that the Chairman’s agenda needed to have a separate column
for notes, which is its main point of difference from other agendas.
Question 2
In section (a) of this question candidates were asked to list one advantage and one disadvantage of
pre-paid and post-paid phone services. Generally they identified advantages such as the prepaid
service enabled the user to limit spending whereas the postpaid service allowed for unlimited access
in air time. The disadvantages identified were that the payments on post paid service could be
exorbitant if not monitored whereas the prepaid service may not be available in an emergency due
to lack of funds.
In section (b) candidates were required to briefly describe the postal services; Poste Restante,
Recorded Delivery and Registered Mail. The responses indicated that most candidates had some

- 4 -
understanding of the services offered, however they were vague and in many cases suggested that
there was not an in depth understanding of the objective that was tested.
In section (c) candidates were asked to arrange names in correct order for indexing and then arrange
the same list in alphabetical order. There were a few good responses; however the majority were
generally poor. Most candidates did not use the surname as the first indexing unit where the name
included personal names. Some candidates seemed unclear about the term ‘indexing order’, so that
the indexing order was incorrect but the alphabetical order was written with the correct indexing
units. Some candidates did not know how to treat “The” and “&” in the names of Companies.
Question 3
In section (a) candidates were required to schedule appointments for an executive. The responses
were satisfactory for the most part, although some candidates interpreted the question as having to
manage visits to the organization.
In section (b) candidates’ knowledge of the procedure to be followed with regard to the circulation of
Minutes, after a meeting was tested. Generally, this section was done well as candidates acknowledged
that the Minutes had to be drafted and that the Chairperson had to approve them. Further, they
stated that a copy should be filed and that copies were to be sent to members. Some candidates
ignored parts of the stimulus and listed instead the steps to be taken following a meeting, such as
cleaning the room, putting away materials.
In section (i) of part (c) candidates were asked to list four methods of payment, which can be used by
someone travelling to a foreign country. Although there was a variety of responses to this section,
they were generally weak. In section (ii) therefore, the rationale given for the selection of the
method of payment had no basis, if the candidate could not identify acceptable ways to pay for
expenditure in a foreign country.
Question 4
In section (a) candidates were required to list different sources of information for job vacancies.
This was done satisfactorily. A few candidates however listed the requirements needed to qualify
for a job which were mainly academic qualifications and skills. In a few cases, candidates listed
reasons for accepting a job, instead of the source from which one could obtain information about job
opportunities.
In section (b) candidates’ knowledge about the type of information that can be obtained from travel
agencies was tested. The performance in this part of the question was satisfactory.
In section (c) candidates’ ability to write a letter of acceptance for a job offer was tested. Some
candidates performed fairly well, but many displayed poor letter-writing skills. Some of the candidates
did not use the stimulus material given and included their personal information instead. Other
weaknesses in the responses included non inclusion of the inside address, not addressing the Human
Resource Manager, non-identification of the position being offered or applied for, errors in spelling,
grammar, punctuation and expression.
Section II was comprised of four optional questions.
Question 5
In section (a) candidates were required to list three reasons why the Human Resource office would
conduct periodic interviews with employees. Some candidates failed to obtain marks for this part of
the question because they referred instead to the job interview process. Those who earned marks
mentioned reasons such as: to determine training needs, for updating employee records, the
deployment of staff, and to get the employees’ point of view about various issues in the organization.
Some candidates seemed to have no knowledge of the content related to the objective that was
tested and responded with irrelevant answers.

- 5 -
In section (b) candidates were asked to identify the reasons why a company may experience high
labour turnover. Among the more popular responses were: low wages, unsatisfactory work conditions;
limited opportunities for promotion; increase in workload with no support and the absence of
mechanisation.
In section (c) candidates were provided with a form entitled Statement of Account on which they
were required to record six given transactions. Most were able to complete the form with satisfactory
results. A few errors were made in writing the name of the buyer. The responses of some candidates
indicated that they did not have sufficient knowledge of the debit and credit entries, and were
unable to access most of the marks awarded for this question.
Question 6
In section (a) candidates were asked to state the reason for having the notation E & OE on invoices.
Most candidates gave satisfactory explanations which indicated that the notation allowed the vendor
to reserve the right to make changes on the invoice if any errors were made on the part of the vendor
with respect to the quantities or prices quoted on the order.
In section (b) candidates were asked to list the steps involved in the purchasing procedure. Most of
the responses indicated the candidate had a satisfactory knowledge of this objective. Next, candidates
had to complete transactions which had to be entered in a Cash Book. Most of the responses were
satisfactory as they were entered in the appropriate columns, and the cash Book was balanced
accurately.
Question 7
In part (a) of this question candidates were asked to suggest six reasons why it is necessary for a
stock clerk to maintain accurate records in a large business. The most popular responses to this
question were that accurate records are necessary to ascertain that sufficient stock was available,
and to identify items that are overstocked in order to detect pilferage. Very few candidates were
able to show a relationship between the need for accurate records and the company’s policy regarding
stock valuation, monitoring trends, profit analysis, budgeting or capital allocation.
In part (b) candidates were presented with four business cards from suppliers. They were required
to classify the cards in the Index of Suppliers using firstly the name of the business and secondly
the expertise or service offered. Most candidates were able to access the marks awarded for this part
of the question. They were able to organise the index of suppliers using the names of the business.
They were unable however, to organise the index according to the services offered. Also, some
candidates wrote the name of the expert rather than the expertise or service offered. Very few
candidates listed the names in alphabetical order, as is required in records management.
Question 8
In section (a) candidates’ knowledge about procedures in the factory office was tested. They were
asked to state the importance of having a list of tools, the Materials Report and the Operator’s Job
and Time Ticket in the production planning process. Generally the responses were vague and
unsatisfactory. Candidates did not demonstrate in-depth knowledge of this objective of the syllabus.
In section (b) candidates were presented with a Time Card which they had to complete for an
employee using the stimulus material given. The time sheet was completed satisfactorily by most
candidates. However, the calculation of the hours worked and computation of the rate of pay, presented
a challenge to several candidates. This was a however the most popular question in this section.

- 6 -
Recommendations to Teachers
1. Incorporate simulation or role-play in teaching methods/activities to reinforce the principal
concepts taught, in this way misconceptions would be easily detected based on the choices
made by the candidates during the simulation.
2. Use a model office, to give students an opportunity to conduct routine office activities like
filing, using an index, getting information from the telephone directory.
3. Expose candidates to information about the available services such as those in the banking
sector, from other territories in the region.
4. Develop a glossary of terms for each unit in the syllabus to assist candidates with explanations,
definitions and descriptions.
5. Students should be given projects and research assignments on Job Exploration which
simulate the type of activities in which they will be engaged upon graduation from Secondary
School.
6. Provide opportunities for the practice of formatting letters and responding to different types
of letters, paying specific attention to grammar and spelling of words that are used often.
7. Candidates should have more practice with reading questions and identifying the content
from which the response should come.
8. Develop written examples of model answers to assist students as they develop responses to
different questions on the past papers.
9. Expose students to different types of forms used in business.
10. Engage in collaborative delivery of topics with other teachers of the business subjects and
the language area.
School Based Assessment (SBA)
The broad topic was sub-divided into the following sub-topics. Candidates were also allowed to
select their own topic derived from the broad topic assigned.
The sub-topics were:
1. Emerging Office Careers at the Entry Level
2. Equal Opportunities in the Office
3. Gender Issues in the Office
4. Re-Defining Roles in the Office
5. The Office – A Safe Place to Work
6. Coping With Change
7. Ergonomics in the Office
8. The Modern Challenges of the Job Search
9. Accountability for Performance in the Workplace
10. Rights and Responsibilities of the Office Worker

- 7 -
The list below shows the areas of the School-Based Assessment in which the candidates’ performances
were highly satisfactory.
(i) Area of Investigation
(ii) Scope of the Investigation
(iii) Objectives of the Research
(iv) Selection / Description of the Sample
(v) Methods of Collecting Data
The main areas of weakness were the Review of the Literature and the Analysis of Data.
1. Liaise with the Ministry / Board of Education to ensure that the topic being researched is
the current one assigned by the Caribbean Examinations’ Council.
2. Encourage group work, however, each student must submit an INDEPENDENT project.
3. Do NOT submit photocopied projects.
4. If problems are encountered during the exercise of supervising / guiding students, teachers
should seek assistance from the Local Registrar or the local education department in a
timely manner that would facilitate the submission of projects by the deadline date for the
territory.
5. Insert the detailed Mark Scheme in EACH student’s portfolio so that the CXC Moderators
can follow the procedure used to award marks.
6. Do NOT award half marks.
Paper 03/2
The case detailed some of the feelings experienced by a secondary school graduate awaiting a job.
On acquiring a position he learned quickly and soon began to seek promotion to a position in
another department.
Generally, the candidate population responded favourably to Paper 03/2 and the overall performance
was satisfactory. There were indications however, that some candidates had limited knowledge of
the syllabus and more specifically, the functions of the Human Resource Department.
Question 1
Candidates were required to identify sources from which the school leaver in the case could obtain
information about available positions. The responses were generally good and included newspapers,
radio and television, the internet, unsolicited applications, and word of mouth. Most candidates
were able to list more than one correct source in order to access the marks awarded for this question.
Question 2
In the first part of this question candidates were required to identify two reasonable expectations
that employees may have of their supervisors. Generally the responses were satisfactory. Candidates
expected their supervisors to be fair, to show respect to all employees, assist where necessary, and
give unambiguous guidelines and directives. There were some responses however, that were vague
and inappropriate and centred on the employer rather than the supervisor.

- 8 -
In the second part of this question candidates were asked to identify two responsibilities that
employees have to their employers. The responses were satisfactory and were generally more
appropriate than those given in the first section. Candidates expected employees to be respectful,
trustworthy, productive and conscientious.
Question 3
In this question candidates’ understanding of the type of issues considered before hiring someone
for a vacant position was assessed. The responses were generally good. Some of the considerations
were qualifications, skills, expertise, deportment, references and performance at the interview.
Question 4
In this question candidates’ ability to organise a list of publications as they would appear in a
bibliography was tested. This proved to be difficult for most candidates and the very poor responses
are an indication that candidates lacked knowledge of the content and practice with this activity.
Greater attention should be paid to this topic as this is a process which will be required for tertiary
education and possibly while conducting research on the job. The majority of candidates copied the
items as they were given. The few candidates who listed the names of the authors of each publication
with the surnames first, did not arrange the items in alphabetical order and failed to use the format
expected in the SBAs. Several candidates made no attempt to respond.
Question 5
Candidates were required to write a letter applying for the new position of Stock Clerk in the
company PIECE BY MEANS LTD as if they were already employed as a General Clerk in the same
organisation. This was generally well done although a few candidates displayed poor letter-writing
skills and there were instances of poor spelling and grammar. Some candidates used inappropriate
format and addressed the letter to the Managing Director rather than the Human Resources Director.
A few candidates used the incorrect complimentary close for the salutation they gave.
Question 6
Candidates were required to identify methods by which they could obtain information on customers’
feelings about the products manufactured by PIECE BY MEANS LTD. This question was done
satisfactorily, which is an indication that candidates were familiar with techniques for gathering
data. Among those listed were questionnaires, observations, telephone and face-to-face interviews,
suggestion boxes, and meetings with sales representatives.
Question 7
The responses to this question were generally satisfactory as most candidates were able to present
a graphical representation of the data gathered about customer satisfaction. However, some of the
weaknesses displayed were the failure to give the graph a title, to label the X and Y axes and the
failure to use appropriate intervals. A few candidates had difficulty in plotting the graph.
Question 8
Candidates who achieved high scores in this question presented good suggestions that could be
used by an employee to prepare for promotion within a company. While many candidates outlined
the factors considered by management for promoting an employee, some of the responses were
inadequate. Among the appropriate responses were taking additional courses, participating in in-
house workshops and seminars, and displaying an appropriate attitude on the job.

- 9 -
Question 9
In this question candidates made suggestions about the provisions that were made by the Human
Resource Department that could account for the high level of satisfaction of the staff of PIECE BY
MEANS LTD. Most of the candidates gave satisfactory responses, and cited adequate wages, health
and safety measures, meaningful staff appraisals and opportunities for promotion, among others.
Question 10
In this question candidates were required to make recommendations to persons waiting to be
employed. The responses showed candidates’ creativity and were generally relevant and satisfactory.
These suggestions included doing volunteer work, taking additional classes to enhance skills,
registering with an employment agency, and following-up previous applications as well as sending
out unsolicited applications.

CARIBBEAN
EXAMINATIONS
COUNCIL
REPORT
ON
CANDIDATES’
WORK
IN
THE
CARIBBEAN
SECONDARY
EDUCATION
CERTIFICATE
JANUARY
2005
OFFICE
PROCEDURES
Copyright
©
2005
Caribbean
Examinations
Council
St
Michael,
Barbados
All
rights
reserved

GENERAL
COMMENTS
There
was
again,
as
in
January
2004,
an
increase
in
the
candidate
popu-
lation
for
Office
Procedures
for
the
January
sitting.
Candidate
entrie
this
year
totaled
797
compared
to
763
in
2004.
Three
papers
were
offered
at
the
General
Proficiency
level:
Paper
01-Multiple
Choice
Paper
02-
Short
answer
Paper
3/2
alternative
to
the
SBA
The
examination
was
designed
to
ensure
broad
coverage
of
the
syllabus,
and
the
objectives
tested
were
chosen
from
all
the
units.
Candidates’
responses
in
all
three
papers
for
this
examination
indicated
a
satisfactory
coverage
of
the
syllabus.
The
performance
in
the
questions
testing
the
compulsory
units
of
the
syllabus
improved
over
that
of
past
years;
however,
in
some
of
the
optional
units
some
candidates
produced
less
than
satisfactory
work.
These
areas
are
addressed
in
the
detailed
comments
on
individual
questions.
Paper
01
–
Multiple
Choice
This
paper
tested
the
knowledge
and
application
of
procedures
associ-
ated
with
specialized
office
activities
and
clerical
routines.
Candidates’
performance
in
this
paper
improved
over
the
performance
in
both
the
January
and
June
2004
examinations.
The
overall
mean
of
the
paper
in
the
2005
examination
was
39.42
compared
with
35.54
and
38.84
for
January
and
June
2004
respectively.
Marks
ranged
from
0
to
57
out
of
a
maximum
of
60.
Paper
02
–
Essay
This
paper
consisted
of
two
sections.
Section
I
consisted
of
four
compul-
sory
questions
based
on
Units
I
to
VI
and
XII
of
the
syllabus.
The
com-
pulsory
questions
were
attempted
by
the
majority
of
the
candidates.
Section
II
consisted
of
four
optional
questions
based
on
Units
VII
to
XI.
The
knowledge
and
application
of
procedures
associated
with
specialized
office
activities
and
office
routines
were
tested.
Candidates
were
required
to
answer
two
questions
from
this
section.
Candidates’
performance
in
this
paper
declined
compared
with
that
of
January
2004.The
overall
mean
for
this
Paper
was
42.49
compared
with
47.87
in
2004.
Marks
ranged
from
6
to74
out
of
a
maximum
of
90.
P
aper
03/2
–
Alternative
to
the
School-Based
Assessment
(SBA)
This
paper
took
the
form
of
a
written
examination
that
targeted
private
candidates
who
would
have
been
unable
to
complete
SBA
projects
as
school
candidates.
The
paper
was
designed
to
test
the
candidates’
ability
to
use
their
personal
experiences
of
routine
office
activities
acquired
through
observation,
or
from
doing
the
actual
office
tasks
as
employees.
The
paper
consisted
of
ten
short
essay-type
questions
based
on
an
office
case.
For
this
examination
the
case
focused
on
and
tested
Units
I
and
XII
of
the
syllabus.
Candidates’
performance
in
this
paper
showed
a
noticeable
improvement
compared
with
the
number
of
performance
in
January
2004.
There
was
a
9.38
percentage
increase
in
passes.
It
is
noted
however,
that
some
areas
continue
to
pose
difficulties
to
candidates
and
affect
their
overall
performance.
The
overall
mean
for
this
paper
was
31.68
out
of
a
maxi-
mum
of
50.
Marks
ranged
from
3
to
49
out
of
a
maximum
of
50.
DETAILED
COMMENTS
Paper
02
-
Essay
Section
I
was
compulsory
and
each
question
was
worth
15
marks.
Question
1
This
question
tested
Unit
I
Objective
4
and
Unit
II
Objectives
15
and
19.
For
Part
(a),
candidates
were
required
to
complete
a
diagram
that
de-
picted
the
‘Functions
of
the
General
Office’,
and
to
show
three
functions
that
are
performed
on
a
day-to-day
basis.
Performance
on
this
question
was
satisfactory
as
most
of
the
candidates
were
able
to
identify
the
func-
tions
of
the
general
office
and
were
therefore
able
to
score
full
marks.
For
Part
(b)
(i),
candidates
were
asked
to
state
two
services
used
to
dis-
patch
mail.
This
was
worth
2
marks.
The
majority
of
the
candidates
were
only
able
to
identify
one
service.
Candidates
were
expected
to
state
ser-
vices
such
as
the
postal
and
courier
services.
In
Part
(b)
(ii),
candidates
were
required
to
identify
the
type
of
inland
postal
service
that
would
be
appropriate
for
sending
letters
containing
valuable
articles
and
sending
mail
to
travelers
who
have
no
fixed
addres-
ses.
This
was
also
worth
2
marks.
The
majority
of
the
candidates
were
-2-
-3-

able
to
answer
this
question.
However,
some
were
unfamiliar
with
the
word
‘courier’
and
some
were
unable
to
spell
‘poste
restante’.
For
Part
(c),
candidates
were
given
an
instance
where,
in
their
role
as
a
mail
clerk,
they
were
asked
to
assist
in
setting
up
an
automated
mail
room
to
adequately
handle
all
incoming
and
outgoing
correspondence.
They
were
required
to
identify
four
pieces
of
modern
equipment
which
would
be
recommended
for
the
automated
mailroom.
In
the
second
part
of
the
question
they
were
to
state
how
each
piece
of
equipment
selected
would
enhance
productivity.
This
was
worth
8
marks.
The
performance
on
this
part
of
the
question
was
satisfactory.
However,
some
candidates
ignored
the
words
‘automated
mail
room’
and
provided
responses
that
were
more
appropriate
to
a
manual
operation.
Equipment
for
an
auto-
mated
mail
room
would
include
for
example:
addressing
machine,
frank-
ing
machine,
letter
opener,
and
sealing
machine.
Teachers
should
urge
students
to
read
questions
very
carefully
and
to
underline
key
words
before
attempting
the
question.
The
overall
performance
in
this
question
was
satisfactory.
Some
candi-
dates
were
able
to
earn
full
marks
in
Parts
(a)
and
(b).
Marks
for
this
question
ranged
from
0
to
15,
and
the
mean
was
6.40.
Question
2
This
question
tested
Unit
III,
Objectives
3
and
4
and
Unit
IV,
Objectives
1
and
5.
For
Part
(a),
candidates
were
required
to
list
three
duties
that
a
file
clerk
is
expected
to
perform
in
the
Records
Management
Office.
This
was
an-
swered
fairly
well.
Candidates
supplied
responses
such
as:
Preparing,
filing
and
retrieving
documents,
ensuring
that
files
are
properly
main-
tained,
and
keeping
the
filing
area
tidy
and
well
organized.
For
Part
(b),
candidates
were
asked
to
state
the
filing
system
that
would
be
most
appropriate
for
situations
that
related
to
a
list
of
students’
names,
a
database
for
sales
staff
who
travel,
insurance
contracts
and
for
corre-
spondence
kept
by
a
landlord
concerning
a
variety
of
subjects.
This
was
answered
fairly
well.
For
Part
(c),
candidates
were
required
to
assume
that
they
worked
for
an
organization
that
had
been
receiving
a
number
of
complaints
from
cus-
tomers
with
regard
to
poor
service
from
its
employees.
Candidates
were
required
to
write
a
memorandum
to
the
office
staff
and
outline
two
major
complaints,
indicate
two
suggestions
for
improving
the
quality
of
service
and
one
likely
consequence
if
further
complaints
were
received.
Some
candidates
wrote
a
letter
instead
of
a
memorandum.
In
other
instances,
they
did
not
follow
the
guidelines
that
were
provided
in
the
question
and
as
a
result
provided
material
that
was
irrelevant.
For
example,
the
com-
plaints/problems
were
not
identified
and
suggestions
for
improving
the
quality
of
the
service
were
very
weak.
Thus,
marks
were
lost
in
both
instances.
For
Part
(d),
candidates
were
asked
to
identify
two
planning
aids
that
would
assist
the
new
receptionist
to
establish
priorities
and
complete
tasks
on
time.
Performance
in
this
part
of
the
question
was
poor.
Candi-
dates
seemed
to
be
unaware
of
the
term
‘planning
aids’.
The
better
can-
didates
listed
aids
such
as:
record
book,
computerized
follow-up
systems
to
ensure
completion
of
tasks
and
a
year
planner
chart.
The
overall
performance
in
this
question
was,
however,
satisfactory.
Marks
ranged
from
0
to
15,
and
the
mean
was
7.18.
Question
3
This
question
tested
Unit
V,
Objectives
2
and
3
and
Unit
VI,
Objectives
2
and
3.
For
Part
(a)
(i),
candidates
were
asked
to
give
one
reason
for
conducting
an
annual
general
meeting.
For
Part
(a)
(ii),
candidates
were
to
state
two
activities
that
an
Adminis-
trative
Assistant
would
perform
in
each
situation,
before,
during
and
after
a
meeting.
This
was
worth
6
marks.
Performance
on
part
(a)
of
this
question
was
quite
good,
with
many
candidates
scoring
full
marks.
In
Part
(b),
candidates
were
provided
with
a
trip
itinerary
for
travel
be-
tween
Jamaica
and
Barbados.
Candidates
were
asked
to
furnish
re-
sponses
to
a
series
of
questions
that
related
to
the
information
provided
within
the
itinerary.
The
performance
on
this
part
of
the
question
was
satisfactory.
However,
some
candidates
experienced
difficulties
with
time
zone
differences
and
computations
with
regard
to
the
days
the
traveller
would
be
away
from
his
country
of
residence.
The
better
candidates
accurately
computed:
(ii)
that
the
traveller
would
be
away
from
his
country
of
residence
for
8
days
(May
8-15),
and
(iv)
that
the
duration
of
the
flight
would
be
4
hours.
-4-
-5-

The
overall
performance
in
this
question
was
good.
Marks
ranged
from
1to14,
and
the
mean
was
7.79.
Question
4
The
question
tested
Unit
I,
Objective
4
and
Unit
XII,
Objectives
3,
and
6.
For
Part
(a)
(i),
candidates
were
asked
to
identify
two
skills
that
an
office
worker
should
possess
in
order
to
operate
modern
office
equipment
ef-
fectively.
Many
candidates
misunderstood
the
word
‘skills’
and
gave
tasks/
duties
as
their
responses.
Teachers
need
to
emphasize
the
difference
between
skills
required
for
a
job
and
the
duties
performed.
Candidates
were
expected
to
identify
skills
such
as:
technical
competence
or
know
how,
literacy
skills
(computer,
reading,
and
numeric)
and
interpersonal
skills.
For
Part
(ii),
candidates
were
to
state
two
ways
that
a
worker
could
con-
tribute
to
achieving
the
organization’s
goals.
For
Part
(iii),
candidates
were
to
state
three
items
of
information
that
a
prospective
employee
should
research
in
preparation
for
a
job
interview.
These
two
parts
of
the
ques-
tion
were
handled
fairly
well.
For
Part
(b),
candidates
were
provided
with
the
following
situation:
Assume
that
you
are
Sashay
Towers
of
19
Hartford
Drive,
Lakemore
Gar-
dens,
St.
James,
Antigua.
You
have
already
written
seven
subjects
at
the
CXC
examinations
this
year
and
are
awaiting
your
results.
In
the
mean-
time,
you
are
seeking
a
job
as
a
data-entry
clerk
at
a
computer
firm.
Candidates
were
required
to
write
a
letter
of
application.
A
large
percent-
age
of
candidates
were
unable
to
write
mailable
letters.
Many
did
not
utilize
the
information
that
was
provided
in
the
question.
Some
other
common
errors
were
the
absence
of
a
dateline,
inside
address
to
the
Human
Resource
Manager,
salutation
and
complimentary
close.
Emphasis
should
be
given
to
letter
writing,
particularly
an
application
letter,
as
many
of
the
candidates
will
be
seeking
jobs
after
graduation.
The
overall
performance
in
this
question
was
satisfactory.
Marks
ranged
from
1
to
15,
and
the
mean
was
8.41.
Section
II
–
Optional
Questions
Question
5
This
question
tested
Unit
VII,Objectives
2
and
3
and
Unit
VIII,Objective
2
For
Part
(a)
(i),
candidates
were
required
to
list
two
duties
of
a
clerk
in
the
Human
Resource
Office.
Many
candidates
confused
the
duties
of
the
clerk
in
the
Human
Resource
Office
with
that
of
the
Human
Resource
Man-
ager.
The
clerk’s
responsibilities
would
be
limited
to:
preparing
and
in-
terpreting
human
resource
records,
using
telephone,
fax
or
computer
to
communicate
with
persons
with
regard
to
training
courses
and
engage-
ment
of
staff,
and
keeping
information
confidentially.
For
Part
(a)
(ii),
candidates
were
to
state
two
statutory
provisions
for
the
protection
of
employees
at
the
workplace.
The
responses
of
the
majority
of
candidates
indicated
that
the
meaning
of
the
word
‘statutory’
that
is,
prescribed
or
authorized
by
law
was
not
clear
to
them.
Statutory
means
prescribed
or
authorized
by
law.
Statutory
provisions
would
include:
pro-
tective
clothing
and
gear,
workmen’s
compensation,
sanitary
facilities,
proper
lighting
and
ventilation,
provision
of
a
first
aid
kit,
safe
and
healthy
working
environment…
For
Part
(b)
(i),
candidates
were
supplied
with
a
pay
sheet
form
for
em-
ployees.
The
hours
worked,
basic
overtime
pay
rates
and
deductions
were
provided.
Candidates
were
asked
to
complete
the
week’s
basic,
overtime,
gross
pay
and
net
pay.
This
question
was
very
popular
and
the
majority
of
candidates
were
able
to
obtain
close
to
full
marks.
Some
can-
didates,
however,
did
not
calculate
accurately
the
overtime
pay.
For
Part
(b)
(ii),
candidates
were
asked
to
complete
the
cheque
form
pro-
vided.
This
was
well
done.
Candidates
need
to
be
reminded
however,
that
they
should
desist
from
using
their
names.
This
question
was
a
popular
choice.
It
was
attempted
by
83
per
cent
of
the
candidates.
Marks
ranged
from
1to
15,
and
the
mean
was
8.41.
Question
6
This
question
tested
Unit
VIII,
Objectives
1
and
7.
For
Part
(a),
candidates
were
asked
to
give
three
reasons
why
a
firm
would
need
to
audit
its
accounts.
For
Part
(b),
candidates
were
to
state
-6-
-7-

three
functions
of
the
Accounts
office
other
than
auditing.
Performance
on
Parts
(a)
and
(b)
was
satisfactory.
For
Part
(c),
candidates
were
provided
with
a
bank
statement.
They
were
asked
to
interpret
specified
information
on
the
document.
This
segment
of
the
question
presented
some
challenges
to
the
majority
of
candidates
who
attempted
it.
The
lettered
asterisks
indicated:
*A-the
name
of
the
firm
that
has
an
account
with
the
ABC
bank
*B-description
of
the
transactions
carried
out
during
the
month
*C-
a
credit
balance
brought
forward
from
the
previous
month
for
Stationery
and
Supplies
Ltd.
*D-
sundries
could
represent
cash
of
$200
paid
into
the
account
to
increase
the
amount
*E-
represents
the
amount
on
cheque#20
for
$410.00
paid
out
ef-
fecting
a
reduced
balance
*F-
represents
insufficient
funds
thus
canceling
the
credit
entry
*G
-represents
an
overdraft,
thus
a
negative
balance
for
the
firm
In
Part
(d),
candidates
were
asked
what
would
be
the
result,
if
in
a
de-
partment
they
neglected
to
make
requisitions
for
supplies
on
time.
Can-
didates’
performance
in
this
question
was
satisfactory.
This
question
was
attempted
by
35
per
cent
of
the
candidates.
Marks
ranged
from
0
to
15,
and
the
mean
was
7.14.
Question
7
The
question
tested
Unit
IX,
Objective
2
and
Unit
X,
Objective
4.
For
Part
(a),
candidates
were
to
identify
four
duties
of
a
clerk
in
the
pur-
chasing
department.
Candidates’
responses
to
this
part
of
the
question
were
good.
Most
were
able
to
attain
full
marks.
However,
a
few
candi-
dates
identified
the
duties
of
the
clerk
in
the
general
office
rather
than
in
the
purchasing
office.
The
duties
of
the
clerk
in
the
purchasing
depart-
ment
include:
preparing
and
processing
purchase
requisitions,
filing
of
purchasing
records
and
retrieving
when
needed,
maintaining
an
index
of
suppliers,
maintaining
stock
records,
and
writing
letters
of
enquiry
to
potential
suppliers.
For
Part
(b),
candidates
were
asked
to
state
two
reasons
for
issuing
a
proforma
invoice.
Many
candidates
were
unable
to
answer
this
question.
The
majority
of
the
candidates’
responses
did
not
earn
them
marks.
Can-
didates
confused
the
proforma
invoice
with
the
invoice.
Additionally,
many
candidates
did
not
know
the
reason
for
issuing
a
proforma
invoice.
A
proforma
invoice
is
an
invoice
issued
before
an
order
is
placed
or
before
the
goods
are
delivered
giving
all
details
and
the
cost
of
the
goods.
The
reasons
for
issuing
such
an
invoice
are:
to
accompany
goods
sent
out
on
approval
or
on
consignment,
and
to
inform
the
addressee
of
the
price
and
charges
should
the
goods
be
retained;
if
the
goods
are
being
sent
abroad
a
proforma
invoice
may
be
required
by
the
customs
authorities
for
declaring
the
amount
of
the
consignment;
serves
as
quotations
for
dealers
who
are
contemplating
the
introduction
of
a
new
sales
line,
for
accurate
and
full
particulars,
which
will
show
them
if
they
can
trade
profitably.
Teachers
should
pay
particular
attention
to
this
area
of
the
syllabus.
For
Part
(c),
candidates
were
asked
to
interpret
information
on
a
com-
pleted
sales
invoice.
This
was
worth
7
marks.
This
question
was
well
done.
Some
candidates
were
able
to
gain
full
marks.
The
areas
that
were
correctly
labeled
by
most
candidates
were:
the
invoice
number,
the
customer’s
name
and
address,
the
order
number,
and
the
discount
of-
fered.
The
areas
which
proved
difficult
were:
the
date,
where
many
can-
didates
gave
the
date
the
goods
were
to
be
delivered;
the
abbreviation
E&OE,
where
many
candidates
thought
that
these
letters
were
initials.
For
Part
(d),
candidates
were
asked
to
address
a
situation
where
paper
was
ordered
but
not
supplied
in
the
correct
quantities.
Candidates
were
asked
to
indicate
the
action
to
be
taken
and
give
reasons.
This
question
was
not
well
done.
Many
candidates
confused
the
debit
note
and
the
credit
note
and
many
also
provided
weak
and
unreasoned
solutions
to
the
problem.
This
question
was
attempted
by
41
per
cent
of
the
candidates.
Marks
ranged
from
0
to
13,
and
the
mean
was
6.29.
Question
8
This
question
tested
Unit
X,
Objective
5
and
Unit
XI,
Objective
5.
For
Part
(a)
(i),
candidates
were
to
identify
three
documents
that
a
clerk
in
the
Dispatch
and
Transport
Office
prepares
in
the
distribution
of
goods
to
customers.
For
Part
(a)
(ii),
candidates
were
to
list
three
duties
other
than
tying,
filing,
preparing
documents
and
answering
the
telephone
that
the
clerk
in
the
Transport
Office
performs.
-8-
-9-

Candidates’
performance
in
part
(a)
was
satisfactory.
For
Part
(b)
candidates
were
presented
with
the
following
situation:
In
response
to
a
newspaper
advertisement,
Mr.
Smart,
a
sole
trader,
bought
100
shirts
@
$100.00
each
from
a
leading
garment
outlet
.
Candidates
were
asked
specific
questions
on
the
situation.
Some
candi-
dates,
in
their
responses,
were
unable
to
compute
trade
discount
and
cash
discount
to
earn
the
marks
allocated.
In
Part
(c),
candidates
were
to
calculate
GCT
(a
value
added
tax),
and
the
final
value
and
cost
of
the
item.
This
was
worth
5
marks.
The
overall
performance
on
this
question
was
satisfactory.
This
question
was
the
least
popular
question
in
the
optional
section
of
the
paper.
It
was
attempted
by
26
per
cent
of
the
candidates.
Marks
ranged
from
0
to
13,
and
the
mean
was
4.86.
The
mean
on
this
question
was
also
the
lowest
for
the
entire
paper.
Paper
03/2
General
Proficiency
The
Alternative
to
the
School-Based
Assessment
In
order
to
answer
the
ten
compulsory,
short
response
type
questions,
candidates
were
required
to
read
the
stimulus
material
provided
in
the
form
of
a
case
scenario.
The
entire
paper
was
worth
50
marks.
The
Case
The
case
provided
a
profile
of
an
individual
named
Winnie
Smart
who
was
an
enterprising
individual.
She
possessed
positive
attitudes
and
traits
that
complemented
her
business
acumen.
With
determination
she
successfully
pursued
a
job
search
and
acquired
further
skills.
Winnie
eventually
established
the
company
called
Business
Technology
&
Inno-
vative
Services
(BTIS).
It
became
the
country’s
leading
outlet
for
state-of-
the-art
office
equipment
and
provided
quality
service
to
its
customers.
Performance
in
this
Paper
was
good.
However,
some
questions
proved
to
be
difficult
for
the
candidates.
Many
candidates
performed
poorly
on
question
4.
This
question
required
candidates
to
perform
a
SWOT
analy-
sis.
A
SWOT
analysis
of
BTIS
could
have
included:
Strength:
Managerial
experience,
technical
expertise,
good
network/com-
munication
with
customers,
distribution
system,
new
improvements
of
product/s.
Weakness:
No
control
over
spare
parts,
limited
product
life,
compara-
tively
high
prices,
inadequate
technical
support.
Opportunity:
Few
and
weak
competitors,
rising
income
of
target
market,
growing
demand,
technical
assistance
available
Threat:
Government
bureaucracy,
spare
parts
shortages,
natural
disas-
ters,
changing
government
regulations.
Candidates
also
performed
poorly
on
question
9.
Candidates
were
asked
to
supply
five
questions
for
a
questionnaire
on
the
topic
“Impact
of
Mod-
ern
Technology
on
Office
machines”.
Possible
questions
could
have
in-
cluded:
·
What
is
your
position
in
the
organization?
·
What
are
the
different
types
of
technology
used
in
your
organiza-
tion?
·
What
benefits
are
derived
from
the
introduction
of
the
new
tech-
nology?
·
Has
the
rate
of
production
of
documents
improved
due
to
instal-
lation
of
technology?
·
Is
the
work
made
easier
due
to
the
introduction
of
modern
ma-
chines?
The
overall
performance
on
the
paper
was
good.
Marks
ranged
from
3
to
49.
Approximately
51.4
per
cent
of
the
candidates
obtained
marks
at
the
upper
end
of
the
mark
scale
which
indicated
performances
ranging
from
satisfactory
to
outstanding.
-
10-
-11-

MAY/JUNE 2006
Copyright © 2006 Caribbean Examinations Council ®
St. Michael, Barbados

- 2 -
JUNE 2006
GENERAL COMMENTS
The syllabus in Office Administration was tested for the first time in the June 2006 examination and offered at the
General Proficiency only. This syllabus replaced Office Procedures that was last tested in January 2006. The
candidate population for this examination remained approximately the same as last years population for Office
Procedures. Candidates’ performance will be compared with the performance in Office Procedures in 2005.
Candidates’responses reflected a wide range of abilities as evidenced in the distribution of scores. The examination
consists of four papers:
Paper 01 - Multiple Choice
Paper 02 - Short Answer
Paper 03/1 - School-Based Assessment (SBA)
Paper 03/2 - Alternative to the School-Based Assessment
A satisfactory number of the stated objectives were tested from the various modules in this examination. The
responses from the candidates indicated that they had some knowledge of each of the objectives tested.
The overall performance in the compulsory section of the examination was satisfactory. There were some very good
responses in both the Compulsory and the Optional sections of the examination. The shortcomings observed will be
addressed in this report in the detailed comments on individual questions.
SPECIFIC COMMENTS
PAPER 01 - Multiple Choice
This paper tested the knowledge and application of important facts, concepts, principles, processes and procedures
involved in routine clerical and office activities. Candidates’ performance in this paper was satisfactory with 66.26
per cent of the population achieving Grades I - III. This figure represents a decrease of 8.21 per cent over that of
2005, when some 74.47 per cent achieved similar grades.
PAPER 02 - Essay
The format of this paper remained the same as the Office Procedures. The paper has two sections. Section I, which
is compulsory, tests Modules I - VI and Module XII of the syllabus. Candidates are required to answer the four
questions in this section.
Section II is the optional component of the paper. It tests Modules VII - XI of the syllabus. It assesses knowledge
and procedures associated with specialised office activities and routines at the entry level. Candidates are required
to answer two of the four questions.
The performance of the candidates on Paper 02 showed a marginal increase compared to that of 2005 when 71.87
per cent of the candidates obtained Grades I - III. In this examination, 75.21 per cent of the candidates achieved
Grades I - III. Candidates’ performance on the Application Profile of this paper was generally satisfactory.

- 3 -
PAPER 03 - School-Based Assessment (SBA)
The School-BasedAssessment of the OfficeAdministration examination is a single guided research project designed
to develop and enhance skills and competencies identified in the syllabus. The teachers and students were responsible
for choosing the topics in this examination. Students worked progressively on their projects through the two years,
with feedback from their teachers to ensure that timely submissions at each stage met the required standard for CXC.
Candidates performance on this paper was satisfactory. Approximately 92.15 per cent of the candidates achieved
Grades I - III. This figure is comparable with 2005 when 91.01 per cent of the candidates achieved the same grades.
The specimens submitted indicated that the candidates found the topics interesting and well within their competence
to produce. The creativity emerging from this paper should be commended.
PAPER 03/2 - Alternative to the School-Based Assessment
Paper 03/2, the Alternative to the School-Based Assessment was a written examination, targeting candidates who
would not have the facility of being supervised in a school environment. The objective of this paper was to test the
candidates’ability to use their personal experiences of routine office activities acquired through observation or from
doing the practical office tasks assigned to them as employees in order to solve office-related problems. This paper
consisted of ten essay-type questions, based on a case study in an office environment. The paper tests theApplication
Profile only and is done in 1 1/2 hours.
Candidates’ performance on this paper declined. The number of candidates achieving Grades I – III was 57.07 per
cent compared with 66.23 per cent in 2005.
DETAILED COMMENTS
Paper 02 - Essay
Section I comprised four compulsory questions, each worth 15 marks.
Question 1
In this question, part (a), candidates were required to identify two duties of both (i) a Clerk Typist and (ii) a Secretary
in the Administrative Office. For the most part, candidates’ responses were satisfactory while a few seemed unable
to differentiate between the roles of the personnel identified. Filing and answering the telephone were two popular
responses.
Part (b) tested knowledge of the functions of the office in a business organisation that support the production of
goods and services. Some candidates related the response to the functions of the production department, rather than
the functions of the office.
Part (c) tested candidates’ ability to communicate information in writing and knowledge of centralisation of
reprographic services within a company. To this end, candidates were asked to write a memorandum to the Office
Administrator, providing justifications for or against the centralisation of reprographic services in the organisation.
Most candidates wrote a memorandum with the requisite presentation and information, but fell short by repeating
the same rationale. Some candidates wrote a letter instead of a memorandum. Critical requirements such as date of
the document, subject line, name and designation of the recipient and the sender were sometimes incomplete.
Candidates continue to make the same and similar mistakes each year. Candidates’ responses were generally
satisfactory.

- 4 -
Question 2
This question tested candidates’ understanding of:
(i) Reference sources - trade journals
(ii) The means of communication
(iii) Time in the 24-hour clock
It was a compulsory question and was attempted by the majority of the candidates.
Part (a) of the question required candidates to list three types of information which can be found in trade journals.
This posed great difficulty to the candidates. In most cases this section was not attempted and if attempted, the
candidates who gave responses did so based on their general knowledge, but in most cases those responses were
inadequate.
Part (b) of the question was well done and candidates were able to score full marks.
However, part (c) (i) posed great difficulty. Some candidates demonstrated weaknesses in changing the 12-hour
clock to the 24-hour clock. This is an area of the syllabus that continues to pose a challenge to candidates. Candidates
were unable to perform creditably on section (c) (ii) and (c) (iii). The candidates generally did not complete the
column headed Implications for contacting staff, or gave a solution for contacting staff. The possible implications
were:
(i) Office closed – 4 hours
(ii) Office not opened as yet – 1 hr and 30 minutes to opening time.
(iii) Office closed – 40 minutes
Question 3
This was another compulsory question that was attempted by most candidates. It tested candidates’ understanding
of:
(a) (i) Information that an immigration officer can obtain from a passport
(ii) Documents that are required when applying for a visa to enter the United States of America
(iii) Services provided by travel agencies
(b) Actions that should be taken in each of the following situations:
(i) A customer would like to gain access to his wife’s personal chequing account
(ii) Your supervisor has asked you to inform a new employee about ways to safeguard confidential
information
(iii) You have observed your co-worker leaking customer information to the media
Most candidates responded satisfactorily to parts (a) (i) and (ii) of the question. However, in part (a) (ii), some
candidates gave responses such as “passport” and “birth certificate” although the passport would have served the
purpose of certifying the bearer. Part (a) (iii) tested candidates’ knowledge of two services provided by travel
agencies. Some candidates were not able to differentiate between services provided and services facilitated by the
travel agency. For example, some candidates gave “hotel accommodation” as a service provided by travel agencies.
Still, others misinterpreted this part of the question by giving airline services rather than travel services.

- 5 -
Some candidates experienced difficulty in doing part (b) (i) of this question as they assumed that fraudulent behaviour
was involved. However, many responses were carefully crafted which reflected higher level thinking skills. The
second scenario also posed some difficulty for some candidates who either responded by repeating the question or
stating that it was not their responsibility to safeguard confidential information. Generally, they acknowledged that
they were to inform the new employee of safeguarding confidential information, but failed to detail the procedure
for doing so. In the third situation, most candidates attempted this section satisfactorily, but some candidates indicated
that rather than allowing their supervisor to deal with the situation, they would take matters into their own hands by
either firing, calling the police or “knocking them off”.
Question 4
Question 4 was also compulsory. It tested candidates’ understanding of:
(a) the use of a diary. (Receptionist)
(b) (i) The importance of the alphabetical filing system
(ii) Use of geographical filing
(iii) Use of numerical filing
Part (a) filing in an alphabetical system was a popular section and the responses of candidates indicated that they
found the question interesting. Most candidates were able to obtain some mark for this section, by listing for
appointments, making notes.
Part (c) of the question appeared to pose the most challenge to candidates, as the responses were superficial or not
attempted.
Most candidates were able to obtain 4 of the 8 marks awarded for the section. Responses were satisfactory.
Question 5
Although an optional question, the number of responses marked were 6500 making it the most popular option. This
question tested candidates’ understanding of the benefits of legislation related to workers’ welfare, as well as the
factors that contribute to employee turnover in an organisation. Candidates were also tested on their understanding
of the preparation of the petty cash book.
Part (a) (i) of the question was done satisfactorily. The weaker candidates did not demonstrate a clear understanding
of the benefits that can be derived by the employer for issuing protective clothing and gear to the employees.
Part (a) (ii) was also done satisfactorily. The weaker candidates tended to give the answer to (a) (i) here.
Part (a) (iii) was well done. The weaker candidates did not demonstrate a clear understanding of the term “turn-
over”.
Part (b) was the most popular part of the question. Here candidates were required to record five items in the most
appropriate analysis columns on the form provided.
The majority of candidates were able to post 4 of the 6 items correctly, using the appropriate date and details. They
were able to compute the grand total and also totals for the individual analysis columns correctly.
The weaker candidates demonstrated problems in balancing and restoring the imprest as required. They were unable
to match the correct details for the balance carried down and brought down and the imprest. The balance brought
down and the imprest in most cases were not shown on the correct side of the petty cash (left hand side).
Overall, the majority of candidates were awarded marks in the range 6 - 11.

- 6 -
Question 6
This question was also quite popular. It was designed to test the candidates’ understanding of:
(a) The ways in which the particular equipment (computer) can be used to increase the efficiency of the sales
department.
(b) The similarity and differences between debit and credit cards.
(c) The advantages and disadvantages of answering machines which are programmed to operate without manual
assistance.
This question was attempted by more than 4 000 candidates.
For part (c) most candidates were able to state three ways in which the computer can be used in the sales department,
though the structure of the responses needed improvement. Candidates were however, able to demonstrate that they
had adequate knowledge of the functions of the computer and were thus able to obtain at least 1 of the 3 marks
awarded.
The concepts of debit and credit cards need to be emphasised as they are popular methods of transacting in the
exchange of goods and services. Whereas most candidates were aware that they referred to payments, the responses
ranged from the functions of debit notes and credit notes, to sales on credit, and making deposits as credits, and
withdrawals as debits. Responses included reference to the physical material of which the cards were made. Marks
obtained for this section were poor.
Many candidates who opted for this question were able to answer part (c) quite well. The majority was able to list
five advantages of using the answering machine. Most found 3 correct disadvantages; others were able to list at least
one disadvantage. However, most looked at the disadvantages as being linked to the employee and not the organisation.
Candidates were able to score quite well in this section of the question. The mark awarded for grammar and spelling
eluded most candidates.
Question 7
This was another optional question, though not popular among candidates. The question was designed to test
candidates’ understanding of:
(a) The meanings of the terms “Free on Board”, “Ex Works” and “Cost, Insurance and Freight” as used in
trading documents.
(b) Drafting a Press Release, to attract the attention of potential buyers based on a given situation.
The majority of candidates had difficulty explaining in part (a) what was meant by the trading terms. Many related
the terms to the workers in the company. For example, ex works was an employee who no longer worked with the
organisation. The paucity of the responses were reflected in the marks which though ranging between 0 - 6, were
clustered at 0 - 3. It appeared that there was some understanding of what the terms meant, but there was an inability
to be explicit.
Part (b) required candidates to write a press release from information given to them in the stimulus material. The
presentation from the majority of candidates showed that they did not know the format of how a press release should
be written. However, because they were able to interpret the information, they were able to obtain some marks.
Question 8
This question required candidates to (a) list three tasks which a clerk in the factory office would be expected to
perform in the preparation of a shift roster for the staff; (b) identify three benefits of the interaction between the sales
office and the dispatch and transport office and (c) use the information from a planning master to complete a cost
card provided.

- 7 -
This question was a very popular option and many candidates attempted it. Most candidates did fairly well and the
scores ranged between 8 - 11.
Most candidates were able to complete the form accurately but the weaker candidates were unable to compute the
costs accurately and were unsure of the costs to include in the total cost. Parts (a) and (b) were for the most part very
poorly done. Many candidates did not attempt these sections. Many of those who answered these sections gave
incorrect responses. Some candidates listed three functions of a clerk in the factory office for part (a) and functions
of the dispatch and transport office for part (b).
Candidates need more practice in answering questions which require more than recall. They need to apply their
knowledge to situations. Using case studies in the classroom can assist students in developing analytical skills.
Recommendation to Teachers
1. Team teaching can be encouraged so that the Accounts teacher and Office Administration teacher
can work more closely together in finding the right approach to use, to present concepts.
2. Candidates need more practice in the preparation of the petty cash form. Emphasis should be
placed on the correct steps to take when balancing.
3. Resource persons can be brought in to speak to students on the legislation related to workers’
welfare. Emphasis must be placed on the benefits that can be derived by both the employer and the
employee in the workplace.
4. More practice exercises and simulations, to reinforce teaching points.
5. The integrated approach to teaching should be employed in teaching various aspects of the syllabus.
6. Refrain from one-word responses.
7. Invite resource persons to address students.
8. Familiarise students with the taxonomy as outlined in the syllabus.
9. Assessment – self, peer, and teacher should be done to reinforce acceptable standards.
PAPER 03 - School-Based Assessment (SBA)
The School-Based Assessment for the Office Administration Examination of 2005 - 2006 applied a new approach in
the conduct of the school-based assignment. The strategy is designed to enable candidates to acquire and enhance
critical skills by working on projects that they consider more worthwhile and within their capability, but which are
part of the learning activities outlined in the Modules of the syllabus. Candidates, with the guidance and approval of
the teacher, were allowed to select their own topics derived from objectives in the syllabus. Among those submitted
were.
1. Transformation from a Manual to an Electronic Filing System
2. Principles of Records Management
3. Equipment used in Records Management
4. The Role of the Human Resource Department as a Competent Source in an Organisation
5. Investigating the Daily Operations of the Purchasing Department of a Bank
6. An Investigation into the Recruitment of Workers in the Human Resource Department of the National
Commercial Bank
7. An Investigation into the Marketing Methods of the Sales Department of Courts Ltd. With Regard to
Marketing and Publicizing of their Products and Services

- 8 -
The more popular headings generated by candidates were as follows:
– Transformation from a Manual to an Electronic Filing System
– Equipment used in Records Management
– Emerging Office Careers and Applicable Attitudes
– Role of the Office in an Information-Driven Society
– Centralization versus Decentralization of Office Activities, and
– Principles of Records Management.
The least popular topic selected was “Preserving and Retaining Records and Associated Legal Stipulations”.
The type of study conducted by candidates was mainly field-based research and incorporated mainly features of the
qualitative design. A few candidates did research which could be classified as library-based research.
The Caribbean Examinations Council provided a detailed Mark Scheme, which outlined the tasks, criteria and
marks for each section. The total score for the research project was 50 and contributed to 25% of the final marks.
Marks were awarded only to the Application Profile.
For the most part, the level of research conducted was satisfactory. Candidates scored marks ranging from a low of
10 to the maximum of 47. Those candidates who scored low marks were mainly those who did not comply with
the requirements of the new Office Administration syllabus, using instead the Office Procedures guidelines for
completing the SBAproject. Where candidates were familiar with the new Mark Scheme and where they heeded the
step-by-step suggestions of their teachers, they demonstrated an acceptable level of research skills, coupled with
neatly presented folders that were almost error-free, with appropriate graphics and creative in their designs. An
attempt was made to stick to the 1 000 - 1 200 word limit. Teachers are reminded to use the Mark Scheme provided
by CXC. It should be attached to EACH candidate’s project as it facilitates the moderation process, besides indicating
how the marks are allocated to the tasks. On no occasion should fractional marks (1/4 or 1/2) be awarded.
Some candidates demonstrated weakness in presenting the three kinds of information sources, i.e. for persons list,
publications lists and internet sites lists. A sample is outlined below:
LIST OF INFORMATION SOURCES:
1. For persons list:
Date Place interviewed Job title
May 01, 2006 Canewood, TVU Chief Executive Officer
May 02, 2006 St. Bess High School Administrative Assistant
2. Publications list: (one author)
Ellis, A. K. (2005). Research on educational innovations (4th ed.). New York: Eye On Education, Inc.
(2 or more authors)
Harry, F., Forde, G., Tucker, C. (2004). Writing letters. San Fernando: MacPhee Publishers Limited.
Scholoss, P. J., Smith, M. A., & Scholoss, C. N. (2001). Instructional methods for secondary students with
learning and behaviour problems. Needham Heights, MA: Pearson Education, Inc.
3. Internet sites list:
Duffrin, E. (1996, Sept.). Direct instruction making waves. Retrieved May 5, 2006, from http://www.catalyst-
chicago.org.arch/09-96/096main.htm.

- 9 -
Careful attention must be paid to the wording of titles for the research project, the aims/objectives and the methodology
employed. Candidates should ensure that the methodology includes a description of the sample, instruments and
rationale. At least one of the business forms used should be properly completed and inserted in the Appendix
section. The entire project should be error-free, that means, all effort should be made to proofread for spelling,
grammar, punctuation and presentation/formatting errors.
The Table of Contents were in some instances incomplete, as some candidates failed to indicate the page number as
well as to number the pages of the project to match the way it is specified in the Table of Contents. In numbering the
Table of Contents, for example, if “Regulations and Policies” occupies two pages, it should not be written 10 - 11,
but only to indicate the page on which it starts, followed by whatever page numbering for subsequent content.
The instruments used for collecting information, such as the questionnaire, should include some instructions to the
respondents with regard to what they are required to do. Anonymity and confidentiality should be maintained
throughout the process. Too often, only the name of the data collecting instrument and the questions are presented.
It is important for schools and territories to share best practices through workshops, seminars and exhibitions as well
as to utilise a variety of resource texts, and make good use of electronic and other means to ensure that a high
standard of work is maintained at the secondary level.
PAPER 03/2 - Alternative to the School-Based Assessment
Question 1
This question required that candidates list three traits an employer should possess that would demonstrate a positive
relationship with his employees. It was worth 3 marks. Most candidates responded satisfactorily, giving at least two
correct traits, while others did not demonstrate an understanding of the term. Some candidates, on the other hand,
misinterpreted “traits” for “skills” and therefore scored minimal marks.
Question 2
For this question, candidates were asked to list two ways in which a “positive” culture is demonstrated in the
workplace among employees. It was worth 2 marks. Most candidates gave appropriate responses such as “supportive
of each other” or “team effort” and so were able to score satisfactorily. Unfamiliarity with the jargon of the subject
appeared to be a shortcoming.
Question 3
Candidates were asked to state four ergonomic changes that the employer in the case cited, could have made in the
workplace to enhance it. It was worth 4 marks. Many candidates misinterpreted “ergonomic changes” and gave
responses relating to “change” in general, for example, “change in work conditions”. Factors like lighting, ventilation,
colour schemes and design of furniture to meet the needs of its users would have comprised more appropriate
responses in this instance, but few candidates were able to zero in on the specific requirements.
Question 4
Candidates were required to state three reasons for employees’loyalty being necessary, particularly among the staff
in the Sales and Marketing Department. It was worth 3 marks. Responses like, “employees are responsible for
selling and advertising the company’s goods and services, thus securing continuous employment for workers”, as
well as, “to improve the firm’s image”, were given by many candidates. Some candidates, however, were challenged
in articulating appropriate responses specifically relating to the staff in the Sales and Marketing Department and
making linkages of relationships that would be fostered with external customers and their impact. Poor grammar
and spelling sometimes made it difficult to determine what the candidate actually wanted to describe.

- 10 -
Question 5
For this question, candidates were required to list four pieces of modern technology that are used by an employee in
the sales department on a daily basis. It was worth 4 marks. Most candidates were able to give satisfactory responses
such as computers, photocopiers, fax machines and printers, thus displaying their familiarity with the concept of
modern technology. A few candidates listed items such as paper clips in their responses.
Question 6
Candidates were required to list three skills and three attributes that are necessary in conducting a needs analysis for
employees in the human resource department. It was worth 6 marks. Some candidates had difficulty in differentiating
between factors that could be described as “skills” and “attributes”. Many candidates, on the other hand, gave
specific, appropriate examples relating to the case study.
Question 7
This question asked candidates to formulate questions for a needs analysis. It was hoped that a similar technique as
utilised in the school-based assessment data-gathering component, would be employed in structuring questions for
the needs analysis. Whereas most candidates did write questions, most of them had no link to the objective.
Question 8
This question required candidates to prepare a notice to all staff to inform them of a workshop on “change” with
instruction as to the venue, time, guest speaker, duration and all other pertinent information. It was worth 6 marks.
Most candidates scored well on this question, demonstrating that they had clear knowledge and understanding of the
essential competencies.
Question 9
Candidates were required to write a letter. This area continues to be one that necessitates development, as the letter,
in whatever medium, remains an essential business tool. Though candidates were given all the necessary information
to formulate the letter, there were significant shortcomings in presentation and technique.
Question 10
Part (a) asked candidates to identify skills acquired as a clerk, that would be utilised in a new position at a higher
level. Candidates’ responses indicated that they were unable to make the connection.
Part (b) presented candidates with the challenge of having a clerk in the human resource department assist the
manager who would be conducting a workshop. This question asked that candidates distinguish the role of the clerk
in the HR office from the role of the manager and how the clerk could support the functions of the manager. Some
candidates responded as the clerk actually conducting the seminar.
1. Students should be given adequate practice in answering questions from case studies.
2. Past papers are a good source of practice.
3. Students should be encouraged to use the jargon of the subject. They must be made aware of the
modern terminologies being used for various areas of activities applicable to office administration.

JANUARY 2007
All rights reserved

JANUARY 2007
GENERAL COMMENTS
Candidates’ performance in the January 2007 sitting was encouraging. There was an improvement in
performance over that of previous years. More specific comments will be addressed separately under
each paper. Three papers were offered at the General Proficiency level:
Paper 02 – Short answer
Paper 3/2 – Alternative to the SBA
The examination was designed to ensure broad coverage of the syllabus, and the objectives tested were
chosen from all the units.
Candidates’ performance in this paper declined slightly over the performance in previous January
sittings. The overall mean of the paper in the 2007 examination was 36.46, compared with 38.43 and
39.42 for January 2006 and 2005 respectively. Marks ranged from 0 to 54 out of a maximum of 60.
Paper 02 – Short Answer
This paper consisted of two sections. Section I comprised four compulsory questions based on Modules
I, II, III, IV, V, VI and XII, and Section II which consisted of four optional questions based on Modules
VII, VIII, IX, XI. Candidates were required to answer two questions from Section II. Knowledge and
the application of procedures associated with specialized office activities and office routines were
tested. Candidates performance on this paper improved slightly compared with that of January 2006.
The overall mean for this Paper was 42.08 compared with 38.49 in 2006. Marks ranged from 2 to 80
out of a maximum of 90.
A general observation on candidates’ performance determined that new aspects of the syllabus that
were tested, challenged candidates and affected their overall performance. Some instances were the
term ‘ergonomic considerations’in Question 1, a comparative graph in question 2, ‘copyrighted material’
in question 3 and terminology used in meetings in question 4. In Section II, the terms ‘job description
and job specification’ in Question 5, and the notice of tender in question 7 were not favourably addressed.
2

This paper took the form of a written examination that targeted private candidates who would not have
had the opportunity to complete SBA projects as school candidates. The paper was designed to test the
candidates’ ability to use their personal experiences on routine office activities acquired through
observation or from doing the actual office tasks as a real employee. The paper consisted of ten
structured questions based on an office case. For this examination the case focused on Modules I, II,
and XII of the syllabus.
Candidates’ performance in this paper continued to improve in some areas over that of previous
examinations. It is noted, however, that some areas continue to challenge candidates and affect their
overall performance. The overall mean for this paper was 26.04 out of a maximum of 50. When this is
compared with the 2006 paper which had a mean of 28.50 a slight decline is evident. Marks ranged
from 3 to 47 out of a maximum of 50.
DETAILED COMMENTS
Question 1
This question tested Module I (Objectives 3 and 5) and Module IV (Objective 1).
For Part (a), candidates were required to list three basic skills that are required for entry-level positions
in the current job market. This was worth 3 marks.
For Part (b), candidates were required to state four ways in which a receptionist can contribute to the
goodwill of an organisation. This was worth 4 marks. The majority of candidates were able to provide
correct responses for Parts (a) and (b).
In Part (c), candidates were to provide four ergonomic considerations and briefly explain how each
contributes to the employees’satisfactory working environment. This was worth 8 marks. The majority
of candidates were challenged by the term ‘ergonomics’. In many instances references were made to
‘staff welfare’. Marks for this question ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean was 5.20.
Question 2
This question tested Module II (Objectives 2 and 3).
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to list four factors that would determine the medium used to
communicate with business associates. This was worth 4 marks.
3

For Part (a) (ii), candidates were asked to identify three of the most economical means of communicating
with the branches of the company. This was worth 3 marks.
These two parts of this question were well done.
For Part (b) (i), candidates were provided with a set of comparative statistics. They were required to
draw a comparative graph to represent the statistical data provided. This was worth 6 marks. Most
candidates were unable to correctly represent data on the graph.
For Part (b) (ii), candidates were to indicate the grade that reflects the most similar performance for the
two years. This was worth 2 marks. The majority of candidates responded satisfactorily on this part of
the question. Marks ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean was 5.86.
Question 3
This question tested Module XII (Objective 2) and Module III (Objectives 2 and 4).
For Part (a), candidates were to list three factors which a person should consider when seeking
employment. This was worth 3 marks. The majority of candidates provided correct responses.
For Part (b) (i), candidates were to state two advantages of numerical filing systems. This was worth 2
marks. The majority of candidates earned full marks.
For Part (b) (ii), candidates were to state two advantages of electronic filing systems. This was worth
2 marks. This part of the questions challenged many students.
For Part (c), candidates were required to draft a memorandum from the Human Resource Manager,
informing all staff that management has agreed to enforce copyright legal stipulations throughout the
organization. In Part (i) of the question, candidates were to refer to how the policy will affect the writer
of the copyrighted material; and in Part (ii) they were to indicate the impact on the photocopying and
general costs of the organization. This was worth 8 marks.
The performance on this part of the question was unsatisfactory as the majority of candidates neglected
to provide an appropriate memorandum format, and to indicate the information as guided in the question.
It is apparent that the majority of candidates were unfamiliar with the requirements of the Copyright
Act in their respective territories. Marks ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean was 7.31.
Question 4
This question tested Module IV (Objectives 1 and 3) and Module V (Objectives 1 and 3).
For Part (a), candidates were to list three pieces of equipment that may be required by a presenter at a
meeting. This was worth 3 marks. Many candidates were unable to differentiate between ‘supplies’and
‘equipment’.
4

For Part (b), candidates were asked to define four terms as they are used in meetings. This was worth
4 marks. Many candidates were unable to provide correct definitions for meeting terminology.
In Part (c), candidates were required to make diary entries for a manager. Many responses did not
indicate correct timing for post-lunch activities. This was worth 5 marks.
Part (d) of this question asked candidates to prepare an e-mail to make a hotel reservation for single
occupancy. While many candidates were able to word the e-mail message, they showed weaknesses in
its layout and the relevant information. This was worth 3 marks.
The overall performance in this question was satisfactory. Marks ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean
was 3.06.
Section II – Optional Questions
Question 5
This question tested Module VII (Objective 4) and Module VIII (Objective 5).
For Part (a) , candidates were to assume the position of a human resource clerk who discovers that an
employee’s record shows that he is HIV-positive. Candidates were to state in Part (a) (i), the HR
clerk’s obligation to the organisation, and in Part (ii), obligation to the employee. This was worth 4
marks.
For Part (b), candidates were to define the terms ‘job description’ and ‘job specification’.
The majority of candidates earned full marks, while others were unable to differentiate between the
two terms. This was worth 2 marks.
In Part (c) (i), candidates were required to use an electronic transfer form to make a payment. This was
worth 7 marks. The majority of candidates were able to secure close to maximum marks.
In Part (ii), candidates were to list two advantages of using the electronic transfer form to make a
payment. This was worth 2 marks. This part of the question was answered well. Marks ranged from 0
to 15 and the mean was 9.64.
Question 6
This question tested Module VIII (Objectives 3 and 4) and Module IX (Objective 2) .
For Part (a) candidates were to identify one situation in which ‘credit note’, ‘debit note’ and ‘statement
of account’ will be issued by a wholesale company. This was worth 3 marks. Some candidates were
unsure of the differences between the credit and debit notes. In addition, the statement of account was
defined as the bank statement.
For Part (b) candidates were to list three ways in which the facsimile machine contributed to efficiency
in business. This segment of the question presented little difficulty to most candidates. This was worth
3 marks.
5

For Part (c), candidates were provided with a list of companies, their addresses, telephone numbers and
e-mail addresses. Candidates were to use the listing to develop a database of suppliers. This was worth
9 marks. Marks to Question 6 ranged from 0 – 14 and the mean was 7.69.
Question 7
This question tested Module IX (Objectives 3, 5 and 6).
For Part (a), candidates were to identify three reasons why it is important for a company to maintain
control of its inventory. This was worth 3 marks. Candidates responded to this part of the question
satisfactorily.
For Part (b), candidates were to list ways in which the Optical Character Reader facilitates inventory
control. This was worth 3 marks. This was not well done by candidates.
For Part (c), candidates were required to draft a Notice of Tender to obtain a suitable restaurant operator.
This was worth 9 marks. Many candidates treated the tender as a memorandum or a report. Some did
not utilise the information that was provided in the question.
Marks for this question ranged from 0 to 13 and the mean was 6.46.
Question 8
This question tested Module XI (Objectives 2 and 3).
For Part (a), candidates were to list three duties performed by a clerk in the factory office. The majority
of candidates scored full marks for this part of the question. It was worth 3 marks.
For Part (b), candidates were to give three benefits of an interaction between the Dispatch and Transport
Office and the Sales Department.This was worth 3 marks.This segment was completed with satisfaction.
For Part (c), candidates were to utilise information on an order form to complete a Bill of Lading form
that was provided.
Marks ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean was 8.99.
Paper 03/2 General Proficiency
In order to answer the ten compulsory, structured questions, candidates were required to read the stimulus
material provided in the form of a case. The entire paper was worth 50 marks.
6

The Case
The case discussed the organisational structure of Total Auto Service where Florent Desir worked as a
Supervisor. As part of her duties she interfaced with employees at all levels. The organisation was
well structured and operated efficiently. Its organisational objectives focused on the structuring of
activities, concentration of authority and control of work flow. Holders of positions were empowered
as they strove to optimise on their levels of performance.
The overall performance on this paper was less than satisfactory. Some questions were challenging to
candidates.
In Question 1, candidates were required to draw an organisational chart to show the relationship among
positions identified in the case. This was worth 5 marks. Many candidates did not label the chart.
Additionally, they were required to place ‘management’at the highest level with the ‘Supervisor’position
reporting directly to them. The ‘Senior Engine Technicians’and ‘Apprentices’are two separate groups
that report to the Supervisor. However, the ‘Apprentices’are placed at a slightly lower level.An example
of what was required is provided below.
Supervisor
Senior Engine Technicians
Apprentices
Management
Organisational Chart of Total Auto Services
7

In Question 5 candidates were asked to identify two possible benefits to Total Auto Services of
‘concentration of authority’. Possible responses could have been:
• Reducing demands on supervisors’ time;
• Enhancing line and staff and how they feel about each other;
• Making employees more responsible;
• Enabling management to focus on issues;
• Provide more training to employees.
This question was worth 2 marks.
Questions 7 and 8 tested the memorandum and letter of application respectively. In spite of the fact
that these topics have been appearing on past examination papers, candidates continue to perform
poorly. On the memorandum they did not indicate the words ‘Memorandum’ as a heading, while in
other instances, they neglected to provide pertinent information on the position of Apprentice Engine
Technician, that interested persons should convey their interest to their supervisors in writing by the
deadline date of January 20, 2007.
In Question 8, the letter format required the following: a return address, date, inside address to the
Human Resource Manager, relevant salutation and complimentary close as essential requirements to
earn candidates marks. The body of the letter should have included an identification of the position
applied for, interest in the position, levels of competence and qualifications. Information on references
and willingness to attend an interview were regarded as asset points for the letter. Both questions were
worth 6 marks each.
Question 9 asked candidates to draw a pie chart to represent data that was provided. Candidates were
also reminded to use appropriate labeling. In many instances they failed to label the chart and the
individual sectors of the chart. Some candidates drew bar and cylinder charts instead of the pie chart.
Question 10 asked for five recommendations to junior staff to ensure they maintain high quality in their
job performance. While recommendations were provided, some candidates did not ensure that they
were relevant to the question and the content of the case.
The overall mean on this paper was 25.18. Scores ranged from 3 to 47.
Candidates who are preparing for examinations are asked to be aware of the new areas to be tested in
this syllabus. They need also to devote some attention to the areas which are continually tested but in
which candidates performance is indicated as being poor.
8

MAY/JUNE 2007
Copyright © Caribbean Examinations Council ®

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MAY/JUNE 2007
GENERAL COMMENTS
Candidates’ performance indicated that syllabus coverage was generally similar to that of previous years. In each
paper some responses indicated that candidates were prepared for the examination, while in other instances the
pattern of weaknesses continued. More specific comments will be addressed separately under each paper.
Candidates’ performance in this paper was quite consistent with performance in June 2006. The overall mean of
the paper in the 2007 examination was 35.54 compared with 34.80 in 2006. The highest mark achieved was 56 out
of a total of 60.
Paper 02 – Essay
This paper consisted of two sections. Section I, which comprised four compulsory questions, was based on Units I,
II, III, IV and XII. These questions were attempted by the majority of candidates.
Section II consisted of four optional questions taken from Units VII, VIII, IX, X and XI. Knowledge and
application of procedures associated with specialized office activities and office routines were tested. Candidates
were required to answer any two questions from Section II.
This paper is a written examination designed for the candidates who do not have a tutor for the supervision of the
SBA project (out of school candidates). It was designed to test the candidates’ ability to use their personal
experiences on routine office activities that they may have acquired through observation or from doing the actual
office tasks as a real employee. The paper consisted of ten short answer questions based on an office case. For
this examination the case focused on Modules VIII and X of the syllabus.
In this paper, candidates’ performance improved in some areas over that of previous examinations. It is noted that
some topics continue to challenge candidates and affect their overall performance.

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DETAILED COMMENTS
Paper 02 - Essay
Section I – Compulsory Questions
Question 1
This question tested Module I, Objectives 2 (d) and 3 (c); Module V, Objectives (a – e).
For Part (a, i) candidates were required to give two reasons for the deployment of staff in an organization. It was
worth 2 marks. Many candidates were not familiar with the term ‘deployment’ and interpreted it to mean
‘promotion or a means for getting a higher salary’.
For Part (a, ii), candidates were required to state two ways in which an employee may benefit from deployment.
This was worth 2 marks. Some candidates repeated the answers given in Part (a, i) above.
For Part (b), candidates were asked to list three physical objects that can contribute to ergonomics in the office.
This was worth 3 marks. Many responses indicated that candidates are unaware of the meaning of the term
‘ergonomics’ and overlooked the word ‘physical’ and gave broad responses like ‘environment’, ‘space’ or simply
listed equipment or the use of technology.
For Part (c), candidates were to copy in their answer booklet a table that carried two column headings ‘employee’s
responsibility’ and ‘employer’s responsibility’. They were to state one activity that indicates how each of the
positive attitudes ‘team-spirit and cooperation, honesty, politeness, punctuality and regularity’ can be demonstrated.
This was worth 8 marks. In many cases, the responses given for employees’ responsibility were repeated under
employers’ responsibility. The responses for question 1, for the most part, were unsatisfactory.
Marks ranged from 0 to 15, and the mean was 5.7.
Question 2
This question tested Module II, Objectives 1 (c), 1 (a – d), (e) and 9 (c).
For Part (a, i), candidates were required to give one advantage and one disadvantage of using electronic mail
(e-mail) as a means of communication in business. This was worth 2 marks. Responses on the advantages were
well known, while for disadvantages, some candidates listed situations that did not pertain directly to the use of
the electronic mail, for example, electrical failure.
For Part (a, ii), candidates were asked to list three examples of visual forms of communication. This was worth 3
marks. Many candidates listed examples of written communication.
For Part (a, iii) candidates were required to state two barriers to effective communication. This was worth 2 marks.
The word ‘barriers’ was a challenge to some candidates.
For Part (b) candidates were to assume the given name of the receptionist at Ambit Marketing Services. They were
to draft a voice message for customers, from information that was provided. This was worth 8 marks. The majority
of candidates obtained full marks.
The overall performance in this question was satisfactory. Marks ranged from 0 to 15, while the mean was 7.5.

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Question 3
This question tested Module III, Objectives 1 (a - c) and 2 (a - c).
For Part (a, i), candidates were to list four steps in the information cycle of an information management system.
This was worth 4 marks. Many candidates listed the steps for filing a document.
For Part (a, ii), candidates were to identify three types of information that will be found in the records management
system in a school. This was worth 3 marks. The majority of candidates were able to earn full marks for this
segment of the question.
In Part (b, i), candidates were required to show the correct indexing order for four names. A four-column table was
provided. This was worth 4 marks. This part of the question was not done well. In many instances only the first
column was used to insert personal and business names. Names with ‘of’ and ‘of the’ challenged the majority of
candidates with their placement in the indexing order.
For Part (b, ii), candidates were asked to prepare the cross-reference sheet for one name. This was worth 1 mark.
Many candidates were unable to earn the allocated mark.
For Part (b, iii), candidates were asked to arrange the three remaining names in alphabetical order. This part of the
question was also a challenge to many candidates. This was worth 3 marks.
It is to be noted that while information management is a major topic, candidates continue to experience difficulties.
The overall performance in this question was weak. Marks ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean was 4.7.
Question 4
This question tested Module VI, Objectives 1 (b), 2 (a), 3(a) and Module XII.
For Part (a), candidates were to state three ways in which employees, while working in reception and hospitality,
could portray a positive image of the business. This was worth 3 marks. The majority of candidates provided good
quality responses to this part of the question.
For Part (b), candidates were required to identify two categories of visitors to the Reception and Hospitality area.
This was worth 2 marks. The majority of candidates answered satisfactorily.
For Part (c), candidates were asked to list two steps that should be followed by the receptionist when cancelling an
appointment. This was worth 2 marks. This segment was also well known to the majority of candidates.
For Part (d), candidates were to develop a checklist of four factors and four considerations to help them make a
decision about applying for an advertised position. This was worth 8 marks. In many instances candidates repeated
the worked example in their booklet. Some demonstrated that they were unaware of the meaning of the words
‘factors’ and ‘considerations’ and their uses within the context of applying for a job.
The overall performance in this question was satisfactory. Marks ranged from 0 to 15, and the mean was 9.4.

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Question 5
This question tested Module VII, Objectives 1 (a), (g) and 4 (a).
For Part (a), candidates were to identify three criteria that employees may use for short-listing applicants for a job.
This was worth 3 marks. Many candidates were unclear about the meaning of the term ‘short list’ and indicated
post-short-listing activities, for example, interviews.
For Part (b), candidates were to state three possible reasons for the dismissal of an employee from a job. This was
worth 3 marks. Candidates responded to this part of the question quite well.
For Part (c, i), candidates were to use data provided to calculate the number of working days for the given number
of employees for two consecutive years. This was worth 2 marks. Simple multiplication was to be used and many
candidates were unable to provide correct responses.
For Part (c, ii), candidates were to calculate the percentage of working days lost in each of the two years. This was
worth 4 marks.
For Part (c, iii), candidates were to draw a comparative graph. This was worth 3 marks. This part of the question
was a challenge for the majority of candidates who attempted to answer it. In many instances they were unable to
draw a correct graph, for example, a bar, column or pie.
Marks ranged from 0 to 14, with the mean of 4.2.
Question 6
This question tested Module IX, Objectives 2 (c), 3, and 6 (c).
For Part (a) candidates were to state three factors that the purchasing manager of a business should consider when
ordering goods. This was worth 3 marks.
For Part (b) candidates were to give three reasons for keeping control of stock in a business. This was worth 3
marks.
For Part (c), candidates were required to use the form provided and the data given, to calculate the value of
inventory using the FIFO method of stock valuation. This was worth 9 marks. This segment of the question
challenged candidates as they were unable to apply the ‘first in, first out’ principles to stock movement.
Generally, the performance on this entire question was satisfactory.
Question 7
This question tested Module XI, Objectives 1, 2 and 3.
For Part (a), candidates were to state two duties performed by clerical staff in the factory office. Some candidates
provided general duties instead of duties that were specific to the factory office. This was worth 2 marks.
For Part (b), candidates were to list four documents used in the dispatch and transport of goods. Overall
performance was satisfactory; however, many candidates were unable to provide the names of documents relevant
to the factory office. This was worth 4 marks.

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For Part (c) candidates were to use the form provided to complete an accident report form to enable the factory
manager to sign it. This was worth 9 marks. In spite of the instructions provided, many candidates were unable to
benefit from the 1 mark that was allocated for leaving the factory manager’s signature space blank.
This was the most popular of the optional questions. Marks ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean was 9.4.
Question 8
This question tested Module X, Objectives 1 (a), 2 (a) and Module VIII, Objective 2(a).
For Part (a), candidates were to list three factors that must be considered when organizing promotional activities for
a specific target market. This was worth 3 marks.
For Part (b), candidates were to identify three persons with whom the marketing clerk may work to generate
suitable packaging designs to promote their products. This was worth 3 marks.
Most candidates who answered these parts gave satisfactory responses.
For Part (c, i), candidates were presented with payroll data. They were required to calculate gross pay. For Part
(c, ii) they were to calculate net wages for one week. This was worth 9 marks. Candidates performed satisfactorily
on this section. Responses indicated that some candidates experienced difficulty with the calculation of gross and
net wages. Many candidates did not show their working steps and simply provided an answer. As a result, they
were unable to score marks for the workings seen, even if the final figure was incorrect.
Performance was weak on this question. Marks ranged from 0 to 15, and the mean was 5.8. .
In order to answer the ten compulsory, short response type questions, candidates were required to read the stimulus
material provided in the form of a case scenario. The entire paper was worth 50 marks. Modules II –
Communications, VII – Human Resource Office, VIII – Accounts Office, X – Sales and Marketing, XI – Factory
Office were tested.
The Case
The case was based on Mike’s Hardware Store, a family oriented business that is seeking to expand and carve a
deeper niche through the use of modern technology.
Question 1
Candidates were required to design an advertisement for Mike’s Hardware Store to celebrate the company’s 40th
anniversary. The quality of responses for this question was of a high level as the majority of candidates used their
creative skills. In many instances, however, they failed to use the information provided in the question within their
responses. This question was worth 5 marks. The mean was 3.6.
Question 2
Candidates were asked to identify one way in which each of the departments (Purchasing, Accounting, Advertising,
Sales and Despatch) contributes to Mike’s Hardware Store. This was worth 5 marks. This was generally well done.
The mean was 3.5.

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Question 3
Candidates were required to list two possible types of dry stock and two types of furniture stock that would be on
sale. This was worth 4 marks. This was generally well done. The mean was 2.71.
Question 4
This question asked candidates to design a questionnaire for Mike’s Hardware Store to gather information from
customers and prospective customers on the possibility of establishing a third store. This was worth 7 marks. Many
of the items submitted did not relate to the case or its content. The mean was 3.7.
Question 5 (a)
Candidates were asked to state three marketing strategies that could be put in place by Mike’s Hardware store to
attract customers to purchase items at competitive prices. This was worth 3 marks. Candidates’ performance on
this question was satisfactory.
Question 5 (b)
This question asked candidates to identify three ways in which Mike’s Hardware Store can ensure customer
satisfaction. This was worth 3 marks.
Question 6
Candidates were asked to identify three safety measures that should be put in place by Mike’s Hardware Store in
the making of furniture. This was worth 3 marks. The mean was 1.4.
Question 7
Candidates were asked to state three precautions that may be taken by employees at Mike’s Hardware Store to
ensure their safety at the workplace. This was worth 3 marks. The mean was 1.4.
Question 8
This question asked candidates to state three traditional duties that may have been performed at Mike’s Hardware
Store, but which are now done using advanced technology. This was worth 6 marks. The mean was 2.5.
Question 9 (a)
Candidates were required to identify three personal skills/qualities that the staff would display at Mike’s Hardware
Store if they are to maintain efficient and dependable service. This question was worth 3 marks.
Question 9 (b)
This question asked candidates to identify three documents that would be used on a regular basis in the accounts
department at Mike’s Hardware Store. The majority of candidates were able to secure full marks. This was worth
3 marks.
Question 10
This question asked candidates to make five recommendations to Mike’s Hardware Store that are likely to ensure a
low turnover of staff. This question was worth 5 marks. The mean was 2.3.
The overall performance on the paper was satisfactory. Marks ranged from 0 – 49. The overall mean was 28.6.

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School-Based Assessment
The School-Based Assessment must be presented by all candidates who enter for Office Administration and do not
sit the 03/2 paper. Its objective is to develop in candidates, essential research skills that will enable them to
function more effectively in the world of work.
Responses indicate that some of the candidates were not satisfactorily prepared and guided in their preparation
processes. Additionally, teachers’ strengths in particular areas were clearly evident in some schools where the span
of topics covered were very limited.
A general observation is that while criteria are identified in the guidelines for the School-Based Assessment certain
criteria, in far too many instances, were not adhered to and this resulted in the loss of marks. Some instances were:
• some candidates misinterpreted the ‘functions of departments’. They provided the functions of individuals;
• letters were not of a mailable quality. There were many with inconsistent styles, wording and uncorrected
errors;
• the schedule of activities was not in keeping with that outlined in the mark scheme;
• failure to write with the required number of words;
• failure to provide graphics;
• some schools are using the old version of the mark scheme;
• a wide disparity between the teacher’s marks and the moderator’s marks.
Segments on Regulations, Health and Safety, and Staff Rules were well done in most portfolios that were
moderated.
Recommendations for Overall Improvement
1. It is important that the current syllabus be used by students as part of their study and preparation for the
examination;
2. Teachers should familiarize themselves with the new concepts and jargon in the subject and incorporate
them in the teaching and learning processes;
3. Several student-centred strategies should be utilized to enable cooperative groups and problem-based
learning approaches in an effort to strengthen and develop student performance;
4. Increase practice in the completion of forms, preparation of checklists, reception registers;
5. More teacher guidance and practice opportunities in concepts that require calculation of values of stock
inventory, for example, the FIFO/LIFO methods are required;
6. Students should be encouraged to present information as much as possible, in sentence form instead of one-
word responses;
7. Students should be encouraged to follow examination instructions. More attention should be paid to how
they number questions, and respond the correct number of questions in each section of the paper, for
example, Paper 02.

JANUARY 2008
St Michael Barbados
All rights reserved

GENERAL COMMENTS
Candidates’ performance in the January 2008 sitting of Office Administration showed significant
improvement. Specific comments on the candidates’ performance willbe addressed separately under
each paper.
Three papers were offered at the General Proficiency level:
Paper 3/2 – Alternative to the SBA
The examination was designed to ensure broad coverage of the syllabus, and the objectives tested
were chosen from all the units.
The two profiles used in the assessment of Office Administration are Knowledge and Application.
These two profiles are tested in the Paper 01 examination. Candidates performance in this paper
improved significantly compared with performance in January 2006 and 2007. The mean of this
Paper in 2006 and 2007 was 38.34 and 36.46 respectively compared with 40 in 2008. This
improvement in performance is reflected in the overall improvement in the subject.
Paper 02 also assesses Knowledge and Application of procedures associated with specialized office
activities and office routines. The paper consists of The total mark for this paper is 90.
There are four compulsory questions in Section I based on Units I, II, III, IV, V, VI and XII. Section
II consists of four optional questions taken from Units VII, VIII, IX, X and XI. Candidates are
required to answer ONLY two questions from this section. For every sitting of the Office
Administration examination there are candidates who ignore this instruction and do allfour questions
in this section to their detriment.Teachers mustcontinue to encourage students to read the instructions
given on the examination paper.
Candidates’ overall performance in this paper compared with 2006 and 2007 was similar to their
performance in the Paper 01. There was an overall increase in the mean performance from 38.48
and 42.08 in 2006 and 2007 respectively to 45.10 in 2008.
This paper is a written examination that targets private candidates. These candidates are identified
as students who do not have the supervision of a teacher to complete the SBA project. The Paper is
worth 50 marks. It is designed to test the candidates’ ability to use their personal experiences on
routine office activities acquired through observation or from doing the actual office tasks as a real
employee. The paper consists of ten short answer questions based on an office case. For this
examination the case focused on Units I, II and XII of the syllabus.
While candidates’ performance in this paper improved i 2008 compared with 2007, the performance
in 2008 was very consistent with that in 2006.

It is noted that some areas of the syllabus tested in this paper continue to present a challenge to the
candidates. They, for instance, encounter great difficulty when they are asked to present information
graphically, though they are given the choice of selecting an appropriate means for presentation.
Each question in this paper is worth 15 marks. All the questions in Section I are compulsory.
Question 1
This question tested Module I (objective 3) and Module IV (objective 3c).
For Part (a),candidates were required to list two advantages and two disadvantages of conventional/
cellular and open plan layout ofthe office. This was worth 7 marks. Some candidates misunderstood
the term “cellular”; others gave disadvantages for advantages and vice versa.
For Part (b), candidates were required to draw an organization chart to show the relationship among
the Marketing Clerk, Graphic Artist, Marketing Manager and Promotion/Events Coordinator. This
was worth 5 marks. This segment of the question proved to be challenging to the majority of
candidates. Below is an example of an organization chart that would have been acceptable.
Example of an organization chart
(Graphic Artist and Marketing Clerk may be subordinate Events Coordinator)
(Marketing Clerk may be subordinate to Events Coordina or and Graphic Clerk)
Marketing
Manager
Marketing
Manager
Marketing
Clerk
Events
Coordinator
In Part (c), candidates were asked to list three procedures that may be used for dealing with the
visitor. This was worth 3 marks. Candidates demonstrated knowledge in this area and many were
able to gain full marks.
Marks for this question ranged from 0 -15 and the mean was 7.58. The Examiners recommend that
teachers expose students to the different terms used for the types of office and that they use pictures
to illustrate.Teachers should also use charts /diagrams to expose students to a variety of organization
charts.
DETAILED COMMENTS

Question 2
This question tested Module I (Objective 1cand 5), Module II(Objective 3) and Module V (Objective
3a).
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to describe two ways in which (a) obtaining information
and (b) conveying information can be achieved in an office. This was worth 4 marks.
For Part (a) (ii), candidates were asked to identify three skills that are essential to the clerk who is
performing the functions mentioned in (i) (a) and (b) This was worth 3 marks. Some
candidates identified traits/qualities instead of skills. This problem persists though it has been
emphasized in previous reports.
These two segments of this question were well done.
For Part (b) (i), candidates were required to draft a e of meeting to be sent out to sales
representatives. This was worth 3 marks. Most candidates were able to correctly present the notice
of meeting in an acceptable format. Many candidates neglected to indicate the name ofthe document
by placing the heading – NOTICE OF MEETING.
For Part (b) (ii), candidates were to prepare a checklist of five tasks that must be performed in
preparation for the meeting. This was worth 5 marks. The majority of candidates responded
satisfactorily to this part of the question. Marks ranged from 0 -15 and the mean was 9.24.
Question 3
This question tested Module II (Objective 10a) and Module III (Objective 2b.)
For Part (a) (i), candidates were to state two characteristics of facsimile and e-mail, which are
electronic channels of communication. This was worth marks. The majority of candidates provided
responses that were limited to the words ‘speed and fast’ as opposed to factors that relate to cost,
equipment, capabilities, time barriers.
For Part (a) (ii), candidates were to list three steps in the procedure for handling incoming mail.
This was worth 3 marks. The majority of candidates earned full marks. However, there were cases
where candidates responded in the form of an e-mail.A few candidates did not answer the question.
For Part (b) candidates were to arrange information in the geographical filing order. This was worth
8 marks. This part of the questions challenged many candidates who rearranged the information
and did not apply the principles of arranging informat in alphabeticalorder within the geographical
filing method.
Marks ranged from 0 -15and the mean was 8.16.
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Question 4
This question tested Module VI (Objective 1) and Module XII (Objectives 3 and 5).
For Part (a), candidates were to list three types of travel services that can be obtained from a travel
agency. This presented some difficulty to the candidates. This was worth 3 marks. The Examiners
recommend that part of the students learning experience should be to visit a travel agency in their
area to find out about the services offered.
For Part (b), candidates were asked to write a cover letter to apply for the vacant sales representative
position that was advertised. This was worth 8 marks. While the majority of candidates were able
to provide correct letter format, many neglected to indicate that the résumé was attached.
In Part (c), candidates were required to identify four factors that are to be considered before applying
for the vacancy that was advertised. This was worth 4 marks. This part of the question was generally
well done.
The overall performance in this question was satisfactory. Marks ranged from 0-14 and the mean
was 7.19.
Question 5
This question tested Module IX (Objective 6d) and Module VII (Objective 4b).
For Part (a), candidates were to list six ways in which the Optical Character Reader (OCR) can be
beneficial to the business. This was worth 6 marks. Candidates’ performance indicated that many
were unfamiliar with the term.
For Part (b), candidates were to use the headings ‘Job Summary, Accountable to, Work involved,
Knowledge and skills’ in the draft of a job description. Some candidates were able to provide
appropriate information under each heading, while others did not use the headings appropriately or
provided irrelevant information. This was worth 9 marks.
Candidates’ performance on this question was fair. While marks ranged from 0-15 most of the
candidates scored between 0-9.
Question 6
This question tested Module X (Objective 3f) and Module IX (Objectives 4a and 5a).
For Part(a) (i) candidates wereto list four advantages that can be derived from purchasing a risograph
for a school. This was worth 4 marks. Some responses evidence of candidates’ lack of
information on this piece of equipment.
For Part (a) (ii), candidates were to describe a situation in which it is more economical to use a
photocopier. To the candidates who were able to respond to Part (a) (i) this segment of the question
presented little difficulty. This was worth 2 marks.

For Part (b) (i), candidates were to use the form provided to complete a purchase order. This part of
the question was welldone. The majority of candidates obtained maximum marks. This was worth
7 marks.
For Part (b) (ii), candidates were asked to outline two stock control measures that the supervisor
can enforce to ensure that the stocks he ordered for the new school year are not stolen. The
performance on this part of the question was satisfactory. This was worth 2 marks.
This question was attempted by the majority of the candidates. Marks ranged from 0-14, and the
mean was 7.62.
Question 7
The question tested Module VII (Objective 5) and Module VIII (Objective 3).
For Part (a), candidates were asked to list three internal factors and three external factors that
contribute to high employee turnover in an organization. This was worth 6 marks. Some responses
indicated candidates’ inability to distinguish between internal and external factors.
For Part (b) (i), candidates were to complete the currency memorandum form provided. This was
worth 5 marks. This segment of the question was well done. In some instances however, some
candidates did not adhere to the instructions to use the highest denominations.
For Part (ii), candidates were required to prepare the cash summary for the bank. This was worth 4
marks. Many candidates failed to transfer the correct information from the currency memorandum
to the cash summary. Some incurred errors in the totaling process.
This question was also a popular optional question. Marks ranged from 0-15 and the mean was
8.70.
Question 8
This question tested Module VIII (Objective 1f) and Module XI (Objectives 3a and c).
For Part (a), candidates were to identify three types of bank accounts, and for each type identified,
they were to state one characteristic. It was worth 6 Some candidates were unable to satisfy
the requirements of the question.
For Part (b), candidates were to state the procedure to be followed in solving the problem of non
delivery of goods. Candidates were also asked to make recommendations to resolve the problem.
This was worth 9 marks. This segment was done fairly well. Marks ranged from 0-12 and the mean
was 5.24.

A short case was provided and candidates were required to read and respond to the 10 structured
questions asked. This paper was worth 50 marks.
The Case
The case was entitled ‘Keys to Employability Success’. It highlighted the life skills that young
people should possess as they embark upon the job market. The central idea of the case was that in
spite of the position sought and the academic and vocational abilities possessed, skills in critical
thinking, human relations, planning and organizing, co cation, decision-making, team-building
and ethics are also essential requirements.
Question 1
Candidates were required to state three questions on career choices that they would ask the career
guidance officer. This was worth 3 marks. The mean was 2.09. Some candidates wrote statements
rather than questions, while others asked questions relating to their career choice rather than those
of a general nature.
Question 2
Candidates were asked to develop a checklist of six ‘things to do’ to prepare for career week. This
was worth 6 marks. The mean was 2.96. The candidates fairly well to this question.
However, some candidates listed such items as pencils which are more suited for an
interview. Some candidates ignored the stem which should have been used to guide them in preparing
the checklist.
Question 3
Candidates were required to write a notice of a meeting to decide on the theme for the career
address. This was worth 4 marks. The mean was 2.50. Candidates’ responses to this question were
satisfactory. Many candidates, however, failed to include a heading for the notice. While the venue,
the time and date were in most cases included, the purpose of the meeting was often omitted.
Question 4
This question asked candidates to prepare a five item for the meeting to decide on the
theme. This was worth 5 marks. The mean was 2.56. This question was done fairly well. However,
many candidates neglected to name the document.
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Question 5
In this question, candidates were to prepare a press release to inform the school population and the
community of career week. This was worth 7 marks. The mean was 3.26. Many candidates seemed
unable to write a press release. Many gave unnecessary details and failed to include the pertinent
points that would have informed the school and community of career week.
Question 6
Candidates were asked to write a letter to thank the guest speaker for his presentation. This was
worth 7 marks. The mean was 4.50. Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory.
Candidates need to remember that they must follow the conventions of letter writing and include:
date, salutation and appropriate complimentary close. be provided using an
assumed name.
Question 7
Candidates were asked to draw a comparative graph to represent the data on expenditure for 2007
and 2008. This was worth 7 marks. The mean was 2.76. Many candidates failed to include a
heading for the graph and the names of the axises.
Question 8
This question asked candidates to outline two benefits to an organization of working as a team. This
was worth 2 marks. The mean was 1.58. Candidates’ responses to this question indicated an
understanding of teamwork and its benefits.
Question 9
Candidates were required to write two recommendations on improving career week. This question
was worth 2 marks. The mean was 1.05. The question was fairly well done; but some candidates
gave general recommendations for ensuring a successfulcareer weekignoring the part of the question
that indicated they should make recommendations to next year’s business students.
Question 10
This question asked candidates to complete the résumé form provided. This was worth 7 marks.
The mean was 5.87. The question was done well. Some candidates gave the name of the referees
but did not provide contact details such as addresses telephone number.
Candidates should acquire a personal copy of the syllabus and incorporate it in their examination
preparation process. They must also use the schools’ report which would highlight points that they
should use in their preparations. Teachers must continue to encourage students to do more practice
exercises.
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MAY/JUNE 2008
Copyright © 2008 Caribbean Examinations Council®

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MAY/JUNE 2008
GENERAL COMMENTS
There were some encouraging responses to questions in all three papers of the General Proficiency
Examination.
The performance in questions testing the compulsory units of the syllabus improved over that of past
years. While there were encouraging responses to the compulsory units as well as some of the
optional units some candidates continue to produce unsatisfactory work. These areas are addressed in
the detailed comments on individual questions.
The two profiles used in the assessment of Office Administration are Knowledge and Application.
These two profiles are tested in the Paper 01 examination. Candidates’ performance in this paper
declined. The mean performance in 2008 is 31.75 compared with 35.54 in 2007.
Paper 02 – Essay
Paper 02 also assesses Knowledge and Application of procedures associated with specialized office
activities and office routines. The paper consists of two sections. The paper contributes 90 marks to
the entire examination. There are four compulsory questions in Section I based on Units I, II, III, IV,
V, and XII.
Section II consisted of four optional questions taken from Units VII, VIII, IX, X and XI. While
candidates’ performance in the Paper 01 declined performance in Paper 02 improved. The mean of
Paper 02 in 2008 was 45.61 compared with 40.56 in 2007.
This paper took the form of a written examination that targeted candidates who would have difficulty
completing SBA projects as school candidates. The paper was designed to test the candidates’ ability
to use their personal experiences on routine office activities acquired through observation or from
doing the actual office tasks as a real employee to solve office related problems. The paper consisted
of ten short essay-type questions based on an office case. For this examination the case focused on
Units II, VII and XII of the syllabus. Candidates’ performance in this paper declined compared with
2007. In 2008 the mean score was 20.68 compared with 28.59 in 2007.
DETAILED COMMENTS
Paper 02 - Essay
Section I – Compulsory Questions
Question 1
This question tested Module I, Objective 1 and Module II, Objective 10.

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In Part (a), candidates were asked to state two other ways apart from through e-mail, that information
is distributed (i) within an organization, and (ii) to customers. This was worth 2 marks each.
For Part (b), candidates were required to list three basic skills that are required of a general office
clerk in a modern office. It was worth 3 marks.
For Part (c), candidates were provided with a scenario for which they were to compose an e-mail
message. This was worth 8 marks. In some instances many candidates did not use the information
provided in the stimulus in the e-mail messages. In other instances, some candidates wrote letters or
neglected to use the assumed name.
Marks ranged from 0 – 15, and the mean was 9.19.
Question 2
This question tested Module II, Objective 6 and Module XII, Objective 3.
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to give the meaning of the terms (i) telephone etiquette and
(ii) ‘smile with your voice’. This was worth 4 marks.
For Part (b), candidates were asked to list three categories of information contained in a telephone
directory. This was worth 3 marks. Many candidates overlooked the word “categories” and resorted
to listing any three items of information such as telephone numbers, addresses and names of
subscribers.
For Part (c), candidates were required to use an assumed name to write a letter of application in
response to an advertisement. This was worth 8 marks. In many instances the body of the letter was
well done; however, some candidates were unable to provide appropriate letter format which included
the date, an appropriate salutation and complimentary close in addressing the human resource
manager. Some even wrote memos.
The overall performance in this question was satisfactory. The mean for this question was 8.80
Question 3
This question tested Module V, Objectives 1 and 2 and Module IV, Objective 2.
In Part (a), candidates were asked to define the terms ‘adjourn’ and ‘motion’ as they relate to
meetings. This was worth 2 marks each. Candidates’ responses indicate that they had very little
knowledge of these terms that are associated with meetings.
For Part (b), candidates were required to identify three reasons why departmental meetings are
important to staff. It was worth 3 marks. This part of the question was well done.
For Part (c), (i), candidates were provided with a checklist format that they were to copy into their
answer booklet. A scenario indicated that a Procedures Manual was being developed to train new
employees in customer relations. Candidates were to indicate six steps to be followed when screening
and receiving visitors. In many instances candidates misinterpreted the question and did not provide
the requirements for screening and receiving visitors. In other instances where steps were provided
they were not listed in the proper order. This was worth 6 marks.
For Part (c), (ii), candidates were to write brief instructions for using the checklist. Most candidates
obtained full marks for this section of the question. This was worth 2 marks.

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Question 4
This question tested Module III, Objectives 1, 2 and 5.
In Part (a), candidates were asked to identify three stages in the information cycle of a records
management system. This was worth 3 marks.
For Part (b), candidates were required to list four types of supplies used in the storage of records. It
was worth 4 marks.
For Part (c), candidates were asked to arrange a list of potential providers in (i) indexing order and (ii)
in filing order. This was worth 4 marks each. Many candidates were unable to arrange information in
the indexing order. Instances that posed a challenge were the placement of ‘The’, ‘St’, and ‘&’.
Attempts to place the list in filing order was equally challenging to some candidates. It is evident
that more practice is required in these activities in spite of the fact that this type of question has been
repeated over the years.
Question 5
This question which was the most popular of the optional section, tested Module VII, Objectives 1
and 4 and Module VIII, Objective 5.
In Part (a), candidates were asked to state three situations in the workplace that may result in the need
for disciplinary action by the human resource department. The majority of candidates provided
appropriate responses. This was worth 3 marks.
For Part (b), candidates were required to list three pieces of information that are included in a
Contract of Employment. This segment of the question was well done. It was worth 3 marks.
For Part (c), candidates were provided with information on a payroll. They were to use the form
provided to complete in (i) the wage cash analysis sheet. They were advised to use the highest
denomination in each case. Some candidates did not adhere to this requirement and were not awarded
marks in this instance. This was worth 6 marks.
In (ii) candidates were to complete the withdrawal slip for the total sum of money to be withdrawn.
This was worth 3 marks.
Question 6
This question tested Module X, Objectives 1, 2 and 3, and Module IX, Objective 6 (c).
For Part (a), candidates were required to state three functions of the sales clerk in engaging in
customer follow-up. It was worth 3 marks.
In Part (b), candidates were asked to state three ways in which the facscimile, answering machine or
risograph contribute to efficiency in the sales and marketing office. This was worth 3 marks.
For Part (c), candidates were provided with a stock record card. They were asked to calculate the
value of closing stock using the LIFO method of stock valuation. This was worth 9 marks.
Candidates were reminded to show workings in the answer booklet however, many continue to be
challenged by this type of question and do not provide workings.

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Question 7
This question tested Module IX, Objectives 3 and 6, and Module X, Objectives 1 and 2.
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to name the bar code symbol that was provided. It
was worth 1 mark.
In Part (a), (ii), candidates were to state two ways in which the bar code symbol is used in stock
control. This was worth 2 marks.
In Part (b), candidates were asked to identify three documents that are used in the purchasing
procedure. This was worth 3 marks.
For Part (c), candidates were provided with a scenario where they were asked to develop a new
portfolio of promotional strategies for the latest cellular telephone. In (i) they were to state four
promotional activities that may be organized for the launch of the cellular telephone. This was worth
4 marks.
In (ii), candidates were to prepare an advertisement on any media to inform buyers about the cellular
telephone’s latest technology, size, appearance, availability and price. This was worth 5 marks.
Question 7 was not well done. Teachers should expose students to actual copies of these documents
so they become familiar with them.
Question 8
This question which was the least popular of those selected. It tested Module X, Objective 1 and
Module XI, Objectives 1, 2 and 3.
For Part (a), candidates were required to identify three functions of the factory office. It was worth 3
marks. This was well done. Many candidates scored full marks.
In Part (b), candidates were asked to list three documents used when sending air freight to another
country. This was worth 3 marks. This part of the question was also well done.
For Part (c), candidates were provided with a job cost card. In (i) they were asked to show the
procedure used to calculate the total costs, factory overheads, total costs of job and cost per unit. This
was worth 5 marks. This part of the question proved to be difficult for the candidates. Some
candidates explained the steps instead of calculating the total cost of the job. Candidates generally do
not do well on the questions requiring simple calculations. Teachers are encouraged to provide ample
opportunities in the classroom for students to work with numbers.
In (ii), candidates were to calculate whether there will be a profit or loss at the price of $10.00 that he
plans to sell the t-shirts, and if so, how much. This was worth 2 marks.
In (iii), candidates were asked to state two reasons for the production manager’s liaising with the
accounts department on this job.

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Question 1
This question required to candidates list three (3) functions that are usually performed in schools’
administrative processes:
Record Keeping
Word Processing
Updating Accounts
This question was worth 6 marks.
Many candidates did not approach the focus on the functions usually involved in the processes listed.
They often defined the terms used and stated their advantages; therefore, they scored the minimum
marks.
Question 2
Most candidates answered this question in a general sense not relating it to job entry-level positions.
They knew that from the Business Studies Programme in school, some of the activities that took place
in the world of work, and to some extent, information obtained in the case study. Some candidates
were able to score the full 3 marks allotted to this question.
Question 3
Many candidates misinterpreted this question which required that they state the contributions that can
be made by certain job positions, in achieving the organization’s goals. The responses were mainly
based on what new positions they could achieve, and not on the duties the individuals had to perform
to contribute to the achievement of the organization’s goals. They knew the attitudes, attributes and
skills required but could not say in any intelligible manner, how these would advance the position of
the organization. They mentioned that the clerical assistant could become a manager and the bank
teller a financial analyst, but not how the entry level position helped the business, immediately. Out
of a possible 8 marks, most candidates scored 4.
Question 4
This question required candidates to chart data given. Some drew a line graph or histogram, on the
graph paper provided. Generally the graphs were not labelled for the most part, and if they were, they
were done only on one axis. The intervals were inconsistent, and some candidates merely used the
data given to them and failed to put any intervals in between. Many candidates failed to insert the title
for the graph, label the axes, use appropriate intervals or plot the data properly. Few candidates were
able to score the 5 marks allotted to this question. Most were able to score 2 – 4 marks.
Question 5
This question called for candidates to state the activities a person should engage in, to remain
competitive in the job market, but they seemed to place emphasis on a company’s attempts to remain
competitive in the marketplace. This resulted in candidates failing to score or at most getting 0 – 2
marks for the question. A few candidates, however, managed to obtain 3 marks.
Question 6
Candidates were required to consider the focus of guidance counseling but they examined instead the
considerations in seeking employment.

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Question 7
Candidates were required to write a letter. The scores for this question ranged from 3 – 7. Few
candidates scored the full 7 marks allotted. They were not clear on the proper complimentary closing
to use with a specific salutation. They often left out the return address, or the date and the inside
address. Many candidates were able to zero in on what the question asked and to compose a letter,
albeit with poor grammar and punctuation.
Question 8
This question gave candidates the opportunity to be creative and to structure questions that may be
addressed in a training programme to meet the needs of the organization. Some candidates focused
on the type of question that elicited the needs of the organization and the needs of the workers. Many
of them failed to determine what the criteria would be.
Question 9
The responses to this question were satisfactory. They had the general idea of the response by stating
that through customer relations and employee satisfaction, a company can be profitable. Some of the
responses were poorly expressed.
Question 10
This section seemed widely known and allowed candidates to express themselves. They stated that
through work experience, there should be attitude change, but this point was expressed in a variety of
ways, yielding in the end, only one answer. Many failed to differentiate between employee and
employer benefits.
School-Based Assessment
The School-Based Assessment component of the Office Administration Syllabus is designed to give
candidates an opportunity to apply skills, knowledge and attributes and attitudes acquired in Office
Administration classes, during the secondary school experience, in a practical manner. This is
demonstrated by the compilation of a project which synthesizes skills in letter writing, structuring a
questionnaire, developing a work plan, observing equipment employed in business, gathering
information by means of reading, via the internet, through interviews and analyzing data obtained
noting the strengths, weaknesses and limitations. This is then compiled in a report complete with title
page, table of contents and bibliography.
In general, candidates were able to present the Title Page with the required information such as
names of: the teacher, school, candidate, examination body and the subject under examination.
Table of Contents: Most candidates displayed sections as per the marking scheme in left-hand
column, with page numbers aligned in the right-hand column. Very few candidates used leader dots
to align the Content with the Page Numbers.
Stated the title of the project: Some of the topics selected were often not carefully structured. They
were too broad and in some cases outside the scope of the syllabus. This topic must be related to
objectives in the syllabus and framed in a manner to indicate that the candidate is examining or
researching some specific area which has some educational or social value from which (s)he will
learn. They should not be too broadly stated, thus creating an overwhelming workload for the
candidate.
Aims: The aims must be stated clearly. It must state precisely what the candidate is setting out to
do. Many candidates failed to state these in a manner which tied them in to the title of the project.

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Functions: This should be the function of the department under observation as relates to the title of
the project. Many candidates did not gain full marks in this area.
Correspondence: Many candidates failed to follow the general principle in letter writing. This
should be a letter composed by the candidates seeking permission to carry out the research. In
instances where the letter is written as a form letter by the school, candidates are required to write
their own letter stating the objective to be achieved by the individual researcher. Attention must be
paid to the format of the letter: return address, date, addressee, salutation and complimentary close,
paragraphing, grammar, enclosure. The letter should be signed by the writer.
Methodology: Apart from the specimen, the candidates are required to submit particulars of why that
particular instrument was chosen instead of some other method of gathering information for the
project. They are also required to explain how they used the instrument. This section was poorly
done by most candidates as they failed to justify use of the instrument.
Questions: This was done satisfactorily by most candidates. Few failed to submit relevant questions.
The questions were often taken off the Questionnaire.
Schedule of Activities: Most candidates submitted a schedule of activities. Most candidates listed
the sequence as they progressed through the research, and made appropriate comments. In some
cases, it was evident that candidates were unsure of what was required of them, and listed less than
the minimum required activities, and excluded the comments column.
Regulations/Policies: Evidence of a piece of legislation is designed to sensitize candidates to an
awareness of the laws governing the workplace. It would be useful therefore if they would obtain a
copy of the relevant legislation or make reference to the specific regulation and what is it intended to
do. The same would apply to the policies of the organization and rule relating to employees and
which the candidate was subject to.
Candidates should know how to differentiate the following:
Legislation (or statutory law) is law which has been enacted by the governing body and actively
regulates the operation of the business. Examples are the Company Act, Shop and Factory Act, Sex
Discrimination Act, Equal Opportunity for Women in the Workplace Act.
Policies on the other hand, are a deliberate plan of action to guide decisions and achieve goals.
Policy may also refer to the important organizational decisions, such as spending priorities, and
choosing among them on the basis of the impact they will have. There may be management, financial,
and administrative policies, designed to reach explicit goals. For example, an organization may
accept a legal and moral obligation to ensure that staff are not subjected to Sex Discrimination,
through harassment, bullying or workplace violence by ensuring that in the event of alleged
discrimination, harassment, bullying or workplace violence, a staff member, or their representative,
may refer the matter to the human resource manager or notify a shop steward1.
Many large companies have policies that all purchases above a certain value must be performed
through a purchasing process. By requiring this standard purchasing process through policy, the
organization can limit waste and standardize the way purchasing is done.
Staff Rule: These rules are generally established by management and apply to all staff or categories
of staff, except where specifically provided and may include the candidate who is doing the research.
An example with regards to Court Employees: Court employees shall not solicit, accept or agree to
accept any gifts or gratuities from attorneys or other persons having or likely to have any official
transaction with the court system2
.
1
http://www.newcastle.edu.au/policylibrary
2
http://www.nycourts.gov/courtinterpreter

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Presentation: While some candidates presented a well written report, many wrote brief notes on the
findings. This should be well written, synthesizing the entire project. Many candidates were not able
to state what they had accomplished by doing the research. They seemed able to express the
challenges they encountered, but were unable to do the same with the problem-solving strategy to
overcome the challenges.
Business forms: The business form used in the project must be related to the business under
consideration. Some candidates simply included forms that had no relevance to what they set out to
do. The forms and the title must be related.
Bibliography: Most candidates failed in getting the maximum marks allotted for this section as they
incompletely listed either the literature or the books read.
(With 3 writers)
Below is an example of the correct format for the bibliographic entries.
Finisterre, S., Payne, L & Reid, J. (2004) Longman Office Administration for CXC. Pearson
Education Limited, England.
Hewitt, Les, Andrew Hewitt, and Luc d'Abadie. The Power of Focus for College
Students. Deerfield Beach, FL: Health Communications, 2005.
(With 1 writer)
MLA Handbook for writers of research papers, theses, and dissertations , (New York: MLA, 1977)
Gen. Ref. Z 253
Rowling, J. K. Harry Potter and the Chamber of Secrets. New York: Scholastic, 1999
(Person interviewed or resource person)
Ms. Johenn Almanzar
Purchasing Manager
School Supplies Incorporated
Nukes, Lethem, Guyana
Website visited: http://www.newcastle.edu.au/policylibrary
http://www.nycourts.gov/courtinterpreter
http://www.caricom.org
Whereas some candidates may not have access to each media, the medium used should be stated
correctly.
Office Equipment: As required by the mark scheme on-line and in the syllabus, the equipment
stated in the SBA, must be equipment observed or used in the business studied. Candidates are
required to list the equipment, state its use, and its suitability for the specific function, in the business
under consideration, be it an office or a factory. Most candidates referred to the equipment employed
by them in the preparation of the SBA.
The Caribbean Examinations Council provides a detailed Mark Scheme which was posted on their
website in January 2008, outlining the tasks, criteria and marks for each section. The total score for
the research project is 50 marks and accounts for 25% of the final mark in the Office Administration
examination.

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It is evident that there are some teachers who are not familiar with the revised mark scheme as the
projects were not in compliance with the current requirements.
Marks for the SBA this year ranged from 13 – 50. Those who scored high exhibited extensive
research skills on the topic they had selected, whereas those who obtained low marks, generally did
not comply with the requirements of the syllabus.
The weaknesses identified included:
· Failure to attach to the project, the mark scheme showing how the candidate was marked
· As it related to the major accomplishments/findings, candidates failed to make the connection
with the aims identified
· Some schools submitted SBAs that were based on the 2004 syllabus and mark scheme.
· With regards to methodology, there is no clear definition about how candidates gathered the
data. For example how long it took to administer and collect data, how many persons were in
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that the stipulated guidelines in the current syllabus are being followed
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project.
· Create a glossary of commonly used terms
· Give more exposure to Paper3/2 type question
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· Preparation of letters for various occasions
· Development of observation and research skills
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2
GENERAL COMMENTS
The General Proficiency Office Administration examination is offered in January and May/June
each year. Three papers were offered at the General Proficiency level:
Paper 3/2 – Alternative to School Based Assessment (SBA)
In January 2010 approximately 1,720 candidates registered for the General Proficiency
examination, compared with approximately 920 in 2009. About 51 per cent of the candidates
achieved Grades I to III, compared with 75 per cent in 2009. The mean score for the examination
was 83.2 out of a maximum available score of 200.
Candidates’ performance in the 2010 examination declined compared with January 2009. The
mean for this paper was 33.8 compared with 36.5 in January 2009. The maximum score was 55
out of a maximum available score of 60.
This paper consisted of two sections. Section I comprised four compulsory questions covering
Modules I–VI and Module XII. Section II consisted of four optional questions taken from
Modules VII-XI. Knowledge and the application of procedures associated with specialized office
activities and office routines were tested. Candidates were required to answer two questions from
Section II. The overall mean for this paper was 34.0 compared with 39.2 in 2009. The maximum
score was 69 out of a maximum available score of 90.
Paper 03/2 – Alternative to SBA
This paper took the form of a written examination that targeted private candidates who would not
have the opportunity to complete SBA projects as school candidates. The paper was designed to
test the candidates’ ability to use their personal experiences on routine office activities acquired
through observation or from doing the actual office tasks as a real employee. The paper consisted
of ten questions based on an office case. For this examination the case focused on Unit V of the
syllabus.
In this paper, candidates’ performance was unsatisfactory. It is noted that some areas continue to
challenge candidates and affect their overall performance. The mean score for this paper was
14.9 compared with 24.9 in 2009. The maximum score was 36 out of a maximum available score
of 50.

3
DETAILED COMMENTS
Compulsory Section
Question 1
This question tested Module I, Objectives 1, 2 (a, b) and Objective 5 (e).
For Part (a), candidates were required to list four functions of the office in an organization.
Candidates were generally able to identify two to three functions and gave responses such as
‘collecting’, ‘processing’, ‘disseminating’ and ‘distributing’. This section of the question was
worth 4 marks.
For Part (b), candidates were required to state three ways in which an office worker can manage
time effectively in the organization. This segment of the question proved to be challenging to
some candidates as they were only able to give one correct response. However, expected
responses included “working in an organized and systematic manner” and “analyzing how to be
most effective in performing tasks”. Part (b) was worth 3 marks.
In Part (c), candidates were to given an organizational chart to answer three questions in the
Application component. Candidates were required to use the chart to respond to the following
questions:
(i) To whom is the senior warehouse clerk responsible? (1 mark)
(ii) State four facts which the organizational chart illustrates about the sales and
marketing department of the company. (4 marks)
(iii) State two advantages and one disadvantage of the organizational plan. (3 marks).
This section was worth a total of 8 marks.
In Part (c) (i), some candidates read ‘to whom’ incorrectly and gave responses reflecting ‘for
whom’. For Part (c) (ii), most candidates were able to state two of the four facts and gave correct
responses such as: ‘There is a broad lower level’; ‘there are three levels in the line and staff
arrangement of the organization’, and ‘the marketing manager supervises the senior warehouse
clerk and senior sales clerk.’ Candidates responded to Part (c) (iii) satisfactorily and scored at
least two of the three marks allotted. Marks obtained for this question ranged from 0 to 14 with a
mean of 5.82.
Question 2
This question tested Module II, Objective 1 (a–d), and Objective 13 (i) (a–e).
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to state two ways in which teleconferencing and video
conferencing facilities are similar and two ways in which they are different. For the similarities,
candidates were able to state correct responses such as: ‘Both are methods of conducting

4
meetings or conferences’; ‘they serve different locations simultaneously’, and ‘they save, time,
money, and travel’. This section of the question was worth 4 marks.
For Part (a) (ii) which was worth 3 marks, candidates were asked to state three ways the
organization will benefit from using video conferencing. The majority of candidates indicated
that they were familiar with this aspect of the syllabus and gave responses such as: ‘Time is
saved’; ‘persons can multi-task’, and ‘user’s own facility may be used’.
In Part (b), candidates were given an extract from an electronic mail from which they were
required to draft a response, giving the procedures for handling incoming mail. Most candidates
were able to correctly identify the sender and receiver of the e-mail. In addition, they were able
to give an appropriate subject and list 3–4 correct procedures for handling incoming mail.
However, some candidates failed to include information on remittances as part of the procedures.
Part (b) was worth 8 marks.
Many candidates responded satisfactorily on this question with their marks ranging from 0 to 15
with a mean of 5.52.
Question 3
This question tested Module III, Objective 3 (c–d) and Objective 5 (a–m).
In Part (a) (i), worth 4 marks, candidates were expected to list two pieces of equipment and two
types of supplies that are used in records management. The majority of candidates provided
correct responses for the equipment such as: ‘filing cabinets’ and ‘computers’; and ‘file folders’,
‘index cards’ and ‘treasury tags’ as correct responses for supplies. In some instances, however,
candidates could not differentiate between ‘equipment’ and ‘supplies’ and even listed items of
furniture as equipment.
For Part (a) (ii), candidates were to identify three legal stipulations that regulate what information
is stored in files. This section was poorly done by the majority of candidates. Candidates gave
responses such as ‘copyright’ and ‘breach of confidence’. This was worth 3 marks.
For Part (c) which was worth 8 marks, candidates were given a scenario and required to write a
memorandum to the records manager informing her of the situation and to suggest three ways of
solving the problem. This part of the question was satisfactorily done by most candidates.
However, some candidates failed to utilize the correct format for writing a memo. Others who
attempted the correct format failed to include the positions of the receiver and sender of the
memorandum and to include an appropriate subject.
Marks obtained for this question ranged from 0 to 15 with a mean of 6.59.
Question 4
This question tested Module V, Objective 1 (a), Objective 3 (a–c) and Objective 5 (a–d).
Part (a), worth 4 marks, required candidates to state four items of business that usually appear on
an agenda. This part of the question was done satisfactorily by candidates whose responses
included ‘apologies’, ‘minutes’ and ‘any other business’.

5
For Part (b), candidates were asked to list three legal requirements of the annual general meeting
of an organization. While some candidates were able to provide correct responses, many could
not state responses such as: ‘must be held once per year’; ‘payment of dividends’ and ‘21 clear
days notice’. This part of the question was worth 3 marks.
In Part (c) (i), candidates were required to copy a ‘To Do List’ table in their answer booklet and
complete it. This part of the question proved challenging to candidates and, hence, was done
unsatisfactorily. Candidates were required to complete two columns in the table to indicate the
‘Actions’ and ‘Resources’ required as follow-up activities after the sales team had completed its
quarterly meetings. Part (c) (i) was worth 6 marks. (Sample responses are given in the table
below.)
Activities to be Performed Action Required to Complete
Task
Resources Needed
(a) Ensure that the meeting room
is restored
Check/visit the room Human resources/people/physical
resources, e.g. cleaning materials
(b) Filing of minutes in
chronological order
Obtain minutes, place in file
by date order
Information, file system
(c) Circulation of minutes and
action sheets to members of
the sales team
Obtain minutes, action sheet Computer, photocopier, e-mail
addresses
In Part (c) (ii), candidates were required to state two possible consequences of the sales team’s
failure to take follow-up actions suggested at a previous meeting. Most candidates were able to
give one correct response to include: ‘poor performance records’, ‘meeting goals will not be
achieved’ or ‘members may be reprimanded or disciplined’. This part of the question was worth
2 marks.
Marks obtained for this question ranged from 0 to 14 and the mean was 5.23.
Optional Section
Question 5
This question tested Module IX, Objective 1 (a-b)) and Module X, Objective 2 (a).
Part (a) (i), worth 3 marks, asked candidates to state three functions of the purchasing office.
Some candidates provided correct responses such as: ‘preparing index of suppliers’, ‘sourcing of
suppliers’, ‘placing of contracts’ and ‘management of stock’.
For Part (a) (ii), candidates were to identify three main types of purchases that are made by a
company. Candidates’ performance indicated that many were not familiar with the different
types of purchases that are made by a company. These are: ‘purchases that the business keeps,
for example, equipment/assets; purchases to use in the running of the business such as
stationery/expenses; purchases to sell, for example, furniture/stock; and purchases to process into
a product to sell, such as raw materials’. Part (a) (ii) was worth 3 marks.

6
For Part (b) (i) which was worth 7 marks, candidates were to use the form provided to complete
the invoice to reflect the sales transactions of a large wholesale company. Candidates performed
satisfactorily in this section, earning between 2 and 7 marks.
Parts (b) (ii and iii) required candidates to calculate discounts if paid within a specific time
period. Most candidates demonstrated competence in this part of the question which was worth 2
marks.
This question was the most popular optional question. Marks obtained for this question ranged
from 0 to 15 and the mean was 7.43.
Question 6
This question tested Module XI, Objective 3 (a-l).
For Part (a), worth 3 marks, candidates were to list three items of information that are placed on a
destination sheet. Performance in this section of the question was fair. Most candidates were
unable to give appropriate responses such as: ‘details of the vehicle to be used; its registration
number; description of the goods being delivered; and the name of the driver/assistant’.
For Part (b), candidates were required to state three reasons for providing the driver of the vehicle
with a delivery schedule on a daily basis. Candidates performed satisfactorily in this section,
giving responses such as: ‘giving route details and details of delivery to be made’; ‘loading the
truck in the sequence of delivery and avoiding the need for double back of routes’. This part of
the question was worth 3 marks.
For Part (c), candidates were to draw a flowchart to show the movement of the eight documents
that are required for overseas delivery. Most candidates failed to draw the flowchart to indicate
the eight documents required for overseas trade. In most instances, candidates could only
identified three or four of the documents. Part (c) was worth 7 marks.
This was the least popular optional question. The marks obtained by candidates for this question
ranged from 0 to 9 and the mean was 3.54.
Question 7
The question tested Module VII, Objective 2 (a–c), Module VIII, Objective 7 (a–g) and Objective
8 (a–b).
For Part (a) (i), candidates were asked to identify three personnel records that are maintained by
the clerk in the human resource office. Candidates performed satisfactorily in this section,
indicating responses such as: ‘job letters’, ‘service records’, ‘appraisal forms’ and ‘disciplinary
records’. This section of the question was worth 3 marks.
For Part (a) (ii), candidates were to list three duties that a clerk in the human resource office must
perform in preparation for the conduct of interviews. This segment of the question was fairly well
done and the majority of candidates were able to include among their responses: ‘send letters to
invite short listed applicants to an interview’; ‘make arrangements for a suitable room’; ‘welcome
those to be interviewed and show them to the interview room’. This part of the question was
worth 3 marks.

7
In Part (b) (i), worth 3 marks, candidates were given an assumed name with a chequing account at
a commercial bank, and having received a bank statement, they were required to explain three
transactions conducted on specified dates. This section of the question was unsatisfactorily done.
Part (b) (ii) (a) required candidates to give the possible reason why a cheque that was issued to an
individual on a particular date was not listed in the bank statement. Candidates performed
satisfactorily on this segment of the question, stating correctly that the cheque was not entered in
the bank statement and was issued after the statement was prepared/sent out. Correct responses
were worth 1 mark.
Part (b) (ii) (b) required candidates to give a reason why a cheque that was received and deposited
in a chequing account was not recorded on the bank statement. Many candidates gave the correct
response indicating that the cheque was not presented within the period covered by the statement,
and will appear on the following month’s statement. This part of the question was worth 1 mark.
For Part (b) (ii) (c), candidates were required to use a form to prepare a Bank Reconciliation
Statement. Candidates performed satisfactorily in this section which was worth 4 marks.
Question 8
This question tested Module X, Objective 2 (a–c) and Objective 3 (a–g) and Module IX,
Objective 3 (e).
For Part (a), candidates were to state three duties performed by a clerk in the sales and marketing
office. Candidates performed fairly well in this section, giving correct responses such as: ‘sending
out price lists and quotations’; ‘sending out samples of products’, and ‘dealing with customer
inquiries’. This part of the question was worth 3 marks.
Part (b) required candidates to list three pieces of equipment that will assist personnel in the
performance of their duties. This part was done fairly well as some candidates gave correct
responses such as calculators, duplicators, computers, bar code readers and cash registers. Part (b)
was worth 3 marks.
For Part (c) (i), worth 6 marks, candidates were required to respond to an advertisement,
indicating six points to improve the company’s catalogues and price lists. This section was done
unsatisfactorily as responses such as ‘glossy pages’; ‘book format’; ‘description of items’,
‘conditions of purchase’ and ‘availability’ were not indicated.
For Part (c) (ii), candidates were required to state three ways in which Teen Tyme Fashion
Statement can use e-commerce to expand its business opportunities. Generally, this part was
unsatisfactorily done. Responses such as: ‘place prices on its website’; ‘give free samples’; ‘set
prices’ and ‘have competitions/prizes’, were invariably, not indicated. Part (c) (ii) was worth 3
marks.

8
Paper 03/2 - Alternative to SBA
A short case was provided and candidates were required to read and respond to 10 structured
questions. This paper was worth 50 marks. The mean for this paper was 14.89.
The Case
The case highlighted the importance and requirements of an annual General Meeting (AGM).
The central idea of the case was that an AGM is required by law and must be properly arranged,
planned for and executed. Candidates were required to apply analytical and evaluative skills to
respond appropriately to the questions asked.
Question 1
Candidates were required to develop a six-point checklist using a form to include a plan of tasks
to be done at an AGM on the day before, day of, and day after the meeting. This part of the
question was done satisfactorily. For the day before the AGM, candidates gave correct responses
such as: ‘book meeting venue/room’, ‘order refreshments and prepare the chairman’s agenda’.
For the day of the meeting, responses such as: ‘ensure the meeting room is ready’, ‘distribute
refreshments’, and ‘place “meeting in progress” notice on the meeting room door’ were given;
and on the day after the meeting, candidates gave correct responses such as: ‘prepare draft
minutes for approval by the chairman and type any correspondence resulting from the meeting’.
This question was worth 6 marks. The mean was 3.02.
Question 2
Candidates were asked to arrange seating of four members, given a seating plan. This section
posed a challenge to many candidates as they were able to seat only two members correctly, that
is, the chairman and the recording secretary adjacent to him. This question was worth 4 marks
and had a mean of 1.12.
Question 3
Candidates were required to prepare a combined notice and agenda for the AGM, using the
information given in the case, and were to include four of the usual AGM items. Performance in
this section revealed that some candidates were not competent in the preparation of a combined
notice and agenda. In some instances, the names for ‘Notice of Annual General Meeting’ and
‘Agenda’ were omitted, so too were basic AGM items, such as ‘chairman’s welcome’, ‘election
of officers’, ‘any other business’. This question was worth 8 marks. The mean mark was 2.03.
Question 4
This question asked candidates to prepare a glossary of three meeting terms. Performance in this
section was unsatisfactory as many candidates failed to give correct ‘meeting’ definitions for:
‘Point of order’; ‘Ad hoc’ and ‘Lie on the table’, with the latter being misinterpreted and a
response given to indicate ‘not in a meeting setting’. This question was worth 3 marks. The mean
was 0.16.

9
Question 5
In this question, worth 4 marks, candidates were asked to provide some guidance to assistants on
how to take minutes. Some candidates performed fairly well in this section and gave correct
responses such as: ‘note time meeting started and ended’, ‘record all decisions made’ and
‘summarize the main points of the arguments as the meeting progresses’. The mean was 1.08.
Question 6
Candidates were asked to prepare the minutes, using information from an excerpt of the Board of
Director’s meeting. Weaknesses observed in this question revealed failure by the majority of
candidates to include a heading containing the ‘Minutes’, ‘type of meeting’, ‘place’, ‘time’ and
‘date’; identify those present at the meeting using the names given in the excerpt and write the
paragraphs in reported speech using good grammar and standard English. This question was
worth 8 marks. The mean was 1.60.
Question 7
For this question, candidates were asked to state the reasons a given proxy form was being
submitted at the AGM. Many candidates performed unsatisfactorily on this question as they
failed to give responses such as: ‘the person has authorized in writing another member to vote on
her behalf, for verification and future reference’. This question was worth 4 marks. The mean
was 1.55.
Question 8
This question required candidates to write questions that could be included on the questionnaire
as a result of shareholders’ dwindling attendance at the AGM over a number of years. Many
candidates were able to give two or more correct responses such as: ‘Do you find the meeting
informative and interesting?’ ‘Do you feel that your contributions are accepted or ignored?’
‘What can be done to encourage more shareholders to attend the AGM?’ This question was
worth 5 marks. The mean was 2.21.
Question 9
Candidates were required to state the factors they think contribute to the high absenteeism at the
AGM. Many candidates attempted this question and gave correct responses such as: ‘insufficient
advance notice of meeting’; ‘busy work schedule’; ‘distance of venue for meeting’; and ‘manner
in which the AGM is conducted’. This question was worth 4 marks. The mean was 1.81.
Question 10
This question required candidates to give recommendations for improving the attendance at the
AGM. Some candidates who attempted this question gave correct responses such as: “begin and
finish proceedings on time; send out notices 21 clear days before the meeting; include a feature
address to encourage attendance and educate shareholders on importance and value of attending
the meeting. This was worth 4 marks. The mean was 1.26.
The overall performance on the paper was unsatisfactory. Marks obtained for this question ranged
from 0 to 36 out of a total of 50.

10
1. Success in the Office Administration examination requires not just familiarity with
the content, but also the ability to apply the knowledge and skills to the principles,
policies and procedures associated with specialized office activities and in unfamiliar
circumstances. Candidates should, therefore, relate and align the content studied to
the authentic experiences in the office environment while incorporating current
technologies, trends and practices.
2. Candidates should acquire a personal copy of the syllabus and other support resource
materials and incorporate them diligently in their examination preparation process.
3. Ministries of education and other relevant agencies should collaborate to plan and
execute workshops/seminars for private candidates to give them exposure to the types
of questions in Paper 03/2 and added practice in answering questions appropriately,
paying attention to scope, sequence, grammar, spelling and presentation.
4. Periodic training must be given to teachers, particularly new and inexperienced
teachers, in the marking and awarding of marks for internal and external
examinations as well as in interpreting mark schemes and keys to allocate marks.

MAY/JUNE 2010
GENERAL PROFICIENCY

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GENERAL COMMENTS
The Office Administration examination is offered in January and May/June each year. There was a
candidate entry of approximately 17,800 in May/June 2010. Seventy-eight per cent of the candidates
achieved Grades I – III. The mean score for the examination was 106.67 out of 200 marks.
DETAILED COMMENTS
Paper 01 consisted of 60 multiple choice items. The mean on the paper was 32.18 and the marks ranged
from 0 to 56. Sixty-two per cent of the candidates earned 30 marks or more.
Paper 02 – Essay
This paper consisted of two sections. Section I comprised four compulsory questions and was based on
Units I, II, III and V.
Section II consisted of four optional questions taken from Units VII, VIII, IX, X, and XI. Candidates were
required to answer two questions from Section II. The mean on the paper was 43.03 out of a possible 90
marks. Approximately 47 per cent of candidates earned at least half of the maximum mark on this paper.
This paper targeted candidates who were registered in private institutions and would not have completed the
School-Based Assessment. The paper tested candidates’ ability to use their personal experiences on routine
office activities acquired through observation, or as employees in an actual office. The paper consisted of
ten structured questions based on a case study. For this examination, the case focused on Units II, III, IV
and V of the syllabus.
The mean on the paper was 22.64 out of a possible 50 marks. Approximately 40 cent of the candidates
earned at least half of the maximum mark on this paper.
Paper 02 – Essay
Section I - Compulsory Questions
Question 1
This question tested Module I (Objectives 1 (b) and 5 (a-f)).
In Part (a) (i), candidates were asked to identify three channels, other than the consumer, that a manufacturer
or producer may use to distribute his goods and services. This was worth 3 marks. For Part (a) (ii),
candidates were required to state two roles that the office should perform in the exchange of goods and
services. Most candidates responded competently. It was worth 2 marks.
For Part (b), candidates were required to complete the organization chart that was provided to show the
positions for general manager, secretary and administrative assistant. This part of the question which was
worth 2 marks was answered satisfactorily.
Part (c) of the question was based on a short scenario. Candidates were to state two ways in which the
applicant could contribute to efficiency in the organization by her use of literacy, word processing, time
management and problem-solving skills. Many candidates provided definitions for these terms and did not
indicate how they contributed to the efficiency of the organization.
The marks obtained for this question ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean was 6.45.

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Question 2
This question tested Module II (Objectives 6 (a-g) and 8).
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to state three techniques that an employee should display in
answering the company's telephone. Candidates' misinterpretation of this question resulted in their provision
of examples instead of techniques. This was worth 3 marks. For Part (a) (ii), candidates were expected to
list three types of information that may be found in the telephone directory. This was worth 3 marks.
For Part (b) (i), candidates were to state one reason why knowledge of time zones is important in business.
This was worth 1 mark.
Part (b) (ii) asked candidates to copy the table with named countries and the number of hours that they were
either behind or ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). They were then required to calculate the time for
the three countries and indicate the time using the 12-hour clock. Some candidates miscalculated while
others did not write the time in its correct format to include ‘a.m.’ or ‘p.m.’. This was worth 3 marks.
For part (b) (iii), candidates were to convert time provided in the 12-hour clock format the 24-hour clock
format. The performance of candidates indicated that they were challenged with calculating time and its
conversion to the 24-hour clock. Some incorrect responses included the use of ‘a.m.’ or ‘p.m’ when they
should have stated ‘hours’. This was worth 5 marks.
Overall performance on this question was satisfactory. The marks obtained for this question ranged from 0
to 15 and the mean was 7.50.
Question 3
This question tested Module III (Objectives 1 (i)(b), (iii) and 2 (a)).
In Part (a) (i), candidates were asked to state two reasons for preserving records in a business. This was
worth 2 marks. For Part (a), (ii), candidates were required to identify two means by which data may be
preserved. It was worth 2 marks.
For Part (a) (iii), candidates were to provide one task for each of the three duties that the records
management clerk is expected to perform. This was worth 3 marks. This part of the question presented the
most difficulty to candidates who defined the terms instead of providing tasks.
Part (b), asked candidates to arrange a list of names in an alphabetical filing system. The names were
similar in their spelling and filing arrangement. This factor proved challenging for some candidates who
were unable to use the specific rules that applied to the alphabetic placement. Many candidates were able to
obtain partial marks for segments of the list that were correctly ordered.
Question 4
This question tested Module V (Objectives 1 (a, g), 5 (d) and Module II (Objective 3 (b)).
In Part (a) (i), candidates were asked to state one follow-up activity of a meeting that should be performed
by the chairperson. This was worth 1 mark. In Part (a) (ii), candidates were required to state three reasons
for sending copies of minutes of the previous meeting to members ahead of the next meeting day. This was
worth 3 marks.
For Part (b), candidates were required to list three items of business that may be included on the agenda of a
meeting. It was worth 3 marks.

- 4 -
For Part (c), candidates were to draft a memo; for the general manager's signature, to all members of staff, to
explain the problem of dwindling attendance at meetings. In addition, candidates were to suggest four
actions that can be taken to deal with the problem.
Part (b) was widely known and candidates offered many correct responses. However, for Part (c), many
candidates wrote letters instead of memos. They disregarded the instruction to prepare a draft to be signed
by the general manager and instead advanced information as if they had the final word, while offering very
severe penalties that were outside of accepted labour practices.
The marks for this question ranged from 0 to 14 and the mean was 5.07.
Question 5
This question, which was the most popular of the options in Section II, tested Module VII (Objective No.1)
and Module IX (Objectives 3 and 4).
In Part (a) (i), candidates were required to state two reasons for the conduct of an induction programme by
the human resource management office. Many candidates offered responses that did not reflect the
requirements of an induction programme. This was worth 2 marks.
In Part (a) (ii), candidates were to state two purposes for appraising employees in an organization. This was
worth 2 marks.
For Part (b), candidates were required to identify two duties of the purchasing clerk. This segment of the
question was well done by the majority of candidates. It was worth 2 marks.
For Part (c) (i), candidates were to use the form provided to complete a purchase requisition. This was
worth 5 marks. In Part (c) (ii) candidates were to complete the order form provided. This was worth 4
marks.
The performance of candidates on this question was generally good. The marks ranged from 0 to 15 and the
mean was 8.80.
Question 6
This question tested Module VIII (Objectives 2 and 9).
For Part (a) (i), candidates were asked to list three items of information that the accounts clerk may place on
an employee's Pay Advice. It was worth 3 marks. In Part (a) (ii), candidates were required to state three
reasons usually considered for paying an employee by cheque. This was worth 3 marks.
In Part (b), candidates were asked to use the form provided to record transactions of the Petty Cash Book,
balance the book and restore the Imprest. Common challenges for candidates were recording transactions
under the appropriate headings and restoring the Imprest.
Question 7
This question tested Module X (Objectives 2, 3 and 4).
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to state one function each of the fax machine, computer and
answering machine as used in the sales and marketing department. It was worth 3 marks.
In Part (a) (ii), candidates were to identify three machines used in the sales office, apart from those named in
(a) (i). This was worth 3 marks.

- 5 -
In Part (b), candidates were presented with questions based on a scenario and were asked to use the form
provided to prepare an invoice to reflect the given sales transaction. This was worth 5 marks. In (ii), they
were expected to calculate the cash discount if the account is paid up within 20 days, while in (iii) they were
to calculate the payment that was required if the bill is settled with a late fee in effect. In both instances, the
questions were worth 2 marks each.
The question requested that candidates show all working and many candidates did not adhere to this request.
As a result, candidates who made errors in the final calculation could not be given partial credit. This
segment of the question proved very challenging for some candidates.
The marks for this question ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean was 6.03.
Question 8
This question, which was the least popular of those in Section II, tested Module X (Objectives 1 and 2).
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to list three specific duties performed by a clerk in a factory office.
It was worth 3 marks. In Part (a) (ii), candidates were to state three ways in which a factory office can
ensure that goods are completed on schedule. This was worth 3 marks.
In Part (b), candidates were provided with a flow chart that showed the movement of documents between the
factory office and the despatch and transport office. In Part (i), they were expected to identify four
documents that move in both directions between the factory office and the despatch and transport office.
For Part (b) (ii), candidates were to state three ways in which the factory office and the despatch and
transport office may depend on each other for the efficient operation of a business. This part was worth 3
marks and offered the most challenge to candidates who responded to this question. Many candidates
provided the same response for each instance.
In Part (b) (iii), candidates were to explain two problems that may arise if both departments are unable to
coordinate their activities. This was worth 2 marks.
Paper 03/2 – Alternative to School-Based Assessment (SBA)
The case discussed a firm of young attorneys and its office staff. The key clerical positions included that of
the receptionist/telephonist and the administrative assistant. The receptionist/telephonist was overwhelmed
by her duties and asked management for assistance. The case and questions introduced a variety of
prevailing situations that occur. It challenged candidates to offer reasonable and workable solutions to these
issues in an analytic manner.
The overall performance of candidates on this paper was unsatisfactory. The mean was 22.64 with total
marks obtained ranging between 1 and 40 out of a maximum of 50.
Question 1
This question tested Module IV (Objective 4 (a)) and Module II (Objective 2 (e)). It required candidates to
state four procedures that must be followed by the receptionist when performing each of the duties of
maintaining a tickler file and receiving parcels. This question was worth 8 marks.

- 6 -
Many responses indicated that candidates were unaware of the tickler file and how it was to be maintained.
However, they provided more appropriate information on receiving parcels and were able to obtain more
marks for this part of the question.
Question 2
This question tested Module IV (Objective 2 (c)).
An outline of a reception register was provided for candidates to complete the headings and enter details of
callers in the order in which they visited the firm, based on the details given. Candidates were also
instructed to use the 24-hour clock to record the times. This was worth 5 marks.
The responses of candidates who were unable to gain marks included instances where they did not follow
instructions or neglected to insert accurate information.
Question 3
This question tested Module IV (Objective 1 (a)). It asked candidates to state three ways in which a trainee
receptionist could perform her duties in a manner that would maintain a good relationship between the
organization and members of the public. This was worth 3 marks.
The majority of candidates offered appropriate responses to this question.
Question 4
This question tested Module IV (Objective 3 (a)). Candidates were asked to complete the appointment book
provided with details of visits made by specific individuals at stated times. This was worth 3 marks.
In some instances, information was misplaced in columns or important information was not copied
accurately, although provided in the question.
Question 5
This question tested Module IV (Objective 2 (ii) (b, c, d)). It required candidates to state one way in which
the receptionist would demonstrate qualities of discretion, tact and initiative. It was worth 3 marks.
In instances where marks were not awarded, candidates were not aware of the meaning of the terms and as a
result were unable to provide the required information.
Question 6
This question tested Module IV (Objective 2 (d)). A paragraph representing an extract from a telephone
message was given and candidates were required to use the information to complete the telephone message
form provided. Candidates responded satisfactorily to this question. It was worth 8 marks.

- 7 -
Question 7
This question tested Module IV (Objective 2 (a, d)). In Part (a), candidates were required to identify
improper actions by the trainee receptionist in (i) receiving unexpected visitors and (ii) answering the
telephone. This was worth 4 marks.
In Part (b), candidates were required to suggest proper procedures to correct the actions identified in Part (a).
In some instances, the question was misinterpreted. However, the majority of candidates were able to
provide appropriately worded responses.
Question 8
This question tested Module IV (Objective 2 (f)). It provided a drawing of a reception area that was in
disarray. Candidates were asked to recommend five ways in which the reception area could be improved to
make it more comfortable and attractive to visitors. This was worth 5 marks.
The majority of candidates were able to provide satisfactory responses to the question.
Question 9
This question tested Module IV (Objective 2 (f)). It asked candidates to offer suggestions for arrangements
that should be put in place the day before a meeting. It was worth 4 marks.
In general, meaningful responses were provided for this question. In other instances, some candidates
misinterpreted the question and indicated information that did not pertain to preparation for a meeting and
the actions to be taken.
Question 10
This question tested Module IV (Objective 2 (b)). It asked candidates to recommend the correct way to
introduce a visitor. It was worth 3 marks.
The content required to respond to this question was not well known, as the protocol of making
introductions was not correctly stated.
Paper 03/1 – School-Based Assessment (SBA)
The SBA component of the Office Administration Syllabus is designed to give candidates an opportunity to
apply skills, knowledge, attributes and attitudes acquired in Office Administration classes during the
secondary school experience. This is demonstrated through the compilation of a project which synthesizes
skills in letter writing, structuring a questionnaire, developing a work plan, observing equipment employed
in business, researching information by means of reading, or through interviews and analysing data obtained
noting the strengths, weaknesses and limitations. This information is then compiled in a report complete
with title page, table of contents and bibliography.

- 8 -
Title Page
In general, candidates were able to present the Title Page with the required information such as the names of
the teacher, school, candidate, examination body and the subject under examination.
Table of Contents
Most candidates displayed sections, as detailed in the marking scheme, in the left-hand column, with page
numbers aligned in the right-hand column. Very few candidates used leader dots to align the content with
the page numbers.
Project Title
The topics selected were often not carefully structured, with the result that some were too broad and, in a
few cases, outside the scope of the syllabus. Teachers are reminded that this topic must be related to the
objectives in the syllabus and framed in a manner to indicate that the candidate is examining or researching
some specific area which has some educational or social value from which he or she will learn. The topics
should not be too broadly stated, thus creating an overwhelming workload for the candidate.
Aims
The aims must be stated clearly. They must state precisely what the candidate is setting out to do. Many
candidates failed to state these in a manner which limited them to the title of the project.
Function
This should be the function of the department under observation as it relates to the title of the project. Many
candidates failed in this aspect of the project.
Correspondence
Many candidates failed to follow the general principles of letter writing. This should be a letter composed
by the candidates seeking permission to carry out the research. In instances where the letter is written as a
form letter by the school, candidates are required to write their own letter stating the objective to be
achieved by the individual researcher. Attention must be paid to the format of the letter: return address, date,
addressee, salutation and complimentary close, paragraphing, grammar and enclosure. The letter should be
signed by the candidate.
Methodology
Apart from the specimen, candidates are required to submit particulars of why that instrument was chosen
instead of some other method of gathering information for the project. They are also required to explain
how they used the instrument. This section was poorly done by most candidates as they failed to justify use
of the instrument.
Questions
This was done satisfactorily by most candidates. However, a few candidates did not submit relevant
questions. The questions were often taken from the questionnaire.
Schedule of Activities
Most candidates submitted a schedule of activities, listed the sequence as they progressed through the
research and made appropriate comments. In some cases, it was evident that candidates were unsure of what
was required of them and listed less than the minimum required activities.

- 9 -
Regulations/Policies/Legislation
Evidence of a piece of legislation is designed to sensitize candidates to an awareness of the laws governing
the workplace. It would be useful therefore if they obtained a copy of the relevant legislation or make
reference to the specific regulation and what it is intended to do. The same would apply to the policies of
the organization and rules relating to employees which the candidate may have been subject to.
A policy is a deliberate plan of action to guide decisions and achieve goals. Policy may also refer to
important organizational decisions such as spending priorities and choosing among them on the basis of the
impact they will have. There may be management, financial and administrative policies designed to reach
explicit goals. For example, an organization may accept a legal and moral obligation to ensure that staff are
not subjected to sex discrimination through harassment, bullying or workplace violence by ensuring that in
the event of alleged discrimination, harassment, bullying or workplace violence, a staff member, or his/her
representative, may refer the matter to the Human Resource Manager or notify a union representative.
Legislation or statutory law is law which has been enacted by the governing body and actively regulates the
operation of the business. Examples are the Company Act, Shop and Factory Act, Sex Discrimination Act,
Equal Opportunity for Women in the Workplace Act.
Staff Rules
These rules are generally established by management and apply to all staff or categories of staff, except
where specifically provided, and may include the candidate who is doing the research. An example with
regard to employees in a legal firm: ‘Employees shall not solicit, accept or agree to accept any gifts or
gratuities from persons having or likely to have any official transaction.’
Presentation
Whereas some candidates presented a well written report, many wrote brief notes on the findings. Many
candidates were not able to state what they had accomplished by doing the research. They seemed able to
express the challenges they encountered but were unable to do the same with the problem-solving strategy
used to overcome the challenges.
Business Forms
The business form used in the project must be related to the business under consideration. Some candidates
simply included forms that had no relevance to what they set out to do. The forms and the title must be
related.
Bibliography
Most candidates were unable to obtain the maximum marks allotted for this section as they did not complete
the listing of resources used or Internet sites referenced. Although some candidates may not have access to
all types of media, the medium used should be stated.
Office Equipment
As required by the mark scheme, the equipment stated in the SBA must be equipment observed or used in
the business studied. Candidates are required to list the equipment, state its use, and its suitability for the
specific function in the business under consideration. Most candidates referred to the equipment employed
by them in the preparation of the SBA.
It is evident that there are some teachers who are not familiar with the revised mark scheme as the projects
were not in compliance with the current requirements. In a few instances, schools submitted SBAs that were
based on the 2004 syllabus and mark scheme.

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Those candidates who scored high in the SBA exhibited extensive research skills on the topic they had
selected, whereas those who obtained lower marks, generally did not comply with the requirements of the
syllabus.
GENERAL RECOMMENDATIONS TO TEACHERS
1. Create a glossary of commonly used terms and ensure that all students are familiar with these terms.
2. Expose students to past examination papers and case studies.
3. Prepare sample letters for students that apply to a variety of situations.
4. Plan activities which will assist in the development of students’ observation and research skills.
5. Increase opportunities for practice in completing forms, writing letters and memos, and responding
to situational type questions.
6. Include exercises that require numerical computations in the instructional process.

JANUARY 2011

2
GENERAL COMMENTS
Candidates’ performance in the January 2011 Office Administration sitting was satisfactory
and revealed that most candidates were prepared for the examination, notwithstanding some
areas of weakness. This year, 1,233 candidates sat the examination compared with the January
2010 sitting where approximately 1,682 candidates wrote the examination. Seventy-seven per
cent of the candidates achieved Grades I–III. The mean score for the examination was 98.98
out of 200 marks.
Three papers were offered at the General Proficiency Level to ensure broad coverage of the
syllabus, with objectives tested from all of the modules. More specific comments will be
addressed separately under each paper.
Paper 03/2 – Alternative to the School Based Assessment (SBA)
Paper 01 consisted of 60 multiple–choice items. The overall mean was 34.76 compared with
33.86 for January 2010. Marks ranged from 13 to 55 out of a maximum of 60.
This paper consisted of two sections. Section I comprised four compulsory questions covering
Modules I–VI and Module XII. These questions were attempted by the majority of candidates.
Section II consisted of four optional questions taken from Modules VII–XI. Knowledge and
the application of procedures associated with specialized office activities and office routines
were tested in this section of the paper. Candidates were required to answer two questions
from Section II. The overall mean for this paper was 33.82 compared with 34.00 in 2010.
Marks ranged from 1 to 67 out of a maximum of 90. There are some topics however, that
continue to pose difficulty to candidates and this is reflected in their overall performance.
Paper 03/2 – Alternative to School-Based Assessment (SBA)
This paper took the form of a written examination that targeted private candidates who would
not have had the opportunity to complete SBA projects. The paper was designed to test
candidates’ ability to use their personal experiences of routine office activities acquired
through observation or from doing the actual office tasks as a real employee. The paper
consisted of ten structured questions based on a case study. For this examination, the case
focused on Unit XII of the syllabus.

3
In this paper, candidates’ performance improved significantly in some areas over that of the
2010 examination. The overall mean for this paper was 30.08 compared to 14.90 in 2010.
Marks ranged from 2 to 46 out of a maximum of 50.
DETAILED COMMENTS
Question 1
This question tested Module I, Objective 1 (c), Objective 2 (a) and Objective 5.
For Part (a), which was worth three marks, candidates were required to list three activities
performed in the office that relate to processing information. For the most part, candidates
were able to list at least two activities and gave responses such as collecting/sourcing
information from files, libraries; extracting or pulling out relevant data; sorting; and
distributing or routing of information to those needing the information.
For Part (b), candidates were required to state two differences between a small company and a
large company with respect to: (i) employees and (ii) structure. Each of these parts was worth
two marks. Part (b) was generally well done by the candidates who performed well in Part (a).
Candidates gave a wide range of responses such as space, equipment, furnishings and
technology considerations, as well as salaries, working conditions, specializations and
workload with regard to employee differences; while for differences in structure, candidates’
responses included type of organizational structure, communication channels used, strategic
plans, goals, vision and mission.
In Part (c), candidates were presented with the following scenario: “As an employee you
believe that your co-workers must promote positive relationships with each other in the
workplace”. Candidates were required to copy a table with specific headings: Key Positive
Attitudes, Employee’s Actions/Demonstrations, and Employer’s Actions/Demonstrations — in
their answer booklets and for each positive attitude listed, they were to state one appropriate
action both by the employee and the employer that would promote the attitude. This was worth
eight marks.
This part of the question was somewhat challenging to some candidates who repeated the same
responses for both the employee’s and employer’s actions. However, some candidates were
able to express appropriate actions/demonstrations to indicate clear differences.

4
Question 2
This question tested Module II (Objective 1, Objective 6 (c) and Objective 3 (b)).
For Part (a), which was worth three marks, candidates were required to state three uses of the
Internet.
This part of the question was generally well done by candidates who gave responses such as
accessing electronic mail, research purposes, intranet, e-commerce, entertainment, job search,
communication and e-learning.
For Part (b), candidates were to list four items of information that should be included on a
telephone message form. This was worth four marks.
Most candidates were able to list correctly the required items of information such as date/time
the call was received; name of person for whom the message was intended, summary of the
message and the person who took the message.
Part (c) related a case where some employees at the workplace had been abusing the use of
cellular telephones during working hours. As a result, policy guidelines regarding the use of
cellular phones had been developed. Candidates were required to draft a memorandum to
inform staff of the plan to introduce new policies on the use of cellular telephones during
working hours. The memorandum should also include three ways in which cellular telephones
may be used inappropriately by employees in the workplace. In addition, candidates were
required to state one disadvantage of using cellular telephones during working hours. Part (c)
was worth eight marks.
Most candidates were able to draft the memo correctly by indicating the different headings and
inserting relevant information regarding ways in which cellular telephones are inappropriately
used. These include: when using office equipment, uncontrolled use during meetings, untimely
sending of text messages, and use in the presence of customers.
Most candidates scored the point for stating a disadvantage of using cellular telephones during
working hours by including responses such as interrupts workflow, distracts individuals, can
contribute to accidents and loss of productivity.
Overall performance on this question was satisfactory. Marks obtained ranged from 0 to 15
with a mean of 9.27.
Question 3
This question tested Module III (Objectives 2, 4 and 6).
Part (a) (i) tested candidates’ understanding of the term ‘indexing’ as it is used in records
management. It was worth two marks.

5
Although many candidates attempted this part of the question, generally, it was not well done.
The question specifically asked candidates to state the meaning of the term as it is used in
records management, but it appeared that the latter part of the instruction was ignored as many
candidates defined indexing with reference to a list at the end of a book or as an indicator of a
trend.
Correct responses such as ‘the process of determining the various ways that attention is drawn
to brief information’, ‘how data are organized to be used in the order of filing’, ‘making a
decision on the name by which correspondence will most likely be requested from files’,
‘identifying where to file or find information’, were invariably not forthcoming from
candidates.
In Part (a) (ii), worth two marks, candidates were required to state two reasons for cross-
referencing a name. In most instances, candidates were able to state one reason; the most
frequent responses being a name change as a result of marriage or a change in company name.
Other appropriate, expected responses include: ‘doubt about where to place information’,
‘when the content of two files are related’, and ‘when information must be placed in more than
one place’.
For Part (b), candidates were required to list three regulations that relate to access and retention
of documents. This part of the question, worth three marks, posed a great deal of difficulty for
most candidates. In a few instances, candidates gave correct responses such as ‘the need for
authorization’, ‘signature’, ‘length of retention’, while the majority of them failed to list
regulations related to limitations on the right of access, infringement of copyright, defamation,
parliamentary privilege and breach of confidence.
In Part (c) (i), worth four marks, candidates were presented with a case in which they were
clerks with Prime Real Estate Ltd which had recently merged with two other companies. At
that company, a departmental filing system was used. However, the merged company decided
to use a centralized filing system. Candidates were required to identify four changes that the
clerk must make to facilitate the use of the centralized filing system.
Some candidates interpreted the question to mean the changes that the company should make
instead of the changes that the clerk should make to facilitate the use of the centralized filing
system. Correct responses such as ‘receive training’, ‘be aware of new equipment and
technologies’, ‘more effective management of times so as to meet deadlines for returning files’,
‘be able to apply changes to the requirements of your specific job/tasks’, ‘change attitudes and
habits to accommodate new procedures’, were hardly considered by candidates.
In Part (c) (ii), candidates were required to state four activities that management should
undertake to ensure that the change from a departmental to a centralized filing system was
successful. This part of the question was worth four marks.

6
In many instances, candidates repeated the responses given in Part (c) (i) for Part (c) (ii) and
hence, failed to score optimal marks. Correct responses should have included:
- selecting an appropriate system to meet organization’s needs
- formulating policy and communicating to staff
- training staff to use and maintain system
- standardizing systems throughout the organization,
- evaluating the system and its usability
Overall, performance on this question was unsatisfactory. The marks obtained for this question
ranged from 0 to 13 and the mean was 2.93.
Question 4
This question tested Module V, Objective 1 and Module VI, Objective 1 (b).
Part (a) (i) of this question, worth one mark, required candidates to define the term ‘quorum’.
In most instances, candidates gave the correct definition, ‘the minimum number of persons
who must be present for a meeting to be convened’.
In Part (a) (ii), candidates were required to state four legal requirements of an Annual General
Meeting. Part (a) (ii) was worth 4 marks.
This section of the question was satisfactorily done by most candidates who gave correct
responses such as:
- meeting must be held once every year
- there must be a quorum in order to conduct the meeting
- annual reports must be tabled
- election of officers must take place
- dividends are declared
For Part (a) (iii), candidates were required to list two ways in which the Chairman’s Agenda is
different from the General Agenda. Part (a) (iii) was worth two marks.
In most instances, candidates were able to state at least one difference between the two types of
agenda by responding that adequate space is left on the right hand side of the chairman’s
agenda for notations. Other differences such as ‘last minute information (e.g. apologies) is
obtained’, and ‘more detailed information about agenda items to be raised’, were not given by
the candidates.
Part (b), worth eight marks, instructed candidates to use the information provided in an
electronic mail to prepare an itinerary for Mr Sant, using the 24–hour clock.
This part of the question was satisfactorily done, although some candidates failed to head up
and use the correct format for an itinerary by incorporating the name of the document

7
(itinerary), for the named person, the specified period and what the traveller had to do during
the period.
Question 5
This question tested Module VII, Objective 1 (c, h), Module VIII, Objective 1 and Module X,
Objective 4.
In Part (a) (i), candidates were asked to state three responsibilities of the human resource
department with regard to deployment. This was worth three marks.
In many instances, candidates stated the responsibilities of the human resource department
generally, with scant regard to deployment. As a result, responses such as ‘to assess the needs
of the department’, ‘to determine number of employees required’, ‘to assess skills and work
experiences of workers’, and ‘to evaluate attitudes and qualifications of employees’, were
hardly given.
Part (a) (ii) of the question, worth three marks, required candidates to state three items of
information that the human resource department must obtain from other departments to
develop a job description.
Responses such as ‘qualifications’, ‘skills’, ‘attitudes’, ‘persons to whom the employee is
directly responsible’, ‘salary paid’, ‘grade levels’ and ‘job titles’, indicated that many
candidates possessed fairly good mastery of the content in this area.
In Part (b) (i), candidates were presented with a scenario about a customer making credit
purchases for the first time. The goods to be purchased were valued at $8,500.00 and the terms
of payment were 2 per cent, net 15 days. Candidates were asked to assume that they were
working in the accounts department of the company and were required to outline three actions
that the company should take before granting credit facilities to the customer. Part (b) (i) was
worth three marks.
Most candidates’ responses indicated that they possessed a fairly good command of knowledge
in the area. Correct statements included ‘determining Ryce’s credit worthiness or ability to
pay’; ‘investigating the customer’s credit history’; ‘checking the order to determine if it was
within the value of credit allowed to customers’, and ‘instructing the relevant department to
process the credit facility’.
In Part (b) (ii), worth three marks, candidates were asked to write three recommendations to
deal with delinquent debtors.
This part of the question was satisfactorily handled by most candidates who gave
recommendations such as ‘send reminder letter’, ‘stop credit’, ‘resort to legal action’ and
‘repossess goods’.

8
In Part (b) (iii), which was worth two marks, candidates were instructed that the customer in
Part (b) (i) repaid the loan within eight days and were asked to calculate the final payment by
showing all working.
Many candidates calculated the correct amount of $8,330.00 that the customer should pay.
For Part (b) (iv), candidates were asked to write a justification indicating whether the customer
was entitled to a discount. Part (b) (iv) was worth one mark.
Many candidates correctly reasoned that the customer was entitled to a discount of 2 per cent
for repayment of credit granted before the 15 days limit.
Question 6
Question 6 tested Module IX, Objective 5 and Module VIII, Objective 3 (c).
In Part (a) (i), which was worth three marks, candidates were asked to state three reasons why
stock control is important to a company.
This part of the question was answered satisfactorily by many candidates whose responses
included ‘to determine purchasing quantities’, ‘availability of space for storage’, ‘stock
movement’, ‘usage patterns’ and ‘re-order levels’.
Part (a) (ii) required candidates to identify three factors that would influence a company’s
decision on what items to stock. It was worth three marks. Correct responses given by
candidates included ‘usage’, ‘market demand and supply’, ‘price’, ‘time of delivery’, ‘climatic
needs’ and ‘nature and size of business’.
In Part (b), which was worth nine marks, candidates were asked to assume that they worked in
the accounts department of Fores Construction Company. As employees, one of the duties
included the preparation of statements of accounts. Candidates were presented with the account
of Charters Equipment of 36 Hades Park, Anguilla, which showed three transactions. The
statement number was 5732 and the brought forward balance on December 02 was $655.25.
Candidates were to asked use the form provided to prepare a statement of accounts to be sent to
Charters Equipment Company.
This was the most popular of the option questions and most candidates who attempted it
performed satisfactorily. The marks obtained for this question ranged from 0 to 15, with a
mean of 6.83.

9
Question 7
This question tested Module X, Objective 2, Module IX, Objective 3 and Module X, Objective
3 (d).
In Part (a), which was worth three marks, candidates were required to state three duties that
may be required of a clerk in the sales department when dealing with customers.
This part of the question was satisfactorily done by those candidates who gave correct
responses such as ‘supply information’ ‘answer queries’, ‘follow up orders’, ‘liaise with other
departments’ and ‘distribute brochures and pricelists’.
Part (b), which was worth three marks, required candidates to list three steps in the purchasing
procedure. This part of the question was unsatisfactorily done as many candidates failed to
produce correct responses such as ‘general enquiries’, ‘obtaining price quotations and
transportation information’, ‘following up on orders’ and ‘obtaining departmental requisition’.
For Part (c) (i), candidates were presented with a scenario where suppliers of office equipment
were to be invited to submit tenders for a photocopy machine to the company in which they are
employed. The equipment should have cutting edge technology in order to meet the needs of
the marketing department. Candidates were required to draft the request for tenders that would
be sent out to suppliers. They were asked to include three main components of the tender.
Part (c) (i) was worth four marks.
Generally, this part of the question was not done satisfactorily. Candidates failed to include
three main components such as ‘name of company’, ‘items/goods required’, ‘means by which
tender should be presented’, ‘period of tender’ and ‘terms and conditions of tender’. As an
alternative, candidates’ responses which mentioned functions of the photocopier such as
‘colour’, ‘speed’, ‘size’, multi-functionality, ‘durability’ and ‘cost’ were accepted as well.
For Part (c) (ii), candidates were asked to assume that they were assisting the sales manager in
evaluating the tenders received from suppliers and in designing a checklist that would help
identify the major features of the photocopy machine. Candidates were asked to design a
checklist identifying four features of the photocopy machine that would meet the needs of the
marketing department. Part (c) (ii) was worth five marks.
Candidates performed satisfactorily in this section, providing a checklist which included
acceptable features of the photocopy machine such as ‘sort and staple’, ‘copy two and multiple
sides’, ‘fast and easy to operate’ ‘produce colour and black and white copies’, ‘durable and
able to withstand use from many users’ and ‘easily serviceable’.

10
Question 8
This question tested Module XI, Objective 2 (a), Module XI, Objective 3 (b, c) and Module XI
Objective 2 (c, d).
In Part (a), which was worth two marks, candidates were required to state two tasks performed
by a clerk in the factory office in the preparation of a shift roster.
For this part of the question, some candidates stated those tasks that were generally performed
in the factory office with little attention paid to the preparation of a shift roster. Hence, correct
responses such as ‘obtain schedule of production from files/production department’, ‘retrieve
maintenance and repair schedules’, ‘list incoming orders’ and ‘prepare the draft/final copy of
the roster’ were seldom provided.
In Part (b), candidates were required to state two uses each for the (i) destination sheet and
(ii) delivery note. This part of the question was worth four marks.
This part of the question was satisfactorily attempted by candidates. They indicated uses of the
destination sheet such as ‘informs the driver of name and address of the customer’, ‘assists
driver in planning his trip route’, and ‘customers sign the appropriate section when goods are
received as proof of receipt’. Correct responses for the uses of the delivery note included: ‘note
accompanies goods being delivered to customer’, ‘verification document’ and ‘purchaser
checks goods against delivery note, and if correct, signs a copy for the driver’.
In Part (c) (i), candidates were presented with a scenario where they were to assume that they
worked in the production department of the Fashion Statement Company, 14 Chaud Place,
Bridgetown, Barbados. The Production Manager, Mr Chris Welsh, had left a note indicating
that it was time to re-order production forms from the printers. Candidates were required to
prepare a draft form to include specified headings with adequate space for inserting
information. Part (c) (i) was worth five marks.
This part of the question was completed satisfactorily. In their design, most candidates
included the name of the form and all headings that were required.
For Part (c) (ii), which was worth four marks, candidates were required to use the form they
designed to record Production Order No. 56/2011, received by the company for 1,000 ladies
straw hats. The form should be signed by Mr Welsh, the production manager.
Candidates were able to use the form they designed to record the appropriate information and
indicated the signature of Mr Welsh.
Marks obtained for this question ranged from 0 to 15, with a mean of 7.04.

11
Paper 03/2 – Alternative to School-Based Assessment
A short case was provided and candidates were required to read and respond to ten structured
questions. This paper was worth 50 marks. The mean for this paper was 30.08.
The Case
The case focused on a thriving medium-sized construction company, ACME Limited. The
company which has been in existence for the past 20 years needs to expand its operations to
cope with the current construction boom at its peak in the country. The case dealt with the
issues surrounding the management procedures that must be put in place to effectively handle
the hiring of additional full-time staff for the office and for the various work sites.
Question 1
This question tested Module XII (Objective 1 (a, b, c)). Candidates were asked to discuss why
the three suggested methods, namely, electronic media, newspapers and employment agencies
would be effective methods of advertising for the new staff. In addition, candidates were asked
to state two advantages of using each of these three methods. This question was worth six
marks and had a mean of 3.41.
Candidates gave appropriate responses for the use of the electronic media such as ‘reaches a
large audience’, ‘fast’ and ‘can be easily updated’. For the newspaper advertisement,
candidates noted that this method is less expensive’, ‘there is a permanent record’ and ‘job
information is current’. Correct advantages of the employment agencies included that ‘they act
for employers in seeking applications for job vacancies’ and that the agencies aid employers by
‘testing and screening applicants’ and ‘sourcing qualified applicants for the position’.
Question 2
This question tested Module XII, Objective 2 (c). Candidates were asked to explain, giving two
reasons for each, why a potential applicant who had concerns about (i) hours that she may be
required to work and (ii) the qualifications needed for the post should seriously consider these
concerns before applying for a position at the company. This question was worth four marks.
The mean was 2.52.
In terms of hours required to work, candidates presented responses such as ‘may impact on
family responsibilities’, ‘may impact on other responsibilities such as study or hobbies’, or
‘may prevent applicant from working a shift system, if required’. With respect to the
qualifications needed, candidates provided responses that the applicant should consider
whether she ‘is qualified for the position’, ‘overqualified’ and that she also needs to consider
the ‘competitiveness of the field’.

12
Question 3
This question tested Module XII, Objective 3 (c). Candidates were presented with an
advertisement which appeared in the local newspaper. They were required to apply for the
position in response to the job advertisement by writing a cover letter to ACME Limited that
would accompany the résumé. This question was worth six marks. The mean was 2.90.
Candidates responded favourably to this question except in some instances where the date and
the inside address were omitted from the letter. In addition, the complimentary close did not
always match the salutation. Candidates should bear in mind that once a name is used, for
example, ‘Dear Mr Brown’, then the complimentary close should end with ‘Yours sincerely’.
When the salutation is not personal, for example, The Resource Manager, the complimentary
close can be ‘Yours faithfully’, ‘Yours truly’. In addition, some candidates failed to include the
enclosure/attachment notation.
Question 4
This question tested Module XII, Objective 3. This question presented candidates with an
extract of personal information on an applicant and is completing her résumé. They were
required to suggest a layout for the résumé, making sure to include the appropriate headings
and related details. This question was worth ten marks. The mean was 8.15.
Some candidates failed to include appropriate headings, for example, Personal
Data/Information, Education, Work Experience and Extra-curricular activities/Hobbies. In
some instances, the layout was not appropriate.
Question 5
This question tested Module XII, Objective 5. In this question, candidates were informed that
the applicant had submitted her application and had been selected to attend an interview. They
were asked to provide three suggestions that would assist her in preparing for the interview.
This question was worth three marks. The mean was 1.81.
Candidates performed satisfactorily on this question. Correct recommendations given included:
- find out as much as possible about the organization
- find out where the interview is taking place and how to get there in good time
- take special care with your appearance, making sure you are tidy
- carry along copies of essential documents/portfolio
Question 6
This question tested Module XII, Objective 5 (d). In this question candidates were asked to
help the applicant in preparing for the interview by suggesting one likely response to each of
three questions: ‘Why do you want to work with the company?’, ‘Why do you think you are
suitable for the position?’ and ‘What are your long-term goals?’ This question was worth three
marks. The mean was 2.56.

13
Most candidates gave appropriate responses to the questions such as: “It fulfils my personal
values/interests/beliefs”; “I possess the relevant qualifications/experience” and “My goal is to
continue to improve my skills and qualifications”.
Question 7
This question tested Module XII, Objective 5. Candidates were required to write three
questions that the applicant could ask the interviewer, at the interview. Generally, candidates
performed satisfactorily in this question and provided appropriate responses such as:
- What are the opportunities for training and professional development?
- What are the fringe benefits?
- How soon can I expect to hear from you if I am selected for the job?
- What is the basis for salary review?
This question was worth three marks. The mean was 2.09.
Question 8
This question tested Module XII, Objective 4 (c). Candidates were informed that the applicant
had received a letter offering her a job as a clerk in the human resource department. They were
required to complete the letter of acceptance. This question was worth five marks. The mean
was 2.80.
Some candidates who attempted this question failed to include important elements in the letter
of acceptance such as:
- Thank the company for the opportunity to join staff
- Indicate date of letter or some reference
- Confirm date to start employment
- Confirm salary/benefits
Question 9
This question tested Module XII, Objective 6. Candidates were informed that on the first day at
the office, the new employee will have to attend an orientation session to be briefed on her
duties and responsibilities. Candidates were required to draft an email to the new employee
from the human resource officer, inviting her to attend the session and highlighting three other
pieces of information that will be discussed during the orientation and induction session.
This question was unsatisfactorily done as some candidates failed to include:
- An appropriate greeting and closing
- Details of time and place of the orientation

14
- Activities to be discussed such as, conditions of service, rules and procedures of the
organization, introduction to other employees, and grievance and disciplinary
procedures
This question was worth five marks. The mean was 1.85.
Question 10
This question tested Module XII, Objective 6 (c). This question advised candidates that during
orientation and induction, the new employee was informed that, as part of her duties, she
would be responsible for handling confidential files. Candidates were required to write a
response, on behalf of the new employee, to a colleague who had been asking her repeatedly to
share information on other employees in the company. They were asked to provide reasons
why the new employee should not engage in this practice.
In most instances, candidates gave at least two appropriate responses to this question. These
included:
- Employers expect employees to keep company and client information confidential
- May result in job loss
- Employees with sensitive/confidential information should not gossip
- Breach of professionalism/work ethic
This question was worth five marks. The mean was 2.63.
The overall performance on this paper was satisfactory.
1. Candidates should acquire a personal copy of the syllabus and incorporate it in
their examination preparation process.
2. Past papers can be of invaluable assistance in time management and preparation
for the actual examination. Candidates should review past papers and practise
formulating answers.
3. Greater emphasis must be placed on the ‘newer’ modules of the syllabus and
content areas to promote a clear understanding of examination requirements and
guidelines, in keeping with current trends and practices at the workplace.
4. Candidates must always be cognizant of the rules of grammar, spelling,
structure and presentation in Office Administration activities and apply these
appropriately.

MAY/JUNE 2011

-2-
GENERAL COMMENTS
Candidate performance improved in June 2011. Eighty-eight per cent of candidates achieved Grades
I–III compared with 71 per cent in 2010. The mean score for the examination was 118.65 out of 200
marks.
There were some encouraging responses to questions in all three papers of the General Proficiency
examination. This revealed that candidates were prepared for the examination, notwithstanding some
areas of weaknesses. These areas are addressed in the detailed comments on individual questions.
Paper 01 — Multiple Choice
Paper 02 — Short Answer
Paper 031 — School-Based Assessment (SBA)
Paper 032 — Alternative to School-Based Assessment (SBA)
The two profiles tested in the Paper 01 examination and used in the assessment of Office
Administration are (i) Knowledge and Comprehension, and (ii) Application.
Candidates’ performance on the 2011 paper showed an improvement over that of June 2010. The
overall mean was 34.75 compared with 32.18 for July 2010. Marks ranged from 1 to 59 out of a
maximum of 60.
Paper 02 also assessed Knowledge and Comprehension and Application of procedures and processes
associated with specialized office activities and office routines.
This paper consisted of two sections. Section I comprised four compulsory questions covering Modules
I–VI and Module XII. These questions were attempted by the majority of candidates.
Section II consisted of four optional questions taken from Modules VII to XI. Knowledge and the
application of procedures associated with specialized office activities and office routines were tested.
Candidates were required to answer two questions from Section II. Therefore, candidates were asked to
attempt a total of six questions from this paper. The overall mean for this paper was 50.32 compared
with 43.03 in 2010. Marks ranged from 0 to 83 out of a maximum of 90. There are, however, some
areas that continue to pose difficulty to candidates and this is reflected in their overall performance.
Paper 032 took the form of a written examination that targeted private candidates who would not have
the opportunity to complete School-Based Assessment (SBA) projects as school candidates. The paper
was designed to test candidates’ ability to use their personal experiences on routine office activities
acquired through observation or from doing the actual office tasks as a real employee. The paper
consisted of ten short essay-type questions, with sub-sections, based on a case study. For this
examination, the case focused on Module II of the syllabus which covers communication.
It is noted that while some areas continue to pose a challenge to candidates, overall performance
improved on this paper improved over that of the 2010 examination. The overall mean for this paper
was 27.06 out of a maximum of 50, compared with 22.64 in 2010. Marks ranged from 0 to 47.

-3-
DETAILED COMMENTS
Question 1
The first part of the question tested candidates’ knowledge of the requirements of the work
environment.
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to identify one other right included in the labour laws of any
Caribbean country except the right to freedom of association and assembly. For the most part,
candidates were unable to identify a labour law and confused labour laws with human rights issues.
This part of the question was worth one mark.
For Part (a) (ii), candidates were required to identify two desirable attitudes that employees should
demonstrate in the workplace. This segment of the question was fairly well done. Part (a) (ii) was
worth two marks.
Paper (b) focused on procedures dealing with inactive files. Part (b) (i) required candidates to state one
way in which a company may dispose of each of the following types of files: non-confidential and
confidential.
Most candidates were able to identify shredding as a means of destroying confidential files, although
many candidates also used this process for non-confidential files. This part of the question was worth
two marks.
Part (b) (ii) required candidates to identify two types of files which are usually archived. Many
candidates who attempted this section were unfamiliar with the term ‘archived’ and failed to give
appropriate responses such as non-active files and closed/dead files. Part (b) (i) was worth two marks.
Part (a) tested candidates’ knowledge of preparing follow-up letters. Candidates were required to write
an appropriate follow-up letter to Mrs Penny Wise, the Director of the Human Resource Division, in
response to a stated scenario. This section was satisfactorily done with some candidates obtaining
maximum marks. In some cases though, candidates omitted the date from the letter, while others were
not able to match the salutation to an appropriate complimentary close. This part of the question was
worth eight marks.
Question 2
Part (a) of this question examined candidates’ knowledge of the duties and responsibilities of a
receptionist.
Part (a) (i) required candidates to state two practices which would assist in keeping the reception area
tidy. Generally, candidates’ performance on this section was unsatisfactory as they failed to give
responses such as stack newspapers/files/magazines neatly, pin notices on notice boards properly, and
organize/arrange blinds/curtains/seating neatly. It was worth two marks.
Part (a) (ii), required candidates to identify two items of information that may be found on a business
card. Most candidates were able to score one of the two marks awarded in this section.

-4-
Part (a) (iii) required candidates to copy and complete a table given and to suggest professional
alternatives for unprofessional responses used by a temporary receptionist. It was noted that that many
candidates retained the term Hello in Part (a) of the question, even though they continued the statement
by stating a more appropriate greeting and announcing the name of the firm.
The use of the colloquialism, eh, in Part (c) was not understood by many candidates. Many of the
candidates lost marks because they offered the wrong alternative. This was worth four marks.
Part (b) focused on the importance and use of reminder systems in the office. Part (b) (i) required
candidates to provide three points describing how a tickler system works. In most instances, candidates
gave a definition of the tickler system but were unable to state how it works. Very few candidates
demonstrated a clear understanding of how the tickler system works for both reminder and follow-up.
Correct response such as reminder notes or documents are placed behind specific dates and months,
daily checks must be made to determine whether the note or document should be acted upon or
followed up, and if there has been no reply, the document is passed to the responsible party for action,
were not frequently provided by candidates.
Part (b) (ii) required candidates to copy a diary sheet in their answer booklet and complete it using the
information given. Candidates performed satisfactorily with the majority of them scoring maximum
marks or three of the four marks allotted to this section.
Marks obtained for this question ranged from 0 to 15 with a mean of 8.38.
Question 3
Part (a) examined the role and functions of the office, with respect to the production of goods and the
collection and processing of data.
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to explain the terms collecting data, processing data, and
producing goods.
The majority of candidates provided responses which reproduced the root of the questions and,
therefore, were not explicit in their responses. In some instances, however, candidates could give clear
explanation to the terms. This part of the question was worth three marks.
For Part (a) (ii), candidates were required to differentiate between ‘goods’ and ‘services’. For the most
part, candidates demonstrated an understanding of both terms and supplied satisfactory responses. This
was worth two marks.
For Part (a) (iii), candidates were required to state two reasons for preserving information in an
organization. This section was handled well by candidates who were able to score the two marks
allotted.
Part (b) focused on the desirable attitudes and attributes of office personnel as well as the importance of
good relationships. For Part (b) (i), candidates were required to write a memo to be emailed to
Mr Pryce, expressing their disappointment with his conduct at the workplace and stating the impact of
his frequent lateness on the achievement of goals in the department.

-5-
This part of the question was satisfactorily done by most candidates. However, some candidates failed
to utilize the correct format for writing a memo using the document name Memo and accompanying
features such as To, From, Date, and Subject. Part (b) (i) was worth four marks.
For Part (b) (ii), candidates were required to state two actions that as a supervisor, they should take, and
two actions that Mr Pryce should take to improve the efficiency of the department. This section was
fairly well done. Candidates were able to differentiate between the supervisor’s role and the
subordinate’s role. This part of the question was worth four marks.
Question 4
This question examined candidates’ knowledge of channels of communication and communication
formats commonly used in the office.
For Part (a), candidates were required to state one example of each of the following four methods of
communication: (i) oral (ii) electronic (iii) visual and (iv) written.
This part of the question was handled well by most candidates who earned the maximum marks
allotted. Part (a) was worth four marks.
For Part (b), candidates were asked to state three items of information that should be given to the hotel
reservations clerk when making hotel reservations. Candidates were familiar with this aspect of the
syllabus and gave favourable responses such as name, address, and telephone number of person for
whom the room is being reserved, type of room required: single, double or suite, length of planned stay,
and date and time of arrival/departure. Part (b) was worth three marks.
For Part (c) (i), candidates were given a message form on which they were required to record the
relevant points of a given message. Most candidates were able to record the information on the form
appropriately and scored maximum marks. However, some candidates failed to include all the details
of the message. This part of the question was worth six marks.
In Part (c) (ii), candidates were required to state two actions that Ms Powell may take to ensure the
accuracy of a telephone message. The majority of candidates responded satisfactorily to this part of the
question which was worth two marks
Question 5
This question examined candidates’ knowledge of the duties of a clerk in the accounts office, the
calculation of different types of discounts and the factors that contribute to employee turnover in an
organization.
For Part (a), candidates were required to state two attributes of an accounts clerk. In some instances,
candidates provided correct responses such as accuracy/neatness/legibility, honesty, confidentiality, and
reliability. However, some candidates failed to distinguish between attributes and skills. This part of the
question was worth two marks.
For Part (b), candidates were to state how the accounts office of a manufacturing firm interacts with the
following offices: (i) factory, (ii) human resource, and (iii) transport.

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In most instances, candidates demonstrated sound knowledge of the named offices and their functions,
but were unable to state effectively how the accounts office liaises with each of the named offices.
Part (b) was worth three marks.
Parts (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) required candidates to calculate trade discounts and cash discounts (if paid
within a specific time period). Most candidates demonstrated some level of competence in performing
the required calculations. However, some candidates failed to carry out the tasks using a sequential
approach and showing calculations. This part of the question was worth six marks.
Part (d) (i) required candidates to list one internal factor that may contribute to high labour turnover in
an organization. Candidates seemed to have a good grasp of this aspect of the syllabus and supplied
satisfactory responses such as poor working conditions, low salary, and lack of training opportunities.
Part (d) (ii) required candidates to list three measures that an employer may adopt to remedy a situation
of high labour turnover. Candidates were able to satisfactorily list measures such as improve working
conditions, provide incentives, increase morale, and offer higher salaries.
This question was, however, not a popular optional question. Marks ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean
was 5.50.
Question 6
This question tested candidates’ knowledge of the role and functions of the human resource department,
with particular focus on appraisals, training and disciplinary procedures.
For Part (a), candidates were given two functions of the human resource department: administering
performance appraisals and training. For each of the functions given, candidates were required to state
two activities that should be completed by the department in performing the stated functions. In many
instances, candidates performed unsatisfactorily in this section as they could not clearly state the
activities carried out in either function. This part of the question was worth four marks.
For Part (b), candidates were required to state two actions an employer may take to discipline
employees. Candidates performed satisfactorily on this section, giving responses such as
reprimands/counseling, warnings/meetings, memos on their conduct for the records, and dismissals.
Part (b) was worth three marks.
For Part (c) (i), candidates were required to copy a given table in their answer booklets. For each of the
aspects outlined in the table, they were to outline two benefits that an employee may derive from
statutory provisions. An example of each aspect was done for the candidates. This was not well done.
In most instances, candidates were unable to outline the benefits that an employee may derive from the
statutory provisions. This part of the question was worth six marks.
For Part (c) (ii), candidates were required to state three actions that the clerk should carry out to ensure
that the process of shortlisting applicants is fair. Many candidates were not familiar with the term
shortlisting and failed to give expected responses such as including suitable prospective candidates
from list to be interviewed; setting aside all applicants that do not qualify for the job; and reviewing
applications carefully and selecting candidates with appropriate academic qualifications. Part (c) (ii)
was worth three marks.

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Question 7
The question tested candidates’ knowledge of the functions of the purchasing and accounts offices.
For Part (a), candidates were asked to identify four duties of a clerk in the accounts office. Candidates
performed satisfactorily on this section and indicated responses such as preparing statements of
accounts, totalling time cards, and preparing cash summary sheets. This part of the question was worth
three marks.
For Part (b), candidates were required to write any one of the following abbreviations in full and
explain what each means: (i) COD and (ii) E OE.
This segment of the question was moderately done. Most candidates were able to give the correct
meaning for COD, which is cash on delivery but were unable to explain its meaning, that is, the buyer
pays the bill only when the goods are delivered. However, E OE, errors and omissions excepted
proved more challenging for the candidates. This means that the seller is entitled to make any change in
the prices quoted on the invoice if there is an error or omission. Part (b) was worth two marks.
Part (c) (i), worth four marks, required candidates to use the information given in a table to calculate the
weekly gross pay and net pay. Candidates performed satisfactorily on this segment of the question,
stating correctly the gross and net pay. Some candidates, however, could not differentiate between
gross and net pay and substituted the gross pay for net pay and vice versa.
Part (c) (ii) required candidates to calculate the total net salary, if Ms Hart was also given a commission
of 20 per cent of her net pay. Many candidates were able to calculate the total net salary correctly.
Part (c) (ii) was worth two marks.
For Part (c) (iii), worth three marks, candidates were required to copy a cheque in their answer booklets
and complete it. The cheque should show the total salary paid to Anne Hart for the week. The cheque
should be signed by Mr Dave Watts, the accountant. Candidates performed satisfactorily on this
section.
Question 8
This question tested candidates’ knowledge of the duties and responsibilities of a clerk in the factory
office including the completion of forms used in this office.
For Part (a), candidates were asked to list three duties of a clerk in the factory office. Candidates’
performance on this section was only fair as many candidates failed to attempt this section and to
supply correct responses such as preparing statements of accounts, totaling time cards, and preparing
debit and credit notes. Part (a) was worth three marks.
Part (b), worth three marks, required candidates to identify three documents, other than a job card, that
are used in the factory office. Like part (a), some candidates did not respond to this section and others
who attempted it could only correctly list one document.

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For Part (c), candidates were required to complete a job card, using the form provided. Candidates
were given the information for the job card. In most instances, candidates who attempted this section
scored maximum marks. The performance on this section was satisfactory. Part (c) was worth nine
marks.
Paper 032 — Alternative to School-Based Assessment
A short case was provided and candidates were required to read and respond to ten structured questions
asked. This paper was worth 50 marks.
The Case
The case focused on a fictitious school, Fairview Secondary, and its plan to introduce a textbook loan
scheme. In the past, secondary school students in Fairview were responsible for purchasing their
textbooks. However, many students were unable to purchase books because of the high cost. To ensure
that all secondary school students have access to books, the Fairview Education Board is planning to
introduce a free textbook loan scheme. Under the proposed scheme, students will be supplied with the
books for each subject and will be required to return them at the end of the school year.
Question 1
Candidates were required to construct three questions to be included in a questionnaire to find out what
parents think about receiving books from the loan scheme. Although this part was fairly well done,
some candidates phrased the responses in statement form, instead of in the form of questions. This
question was worth three marks.
Question 2
Candidates were provided with the results of the questionnaire and were asked to use a bar chart to
illustrate these results. They were to calculate the number of parents who supported the textbook loan
scheme and those who did not. Although in most instances candidates earned the maximum marks, a
small percentage of them miscalculated and presented incorrect responses. This question was worth five
marks.
Question 3
Candidates were required to write a short paragraph highlighting the results of the questionnaire and to
inform the Fairview Education Board if it should introduce the textbook loan scheme in the schools.
They were required to justify their responses. Performance in this section revealed that many candidates
had difficulty responding favourably to this question as some of them supplied only findings, others
only results, while others gave justifications without supplying either findings or results. This question
was worth six marks.
Question 4
In this question, candidates were asked to use specific information to prepare an advertisement to be
placed in the local newspaper, inviting publishers to submit three copies each of textbooks in the
categories of Information Technology and Office Administration

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For this question, most candidates supplied the components requested and received partial marks.
However, many candidates failed to demonstrate awareness of the way an advertisement should be
displayed by simply producing a short paragraph. This question was worth six marks.
Question 5
In this question, worth eight marks, candidates were asked to prepare a letter to the Education Board in
response to the advertisement to submit an Office Administration textbook and to include three reasons
why the textbook should be included in the loan scheme. Many candidates failed to demonstrate correct
layout of a letter, including the addresses and date placement, and many of them failed to match the
salutation with the complimentary close. In addition, in most instances, the enclosure notation was
omitted. This question was poorly done.
Question 6
Candidates were asked to prepare a report on the suitability of books for the loan scheme. They were
asked to supply an appropriate title for the report and to outline four features of the textbook that may
encourage students to use it. This question was done well, most candidates scored the full four marks.
Question 7
This question asked for candidates’ responses regarding the reason a call was not answered after
supplying different time zones. This appeared easy for the majority of candidates, but some of them lost
a mark because they failed to mention the time difference. This question was worth two marks.
Question 8
In this question, worth four marks, candidates were instructed to write a letter to one of the suppliers of
the textbook informing them that the textbooks are needed urgently. In addition, candidates were
required to suggest two other methods of communicating with the suppliers, giving one reason for using
each of the proposed methods.
This question was handled fairly well as most candidates were able to list the telephone and email as
alternative methods, but in some instances, they failed to supply the advantage of using each method.
Question 9
Candidates were required to calculate the shipping and handling costs for the books. They were given a
list of shipping costs for the Freight Xpress courier company. The question asked candidates to
calculate the total cost of shipment. While some candidates had a problem calculating the correct costs
of shipment, many others scored satisfactorily on this question. This question was worth five marks.
Question 10
This question required candidates to design a flyer for distribution to students, identifying four ways to
care for textbooks. In most instances, candidates’ responses were very imaginative and they applied
creativity in designing their flyers. On the whole, candidates seemed to have enjoyed answering this
question which was worth six marks.

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The overall performance on this paper was satisfactory. The marks ranged from 0 to 47 and the mean
score was 27.06.
Paper 031 — School-Based Assessment (SBA)
The SBA component of the Office Administration course is an integral part of students’ assessment
which is covered by the syllabus. It is designed to assist students with the acquisition of specific
knowledge, skills, attributes and attitudes during the secondary school experience, for application in a
practical manner. This single guided research project is intended to develop in students the basic skills
of research and should lead to a sense of accomplishment as they collect data in a scientific manner.
The information gathered through various methods such as interviews, observations, questionnaires, the
Internet, or by means of primary and secondary sources is compiled in a report, complete, inter alia,
with title page, table of contents and bibliography. This paper was worth 50 marks.
Title Page
In general, candidates were able to present the title page with the required information such as the name
of the teacher, school, candidate, examination body, and the subject under examination. However, a few
candidates lost a mark for omitting the teacher’s name.
Table of Contents
Most candidates were able to prepare suitable tables of contents with appropriate headings and page
numbers, as detailed on the mark scheme. In some instances, candidates used ranges to complete the
TOC, for example, Report…… 9–12. This should not be encouraged. The report, which starts on
page 9, is adequate. Any subsequent headings would indicate on which page each sub-section starts.
Students, however, should ensure that the table of contents is complete and should cover the entire body
of the project.
Project Title
The topics selected were invariably not carefully structured, with the result that some were too broad
and in a few cases, outside the scope of the syllabus. It must be noted that topics must be related to the
objectives in the syllabus and framed in a manner to indicate that the student is examining or
researching some specific area which has some educational or social value from which he/she will
learn. The topic should not be too broadly stated, thus creating an overwhelming workload for the
student. The department being investigated must be specifically stated.
Aims
The aims should be stated clearly and must state precisely what the student is setting out to do. Many
students failed to state these in a manner which limited them to the title of the project. The aims must be
clearly linked to the title.
Functions
Several students scored full marks in this section once the department was identified. However, those
students who scored zero gave functions of the business studied and not the department itself. In a few
instances, students gave the duties of the clerk in the department.

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Correspondence
Generally, the letters presented were generated from the students and contained the relevant content.
However, many students failed to follow the general principle in letter writing. Formatting was the
main issue identified as it relates to the date, line-spacing and appropriate matching of the salutation
with the complimentary close. The salutation should give an indication of what form the
complimentary close should take, for example, named person (Dear Mr/Mrs/Ms/Dr Brown — Yours
sincerely); and unnamed person (Dear Sir/Madam — Yours faithfully/respectfully). ‘Yours truly’ is not
acceptable. In many instances, the students /writers did not sign the letter.
Methodology
Most students did not explain how and why the instruments were used or why the instrument chosen
was used over the others. In some cases, the instruments themselves were not properly constructed.
Some students failed to include the data gathering instrument in the appendix.
Questions
This was done satisfactorily by most students, although some of the questions submitted were not
relevant. Questions should be linked to both the title of the project and its aims. Students should avoid
giving statements and answers for questions.
Schedule of activities
Several students failed to produce a table showing 10–12 activities. In most cases, the comments did
not relate to the activities given. In a few instances, the activities stated were relevant to what happened
in the business and not the project. Comments given should support the follow-up actions or decisions
taken.
Regulations/Policies
From the responses given to this area, it was evident that several students had difficulty distinguishing
between company policy and legislation governing the workplace. In many instances, students failed to
state how they became aware of the legislation. However, the ‘Health and Safety Practices observed’
section was done satisfactorily. Many students were able to state the staff rule but failed to state how
they had to comply with the stated rule while carrying out the project.
Report Presentation
Generally, reports did not include charts or graphs or meet the requirements of 500–750 words. In some
instances, the reports did not depict the true findings of the research as related to the aims or the data-
gathering instrument presented. Some students failed to state what they had accomplished by
conducting the research or to present meaningful problem-solving strategies.
Business Forms
Business forms used in the project must be related to the department under consideration. In a few
instances, students simply included forms that bore no relevance to what they set out to do.

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Bibliography
Many students failed to obtain the maximum marks allocated for this section as they did not complete
the listing of resources used or the Internet sites referenced.
Office Equipment
As indicated in the mark scheme, the equipment stated in the SBA must be equipment observed or used
in the department studied. Although many students were able to identify the equipment used, their
comments did not relate to the suitability of tasks in the business. Rather, their comments were based on
how the researcher used the equipment to complete the project.
Major Strengths
Neat and well organized, word-processed projects.
Weaknesses
· Failure to attach to the project a current mark scheme to show how the students was marked
· Failure to state how students became aware of the legislation regulating the workplace
· Failure to state the department of the organization under study
· Incorrect sources of information
§ For persons interviewed: date, place and job title
§ Publications: Use APA or MLA or other approved styles
§ Internet sites: address of the website, name of authors and organizations
· Some schools submitted SBAs that were based on the old mark scheme, hence, there was a
wide disparity between the teacher and the moderator’s marks.
For the SBA, marks ranged from 0 to 50. The mean score was 34.29.
RECOMMENDATIONS TO TEACHERS:
· Ensure that all students gain access to a copy of the current mark scheme for the SBA
component to use as a guideline for successful completion of the project.
· Encourage students to pay keen attention to detail in order to maximize on the marks allocated.
· Monitor students consistently throughout the project to ensure that it is done correctly and that
the stipulated guidelines in the current syllabus are being pursued.
· Give more exposure to Paper 032 type questions.

JANUARY 2012

2
GENERAL COMMENTS
The Office Administration examination is offered in January and May/June each year. In
January, three papers are offered at the General Proficiency level:
Paper 01 – Multiple Choice, Paper 02 – Short Answer and Paper 032 – Alternative to School-
Based Assessment (SBA).
In January 2012, there was marked improvement in performance, with 83 per cent of the
candidates achieving Grades I–III, compared with 77 per cent in 2011. This was due mainly to
improvement on Paper 02. This year, the mean on Paper 02 was 41 per cent, compared with 34
per cent in 2011. While there were some encouraging responses to questions on Papers 02 and
032, there were also some areas of weakness. These areas are addressed in the detailed comments
on individual questions.
Paper 01 consisted of 60 multiple-choice items. Candidate performance was comparable with that
of 2011. The overall mean was 36.40 compared with 34.76 for January 2011. Marks ranged from
12 to 58 out of a maximum available score of 60.
Paper 02 consisted of two sections. Section I consisted of four compulsory questions covering
Modules I–VI and Module XII. These questions were attempted by the majority of candidates.
Section II consisted of four optional questions taken from Modules VII to XI. Knowledge and the
application of procedures associated with specialized office activities and office routines were
assessed in this section. Candidates were required to answer any two questions from Section II.
The overall mean for this paper was 40.69 compared with 33.82 in 2011. Marks ranged from 0 to
77 out of a maximum of 90. While this improvement is commendable, there are, however, some
areas that continue to pose difficulty to candidates. These areas are addressed in the section for
‘Detailed Comments’.
Paper 032 – Alternative to School-Based Assessment (SBA)
This paper targeted private individuals who would not have had the opportunity to complete SBA
projects as school candidates. It took the form of a written examination designed to test
candidates’ ability to use their personal experiences of routine office activities acquired through
observation or from performing the actual office tasks as a real employee.
The paper consisted of ten short, structured essay-type questions, based on an office case. For
this examination, the case focused mainly on Module X of the syllabus which covers sales and
marketing, and to a lesser extent, on Modules II and VIII which deal with communication and the
accounts office, respectively.
The overall mean for this paper was 27.39 compared with 30.08 in 2011. Marks ranged from 1 to
46 out of a maximum of 50.

3
DETAILED COMMENTS
Section I consisted of four compulsory questions, each worth 15 marks.
Question 1
This question tested candidates’ understanding of
· the modes of oral communication
· sources of reference materials used by a receptionist
· the types of information that a secretary can obtain from specified sources
· the consequences of reporting messages inaccurately
· the components of an email.
For Part (a) which was worth two marks, candidates were required to identify two modes of oral
communication that can be used to advertise a company’s products. Generally, candidates were
able to identify two modes and gave responses such as radio, television, telephone and word of
mouth.
In Part (b) (i), candidates were asked to suggest two sources of reference materials which may be
used by a receptionist. This part of the question was worth two marks.
Candidates gave responses such as the dictionary, hansard and encyclopedia. In some instances,
candidates inaccurately named the ‘telephone’ rather than the telephone directory as a reference
material.
Part (b) (ii) required candidates to identify one item of information which a secretary could obtain
from the following sources: (i) map, (ii) official gazette and (iii) post office guide. This part of the
question was worth three marks.
Candidates were more familiar with the concept of ‘map’ and provided correct responses such as
directions, locations and countries. However, the official gazette, and to a lesser extent, the post
office guide, presented some difficulty to candidates.
Expected responses for the official gazette, including recent appointments, legal issues, job offers
and advertisements, were not presented. Similarly, many candidates failed to provide correct
responses for the post office guide such as postal information and postage rates when answering
this part of the question.

4
Part (c) (i), which was worth two marks, required candidates to state two consequences a
receptionist would face for reporting a message inaccurately.
In some instances, candidates stated some extreme consequences such as ‘firing’ or ‘dismissing
the receptionist’, instead of more plausible responses such as queries will not be resolved,
incorrect information pertaining to dates and times will be conveyed and the possibility of
ambiguities and distortions of the message.
In Part (c) (ii), candidates were asked to assume that they were the receptionist at Northern
Supplies, Trinidad. They were required to compose an email to be sent to Mr Neal Sparks, the
purchasing clerk, to convey a message from Mrs May Peters of Home Supplies Ltd to Mr Sparks
about an order which was placed two weeks previously. This part of the question was worth 6
marks.
Many candidates failed to head up the email correctly by writing key words such as To, From,
and Subject. Some candidates wrote the date, which was not necessary, since the date is inserted,
by default, when composing an email. However, the body of the message which carried most of
the marks was satisfactorily done.
Question 2
This question tested candidates’ knowledge of filing systems and of specific office duties, namely
(i) answering the telephone, (ii) filing inactive files, (iii) dealing with outgoing mail and (iv)
scheduling appointments.
Part (a) required candidates to identify three advantages of using the electronic filing system as a
means of storage. This part of the question was worth three marks. Popular responses provided
by candidates included less paper use, easy retrieval, safer and more effective and less time
consuming. This part of the question was satisfactorily done.
In Part (b), which was worth four marks, candidates were required to define the terms copyright
and libel in relation to records and information management. The majority of candidates were
able to provide an appropriate definition for copyright, that is, a set of exclusive rights granted by
a state to the creator of an original work, or the right to reproduce, publish, sell or distribute the
matter and form of something as a literary, musical or artistic work.
However, many candidates failed to differentiate between the two concepts and gave a definition
for libel which was similar to that of copyright. Candidates who performed well on this part of
the question gave correct responses for libel such as a published false statement that is damaging
to a person’s reputation or a written or visual defamation, which takes the form of lies in print, or
misleading or deceptive photographs.

5
Part (c) required candidates to outline two tips that they would give to the assistant clerk for
carrying out specific office duties. This part of the question was worth eight marks.
This part of the question was generally well done by candidates, except for Part (ii) which dealt
with filing inactive files. Correct responses for answering the telephone such as answer telephone
promptly, be polite, helpful and tactful at all times, and keep a message pad and writing
instrument handy were frequently provided by candidates.
In dealing with outgoing mail, candidates provided correct responses such as check if letter is
signed, check each envelope to verify address, special notations and postage, and enter
particulars in the postage book.
Candidates who scored full marks on scheduling appointments gave responses such as study your
executive’s routine activities, agree on times, allow sufficient time between appointment, and
confirm by letter any appointment made by telephone.
Several candidates were unable to give correct answers that demonstrated that they knew how to
deal with filing inactive files. Correct responses — such as maintain a form of confidentiality,
inactive files or dead files need to be disposed of in order to create room in the filing system, and
when hard copy documents are unlikely to be used again, but cannot be destroyed for legal
reasons, they can be placed in an archive — were seldom provided by candidates.
However, the one frequent correct response that was given for filing inactive records was that the
documents should be shredded.
Question 3
· documents that are required for travelling overseas
· services offered by the bank, travel agency and the embassy
· tasks to be performed to ensure appropriate hotel arrangements
· how to prepare an itinerary.
For Part (a), candidates were required to list four travel documents that are required for an
overseas field trip. This part of the question was worth four marks.
The majority of candidates supplied satisfactory answers such as visa, itinerary, passport, travel
ticket and driver’s licence/permit/ID.
For Part (b), which was worth three marks, candidates were required to identify one service that is
offered by each of the following three types of organizations: (i) bank, (ii) travel agency and (iii)
embassy. This part of the question was handled well by most candidates.

6
Favourable answers for services offered by the bank included travellers’ cheques, money
transfers, credit cards, ATM services, e-banking and financial advice.
Correct responses provided for the travel agency included flight arrangements, hotel bookings,
tour bookings, and transportation/car rentals.
Expected responses for services offered by the embassy included scheduling appointments for
interviews, assisting citizens with visa requirements and notarizing documents during normal
service hours.
For Part (c), candidates were required to prepare a list of three tasks that must be performed to
ensure that appropriate hotel arrangements are made for an executive who will be attending a
regional conference for a specified period. This part of the question was worth three marks.
Among the tasks that candidates listed included the name of person for booking, type of room
accommodation, length of stay, food preferences and payment plan.
For Part (d), candidates were required to prepare an itinerary using the information given in the
scenario. This section was worth five marks and was satisfactorily done. The majority of
candidates were able to convert to the 24-hour clock and provide details of dates and times of
arrival at and departure from the various destinations. However, a major weakness identified in
this part of the question was that some candidates failed to head up the itinerary to include the
name of the document (itinerary), the person for whom the itinerary was being prepared and the
period for travel.
Question 4
This question was designed to test candidates’ knowledge of job recruitment and resignation
procedures.
For Part (a), candidates were required to list three factors which should be considered when
seeking employment based on a particular scenario. Popular among the correct responses
provided by candidates were type and size of business, working hours, salary, fringe benefits,
location, qualifications/skills required and working hours.
For Part (b) (i), which was worth one mark, many candidates failed to give a correct definition of
deportment and instead provided definitions for ‘deport’ or ‘deportee’. Those candidates who
earned the mark gave responses such as the ability to conduct oneself in an acceptable manner,
one’s behaviour/actions in public, one’s appearance and dress.
For Part (b) (ii), candidates were required to state three fringe benefits that an employer may offer
to an employee. This part of the question was worth three marks. Candidates scored well on this

7
section and gave correct responses such as medical insurance, retirement plans, housing
allowances, company car and payment for fitness/wellness programmes.
For Part (c), worth eight marks, candidates were required to write a letter of resignation based on
a given scenario. This part of the question was handled well by most candidates. Candidates were
able to indicate the different parts of the letter — address and date, salutation and complimentary
close, body of letter to include reason for leaving job as well as an expression of thanks to the
employer.
Question 5
This question examined candidates’ knowledge of the functions of the human resources
department.
For Part (a), candidates were required to list two tasks other than ‘considering completed
application forms’ that the human resources clerk would be required to perform. This part of the
question was worth two marks. Examples of correct answers provided by candidates included
writing and placing job advertisements/vacancies in the media, short listing applicants and
selection of the right person for the job.
For Part (b), candidates were required to identify four areas of welfare that can be provided by a
company to show that employees are valued. The majority of candidates responded satisfactorily
to this part of the question, which was worth four marks. Candidates gave favourable responses
such as access to subsidized health insurance, provision of staff cafeteria, providing comfortable
chairs and desks/furniture, involving retired staff in social activities, visiting staff on sick leave or
hospitalized, and providing free counseling services, for example, in case of bereavement/divorce.
In Part (c) (i), candidates were required to outline three activities that an employee should
undertake in preparation for a job induction session. This part of the question was worth three
marks. Candidates’ performance on this section was only fair as several of the responses given
were unrelated to the concept of induction. Candidates were expected to give responses such as
learning about the organization’s values and history, prepare a list of questions that he would
like answered, and research the industry to gain basic knowledge to help him to be productive in
his job.
In Part (c) (ii), candidates were required to state three challenges a new employee, Mr Rajesh
Boola, is likely to face in his new role after being deployed from the human resources department
to the factory and transport department. This part of the question, worth three marks, was fairly
well done. Some candidates submitted favourable responses such as acceptance/perception of
new staff, stress and fear of ability to perform to the best of his ability in a new department, issues
regarding human and physical resources, and speed at which he can adapt to his new role and
responsibilities.

8
Part (c) (iii), which was worth three marks, required candidates to describe three desirable
attitudes likely to lead to Rajesh’s success in the department. Candidates seemed to have a good
grasp of this aspect of the syllabus and supplied satisfactory responses such as dependability,
team spirit, cooperation, honesty/integrity, and tolerance/respect/courtesy.
Question 6
This question tested candidates’ knowledge of purchasing and stock control procedures.
For Part (a), which was worth two marks, candidates were required to write any one of the
following acronyms in full and explain what each means: (i) COD and (ii) E OE .
This segment of the question was satisfactorily done. Most candidates were able to give the
correct meaning for COD which is cash on delivery and were able to explain the meaning, that is,
the buyer pays the bill only when the goods are delivered. However, E OE, which means
errors and omissions excepted, proved more challenging to candidates. This means that the seller
is entitled to make any change in the prices quoted on the invoice if there is an error or omission.
For Part (b), candidates were required to state two reasons for keeping control of stock.
Candidates performed satisfactorily on this part of the question and were able to give correct
responses such as maintaining adequate supplies, preventing pilferage, avoiding
wastage/deterioration and monitoring availability of capital. This part of the question was worth
two marks.
For Part (c), worth two marks, candidates were required to define the terms ‘continuous or
perpetual inventory’ and ‘annual inventory’. This section was satisfactorily done as candidates
were able to define correctly ‘continuous or perpetual inventory’ as the recording or receipts and
issues from stock as they occur and the maintenance of a running balance. Annual inventory, on
the other hand, is defined as the process which is carried out once a year for the end-of-year
financial accounts required by law.
For Part (d), candidates were required to use the information on the given stock list to complete
the stock record forms which were provided. This part of the question was worth nine marks.
Candidates performed unsatisfactorily on this segment of the question; most of them failed to
complete the forms with the appropriate data required.

9
Question 7
This question tested candidates’ knowledge of the functions of the sales and marketing office
with particular focus on the duties of a marketing clerk, uses of a mailing list and the preparation
of quotations.
In Part (a), worth three marks, candidates were required to state three key functions performed by
a marketing clerk. Candidates performed satisfactorily on this segment of the question and were
able to submit correct responses such as assists in organizing promotional activities, assists in
preparing press releases, prepares and maintains mailing lists, assists in packaging and delivery,
prepares advertising materials and makes travel arrangements for marketing purposes.
For Part (b), candidates were asked to state three uses of a mailing list. Candidates performed
creditably on this segment of the question, giving correct responses such as it serves as reference
of a current list of customers, clients and subscribers and it saves time in locating names and
addresses of valued customers and subscribers. This part of the question was worth three marks.
For Part (c) (i), candidates were presented with a scenario in which they were to assume the role
of a marketing clerk with responsibilities for promotional activities. The first task was to
recommend a four-point strategy to keep a client (Mr Bennett), who is interested in buying six
sports utility vehicles, informed of promotional activities.
Candidates performed satisfactorily in this section and gave correct responses such as keep a
tickler to follow up on Mr Bennett’s enquiry, supply Mr Bennett with up-to-date sales literature
as soon as it becomes available and supply him with relevant website links on the proposed
vehicles. This part of the question was worth four marks.
Part (c) (ii), worth five marks, required candidates to use the form provided to prepare a quotation
for Mr Bennett using the information given in the enquiry. Candidates performed unsatisfactorily
on this segment of the question as many candidates failed to complete the form accurately and
omitted important details such as the date, quotation provided for and the terms of sale. In
addition, candidates failed to calculate accurately the total price, discount, and the price less
discount.
Marks ranged from 0 to12, and the mean was 3.66.
Question 8
This question tested candidates’ knowledge of the factory, despatch and transport offices. This
question was the least popular of the four optional questions.
For Part (a), candidates were asked to identify two types of factory records that a clerk who works
in the factory, despatch and transport offices would use. Candidates’ performance in this section
was only fair as many candidates failed to attempt this section and to supply correct responses

10
such as planning master, material schedule, job card/job record, time card, shift roster, progress
card/production control card. This part of the question was worth two marks.
Part (b), worth two marks, required candidates to explain any two of the following terms: (i)
progress chasing, (ii) overheads and (iii) quality control.
With the exception of ‘quality control’ which is defined as ensuring that the company’s quality
standards are being maintained, the other two terms were inappropriately defined. Correct
responses required from candidates should have included:
· Progress chasing — checking on the progress of items on the assembly line and
completing a progress advice form to be compared with the planning chart.
· Overheads — the percentage of the cost which cannot be traced to an individual product
but which is incurred in the production process, such as factory lighting, water, factory
rates and fuel.
For Part (c), worth two marks, candidates were required to explain two purposes of the delivery
note. This segment of the question was satisfactorily done as candidates gave correct responses
such as it is used to get a signature from the customer as acceptance of the goods, the customer
keeps this for his records, the second signed copy serves as evidence to indicate that the goods
were delivered to the address and indicates that it was received.
For Part (d) (i), candidates were required to outline five actions which should be taken by the
despatch and transport office to ensure delivery of an order to a customer. In most instances,
candidates who attempted this section scored satisfactorily and submitted correct responses such
as prepare documents for the despatch of goods — delivery note — and schedule delivery, liaise
with accounts department to confirm cost, get invoices and prepare destination sheet for the
transport. This part of the question was worth five marks.
For Part (d) (ii), worth four marks, candidates were presented with a scenario in which several
failed attempts had been made to deliver goods. On the first attempt, poor directions were given
to the driver who eventually returned to the office and on the second attempt, the customer was
not at home. Candidates were required to state four actions that should have been taken to avoid
the problems.
This part of the question was satisfactorily done. Candidates gave acceptable responses such as
call the client and get specific and correct directions to the home, arrange a mutually convenient
time to deliver the goods, reschedule the delivery time and ensure that the delivery person has
mobile communication equipment and is able to contact the office and customer. This part of the
question was worth four marks.

11
Paper 032 – Alternative to School-Based Assessment
A short case was provided and candidates were required to read and respond to ten structured
questions. This paper was worth 50 marks.
The Case
This case was developed mainly from Module X — Sales and Marketing — and to a lesser extent
on Module II — Communication.
The case focused on the opening of a newly registered, middle-sized production company in
Grenada. The company was in the process of developing a new fruit bar from Caribbean fruits
and required a marketing clerk to assist with this launch. The scenarios based on the case
centered on tasks the marketing clerk would have to perform such as carrying out a market
research study, summarizing and presenting the results of the study, as well as designing
promotional material for the launch of the new fruit bar.
Candidates were required to apply analytical and evaluative skills to respond appropriately to the
questions.
Question 1
Candidates were required to prepare an advertisement for the position of marketing clerk to
appear in the weekend newspaper. They were to use the information given to prepare the
advertisement.
The majority of candidates was able to score maximum marks for this question and included in
the advertisement information relating to the description of the person for the job, qualifications,
personality, experience and duties. This question was worth six marks.
Question 2
Candidates were required to suggest three marketing strategies that would effectively promote the
new fruit bar. Most of them were able to identify marketing strategies used for a product line and
submitted correct responses such as distribution of samples, ‘promotions – buy one, get one’,
advertisements and create a ‘blog’ entry online to discuss the product. However, only very few
candidates suggested introducing the product at a low cost as a strategy.
Question 3
This question had two parts. Part (a), worth three marks, required candidates to write three
questions to be included in a questionnaire designed to find out how feasible the introduction of
such products would be in the Caribbean. The majority of candidates were able to formulate
reasonable responses which included questions on the cost of the product; type of product;

12
availability of raw material; health perspective and packaging.
Part (b) required candidates to suggest the most appropriate type of research method they would
use to carry out a research on the new fruit bar and to give three reasons to justify the response.
Candidates gave survey/questionnaire as the best method to use to conduct research, and gave
reasons such as information can be gathered quickly, it is an easier method of collecting data, it
is inexpensive and both manual and electronic means can be used to gather information. This
part of the question was worth four marks.
Question 4
Candidates were required to write a short report summarizing the results of the research, and to
identify one recommendation for developing this new product.
The majority of candidates was able to produce the report from the information given and
included relevant information in the body of the report. However, candidates omitted the heading
for the report and therefore failed to score the mark allotted to it. For the recommendation, some
candidates again reported findings rather than stating a recommendation. An expected suggested
recommendation could be as follows:
· recommend that product is not only introduced or advertised regionally, but globally, or
· that other Caribbean countries invest in the introduction of product line
This question was worth six marks.
Question 5
Candidates were required to state two ways each in which a multimedia projector and
graphs/charts could be used to enhance the presentation of the report for the board of directors.
This question was fairly well done by most candidates who gave correct responses for the
multimedia projector including it allows everyone in the room to see presentation, allows for
direct engagement which adds impact to presentation and having a display on large screen
facilitates more effective, free flowing discussions.
Candidates stated that using charts or graphs in the presentation makes it easier to understand
numerical data, enables the summary of a large set of data in visual form and allows for
comparisons in growth.
This question was worth four marks.

13
Question 6
Candidates were required to develop a check list in chronological order, to be sent to invitees,
asking them to indicate the most convenient days and times for the conference at which the fruit
bar would be introduced to potential investors.
Most candidates were able to place the information given in chronological order. Candidates
were expected to put in check boxes and instructions for invitees. Most candidates were able to
score four of the five marks allotted to this question.
Question 7
For this question, candidates were required to prepare a departmental budget outlining the overall
costing of the conference. The budget should include overall revenue and monies spent.
Candidates were also required to calculate the profit or loss of this event.
The responses to this question were only fair. Candidates were expected to setup the budget
showing clearly income, expenses and profit as follows:
This question was worth five marks.
Budget for Fruit Bar Conference
To be held on ------ May 2012
Revenue
Actual
Sponsorship $5,000.00
Department Funds $3,000.00
Intended
Sale of Books $1,000.00
Registration fees $2,000.00
Total Revenue $11,000.00
Expenses
Rental $1,000.00
Hotel accommodation $3,200.00
Material stationery $250.00
Food refreshment $2,500.00
Miscellaneous $500.00
Total Expenses $7,450.00
Profit $3,550.00
Profit = Revenue – Expenses
$11,000 - $7,450 = $3,550

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Question 8
This question required candidates to develop a short radio advertisement which should focus on
promoting the conference, its purpose as well as the location, time, date and registration fee. The
advertisement should be very persuasive to attract as many persons as possible to attend the
conference.
The question was satisfactorily done with the majority of candidates designing advertisements
which included pertinent information in a persuasive manner.
This question was worth five marks.
Question 9
For this question, worth five marks, candidates were required to draft a banner that could be used
to advertise the conference. The banner should include the name of the conference date, day and
time, banner theme and company logo.
Candidates scored satisfactorily on this question. However, most candidates were not familiar
with the term ‘logo’ or were not able to differentiate between a logo and a decorative design.
Question 10
Candidates were required to use the information given about the conference to prepare a welcome
address to be delivered at the conference.
Candidates performed satisfactorily on this question, as they scored marks for:
· addressing the audience
· welcoming the audience
· stating the purpose of the conference
· repeating the welcome or giving an appropriate closure
This question was worth four marks.
The overall performance on this paper was satisfactory with marks ranging from 0 to 47, and a
mean score of 27.06.

15
RECOMMENDATIONS
· More exposure to questions examined on Paper 032.
· Since most candidates who sit this examination are private candidates, upon registering
for the examination, they should be informed that they need to be guided by the syllabus,
recommended texts and support materials.
· Candidates should visit the CXC website and read comments presented in the subject
reports to assist them in identifying their strengths and weaknesses.
· Candidates need to practise completing forms accurately, since this is one of the areas of
poor performance.
· In responding to questions, candidates should take note of key words to guide them in
presenting information in a logical and organized manner.
· Private candidates should also consider seeking assistance from experienced teachers in
the school system.

EXAMINATION
MAY/JUNE 2012

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GENERAL COMMENTS
The General Proficiency Office Administration examination is offered in January and May/June each
year. In June 2012, some 17 322 candidates sat the examination compared with the June 2011 sitting
when 16 937 candidates wrote the examination. Approximately, 78 per cent of the candidates achieved
Grades I–III compared with 88.70 per cent in 2011. There were some encouraging responses to questions
on all three papers. However, there are some specific areas of weakness which need greater attention.
These areas are outlined in the detailed comments on individual questions.
The objectives tested were chosen from all the modules. The papers offered were:
Paper 01 – Multiple choice
Paper 031 – School-Based Assessment (SBA)
Paper 01 covered the entire syllabus and was set to test Knowledge and Application/Profiles. Candidates’
performance showed more or less similar achievement to that of 2011. The overall mean of the 2012
paper was 34.64 compared with 34.75 for June 2011. Marks ranged from 2 to 59 out of a maximum of 60.
Paper 02 also assessed Knowledge and Application of procedures and processes associated with
specialized office activities and routines. This paper consisted of two sections. Section I comprised four
compulsory questions covering Modules I–VI and Module XII. These questions were attempted by the
majority of candidates.
Section II consisted of four optional questions taken from Modules VII–XI. Candidates were required to
answer two questions from Section II, so, in total, candidates were required to answer six questions from
Paper 02. The overall mean for this paper was 40.37 compared with 50.32 in 2011. Marks ranged from 0
to 83 out of a maximum of 90. There are some areas that continue to pose difficulty for candidates and
this is reflected in their overall performance.
Paper 031 is a project for candidates in regular school settings, and is set and marked by the teacher, using
guidelines and criteria provided in the syllabus. The overall mean for this paper was 32.89 compared with
34.29 in 2011. Marks ranged from 0 to 50 out of a maximum of 50.
had the opportunity to complete SBA projects as school candidates. The paper was designed to test
candidates’ ability to use their personal experiences on routine office activities acquired through
observation or from doing actual office tasks as a real employee. The paper consisted of ten structured
response-type questions, which were based on an office case. For this examination, the case focused on
Module XII of the syllabus — Recruitment and Orientation.
Candidates’ performance improved slightly on this paper, with a mean of 30.69 compared with 27.06 in
2011. Marks ranged from 2 to 46 out of 50.

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DETAILED COMMENTS
Section I
Section I was compulsory and each question was worth 15 marks
Question 1
This question tested Module III, Objectives 1 and 2. It was designed to test candidates’ knowledge and
their ability to apply the knowledge related to the management of records. The mean for the question was
4.34.
For Part (a), candidates were required to state three characteristics of an efficient records management
system. For the most part, candidates were able to identify at least one characteristic. In Part (b) (i),
candidates were required to list two types of filing classifications. This segment of the question was fairly
done.
Part (b) (ii) required candidates to identify one type of record that is filed using the classification stated in
(b) (i). The Majority of candidates was able to identify one type of record for alphabetical filing
classification.
Part (c) (i) required candidates to complete a table given to show the indexing order of each of the names
given. Most candidates who attempted this section were unable to give the appropriate responses.
Candidates demonstrated a lack of knowledge indexing and indexing order.
Part (c) (ii) required candidates to prepare a cross-reference sheet for a client with a hyphenated name.
This section was unsatisfactorily done. Again, candidates demonstrated very limited knowledge of this
aspect of the syllabus. Part (c) (iii) required candidates to arrange three names given in alphabetical
order. Candidates were expected to use the rules of filing to guide them in providing the correct response.
This section was fairly well done.
Question 2
This question tested Module IV, Objective 1 (b, e, h, j) and Objective 2 (d). Specifically, the question
tested candidates’ understanding of terms associated with meetings and the different types of meetings.
The mean mark for the question was 6.75.
Part (a) required candidates to state the meaning of the following terms:
(i) Ad hoc
(ii) Ex officio
(iii) Proxy
(iv) Motion

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This section posed some difficulty for candidates. It was evident that candidates were not familiar with
the terms as most of them failed to state appropriate meanings of the terms.
Part (b) required candidates to use information from a given excerpt to prepare a notice of meeting to be
sent out by the board. Candidates were also required to include two agenda items. This section was
popular among candidates and most of them were able to score highly.
Part (c) required candidates to state three legal requirements for convening an annual general meeting.
The word legal was misinterpreted and in most cases was disregarded by candidates.
Question 3
This question tested Module IV, Objective 2 (a–g) and Objective 3 (a–d). It was designed to test
candidates’ understanding of the duties and responsibilities of a receptionist. For the most part,
candidates’ responses were fairly well done. The mean mark was 9.96.
For Part (a) (i), candidates were to list three main duties of a receptionist. Candidates performed
satisfactorily on this section and were able to give responses such as:
· Receiving visitors
· Operating the switchboard
· Handling appointments
· Keeping a register of callers/callers’ log
· Introducing and directing visitors
· Maintaining the reception area
For Part (a) (ii), candidates were required to identify two attributes, other than a good temperament, that a
receptionist should possess. This section was satisfactorily done as most candidates were able to list two
attributes.
For Part (a) (iii), candidates were required to state two security measures that should be practised by the
reception staff. This section was handled well by the candidates and a large number of them were able to
score the marks allotted.
For Part (b), candidates were required to use the form provided to enter the information given.
Candidates were also required to convert times to the 24–hour clock. This part of the question was
satisfactorily done by most candidates. However, some candidates failed to write appropriately the correct
times and some of them used both the 12- and 24-hour formats.

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Question 4
This question tested Module I, Objectives 1 and 3 (a–b); Module II Objective 1 (written- b); Module II,
Objective 6. This question was designed to have candidates examine the benefits and drawbacks of an
open plan office and also to apply the rules governing the composition of a memorandum. The mean mark
was 8.01.
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to state two advantages of the open plan office. Candidates gave
appropriate responses such as cheaper to maintain, better communication and easier to supervise. This
part of the question was handled well by candidates with the majority of them gaining the maximum
marks allotted.
For Part (a) (ii), candidates were asked to state two disadvantages of the cellular office. Candidates were
familiar with this aspect of the syllabus and gave favourable responses such as less supervision, more
costly to build and maintain, communication is minimal and more space is required.
For Part (c), candidates were required to write a memorandum to the junior clerk indicating four main
rules she should follow when answering the company’s telephone. Most candidates made a fair attempt at
answering the question.
Section II
Candidates were required to attempt any two of four questions from this section.
Question 5
This question tested Module VIII, Objective 2 (a–g); Objective 4 (d, g) and Objective 8(a–b). It was
designed to test candidates’ understanding of the role of the clerk in the accounts department and their
knowledge of the preparation of some documents usually handled by this clerk. The mean was 4.52 and
the marks ranged from 0 to 15. This was the least popular question in Section II.
For Part (a) (i), candidates were required to state two duties of an accounts clerk. Some candidates
presented appropriate responses to include: preparing payroll, ledger postings and preparation of
cheques.
In Part a (ii), candidates were required to identify two tasks that the computer can help the accounts clerk
to accomplish in the accounts office. The majority of candidates were able to identify satisfactorily tasks
such as:
· Data entry
· Storage of information
· Preparing accounting documents (invoices)
· Updating records
· Detecting errors

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For Part (b), candidates were required to state two purposes of the spreadsheet as a useful tool in the
accounts office. Candidates demonstrated knowledge of the purposes of the spreadsheet as an accounting
tool and the majority of those who attempted this question was able to score maximum marks.
Parts (c) (i) required candidates to prepare a bank reconciliation statement using the information given.
This section of the question posed difficulty for many candidates. The majority of candidates who
attempted this question was unable to write up the statement accurately.
Part (c) (ii) required candidates to state three reasons why the cash book and bank reconciliation statement
may differ. This aspect was satisfactorily done and candidates were able to state reasons such as:
· Standing order agreements
· Credit transfers
· Bank charges
· Late lodgment
Question 6
This question tested Module IX, Objectives 2, 3 and 6. It was the most popular among the optional
questions. It tested candidates’ understanding of the roles and function of the clerk in the purchasing
department and their ability to calculate stock balance using the FIFO method. The mean marks ranged
from 0 to 15, and the mean was 5.91.
For Part (a), candidates were required to identify two duties of the purchasing and stock control clerk.
While the majority of candidates were able to identify the duties of the clerk satisfactorily, they were
unable to differentiate between duties carried out by management and those carried out by entry-level
workers as required by the question.
In Part (b) (i), candidates were required to list two factors that the purchasing clerk must consider when
ordering goods. Candidates performed satisfactorily in this section, giving responses such as:
· Cost
· Warranty /guarantee offered
· Urgency
· After sales service
For Part (b) (ii), candidates were required to outline the procedure that a department should follow when
making an internal request for supplies that (a) are in stock, (b) are not in stock. In most instances,
candidates were able to outline the procedure satisfactorily; however, some candidates did not pay keen
attention to the term ‘internal’ and so gave an inappropriate response.

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In Part (c) (i); candidates were required to use the information in the table given to calculate the value of
the stock using the FIFO method. The form was provided for candidates. This section posed a great deal
of difficulty for candidates. Candidates failed to use the columns appropriately with many candidates
reversing the entries in the balances and values columns.
For Part (c) (ii), candidates were required to use the information given to complete a stock control card.
Candidates’ performance on this question demonstrated very little knowledge of calculating running
balances.
Question 7
This question tested Module X, Objectives 1, 2 and 4. It examined the role and function of a clerk in the
marketing department. The marks ranged from 0 to 15, and the mean was 5.14.
For Part (a), candidates were asked to identify three functions of the marketing office. Candidates
performed satisfactorily on this section. Weaker candidates repeated the same function expressed in
different ways.
For Part (b), candidates were required to state three reasons why a clerk in the sales and marketing
department should maintain a mailing list. This section posed some level of difficulty for candidates.
Some candidates related their responses to the mail room while other candidates related their responses to
the accounts office.
Part (c) (i) required candidates to explain the difference between a trade discount and a cash discount.
Candidates had a working knowledge of trade discount and were able to state explicitly the correct
meaning, however, the majority of candidates who attempted this question was not able to state the
distinguishing feature of a cash discount.
Part (c) (ii) required candidates to calculate the amount of money a customer would pay if he took
advantage of all the discounts. The majority of candidates who attempted this question was able to
calculate correctly the total price before any discounts and the trade discounts. More than 50 per cent of
the candidates who attempted this part of the question was able to score the maximum mark.
Question 8
This question tested Module XI, Objectives 1 and 3. It was designed to test candidates’ understanding of
the roles and functions of the factory, despatch and transport office. This was the second most popular
question and had the highest mean of 8.44 in this section. Marks ranged from 0 to 15.
For Part (a), candidates were to outline three functions of the factory, despatch and transport office.
Candidates’ performance in this section was only fair as many of them failed to attempt this section and
those who did were only able in most cases to list one function.

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Part (b) required candidates to identify three duties, other than routine office duties, of a clerk in the
transport office. As in Part (a), some candidates did not respond to this section and others who attempted
could only list one duty.
For Part (c) (i), candidates were required to use the form given to complete an advice note from given
information. Over 80 per cent of the candidates who attempted this section scored maximum marks.
Performance on this section was good.
In Part (c) (ii), candidates were required to suggest three items of information that should be included on
the gate pass they were asked to assist in designing. Performance on this section was fair.
Paper 032 - Alternative to School-Based Assessment
A short case was provided and candidates were required to read and respond to ten structured questions.
This paper was worth 50 marks.
The case was based on a large Caribbean-owned company that specialized in providing office products
and technology services to its customers. The company prided itself on being globally competitive,
innovative and customer-focused, and placed emphasis on employing a workforce that was not only
competent at multi-tasking but also multi-skilled. Management believed that this strategy would lead to
increased productivity and consequently started a recruitment drive to employ staff with wide-ranging
skills that can adapt and perform a multiplicity of activities in their company.
Candidates had to respond to ten questions to include:
· writing an unsolicited letter of application
· drafting an email
· preparing an advertisement for the newspaper
· suggesting ways to prepare for an interview
· outlining factors to consider when accepting a new position
· listing tasks to be completed before leaving one’s current job.
Candidates performed satisfactorily for the most part, except in areas like the unsolicited letter where they
did not express interest in whether or not a vacancy exists, and using appropriate salutation and
complimentary close in letters and emails. Candidates should pay attention to sentence structure, grammar
and spelling. More specific comments follow.
Question 1
Candidates were required to outline three characteristics that the management of Hi Tech Limited would
want its employees to display. This part was done satisfactorily and candidates gave correct responses
such as, skillful in communication, IT and other relevant areas; multi-skilled and cross trained;
qualified/professional/team player and able to respond to global competition. This question was worth
three marks and the mean was 2.02.

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Question 2
Candidates were asked to write a short paragraph to explain the reason for applying to Hi Tech Limited
for employment, giving justification. This section posed a challenge to many candidates as they were able
to state only two reasons correctly. This question was worth five marks and the mean was 2.91.
Question 3
This question required candidates to prepare a draft of an unsolicited letter of application for the position
of administrative assistant at Hi Tech Limited. Performance on this section was unsatisfactory. This
question was worth eight marks and the mean was 4.53.
Question 4
Candidates were required to draft a copy of the email that Kamla received at her email address,
kramugh@mail.com. This was based on information given. The question was worth eight marks and the
mean was 4.14.
Question 5
In this question, candidates were asked to use the information provided to prepare an advertisement to
appear in the weekend newspapers. They performed fairly well on this section. This question was worth
six marks and the mean was 5.32.
Question 6
Candidates were asked to state four ways in which Kamla can prepare for the interview. This question
was worth four marks and the mean was 2.68.
Question 7
Candidates were asked to suggest three techniques/ways to remain calm during an interview when one
starts to feel very nervous. This question was worth three marks and the mean was 1.43.
Question 8
Candidates were asked to develop one question for each of five factors (education, job security,
opportunities for promotion, working hours, training) that individuals could ask during an interview.
Candidates were required to use the specific format given. This question was worth five marks and the
mean was 3.57.

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Question 9
Candidates were required to suggest three factors to consider when deciding whether to accept a job
position. This question was worth three marks and the mean was 2.22.
Question 10
This question required candidates to prepare a checklist of four tasks that should be completed before
leaving one’s current job. It was worth five marks and the mean was 2.44.
The overall performance on the paper was satisfactory. Marks ranged from 2 to 46. The mean was 30.69
compared with 27.06 in 2011.
Candidates should
· acquire a personal copy of the syllabus and incorporate it in their examination preparation process
· make optimal use of past papers and access the CXC website for comments presented in the
subject report to assist in identifying their strengths and weaknesses
· seek assistance from experienced teachers in the school system, as well as from past successful
scholars of Office Administration.
Paper 031 — School Based Assessment (SBA)
The SBA component of the Office Administration course is an integral part of students’ assessment which
is covered by the syllabus. It is designed to assist students with the acquisition of specific knowledge,
skills, attributes, and attitudes during the secondary school experience, for application in a practical
manner. This single guided research project is intended to develop in students the basic skills of research
and should lead to a sense of accomplishment as they collect data in a scientific manner.
The information gathered through various methods such as interviews, observations, questionnaires, the
internet, or by means of primary and secondary sources are compiled in a report, complete, inter alia,
with title page, table of contents and bibliography. This paper is worth 50 marks.
Title Page
In general, students were able to present the title page with the required information. However, a few of
them lost marks for omitting the project title, teacher’s name, and name of the school.

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Table of Contents
Most students were able to prepare suitable table of contents (TOC) as detailed on the mark scheme.
However, some TOCs were without page numbers while in others the page numbers did not correspond
at all. In some instances, students used ranges to complete the TOC, for example, Report…… 9–12. This
should not be encouraged. The report which starts, for example, on page 9 is good enough. Subsequent
headings would indicate on which page each starts. Students, however, should ensure that the table of
contents is complete and should cover the entire body of the project.
Project Title
The title should be linked to the objectives or specific department/business being studied in the syllabus.
The title should be carefully structured, as in some instances some were too broad, and in a few cases,
outside the scope of the syllabus.
Aims
The aims should state clearly and precisely what students are setting out to do. The aims must be directly
related to the title. Some candidates listed personal aims such as ‘love for the subject’, or ‘to get a better
grade’.
Functions
Most students scored full marks on this section once the department was identified. However, those
students who scored zero gave functions of the business studied and not the department itself.
Correspondence
Generally, the letters presented were generated from students and entailed the relevant content. However,
many students failed to follow the general principle in letter writing. Formatting was the main issue
identified as it relates to letter style, for example, blocked or indented, date, line-spacing and appropriate
matching of the salutation with the complimentary close. The salutation should give an indication of
what form the complimentary close should take, for example, named person (Dear Mr/Mrs/Ms/Dr Brown
— Yours sincerely; and unnamed person) (Dear Sir/Madam — Yours faithfully/respectfully). ‘Yours
truly’ is not acceptable. In many instances, the students/writers did not sign the letter.
Methodology
Most students included a specimen of the data gathering instrument, but some did not clearly explain why
the instrument was chosen and how it was used. In some cases, the instruments themselves were not
properly constructed. Some students failed to include the data gathering instrument in the Appendix.

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Questions
In most instances, this was done satisfactorily, although some of the questions submitted were not
relevant and not related to the stated aims and title of the project. Students should avoid giving
statements for questions and asking the same questions in different ways.
Schedule of Activities
Some Students failed to provide a table showing 10–12 activities. Invariably, the comments did not relate
to the follow-up actions or decisions taken.
Regulations/Policies
From the responses given in this area, it was evident that several students had difficulty distinguishing
between company policy and legislation governing the workplace. Legislation is a law passed and this
should indicate the name of the law, the year and an explanation of the law. Some students failed to state
how they became aware of the legislation. However, the health and safety practices observed section was
done satisfactorily. Many students were able to give the staff rule but failed to state how they had to
comply with the stated rule while carrying out the project.
Report Presentation
Many students did not meet the minimum requirement of 500–750, neither did some include graphs,
charts or tables in the findings. It must be noted that a minimum of forty-one lines with font size 12
should average 533 words. Most students identified a major accomplishment, but failed to identify a
problem-solving strategy.
Business Forms
In most instances, students included forms but some were not relevant to the department or the project.
Students are required to include one blank document and one that is properly completed.
Bibliography
Many students failed to obtain the maximum marks allocated for this section as they did not complete the
listing of resources used or internet site referenced.
Office Equipment
This was properly presented by most students in a four-column table with specified headings. However,
the suitability for task should relate to the business and not how the equipment aided the researcher in the
completion of the project.

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Bibliography
Many students did not score full marks in this area as they failed to include the internet sites which should
comprise the following:
Name of author, date posted, title of article, retrieved by, date retrieved and website address, for example,
http…
Publications List: A specific format should be used consistently as in the case of the APA or MLA styles
Presentation
Most projects were satisfactorily presented, neatly arranged and accurately word processed. Marks ranged
from 0 to 50. The mean score was 32.89, compared with 34.29 in June 2011.
RECOMMENDATIONS
Students should be given access to a reference copy of the current detailed mark scheme (as submitted in
the marking exercise).
Mark schemes should not be condensed as moderators need to see how marks were allotted
Students should be consistently monitored throughout the project to ensure that the project is done
correctly and that the stipulated guidelines in the current syllabus are being pursued.

CARIBBEAN SECONDARY EDUCATION CERTIFICATEÒ EXAMINATION
JANUARY 2013

2
GENERAL COMMENTS
The Office Administration examination is offered in January and May/June each year. In January 2013,
some 1 059 candidates sat the examination compared with the 2012 sitting when 1 349 candidates wrote
the examination. Approximately 85 per cent of the candidates achieved Grades I–III compared with 83
per cent in 2012. There were specific areas of weakness which are addressed in the detailed comments on
individual questions.
Three papers were offered to ensure broad coverage of the syllabus and accessibility to a wider range of
the candidate population. The objectives tested were chosen from all the modules. The papers offered are
Paper 01 consisted of 60 multiple choice items covering the entire syllabus. The items were set to cover
Knowledge of content areas and Application of the knowledge. The overall mean was 35.06 compared
with 36.40 for January 2012. Marks ranged from 10 to 57 out of a maximum available score of 60.
Performance this year was consistent with that of 2012.
Paper 02 also assessed Knowledge and Application of procedures and processes associated with
specialized office activities and routines. The paper consisted of eight questions which were further
divided into two sections. Section I comprised four compulsory questions covering Modules I–VI and
Module XII. Section II consisted of four optional questions taken from Modules VII–XI. Candidates were
required to answer two questions from Section II. In total, they were required to answer six questions
from this paper. The overall mean for this paper was 39.88 compared with 40.69 in 2012. Marks ranged
from 0 to 73 out of a maximum of 90.
had the opportunity to complete SBA projects as school candidates. The paper consisted of ten short,
structured essay-type questions and was designed to test candidates’ ability to apply their knowledge to
the interpretation of a case using content from Module XII, Recruitment and Orientation; and to a lesser
extent, on Modules II and VII which deal with communication and Human Resources, respectively.
It was evident from the performance on this paper that some areas continue to challenge candidates and in
the final analysis affected their overall performance. The overall mean for this paper was 33.40, an
increase over the 27.39 in 2012. Marks ranged from 4 to 46 out of a maximum of 50.
DETAILED COMMENTS
Section I
Section I which comprised four questions, was compulsory, and each question was worth 15 marks.
Question 1

3
· the functions of the general administrative office
· the knowledge and skills required to satisfy the requirements for a job in the reprographics
department and their ability to compose a memorandum.
For Part (a), candidates were required to state some functions of the general administrative office.
Generally, candidates were able to identify the three functions requested and gave responses such as:
receiving, processing and disseminating information; presenting data; and ensuring organizational and
legal obligations.
In Part (b), candidates were asked to state four advantages of working in an office that has centralized its
services. Most candidates gave acceptable responses such as: better supervision of staff by management;
increased productivity through specialized, skilled, and efficient staff; encourages teamwork; and
furniture can be arranged and rearranged easily.
Part (c) required candidates to write a memo, the body of which should show their understanding of the
functions of the reprographics department and the knowledge and skills required by a worker in this
department. Many candidates were able to state the skills required such as: ability to operate different
kinds of machines; time management; communication; and literacy/numeracy. However, only a few
candidates alluded to the knowledge segment, such as: quality/quantity required; how quickly information
is required; and whether there is need for copies at a later date. Some candidates were not able to use the
correct format for a memo.
Question 2
This question tested candidates’ understanding of the functions carried out by the records management
clerk, the resources available for use and activities carried out by the clerk on a day-to-day basis. Marks
for this question ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean was 8.66.
Part (a) required candidates to state one purpose for which a records management clerk may use different
reference materials in the office. Except for the use of the post office guide, most candidates were able to
state the purpose of the reference materials given.
In Part (b), candidates were required to identify three items that must be included on an agenda for a
regular business meeting. Candidates performed satisfactorily on this part of the question, giving correct
responses such as: call to order, apologies, minutes of the last meeting, new business and adjournment.
Part (c) required candidates to prepare an itinerary for an employer. This part of the question was
generally well done. The main area of weakness was that some candidates did not present the itinerary in
a logical sequence. Some candidates failed to correctly convert the time to the 24-hour clock. The 24-hour
clock should be written, for example, 0800 hours; 1200 hours; 1530 hours – with no colon (:) between the
figures or ‘a.m.’ or ‘p.m.’ indications.
Question 3
This question tested candidates’ understanding of the use of different communication devices and options
available to a records management clerk. Marks ranged from 0 to 14 and the mean was 9.09.
For Part (a), candidates were required to identify some steps that should be taken when transferring funds
electronically. The majority of candidates provided correct responses which include:

4
· visiting the institution where money transfer is legally done
· collecting and completing the relevant form(s)
· presenting cash/debit/credit card to teller
· collecting customer copy of the form from the teller
For Part (b), candidates were required to differentiate between types of telephone calls. This part of the
question was not done satisfactorily. Candidates failed to state the main differences for:
· station-to-station call — where the caller dials a number directly without the assistance of the
operator. This type of call is usually less costly than person-to-person which is an operator
assisted call. Usually, there is a three minute, plus a one minute surcharge for the person-to-
person call.
· call waiting, on the other hand, alerts the user of an incoming call while on the same line with
another caller. With call forwarding, incoming calls can be transferred or forwarded to another
office, house or mobile if someone is unavailable to take the call on that line.
For Part (c), candidates were required to demonstrate an understanding of the protocol a record
management clerk should observe in using a personal cellphone while at work and to demonstrate the use
of an appropriate letter format. This part of the question was satisfactorily done by most candidates.
Some, however, did not seem to understand the difference between the return and the inside addresses and
so placed them incorrectly. Some candidates failed to put the date in an appropriate place given the format
of the letter that was used while others did not use a matching complimentary close with the salutation
used.
Question 4
This question tested candidates’ understanding of the appropriate behaviour a receptionist should display
while on the job, some record keeping methods that the receptionist should use and ways of storing
company records. Marks ranged from 0 to 13 and the mean was 6.54.
For Part (a), candidates were to identify reasons a company might decide to microfiche records. Some
popular responses were: reduces filing space, inactive information can be saved, and material can be
retained for a long time.
For Part (b), candidates were required to give attributes that the receptionist should display at the
reception area. Most candidates performed well in this section, giving correct responses such as: be
polite/respectful/friendly to all visitors; be calm and patient when dealing with hostile and aggressive
customers; the use of initiative; well-spoken/pleasant; and well organized.
For Part (c), candidates were asked to state the most appropriate filing classification/method that should
be used in five given situations involving numerical, alphabetical, subject, chronological and geographical
filing. Many candidates failed to score full marks on this part of the question, invariably earning three
marks at most.
For Part (d), candidates were to make entries in a reception register for three visitors. This part of the
question was satisfactorily done.

5
Section II
The questions in this section were optional. Candidates were required to attempt any two of four
questions from this section.
Question 5
· the rules governing the use of office equipment
· the purpose of some documents used by the Human Resources Department
· how to prepare a Statement of Account
· how to apply special discounts
This was the most popular among the optional questions. It had a mean of 5.65 and marks ranged from 0
to 13.
For Part (a), candidates were to list rules that an employee should observe when using office equipment.
This part of the question was satisfactorily done with candidates giving correct responses such as: report
malfunctioning or faulty equipment without delay to the supervisor or maintenance officer; read
instructions before operating new equipment; and switch off machines when not in use.
For Part (b), candidates were required to state the purpose of different documents used by the Human
Resources Department. This part of the question was not satisfactorily done.
Candidates failed to identify purposes such as:
· The appraisal form is used as a method of identifying areas for staff development; a method of
evaluating progress/performance; or to establish performance standards.
· The job description is to identify duties/functions/responsibilities of the position in the company;
describe lines of communication; or indicate the right person for the job.
· The contract of employment is to specify the expectations of the employer; give collective
agreements/terms and conditions of contract that govern employment, and specify the
requirements of the employee.
Part (c) required candidates to use the information given to prepare a Statement of Account and to
calculate special discount which was due to the customer. This part of the question was not satisfactorily
done by some candidates as they failed to insert the correct entries under the debit and credit columns and
to calculate the correct outstanding balance and payment.
Question 6
This question tested candidates’
· knowledge of the duties performed by the clerk in the Purchasing Office
· knowledge of the advantages of standing orders and credit cards
· ability to interpret the information on a bank statement
· ability to prepare a bank reconciliation statement.

6
This was the least popular of the optional questions. The marks ranged from 0 to 11 and the mean was
3.09. This question had the lowest mean on the optional section.
For Part (a), candidates were required to list duties performed by the clerk in the Purchases Office. For the
most part, candidates gave correct responses such as: preparing and processing requisitions; filing
purchase orders and records; and liaising with other departments.
For Part (b) (i), candidates were required to define the term standing order. Most candidates failed to
define the term correctly. An acceptable definition of a standing order is: an order given to the bank by
the account holder to transfer a fixed sum of money to other bank accounts or to other business accounts
at regular intervals.
For Part (b) (ii), candidates were to state two advantages of using a credit card. This part of the question
was satisfactorily done and correct responses such as eliminates the need to carry around cash; allows for
purchases on the internet; and payment is deducted at a later time were given.
In Part (c) (i), candidates were required to interpret some transactions as they appear in the bank statement
and the cash book. The majority of candidates were unable to interpret correctly the standing order,
showed a lack of knowledge in recoding unpresented cheques, late lodgments, and transactions in the
cash book.
For Part (c) (ii), candidates were to use the bank statement and cash book to prepare the bank
reconciliation statement, starting with the bank balance. Most candidates who attempted this question
failed to do this part of the question. Those who attempted it, performed poorly.
Question 7
This question tested candidates’ understanding of the operations of the Sales and Marketing Department
and the duties of the records management clerk in this office. The marks ranged from 0 to12, and the
mean was 5.80.
In Part (a), candidates were required to identify pieces of equipment that are used in the Sales and
Marketing Department. Candidates performed satisfactorily on this part of the question, giving correct
responses such as: calculator, cash register, AV equipment, and computer/printer/bar code.
Part (b) required candidates to state the importance of keeping an updated mailing list in the Marketing
Department. This part of the question was fairly well done as candidates were able to give correct
responses such as: easy to retrieve and update customers’ names, update customers with current products
or information, and maintain efficiency in the department.
For Part (c) (i), candidates were required to identify some malpractices which are likely to occur in the
Sales and Marketing Department. Those candidates who attempted this question gave correct responses
such as:
· Inaccurate recording of stocks purchased
· Theft/unrecorded stocks taken from store
· Conflict of interest
· Lack of proper security of store room
· Deterioration
· Reorder levels not checked frequently

7
For Part (c) (ii), candidates were asked to suggest two stock control methods that could be used to
overcome the problems of theft by employees and deterioration. This part of the question presented a
challenge to candidates as many of them failed to give correct responses. Expected responses include:
· Theft by employees: perpetual/periodic/regular stock control
· Deterioration: stocktaking should be carried out on a regular basis/interval in order to monitor
expired/obsolete stock and stock no longer in demand on the market
· The FIFI method and regular stocktaking could be done, using the running balance.
Question 8
This question tested candidates’ understanding of the operations of the Factory Office and procedures for
completing the forms used in this office. Marks ranged from 0 to 15 and the mean was 6.02, the highest in
this section.
For Part (a), candidates were to identify some duties that should be performed by the clerk in the Factory
Office. For the most part, candidates gave correct responses such as: progress chasing, liaising with other
departments; maintaining time cards for factory workers, and planning delivery schedules.
Part (b) required candidates to identify information that is found on a consignment note. This part of the
question was done satisfactorily as correct responses were generated such as: name/address of
consignee/consignor; description, quantity of or weight of the consignment and terms of delivery.
For Part (c) (i), candidates were required to calculate weekly gross and net pay for an employee. Most
candidates performed satisfactorily on this part of the question.
For Part (c) (ii), candidates were to use the information obtained from Part (i) to prepare the weekly
cheque for the employee. This part was well done by most candidates who attempted it.
Paper 032 — Alternative to School-Based Assessment
A short case was presented and candidates were required to read and respond to ten structured questions
relating to this case. This case was developed mainly from Module XII, Recruitment and Orientation; and
to a lesser extent from Module II, Communication and Module VII, Human Resources. All questions
were set at the Application level. This paper was worth 50 marks.
The case revolved around an employee who was working at her first job in the Purchasing Department of
a large manufacturing company. She believed that she had acquired sufficient experience in that position
and as the company did not offer much prospects for upward mobility she decided to start her search for a
new job. The questions were centred on the processes involved in the job hunt, from identifying a
prospective job for which to apply to the evaluation after the probationary period of employment.
Marks ranged from 4 to 46 from a maximum of 50 marks. The mean score was 33.40.
Question 1
Part (a) required candidates to outline ways in which an advertisement could assist an individual in
deciding on the job he/she wants. Candidates performed fairly well on this question and included correct
responses such as:

8
· Provides detailed information of the job for assessing one’s interest/scope for upward mobility
· Gives information on whether or not remuneration/pay is adequate
· Informs of attitudes/attributes/qualities/experience required
· Directs the applicant as to where to send applications/résumés
· Allows applicant to determine if the job is within a convenient location
· Indicates whether or not there are any fringe benefits
· Provides information on qualifications and skills required
Part (b) required candidates to give reasons a company may not want to employ relatives of employees.
Those candidates who attempted this part of the question gave appropriate responses such as:
· The possibility that conflict may arise
· To avoid showing favouritism to relatives/nepotism
· To avoid employing persons with similar work-shy attitudes that may retard progress
· To encourage other persons with varying attitudes/knowledge/skills/attributes to invest in the
company for increased efficiency
Question 2
Candidates were required to use the information given to prepare a draft of a résumé. They were to
include appropriate headings, related details, as well as a career goal. Most candidates performed well on
this question, using appropriate headings such as: personal information, education, qualifications,
experience, and hobbies. However, many candidates failed to include a properly-worded career goal and a
complete reference to include the person’s name, position and contact information.
Question 3
This question required candidates to draft a cover letter to be attached to a résumé. The responses to this
question were only fair as some candidates failed to write the return and inside addresses in the correct
places; insert the current date; use appropriate salutation and matching complimentary close; cite
attachment notation; and use correct grammar and spelling.
Question 4
Candidates were to suggest ways in which the prospective employee could prepare for the interview to
ensure a greater chance of success. Most candidates were able to give two correct responses to include:
· Make sure that her résumé matches company’s expectations
· Wear appropriate attire and observe protocol
· Conducted research on the company and its operations
· Take along all original documents/portfolio/specimen required by the company
· Know success factors associated with company
Question 5
Candidates were to suggest articles of clothing a prospective employee should wear to an interview in
order to appear business like.

9
Candidates performed satisfactorily on this question and gave correct responses such as: shorts;
slippers/sandals/shoes with straps; large earrings; tight/short revealing shorts/jeans; sun glasses on top
of your heads and leggings.
Question 6
Candidates were required to state questions the prospective employee could ask to increase his/her chance
of getting a job. Most candidates were able to respond correctly and gave answers such as:
· What are the prospects for promotion?
· What exactly does the job entail?
· What arrangements are there for vacation?
· If given the job, how soon will I be able to start?
· Are there opportunities for training?
Question 7
For this question, candidates were required to draft a copy of an appropriate thank you note to be sent to
the Human Resources Manager for an invitation to the interview.
The responses to this question were satisfactory. Some candidates included: a thank you comment using
an appreciative tone. They mentioned the position interviewed for and ended the note with the signature
of the applicant.
Question 8
This question required candidates to outline ways in which a welcome package can benefit a new
employee. The question was satisfactorily done with candidates giving responses such as:
· Helps build one’s information/knowledge base
· Encourages reading/communication/research skills
· Provides answers not generally given in an interview
· Gives information on organization’s structure and social activities
Question 9
Candidates were required to recommend ways in which management could improve the working
conditions for workers. This question was done satisfactorily. Candidates gave accepted responses such
as:
· Pay keen attention to suitable environment to enable employees to increase efficiency
· Purchase ergonomically-friendly furniture
· Provide adequate office space for flexible movements
· Position computers/monitors/adjustable chairs to promote proper posture, maximum support and
comfort
· Provide protective clothing to ensure safety and comfort

10
Question 10
Candidates were required to compose statements which could be used on an employee’s job evaluation.
Most candidates were able to compose statements on desirable work attitudes but encountered difficulty
doing so for confidentiality.
For confidentiality, expected responses such as the following were not readily generated.
· Able to keep all work-related information private
· Files/information are not left unattended on desks or open to the public
· Records management equipment/information are securely locked or given passwords
· I am able to keep confidential information to myself
· Personal information about employees is not divulged to anyone
Responses given by candidates for Desirable work attitudes which were accepted included:
· Willing to assist others
· Punctual and regular in attendance
· Use initiative
· Not a clock watcher
· Pleasant/courteous/polite
· Take corrections/advice without being offended
· Good team player/flexible
RECOMMENDATIONS
· There is need for continued exposure to Paper 2 and 032 type questions and for candidates to be
guided by the syllabus, recommended texts and support materials in order to ensure better results.
· Candidates should visit the CXC website and read comments presented in the subject reports to
assist them in identifying strengths and weaknesses.
· Candidates should practise accounts-type questions such as bank reconciliation statements,
statement of accounts as well as filling out forms accurately, since these are some of the areas of
poor performance.
· In responding to questions, candidates should note key words/concepts to guide them in
presenting information in a logical and organized manner.

EXAMINATION
May/June 2013

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GENERAL COMMENTS
The Office Administration examination is offered in January and May/June of each year. This year,
approximately 18,000 candidates registered to sit the June examination. This number represents a
decrease from last year when more than 19,600 candidates registered for the examination.
Approximately, 78 per cent of the candidates achieved Grades I–III. Last year a similar proportion of
candidates obtained these grades.
The Office Administration examination comprises four papers of which candidates are required to sit
three:
Paper 01 – Multiple choice
Paper 031 – The School-Based Assessment (SBA).
Paper 032 — The Alternative to the SBA
Paper 032 is normally done by candidates who do not have the supervision needed to carry out the
SBA. This year marks the last May/June of this examination, which is based on the 2004 Office
Administration syllabus. The revised syllabus will be assessed in June 2014.
The details of each paper along with candidates’ performance on the different papers and the specific
strengths and weaknesses observed during the marking exercises are addressed in the report below.
DETAILED COMMENTS
Paper 01 — Multiple choice
Paper 01 consisted of 60 multiple choice items covering the entire syllabus. The items were set to cover
Knowledge of content areas and Application of the knowledge. The overall mean was 32.93 or 65 per
cent compared with 34.64 or 58 per cent for May/June 2012. Marks ranged from a minimum of zero to
58.
Paper 02 assessed Knowledge of the syllabus content and Application of this knowledge to the
procedures and processes associated with specialized office activities and routines. The paper consisted
of eight questions which were further arranged in two sections. Section I comprised four compulsory
questions covering Modules I-VI and Module XII. Section II consisted of four optional questions taken
from Modules VII-XI. Candidates were required to answer two questions from Section II. In total, they
were required to answer six questions from this paper. The mean on this Paper was 42 out of 90 or 47
per cent. Marks ranged from zero to 88. Each question on this paper was worth a maximum of 15
marks.

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Section 1 — Compulsory Questions
Question 1
This question was designed to test the candidates’
- knowledge of the purposes of equipment that are used in general and specialized office work
- understanding of the importance of the office worker’s word processing and time management
skills in the development of an organization
- understanding of the benefits of excellent interpersonal skills in creating a harmonious working
environment
- understanding of the types of responses suitable for some questions which are likely to be asked
in an interview.
The mean of 9.24 or 62 per cent for this question was the highest in this section. Scores ranged from
zero to 15
For Part (a), candidates were required to state the purpose of the guillotine, risograph and computer, in
general and specialized office work. Generally, candidates were able to identify the purpose of at least
two of the pieces of equipment, and gave responses such as:
- Guillotine: used to cut/trim paper/cards to required sizes
- Risograph: used to scan documents; copy images; high-speed printing
- Computer: electronic equipment that accepts raw data and processes into information; stores
and displays information when required
In Part (b) (i), candidates were asked to define the term ‘skill’. This part of the question was
satisfactorily done as candidates scored at least one of the maximum two marks.
Part (b) (ii) required candidates to state one reason ‘word processing’ and ‘time management’ skills are
important for office workers to develop. Most candidates gave acceptable responses for ‘time
management’ such as: to help office workers to use their time well and to prioritize activities crucial to
achieving the organization’s goals. However, ‘word processing’ posed a challenge to many candidates
as expected responses such as: to create business documents with the use of a computer on a timely
basis, and to design or develop documents in a professional, acceptable and legible manner for
decision-making and information sharing, were rarely given.
Part (c) required candidates to outline two ways in which a clerical worker could use interpersonal skills
to settle disputes and conflicts, and to help in creating harmonious relationships in the work place. Most
candidates were able to score one mark in this part of the question. In many instances, they were able to
identify skills that the worker possessed but did not state how the worker could use the skills to settle
issues at the workplace.
Part (d) required candidates to write two appropriate responses each for three questions asked in an
interview. This part of the question was well done. Some candidates, however, gave responses
pertaining to personal goals instead of career goals for one of the questions.

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Question 2
This question tested candidates’ knowledge of the work environment of a receptionist and also required
them to apply this knowledge to resolve issues which are likely to occur in an office. The mean on this
question was 8.37 or 56 per cent.
Part (a) required candidates to identify one use each of bond and parchment paper. Most candidates
failed to give an appropriate use of parchment paper. While bond paper is generally used with
letter/memo heads and to type and print the original of most documents, parchment paper is heavy
quality paper used for /cards/posters/certificates/ as canvass for paintings.
In Part (b), candidates were required to state three desirable attributes of a receptionist. Candidates
performed well on this part of the question, giving correct responses such as: punctuality, honesty, good
deportment, respectfulness, cooperation and flexibility.
Part (c) (i) required candidates to outline two guidelines that a receptionist should follow when taking
telephone messages. This part of the question was unsatisfactorily done as many candidates gave
guidelines for taking telephone calls, or responses relating to telephone etiquette.
For Part (c) (ii), candidates were to indicate the appropriate actions a receptionist should take in each of
the different situations. Responses to this part of the question were appropriate in most instances.
In the case of the angry customer, candidates were able to indicate appropriate responses such as:
remain calm and be tactful, offer help or refer caller to someone else who can help, be respectful and
exercise patience/empathy.
In the second scenario, where the receptionist kept getting a busy signal each time a number was
dialled, candidates gave unacceptable responses such as:
- wait and try to make the call again
- use the ring-back service until your phone rings and then make connection to person needed
- ask the operator to break in if it is an emergency and ask person if he/she wishes to take your
call
- or simply inform the manager of the busy signal
Where the receptionist dialled the wrong number candidates indicated correctly that proper telephone
etiquette requires that the receptionist politely inform the caller of the fact and apologize rather than
hang up; verify phone number and re-try.
Where the receptionist got a recorded message most candidates gave unacceptable responses such as
listen to the instructions or information given and act accordingly.

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Question 3
This question tested candidates’ knowledge and understanding of:
- paging devices, fax machines and the Internet as a means of telecommunication
- the uses of a postage book
- the importance of time zone differences when trading globally with customers
- modern equipment used in a centralized mail room and how each item of equipment identified,
could increase efficiency of outgoing mail
For Part (a), candidates were required to state one use each of a paging device, fax machine and the
Internet. The mean was 6.68 or 46 per cent. In this section of the question, marks ranged from zero to
three, with many candidates scoring at least two marks.
Some candidates used the same words in stating the use of the machine, for example,. the fax machine
is used to fax letters and memos.
Part (b) required candidates to state two uses of a postage book. The majority of candidates scored one
mark with most giving correct responses such as: to record the value of stamps purchased or used, to
find the value of stamps remaining, and to record the number of each category of mail posted daily.
Some candidates confused the postage book with the post office guide.
Part (c) required candidates to state two reasons understanding time zone differences is important to the
work of the receptionist when there is the need to make frequent telephone contacts with customers
overseas. This part of the question was satisfactorily done by most candidates. They gave correct
responses such as: to place telephone calls to foreign countries at appropriate times and negotiate
travel arrangements to make maximum use of time.
In Part (d) (i), candidates were required to identify four modern pieces of equipment that are suitable for
the new centralized mail room. Many candidates identified modern equipment in an office, instead of
the mail room or, equipment that originated from the traditional type office instead of mentioning
machines such as: sorter, digital scale; franking; addressing; collating; folding; sealing or fax machine
and the computer.
Part (d) (ii) required candidates to outline how each piece of equipment identified at (d) (i) could
increase the efficiency of outgoing mail. This part of the question was satisfactorily done as candidates
who gave correct responses in (d) (i) were able to state the correct benefit of each machine identified.
Question 4
This question was designed to test the candidates’ knowledge relating to a records management system.
The mean was 5.71 or 38 per cent was the lowest for Section I.
For Part (a), candidates were required to state three classifications of a records management system.
This part of the question was done unsatisfactorily. The word ‘classifications’ was interpreted as
‘characteristics’ by some candidates. Correct responses such as alphabetic/geographical/subject/
chronological, as well as numerical/electronic and alpha-numerical, were not considered by many
candidates.

CSEC OA Syllabus.pdf

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CSEC OA Syllabus.pdf