Foundation level law_extra_multiple_choice_questions_practice_sheet

PANCHAKSHARI’s PROFESSIONAL ACADEMY Pvt. Ltd.
Multiple Choice Questions
The Basics of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
1. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 is dividend
into….. Chapters.
a) 3
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12
2. The Law of Contract is noting but
a) A child of commercial dealing
b) A child of religion
c) A child of day to day politics
d) A child of economics
3. The Contract Act came into force
a) From 1 September, 1872 but with
retrospective effect
b) Before 1 September, 1872
c) From 1 September, 1872
d) After 1 September, 1872
4. The Contract Act applies to
a) Contracts made before 1 September,
1872
b) Contracts made on 1 September, 1868
c) Contracts made before 1 September,
1872 and to be enforced after 1
September, 1872
d) Contracts made on and after 1
September, 1872
5. An Indian mercantile law is based upon
a) Indian culture
b) British culture
c) England law
d) American law
6. An agreement consists of reciprocal
promises between at least
a) Four parties
b) Six parties
c) Three parties
d) Two parties
7. Contractual rights and duties are created
by
a) State
b) Statute
c) Parties
d) Custom or Usage
8. In India, the express provisions of the
Contract Act applies to
a) Hindus
b) Mohammedan
c) Business man
d) All of the above
9. Who said “Contract is an agreement
creating and defining obligations between
parties?”
a) Peter Drucker
b) Salmond
c) Austin
d) Drucker
10. Agreement is defined in Section……… of
the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
a) 2(c)
b) 2(e)
c) 2(g)
d) 2(i)
11. Every promise and every set of promise
forming the consideration for each other is
a/an
a) Contract
b) Agreement
c) Offer
d) Acceptance
12.Where there is no express provision in
Contract Act, the following prevails and
applied for deciding the cases
a) The provisions of any law of the land
b) The usage of the trade
c) The provisions of personal law
d) Any of the above if not inconsistent
with the provisions of the Contract Act
13. Who said, “Every Agreement and Promise
enforceable at law is a contract?
a) Austin
b) Benjamin
c) Pollock

d) Balfour
14. The provisions of Indian Contract Act
override
a) The provisions of Hindu law
b) The provisions of Mohammedan law
c) Usage or customs of trade
d) All of the above
15. A promises to deliver his watch to B and,
in return, B promises to pay a sum of Rs
2,000. This is a/an
a) Agreement
b) Proposal
c) Acceptance
d) Offer
16.Contract is defined as agreement
enforceable by law, vide Section…… of
the Indian Contract Act.
a) 2(e)
b) 2(f)
c) 2(h)
d) 2(i)
17. A contract or an obligation to perform a
promise could arise by
a) Agreement and Contract
b) Promissory Estoppel
c) Standard form of contracts by promise
d) All of the above
18.A sells his car to B.A has a right to recover
the price of the car from B. This right is a
a) Right is rem
b) Right is personam
c) Right in rem as well as right in
personam
d) Moral right
19.A owns a residential flat. He is entitled to
quiet possession and enjoyment of his
property. This is called
a) Rights in Personam
b) Rights is Rem
c) Moral Right
d) There is no right at all
20.A owes Rs 1 lakh to B. B is entitled to
recover this amount from A. This is called
a) Rights in Personam
b) Rights is Rem
c) Constitutional Right
d) There is no right at all
21.A contract creates
a) Rights is Personam
b) Rights in Rem
c) No obligations
d) Only obligations and no rights
22. Valid Contracts
a) Are made by free consent
b) Are made by competent party
c) Have lawful consideration and lawful
object
d) All of the above
23. A lends Rs 10 lakh to B for a year, After
one year A’s right to recover the money
from B is a
a) Right in rem
b) Right in personam
c) Moral right
d) Civil right
24. What comes first in a valid contract is
a) Enforceability
b) Money
c) Force
d) None of the above
25. A has bought a house for Rs 50,000.
Which of the following right is available to
A after the purchase?
a) He has a right against the seller to have
quiet possession of the house and enjoy
in it
b) He has a right against the whole world
to have quiet possession of the house
and enjoy in it
c) He has moral right over the house
d) He has a right to live in the house but
cannot sell
26. An agreement not enforceable by law is
said to be void under section…. Of the
Indian Contract Act.
a) 2 (a)

b) 2 (b)
c) 2 (f)
d) 2 (g)
27. An agreement to commit a tort is
a) Void
b) Voidable
c) Valid
d) Unenforceable
28. Agreement to murder a person
a) Cannot be enforceable by law
b) Is valid in law
c) In invalid for want of consideration
d) Has no consensus ad idem
29.Agreements that do not give rise to
contractual obligations are not contracts.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
30. A invites B for his son’s wedding. B
accepts the invitation. In this case, there is
an agreement but no contract, since
a) There is no consideration
b) There is no intention to create legal
relationship
c) There is no written document
d) There is no formal acceptance of the
offer
31. A invites B for coffee in coffe-day
restaurant and B accepts the invitation.
On the appointed date, B goes there but A
is not found. In this case
a) B has no remedy against A
b) B has to wait for another invitation from
A
c) B has the right to sue A for not honoring
his words
d) A has to invite B again, to perform the
promise.
32. A promises to give Rs. 5,000 per month
pocket money to his son B. If A does not
give the pocket money
a) B can sue his father
b) B has no remedy against A
c) B can accept a lower pocket money also
d) B has to give Rs. 5,000 to his father
33. A and B of Srinagar entered into a
contract on 1st September, 2006 as per
the provisions of the Indian Contract Act.
Can they enforce the contract?
a) Yes, because they made the contract
as per the provisions of Indian
Contract Act
b) No, because Srinagar is not a part of
Indian
c) No, because the Act does not extend to
the State of Jammu and Kashmir
34. A promised to pay his son B a sum of Rs
1 lakh if B passed CA exams in the first
attempt. B passed the exam in the first
attempt, but A failed to pay the amount as
promised. B files a sit for recovery of the
amount. State whether B can recover the
amount under the Indian Contract Act,
1972.
a) B can sue A
b) B has to pay Rs 1 Lakh to A
c) B has no remedy against A
d) B has to write the exam again, to claim
the reward
35.A contract creates
a) Rights and obligations of the parties to it
b) Obligations of the parties to it
c) Mutual understanding between the
parties to it
d) Mutual lawful rights and obligations of
the parties to it.
36. In agreements of purely domestic nature,
the intention of the parties to create legal
relationship is
a) To be proved to the satisfaction of the
Court
b) Presumed to exist
c) Required to the extent of consideration

d) Not relevant at all
37.An agreement is valid
a) Which creates legal and social
obligations of the parties
b) Which creates rights of a party
c) Which is written on a piece of paper and
signed by the parties
d) Which creates legally binding right and
obligations of the parties to it.
38. Voidable contract is one
a) Which is lawful
b) Which is invalid
c) Which is valid as long as it is not
avoided by the party entitled to do so
d) Which is unlawful
39.When the contract is perfectly valid but
cannot be enforced because of certain
technical defects. This is called
a) Unilateral Contract
b) Bilateral Contract
c) Unenforceable Contract
d) Void Contract
40.………….. is without any legal effect and
cannot be enforced in a Court of Law.
a) Valid Contract
b) Void Contract
c) Voidable Contract
d) Unenforceable Contract
41. According to provisions of Indian Contract
Act, 1872 void agreement and void
contract is the same.
a) True
b) False
c) Parlty True
d) Parlty False
42.The legal effect of void agreement and
void contract is the same.
a) True
b) False
c) Parlty True
d) Parlty False
43.A void agreement is void ab intio but a void
contract is not void ab intio.
a) True
b) False
c) Parlty True
d) Parlty False
44.A contract needs to be written, registered
and signed by parties and witnessed
a) If any party wishes so
b) If the Contract Act directs so
c) If the law governing the contract
requires so
d) If the consideration is of large amount
45. A and B contract to marry each other.
Before the time for the marriage, A goes
and mad. The contract becomes
a) Void
b) Illegal
c) Valid
d) Voidable
46. ……………. Is forbidden by law. The
Court will not enforce such a contract.
a) Valid Contract
b) Illegal agreement
47. A Contracts with B to beat his business
competitor. This is an example of
a) Valid Contract
48. …………. Is made by words spoken.
a) Express Contract
b) Implied Contract
c) Tacit Contract
d) Unlawful Contract
49. ……….. is made by words written.
a) Express Contract
b) Implied Contract
c) Tacit Contract
50.A appoints B as his agent, by way of a
power of attorney. This is an example of
a) Express Contract

b) Implied Contract
c) Tacit Contract
51. ………… Implies a contract though the
parties never expressed their intention to
enter into a contract.
a) Express Contract
b) Implied Contract
c) Tacit Contract
52. Where a contract has to be inferred from
the conduct of parties, it is called
a) Express Contract
b) Implied Contract
c) Tacit Contract
53. Drawing cash form ATM, sale by fall of
hammer at an auction sale, etc., are
example of
a) Express Contract
b) Implied Contract
c) Tacit Contract
54.……………. Is a one-sided contract in
which only one party has to perform his
promise or obligation.
a) Void Contract
c) Unilateral Contract
d) Bilateral Contract
55.An agreement is
a) Enforceable by law if it meets the
requirements of the law of the land
b) Enforceable by law if any one party want
it
c) Enforceable against the law
d) Enforceable by law if it is made by
competent parties
56.Where the obligation in a contract is out-
standing on the part of both parties, it is
called
a) Void Contract
57. A agrees to sell his DVD player to B
promising to deliver it on the date of
payment. B promises to pay the amounts
within one month. This is an example of
a) Void Contract
58.Where a particular type of contract is
required by law to be in writing and
registered, it must comply with necessary
formalities as to writing, registration and
attestation. Otherwise, such a contract is
a) Void Contract
59. All illegal agreement are void; but all void
agreements are not illegal.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
60.An offer and its acceptance is the basic
requirement of an agreement and as per
this requirement, an offer by one party
a) Should be made to the other who is
related to him
b) May also be made to himself
c) Should be made to another who may or
may not be related to him
d) Should be made to another before the
Registrar
61.According to enforceability, the contracts
may be classified as
a) Valid Contracts
b) Void Contracts
c) Voidable contracts
d) All of the above
62. According to Enghlish Law, the contracts
may be classified as

a) Formal Contract
b) Simple Contract
c) Contract under seal
d) All of the above
63.In social agreements, the usual
presumption is
a) That parties do not intend to create
social relations
b) That parties intend to perform them
c) That parties do not intend to make legal
and social relations
d) That the parties do not intend to create
legal relations between them
64.A promised to marry B. Later on B died.
This contract of marriage
a) Becomes void
b) Is void from very beginning
c) Is valid
d) Is illegal now
65.An implied contract is the one which
comes into existence on account of
a) Conduct of the parties
b) Non-availability of a paper for writing
c) Inability of the parties to write or speak
d) Directions given by a court
66.A, a tradesman, left certain goods at B’s
house by mistake. B treated and used the
goods as his own. In this case, B is
a) Not liable to pay for the goods
b) Liable to be prosecuted under law
c) Liable to pay for the goods
d) Bound to inform police
67.A contract in which, under the terms of a
contract, nothing remains to be done by
either party is known as
a) Executed contract
b) Executory contract
c) Unilateral contract
68.A contract in which, under the terms of a
contract, one or both the parties have still
to perform their obligations in future, is
known as
a) Executed contract
b) Executory contract
c) Unilateral contract
69.A contract entered on 31st October, 1872
is governed by the Indian Contract Act,
1872
a) If it was entered into India
b) If its performance was after 31st
October 1872
c) If it was not performed at all
d) Any of the above
70.Contracts classified on the basis of
performance are
a) Executed Contracts
b) Executory Contracts
c) Partly Executed or Partly Executory
Contracts
d) All of the above
71.Express contract means a contract made
by
a) Words either spoken or written
b) Documents
c) Both words and documents
d) All of the above
Offer and Acceptance of the Offer
72.The term “offer” has been defined in ….
a) Section 2(a)
b) Section 2 (b)
c) Section 2 (C)
d) Section (d)
73.When a person signifies to another his
willingness to do or to abstain from do-
ing anything, with a view to obtaining the
assent of that other to such act or
abstinence, he is said to
a) Enter into a contract
b) Make a proposal
c) Entered into agreement
d) Enter into contract
74.An implied offer means an offer made
a. By spoken words

b. By SMS
c. By body language
d. By both (a) and (c)
75.A proposal may consist of a promise for
a) Doing an act
b) Abstaining from doing an act
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Returning the consideration
76.An offer may be made
a. By words
b. By conduct
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
77.Offer can be accepted by
a) Offeror
b) Offeree
c) Promisor
d) Either (a) or (b)
78.An acceptance of offer may be made
a) By words
b) By conduct
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
79.A specific offer is the one which is made
a. By A to B
b. By a father to his only son for sale of
his factory to him
c. By a father of a girl, to the father of
the only son for her marriage
d. By all of the above
80.If a says to b “I offer to sell may car to
you for Rs. 2 Lakhs and B accepts the
offer by saying clearly “I accept your
offer”. It is an
a) Implied offer
b) Express offer
c) General offer
d) Counter offer
81.A offers to sell his car on internet, it is
a) Express offer
b) Implied offer
c) Particular offer
d) No offer
82.B makes to memorize a proposal to his
par-rot and sends him to A to recite the
proposal. The parrot does so. The
proposal is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Unlawful
d. Illegal
83.A bid at an auction sale is
a. An imlied offer
b. An express offer
c. An invitation to offer
d. An invitation to come
84.Forbearance of party from doing some-
thing also constitutes a valid offer.
a) True
b) Party True
c) False
85.An offer which is allowed to remain
open, for acceptance over a period of
time is known as a/ an
a. Standing Offer
b. Specific Offer
c. Express offer
d. Implied offer
86.An offer made to a specific person is
known as
a. Standing Offer
b. Specific offer
c. Special offer
d. Separate Offer
87.An offer made to group of persons is
known as
a) Standing Offer
b) Specific offer
c) Special offer
d) Separate Offer
88.……. Can be accepted only by the
person or group to whom the offer is
made
a. Standing Offer
b. Specific offer

c. Special offer
d. Separate Offer
89.A advertises in paper that any person
who found his lost dog can get a reward
of Rs. 5000. Any person who finds the
dog can claim the reward. This is a case
of
a. General offer
b. Specific offer
c. Implied offer
d. Invalid offer
90.To make a valid General offer, it is
necessary for the offeree to be known to
the Offeror at the time of Making the
offer.
a. True
b. Party true
c. False
d. None of the above
91.In a Specific offer, it is necessary for the
offeree to be known to the Offerer at the
time of Making the offer.
a) True
b) Party true
c) False
92.Communication of a proposal is
complete when it comes to the
knowledge of
a. The person to whom it is made
b. The proposer
d. The central government
93.A proposes by letter, to sell his horse to
b at rs 10,000. Communication of the
proposal is complete when
a) A posts the letter
b) B receives the letter
c) B acknowledges to a that he has
received the letter
d) Either (b) or ( c), whichever is earlier
94.The terms of an offer must be intended
to create legal relations.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
95.Terms of an offer must be
a. Ambiguous
b. Uncertain
c. Definite
d. Vague
96.An offer may be
a) conditional
b) Unconditional
c) Both (a) and (b)
97.An offer may be
a) Expressed
b) Implied
c) Both (a) and (b)
98.A offers B to sell his house for Rs. 15
lakh and directs him to send his
acceptance only by e-mail B sends a
letter of acceptance by post. This is
a) valid acceptance
b) invalid acceptance
c) valid acceptance if a does not reject
d) no acceptance at all
99.A offered to take a house on lease for a
period of 3 years if the house was hand-
solely decorated. Here, there is no offer
since
a. there is no legal obligation
b. there is no communication of offer
c. The terms of offer are too vague
d. The offer is conditional
100. Offer should not contain a term, the
non compliance of which would amount
to acceptance.
a) True
b) Party True
c) False

101. Which of the following conditions is
not necessary for a valid offer?
a) Intention to create legal relation
b) Unconditional terms
c) Certainty of terms
d) Communication to the person to
whom it is made
102. Which of the following conditions is
not necessary for a valid offer?
a) intention to obtain consent of the
offeree
b) Communication to the person to
whom it is made
c) Intention to create legal obligation
d) Expressed in written form
103. When a person invites the other paty
to make an offer he is said to make a/an
a) Proposal
b) Offer
c) Invitation to offer
d) Acceptance
104. ……. Is expression of initial intention.
a) Invitation to offer
b) Offer
c) Proposal
d) Acceptance
105. …… is expression of final will ingness
to perform a promise.
b) Offer
c) Bid
d) Acceptance
106. Application filled in by a prospective
applicant to the Company is an example
of
b) Offer
c) Bid
d) Acceptance
107. Statement of lowest price at which the
seller would sell his goods constitutes
a) A valid contract
b) A implied contract
c) An express contract
d) No contract
108. Which of the following results in an
offer ?
a) A declaration of intention
b) An invitation to offer
c) An advertisement offering reward to
anyone who finds the lost dog of the
advertiser
d) An offer made in a joke
109. Which of the following is an invitation
to offer?
a) A tender to supply goods at a certain
time
b) A request for a loan
c) Bids in an auction sale
d) A catalogue of goods for sale
110. Price Lists and Catalogues,
Advertisements in news papers, and
enquiries from customers are
a) Offers
b) Invitations to offer
c) Acceptances
d) Cross-offers
111. Goods displayed in a shop with a
price label is
a) An offer
b) An Invitation to offer
c) A Counter offer
d) A contra-offer
112. A notice inviting tender is an offer.
a) True
b) An Invitation to Offer
c) A Counter – Offer
d) A Contra – Offer
113. ‘A’ invites tenders for the supply of 10
quintals of cotton. ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’ submit
their tenders. A contract is concluded
when
a) ‘A’ invites tenders
b) ‘A’ receives tenders of B,C and D
c) ‘A’ accepts the tender of any of the
parties

d) There is no contract at all
114. There is a Counter- offer when
a. The offeree gives conditional
acceptance
b. The Offeree makes fresh offer instead
of accepting original offer.
c. The offeree makes some query
d. The offeree accepts it
115. When the offers made by two persons
to each other containing similar terms of
bargain cross each other in post, they
are known as
a) Cross Offers
b) implied Offers
c) Direct Offers
d) Express offers
116. A offers to sell his car for Rs. 50,000
to B.B says he would buy it for Rs.
40,000. This is a case of
a) Counter offers
b) Implied offers
c) Direct offers
d) Express offers
117. A sends a letter to B Proposing to sell
his Land. B Sends his acceptance by
post. A can revoke the offer at any time
before B posts his letter of acceptance,
but not afterwards.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
118. In which of the following
circumstances, does the offer come to
an end ?
a) Lapse of time
b) Counteroffer
c) Death of offerer or offeree before
acceptance
d) All of the above
119. In which of the following
Circumstances. Does the offer come to
an end ?
a) Non Acceptance of Condition
b) Acceptance not in the prescribed
mode
c) Change in law or circumstances
d) All of the above
120. An offer comes to an end after the
expiry of
a) Time stipulated for acceptance
b) A reasonable time
d) Nether (a) nor (b)
121. An offer lapses to an end when the
Offeree
a) Fails to fulfill a condition precedent to
acceptance
b) Does not accept the condition
122. A proposal is revoked by the death of
the Proposer, if the fact of his death
comes to the Knowledge of the Acceptor
a. Before acceptance
b. After acceptance
c. During acceptance
d. Any of the above
123. Death of offeree before acceptance
terminates the offer.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
124. A applied for 1000 shares in a
Company on 1st
May. The Company
allotted shares on 1st
November of that
year A refused the Shares. Is A’s action
valid ?
a) Yes , Shares Cannot be allotted oon
the faith of letter Written by A
b) Yes , Shares Cannot be allotted in the
second half of a calendar year
c) Yes , Offer lapsed as it was not
accepted within a reasonable time

d) No , A has to accept and pay for the
shares of revocation of offer have
been
125. An offer can be accepted by
a) Notice of acceptance
b) Performance of condition specified in
the offer
c) Acceptance of consideration for a
reciprocal promise
d) All of the above
126. Acceptance may be
a) Express
b) Implied
c) Neither (a) nor (b)
127. Implied offers can be proved only by
a. Words
b. Conduct
c. Circumstantial evidence
d. Prima facie evidence
128. An acceptance containing additions,
limitations or other modifications shall
amount to
a) Rejection of the offer
b) A counter offer
c) A valid acceptance
d) Both (a)& (b)
129. specific offer can be accepted by
a) any person
b) any friend of offeror
c) only the person to whom it is made
d) any friend of offeree
130. a general offer can be accepted by
a) sending a communication of
acceptance
b) mental acceptance of offer
c) complying with the conditions of offer
d) making a counter offer
131. in cases of general offer, for a valid
contract, the Acceptor
a) must have the knowledge of the offer
b) need not have the knowledge of the
offer
c) may acquire the knowledge of the
offer after the performance of the
condition amounting to acceptance
d) should not accept at all
132. acceptance can precede an offer
a) true
b) partly True
c) false
d) none of the above
133. A offered a reward to anyone who
has returned his lost dog. B brought the
dog to A without having heard of the
offer which of the following statements is
correct ?
a) B is entitled to the reward
b) B was not entitled to the reward
c) A has to find the dog himself
d) No reword can be given for return of
lost dog
134. An acceptance is valid
a) When offere adds his conditions with
acceptance
b) When offeree accepts all the
conditions of the offer
c) When it is not against the interest of
any person
d) When acceptance is caused by
coercion
135. Acceptance to an offer may be given
by
a) Any person
b) Competent person
c) Authorized person
d) Both by (b) and (c)
136. In order to convert a proposal into a
promise the acceptance must be
a) Absolute
b) Unqualified
c) Express
d) All of the above
137. Acceptance to an offer may be iven
by
a) Adding conditions

b) Accepting conditions of the offer
c) Accepting consideration sent by the
offer
d) Both (b) and(c)
138. Which of the following constitute
invalid acceptance?
a) Mental acceptance without
communicating to Proposer
b) Failure to respond to the Proposer
c) Silence on the part of the Offeree
d) All of the above
139. An offer was sent by post. The
Acceptor wrote “Accepted” on the letter,
put it in his drawer and forgot about it.
The transactions is
a) A valid contract
b) Not an agreement as the acceptance
was never communicated to the
Proposer
c) A voidable Contract
d) A void contract
140. A send a letter of acceptance to an
offer made by B. letter is stll in the
transit of post. The part bound by he
acceptance s
a) A
b) B
c) Both A and B
d) None
141. When no mode is prescribed by the
of feer for the acceptance of his offer,
such acceptance shall be made.
a) By telephone
b) As desired by the offeree
c) In some usual and reasonable
manner
142. An acceptance is not according to the
mode prescribed, but the offeror decides
to keep quiet. In such a case there is
a) A contract
b) No contract
c) A voidable Contract
d) An unenforceable contract
143. Communication of acceptance is
complete as against the Proposer
a) Only when it comes to the Knowledge
of the Proposer
b) Only when the acceptance is
communicated to the Proposer
c) Only when it is put in the course of
transmission to him so as to be out
of power of the Acceptor
144. Communication of acceptance is
complete as against the Acceptor, only
a) When it is put in the course
transmission
b) When it comes to the knowledge of
the Proposer
c) When it is communicated to the
Acceptor that the acceptance has
reached the Proposer
d) All of the above
145. Where a letter of acceptance sent by
post is lost in transit there is
a) No contract as the acceptance has
not come to the knowledge of the
offeror
b) No contract as the acceptance has
not been communicated to the
offeror
c) A contract as the letter of acceptance
is put in the course of transmission
d) All of the above
146. Which of the following is incorrect?
a) A valid contract results from identical
cross offers
b) Communication of an offer is
complete when the letter of offer is
posted though it has not reached
the person to whom the offer is
made
c) An offer and invitation to the offer are
the same
d) All of the above

147. Even if the letter is lost in transit
acceptance is still valid provided that the
Acceptor has
a) Properly addressed is
b) Affixed correct value of postage
stamps
c) Either (a) and (b)
d) Both (a) and (b)
148. In case of special conditions in a
contract, it should be communicated to
the offeree
a) At any time
b) Before entering into contract or at the
time of Making offer
c) After contract is made
d) Both (a) and (b)
149. Conditions on the reverse of a train
ticket, bill issued by service providers,
etc, are examples of
a) Normal business policy
b) Space saving measure
c) Special conditions
d) General rules of contract Law
150. Where the acceptance is given on
telephone or fax, the place of contract is
a) The place from where the telephone
call is booked
b) The place where the acceptance is
heard or received
c) The place from where the offer was
made
d) The place where the offeror resides.
151. An acceptance on telephone should
be
a) Heard by the offeror
b) Audible to the offeror
c) Understood by the offeror
d) All of the above
152. Where a contract is made by post,
the place of contract is
a) The place from where the offer is
made
b) The place where the offer is received
c) The place where letter of acceptance
is posted
d) The place where offeror resides
153. If an acceptance on phone is owned
by noise and is not heard by the
proposer
a) A valid contract is concluded
b) There is a voidable contract
c) The contract is void
d) No contract is concluded
154. When two persons agree to enter into
an agreement in the future, there is
between them.
a) A valid contract
b) No contract
c) An agreement
d) A consensus
155. The person making the offer is known
as ‘ offeror’ or promisor’ and to whom it
is made is known as
a) Acceptor
b) Acceptor for honour
c) Offeree or promise
d) Contracting party
156. The mode of the revocation of
proposal other than by communication is
/ are
a) Verbal notice
b) Lapse of time
c) Death or insanity of the offeror
d) Both (b) and (c) above
157. Which of the following statement is
incorrect ?
a) An offer may be made to the world at
large
b) An offer may be positive or negative
c) An offer may be expressed or limplied
d) An offer must be made to a specific
person
158. A general offer made to the public at
large is valid and binding contract is
made with person who is having the
knowledge of the offer

a) Comes forward and acts accordingly
b) Acts accordingly and his act is ratified
by the offeror
c) Seeks offeror’s permission to accept
the offer
d) Informs the public that he is willing to
accept the offer
159. In which of the following cases, the
principle of an offer to public at large
was recognized?
a) Balfur vs Balfour
b) Harvey vs Facie
c) Carlill vs carbolic smoke ball co
d) Both (a) and (b)
160. On the acceptance of an offer by the
offeree, which of the following persons
becomes legally bound by the contract ?
a) Only the acceptor as he has accepted
the offer
b) Only the offeror, as his terms are
accepted
c) Both the acceptor and the offeror
161. Which of the following is the legal rule
of a valid acceptance ?
a) An acceptance must be given within
prescribed or reasonable time
b) An acceptance must be given before
the lapse of offer
c) An acceptance may be expressed or
implied
d) All of the above
162. Which of the following statement is
incorrect?
a) Death of the propser automatically
revkes the proposal
b) Cross offers constitute valid
agreement
c) The acceptor cannot reoke his
acceptance even if the letter of
acceptance sent by him to the offeror
is lost in the transit
d) All of the above
163. Which of the following is not the mode
of the lapse of offer ?
a) Lapse of time
b) Case against the offeror
c) Insanity of offeror
d) Failure to accept condition precedent
164. An acceptance of offer, in ignorance
of the fact of death or insanity of the
offeror, is
a) Valid acceptance
b) Not valid
c) Illegal acceptance
d) Fraudulent acceptance
165. Which of the following is correct ?
a) Acceptance can be made even
without the knowledge of the offer
b) An agreement with intention to create
legal liability is not enforceable in law
c) If the offeree does not accept the
offer according to the mode
prescribed by the offeror, the offer
does not lapse automatically
d) Communication of offer is complete
when the letter of offer is posted
166. A proposes, by letter, to sell a house
to B for Rs 10,000. The communication
of the proposal is complete
a) When B receives the letter
b) When A dispatches the letter
c) When A sign the letter
d) When B knows about the letter
167. B accepts A’s proposal by a letter
sent by post. The communication of the
acceptance is complete as against A
a) When A receives the letter of
acceptance
b) When B acknowledges it
c) When it comes to the knowledge of A
d) When the letter is posted
a) Acceptance is to an offer what a
lighted mach to a train of gun powder

b) Two identical cross offers two are not
independent and separate offers
c) A counter offer is conditional
acceptance
d) All of the above statements
169. A revokes his proposal to B by
telegram. The revocation is complete as
against A
a) When the telegram is dispatched
b) When B receives the telegram
c) When B confirms
d) When A receives confirmation from B
170. A revokes his proposal by telegram to
B. it is complete as against B
a) When the telegram is dispatched by
A
b) When B confirms it
c) When B receives it
d) When A dispatches the telegram
171. B revokes his acceptance by
telegram. B’s revocation is complete as
against B
a) When the telegram is dispatched
b) When the proposer receives the
telegram
c) When the proposer confirms
d) When B receives the confirmation
172. B revokes his acceptance to A by
telegram. B’s revocation is complete as
against A
a) When B dispatches the telegram
b) When it reaches him when B confirms
it
c) When B confirms it
d) When A notifies it to B
173. Which of the following statements is
correct?
a) A valid contract cannot result from
identical cross offers
b) A proposal when accepted becomes
a promise
c) A rejected offer cannot be accepted
d) All of the above statements
a) An offer may be made to a particular
individual
b) An offer may be made to the public of
the whole world at large
c) An offer may be made to a section of
a public at large
d) All of the above
a) Acceptance must precede an offer
b) Acceptance may be given in any
manner unless the offeror insists
acceptance in the prescribed manner
c) Silence always amounts to
acceptance
d) Acceptance may be valid even if the
offeree adds certain conditions
176. Which of the following is incorrect ?
a) A rejected offer cannot be accepted
b) Cross offers cannot be constructed as
an agreement
c) Counter offer constitute valid
acceptance
d) All of the above
Capacity of the Party
177. Capacity to contract means
a. The parties are financially sound to
make contract
b. The parties are physically able to
enter into contract
c. The parties are legally competent to
enter into contracts
d. All of the above
178. Capacity to contract has been defined
in
a) Section 10
b) Section 11
c) Section 12
d) Section 25
179. Competence to contract mans
a) Age of the parties
b) Soundness of mind of the parties

c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Intelligence of the parties
180. These two person can enter into a
valid contract
a) Convict
b) Person of sound mind
c) Divorcee lady
d) Both (b) and (c)
181. These two persons can enter into a
valid contract
a) One minor and a major person
b) One minor and a person of sound
mind
c) Husband and Wife
d) One major person and an insolvent
person
182. A convict when undergoing
imprisonment
a) Is capable of entering into a contract
b) Is incapable of entering into a
contract
c) Is capable of entering into a contract,
if it is permitted by the court
d) Is capable of passing the
consideration
183. A convict can enter into contract
when
a) He is on bail
b) He is released from imprisonment
c) All of the above
184. Peron who is not an indian citizen is
known as
a) alien enemy
b) Alien friend
d) Both (a) and (b)
185. Contracts with an alien friend, subject
to certain restrictions are
a) Void
b) Unenforceable
c) Valid
d) Invalid
186. Only the official Receiver can enter
into contracts on behalf of the insolvent.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
d) None of the above.
187. A corporation cannot enter into
contracts that are
a) Ultra vires its Memorandum of
association
b) Strictly of a personal nature as t is
only an artificial person
188. Minor’s agreement is void but the
minor can enforce the agreement
against the other major party if minor is
a) A third party in the agreement
b) Promisor in the agreement
c) A promise in the agreement and he
has performed his part of promise
under the agreement
d) Relative of M.P
189. A minor’s agreement is void. This was
held in the case of
a) Mohiri Bibee Vs Dharmadas Ghosh
b) Salma begam Vs Jan Mohamed Khan
c) Balfour vs balfour
d) Chinnaiya vs Ramaya
190. On attaining the age of majority, a
Minor’s agreement
a) Is void
b) Cannot be ratified
c) Becomes void
d) Can be ratified
191. Which of the following statements are
correct? A minor cannot
a) Become a Partner
b) Be liable even in case of fraudulent
representation of age
c) Ask for specific performance of a
contract
d) All of the above

192. A minor cannot be declared insolvent.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
193. Guardian shall …. For breach of
contract by Minor.
a) be held liable
b) Not be held liable
c) Be imprisoned
d) Not be questioned
194. Parents shall ------- for breach of con.
Tact by minor.
a) Be held liable
b) Not be held liable
c) Be imprisoned
d) Not be questioned
195. A , a Minor, entered into a contract for
borrowing a sum of Rs 40,000 out of
which lender paid him a sum of Rs
18,000A executed mortgage of property
in favour of the lender. The mortagage
is
a) Valid for any amount
b) Valid to the extent of Rs. 40,000
c) Invalid
d) Validated on attaining majority
196. A ia a minor, b approaches A for a
loan on the basis of a mortgage of the
house owned by B Hence, A advances
the money and b executed a mortagage
in favour of A, a minor. In these
circumstances
a) The mortgage is not enforceable by
A, because he is a minor
b) The mortgage is enforceable but only
when a attains majority
c) The mortgage is enforceable by A
even though he is a Minor
d) There is no mortgage at all
197. Minor can be
a) A partner in a firm
b) An agent
c) A principal of his agent
d) All of the above
198. A minor can
a) Ratify his agreement after attaining
majority
b) Be directed by the Court for specific
performance of the contract
c) Always plead his minority
d) Be held liable for cheques issued by
him
199. A contract to take a loan by boy of 17
years of age from a money lender of 34
years is
a) Valid contract
b) Void contract
c) Quasi Contract
d) Void agreement
200. A minor can be held personally liable
a) For chques issued by him
b) For promises made by him with other
joint promisors
c) For guarantee given by him
201. A, a Minor draws cheque in favour of
B. on attaining majority, A makes out a
fresh cheque in lieu of the old one. In
this case
a. The original cheque is invalid but the
fresh cheque is valid
b. The original cheque is valid but the
fresh cheque is invalid
c. Both the original and fresh cheque
are valid
d. Both the original and Fresh cheque
are invalid.
a) A minor can enter into contract
b) A minor cannot validly appoint an
agent
c) A minor is liable for a chque issued by
him
d) All of the above
203. Which of the following is correct?

a) An agreement with a minor is always
void
b) A drunken person can never enter
into a contract
c) A married woman can never make a
contract
d) All of the above
204. Which of the following is correct
position for minor under valid contract ?
a) A minor can be a beneficiary
b) A minor can be a promise
c) Either (a0 and (b0
d) A minor can be a full fledged partner
in partnership firm
205. A minor, by misrepresenting his age,
borrows some money. He
a) Can be sued for fraud
b) Cannot be sued for farud
c) Is liable to return the money
d) Is liable to return the money on
attaining majority
a) A minor can make a valid contract for
necessaries of life
b) A married woman cannot enter into
contract with her husband
c) A minor can never become partner of
any firm
d) A minor can appoint an agent and is
liable as principal
207. A minor’s guardian are not liable to
Creditor for breach of contract by the
minor, if the contract is for ------
a) Supply of necessaries
b) Supply of non-necessaries
c) Supply of services
d) All of the above
208. A minor, though incompetent to
contract
a) can act as an Agent
b) Can bind his principal
d) Both (a) and (b)
209. A minor enters into a contract for the
purchase of certain necessaries. In such
a case
a) He is liable to return the necessaries
b) He is liable to pay
c) His estate is liable to pay
d) His guardian is liable to pay
210. Which of these has not been held as
a “ Necessary’?
a) Food
b) Clothing
c) Shelter
d) Mobile Phone
211. Which of these has been held as a
“Necessary?
a) Mobile Phone
b) Clothing to suit the person’s social
status
c) Intoxicating drinks
d) Internet Connection
212. Education and Marriage of a Female
have also been held to be necessaries
in India.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
213. Necessaries consist of
a) Tangible Goods
b) Services
214. Which of these is a not a “necessary”
for a Minor?
a) Provision of education
b) Provision of medical and legal advice
c) Provision of a houe on rent for the
purpose of living and Continuing his
studies
d) Provision of alcoholic drinks
215. A person is permanently incompetent
to contract, if he is
a) Lunatic

b) Idiot insolvent
c) All of the above
216. A, a minor bought 11 expensive
coasts from B. he was, at that time,
adequately provided with clothes, but B
did not know this fact. In such a case
a) Minor is personally liable to pay for
the coast
b) Minor’s property can be attached for
payment
c) Minor is liable since he has Misled
into supply of coats
d) Minor is not liable at all
217. A minor having ample supply of
clothes according to his position, bought
number of new dresses including eleven
fancy waist-coasts. In which of the
following case, these were held not to
be necessaries?
a) Chapel Vs Cooper
b) Balfour Vs Balfour
c) Nash Vs Inman
d) None of these
218. A person is said to be of Sound Mind,
if at the time of contracting
a) He is able to understand the terms of
Contract
b) He is capable of forming a rational
judgment about contract and about
his interests
d) Either (a) and (b)
219. A minor can be held liable for ….
a) Necessaries of life supplied to him
b) For a tort committed by him
c) Cheques endorsed by him
d) All of the above
220. A drunken person is not competent to
contract as he falls in the category of
a) Persons disqualified by law
b) Persons of unsound mind
c) Persons of discarded by society
d) Enemies of society
221. An intoxicated person is not
competent to contract as he falls in the
category of
a) Persons disqualified by law
b) Persons of unsound mind
c) Persons of discarded by society
d) Enemies of society
222. Which of the following are the
persons of unsound mind ?
a) Idiot
b) Lunatic
c) Drunken
d) All of the above
223. Which of the following persons are
not competent to Contract being the
persons disqualified by law?
a) Alien enemies
b) Insolvents
c) Convicts
d) All of the above
224. Which of the following person do not
fall in the category of person of unsound
mind.
a) Idiots
b) Lunatics
c) Alien
d) Drunken persons
225. Minority is a personal …….
a) Matter
b) Incompetence.
c) Talent
d) Competence
226. The doctrine of restitution refers to
the restoration of property or goods
obtained by false representation. This
doctrine is
a) Beneficial to minors
b) Not applicable to minors
c) Applicable to minors
227. A minor
a) Can be appointed as an agent.
b) Cannot be appointed as an agent

c) Can appoint others as his agent
d) None of these
228. Which of the following is considered
to fall in the category of ‘necessaries’?
a) Expenses for funeral ceremonies of
minor’s father
b) Money borrowed to save minors
property
c) Expenses for education
d) All of the above
229. A, a minor borrowed Rs. 30,000 from
B as an education loan to compete his
education. B can ……
a) Recover amount from A
b) Recover amount from A’s guardian
c) Recover amount from A’s property
d) Not recover at all
230. In a case where a lunatic enters into a
contract for the purpose of ‘necessaries,
then
a) Lunatic’s is personally liable to pay
b) Lunatic’s guardian’s is liable to pay
c) Lunatic’s estate is liable to pay
d) Guardian’s estate is liable to pay.
231. A minor can be lawfully …. Of a
cheque.
a) Drawer
b) Drawee
c) Payee
d) All of the above
232. Contracts with an alien enemy before
the declaration of war, which are against
the national interest, are
a) Terminated
b) Not affected at all
c) Suspended and revived after war
233. The contractual capacity of a
company registered under the
companies Act, 1956, is regulated by
the
a) Memorandum of association
b) Provisions of the Companies Act
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) May not contract whilst such delirium
lasts
234. A sane man, who is delirious from
fever
a) Can contract at any time
b) Cannot contract whilst such delirium
lasts
c) Cannot contract at all
d) May not contract whilst such delirium
lasts
235. A sane man, who is so drunk that the
cannot understand the terms of a
contract
a) Cannot contract while such
drunkenness lasts
b) Cannot contract at all
c) May not contract while such
drunkenness lasts
d) Can contract at any time
Consideration
236. Consideration means
a) Quid pro lo
b) Quid pro quo
c) Qui pro quo
d) Quid pro quod
237. Consideration in a contract
a) May be anything
b) Noting in return
c) Some thing in return
d) May be illusory
238. Section ---- of the Indian Contract Act
defines” Consideration”
a) Section 2(a)
b) Section 2 (b)
c) Section 2 (c )
d) Section 2 (d)
239. “Consideration” means a reasonable
equivalent or other valuable benefit
passed on
a) By the Promisor to the beneficiary
b) By the Promisee to the Promisor

c) By the promisor to the promisee
d) By the promise to the beneficiary
240. Consideration means something
which is of some value in the eyes of
law. it may be some benefit to the
plaintiff or somedetriment to the
defedent. It was held in case of
a) Fazaladdin vs Panchanan Das
b) Thomas Vs Thomas
c) Currie vs Misa
241. Out of the following which is/are valid
consideration ?
a) Not to sue any person
b) Compromise of dispute
c) Composition of creditors
d) All of the above
242. An essential feature of consideration
is that
a) It must be cash
b) It must be given by the prmisee alone
c) It must be at the request of the
Promisor
d) It must be in kind
243. Past consideration means
a) Voluntary services rendered in the
past
b) Something given by a party to
another at the request of the
Promisor and contract is made
thereafter
c) Something done at the time of making
a contract
d) Something to be given after
formation of the contract
244. Consideration may be
a) past
b) present
c) future
d) either (a) or (b) or (c)
245. past consideration is ___ in England
a) valid consideration
b) no consideration
c) illegal consideration
d) unlawful consideration
246. past consideration is ------- in India.
a) Valid consideration
b) No consideration
c) Illegal consideration
d) Unlawful consideration
a) Consideration is essential for a
contract
b) Consideration is required for a
contract when parties intend to
c) Both (a) or (b)
248. Consideration must be something
which the Promisor
a) Is already bound to do
b) Is not already bound to do
c) May voluntarily do
d) Must not do
249. If a renders some service to B at B’s
desire and after a Month B promises to
compensate A for the service rendered
to him, it is a
a) Present consideration
b) Past consideration
c) Future consideration
d) Not a consideration at all
250. An Executory consideration
a) Is an outstanding liability on both the
parties
b) Consists of a promise in future
c) Is a promise for a promise
d) All of the above
251. Executor consideration can be
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neither (a) nor (b)
252. An executed consideration
a) Can be positive or negative
b) Liability is outstanding in one side
only

c) Is an act against future promise
d) All of the above
253. Past consideration means
a) The price received in the past without
making even a proposal
b) More price is received than expected
c) The service rendered at the request
of the promisor in the past followed
by a subsequent promise
d) All of the above
254. Executor consideration means
a) Past consideration
b) Present consideration
d) Both (a) and (b)
255. Executed consideration means
a) Present consideration
b) Past consideration
d) Voluntary services rendered in the
past
256. A promises to pay an existing debt
punctually if, B, the creditor, gives him a
discoint. Is this consideration valid ?
a) Yes , it is genuine consideration
b) No , Promisor is already bound to pay
punctually
c) No, inadequate consideration
d) Yes , enforceable consideration
257. Present consideration is valid in ----
a) India
b) England
c) Both (a) and (b)
258. Consideration may be
a) Executor
b) Executed
d) Both (a) and (b)
259. Where a witness who has received
summons to appear at a trial, a promise
to pay him anything beyond his
expenses is
a) Void
b) Valid
c) Unlawful
d) illegal
260. a finds B’s mobile Phone, and gives it
back to him. B promises to give A rs.
500. This is a/an
a) agreement
b) contract
c) acceptance
d) offer
261. an agreement not supported by
consideration is called
a) Nudum Pactum
b) Invalid consideration
c) Ab intio
d) Namo dat quod non habet
262. Promise without consideration is
a) Gratuitous
b) Devoid any legal obligation
c) Not binding on the Promisor
d) All of the above
263. The consideration is to be moved
some-time after the formation of a
contract, it is known as ……
a) present consideration
b) Executor consideration
c) Past consideration
d) Executed consideration
264. A for natural love and affection,
promises to give his son B Rs 1,000. A
puts his promise to b into writing and
registers it. This is a
a) Contract
b) Agreement
c) Promise
d) Offer
265. Mere nearness of relation does not
necessarily imply natural love and
ffection for making contracts without
consideration is valid.
a) True
b) Partly True

c) False
266. A husband, by a registered
agreement promised to pay wife Rs
5,000 p.m. there was no consideration
moving from the wife to the husband.
This contract is
a) Void
b) Illegal
c) Valid
d) Unenforceable
267. The consideration ----- benefit the
promise himself
a) Must
b) Need not
c) Must always
d) Must never
268. A supports B’s infant Son. B
Promises to Pay A’s expense. The
contract is
a) Void
b) Illegal
c) Valid
d) Unenforceable
269. A owes B Rs 1,000 but the debt is
barred by Limitation Act. A sins a written
promise to pay B Rs 500 on Account of
this debt. The contract is
a) Void
b) Illegal
c) Valid
d) Unenforceable
270. ‘No Consideration No Contract’ does
not apply to completed gifts.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
271. Consideration must move at the
desire of
a) Promisor
b) Promise
c) Stranger
d) Either (b) or (c)
272. Consideration may move from
a) Promisor
b) Promise
d) Both (a) and (b)
273. Consideration is not necessary to
effect a alid Gratuitous Bailment of
goods.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
274. Inadequacy of consideration does not
make the contract
a) Void
b) Voidable
c) Valid
a) Consideration may be past, present
but not future
b) A contract is void if the consideration
is inadequate
c) Acceptance to lesser sum in
satisfaction of payment of a larger
sum is valid in spite of inadequate
consideration
d) A stranger to contract can enforce the
contract
276. When the consideration is unlawful,
the courts
a) Allows an action on contract
b) Does not allow an action on contract
c) Takes it for consideration
d) Either (a) or (c)
277. A person who is not a party to a
contract
a) Cannot sue
b) Can sue
c) Can sue only in well recognized
cases
d) Can sue the Government

278. Under the Indian contract Act, a third
person
a) Beneficiary under the contract can
sue
b) From whom the consideration has
proceeded can sue
c) Cannot sue even if the consideration
has proceeded from him
d) Cannot sue at all for want of privity of
contract
279. Stranger to contract means
a) First party to contract
b) Second party to contract
c) Third party to contract
280. The term privity of contract means
a) Stranger of contract
b) Contract is private
c) First party to contract
d) Second party to contract
281. Consideration need not necessarily
be provided by the promisee, it may flow
from a third party also. Such a person is
called
a) Stranger to contract
b) Stranger to consideration
c) Stranger to the court
d) Either (a) or (c)
a) Consideration passed on behalf of
another is valid
b) A ather promises his son while talking
on cell phone to give half of his
property. It is an enforceable
promise
c) A contracts B in writing to pay all the
time barred debts of C. it is a valid
contract
d) Both (b) and (c) above
283. Marriage Settlement, Partition and
other family Arrangements can be
enforced by a beneficiary who is not a
arty to the contract, only if such
agreement is
a) Registered
b) Reduced to Writing
d) Both (a) and (b)
284. Which of the following is incorrect ?
a) Consideration must be something
which the promise is aleady under a
duty to do
b) Consideration must be valuable in the
eye of the promisor
c) Consideration must be which the
promise wants to do voluntarily
d) All of the above
285. A promises to pay Rs. 1,000 to B if he
brings a star from sky to earth and B
agrees to bring the star to earth. In this
case, contract is
a) Valid
b) Void as consideration is illusory
c) Illegal
d) Contingent
286. The forbearance to sue is regarded
as
a) Invalid consideration
b) No consideration
c) Valid consideration
287. Compromise of disputed claims is
a) Valid consideration
b) Invalid consideration
c) For bidden by law
d) Unlawful consideration
288. A promise to pay for past services is
valid and binding even though it is
without consideration. However, for the
validity of such promise, the past
services should have been rendered
a) Voluntarily
b) At promisor’s request
c) Under compulsion
d) Under some contract

289. For the enforcement of promise to
pay a time –barred debt without
consideration, which of the following
conditions is not required ?
a) It must be in writing
b) It must be express
c) It must be signed by the promisor
d) It must be rgistered in a Court of law
290. Which of the following statements are
correct ?
I.Consideration is not required for the
creation of an agency.
II.Consideration is not required for
making an actual gift.
III.Consideration is not required while
entering into contract with relative.
IV.Consideration is not required for
promise to pay time-barred debt.
a) (i),(ii), (iii)
b) (i), (i), (iv)
c) (ii) (iii) (iv)
d) (i), (iii), (iii)
291. Which of the following is the
recognized exception to the rule of
privity of contract ?
a) Trust or charge
b) Marriage settlement and family
arrangements
c) Acknowledgement of payment
d) All of the above
292. In which of, the following important
cases, the exception of ‘trust or charge’
to the rule of privity of contract was
recognized?
a) Lalman shukla Vs Gauri Dutt
b) Khuaja Mohdkhan vs Hussani Begum
c) Carlill vs Carbolic smoke ball Co
d) Balfour vs Balfour
293. A person who is not a party to the
trust can enforce the same if the
following conditions are satisfied.
a) He must be clearly named as a
beneficiary under the trust or charge
b) The trust or charge in his favour must
be of specific property
c) The benefit to the beneficiary must be
of Rs. 50,000 or more
d) Both (a) and (b)
294. A person for whose benefit a prvision
is made in partition deed of joint family
property but he is not a party to such
settlement,
a) Cannot sue as partition of property is
not a recognized exeption
b) Can sue as it is a recognized
exception to the rule of privity of
contract
c) Can sue after becoming party to the
settlement
d) Can sue only if court allow him to do
so
295. A promises, for no consideration, to
give to B Rs 1,000.
a) This is a void agreement
b) This is a valid agreement
c) This is a voidable agreement
Free Consent
296. Consent means parties agreeing on
a) The terms of the contract
b) Some terms of the contract
c) The same thing in the same sense
d) Any matter of the contract
297. Section ….. of the Indian contract act
deals with consent.
a) 12
b) 13
c) 14
d) 15
298. Consent Means
a) Unity of minds on the same thing
b) Meeting of minds on the same thing
in the same sense
c) Agreeing on same thing in the same
sense

d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
299. “ Free Consent” is ealt with under
Section …. Of the Indian Contract Act.
a) 12
b) 12
c) 14
d) 15
300. Consent and free consent are same
and one thing.
a) True
b) Partly true
c) False
d) Partly False
301. Sec …. Of Indian Contract Act deals
with “Coercion”.
a) 15
b) 16
c) 17
d) 18
302. Consent is said to be free when it is
not obtained by
a) Coercion
b) Fraud
c) Bilateral Mistake
d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
303. Two person are said to be in consent
a) When they agree on any things
b) When they agree upon the same
thing in the same sense
c) When they agree upon the same
thing in different sense
d) When they agree upto the same thing
in different sense
304. …… means forcibly compelling a
person to enter into a contract.
a) Intimidation
b) Fraud
c) Mistake
d) Coercion
305. Coercion includes
a) Causing fear
b) Threat to detain property
c) Detain goods unlawfully
d) All of the above
306. The act amount to coercion is
a) Threat to sue
b) Threat to strike
c) Threat to suicide
d) Threat to detain property under
mortgage
307. A contract is said to be caused by
undue influence
a) When one party is a dominant party
b) When one party uses its dominant
position to get unfair advantage over
the other in a contract
c) When parties to contract are close
friends
d) When parties to a contract are near
relatives
308. A threatens to kill B, if B does not
agree to sell his property to A. B’s
Consent is obtained by
a) Fraud
b) Undue Influence
c) Coercion
d) Misrepresentation
309. D threatens to kill A if he does not sell
his hose to B at a very low price. Even if
D is a stranger to the transaction
between A and B, the agreement is
caused by
a) Undue Influence
b) Coercion
c) Fraud
310. A, Hindu widow, was forced to adopt
B under threat that her husband’s dead-
body would not be allowed for funeral,
unless she adopts B. the adoption is
void-able since the consent is caused by
a) Undue Influence
b) Coercion
c) Fraud
d) Mistake

311. A contract is said to be made without
consent when the contract is caused by
a) Coercion
b) Undue influence
c) Fraud
d) Bilateral Mistake of fact
312. To make a contract voidable,
coercion must have been exercised
against
a) promisor
b) Any other person
313. Duress under English Contract Law is
similar to
a) Undue influence
b) Coercion
c) Fraud
314. To avoid a contact under the claim of
“Coercion” , the Indian Pena code
should be in force where the coercion is
employed.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
315. ….. means unfair use of one’s
superior power in order to obtain the
consent of a person who is in a weaker
position.
a) Coercion
b) Undue influence
c) Fraud
d) ‘Misrepresentation
316. Section …. Of the Indian Contract Act
deals with “Undue Influence”.
a) 15
b) 16
c) 17
d) 18
317. A person is deemed to be in a
position to dominate the will of another if
a) He holds a real or apparent authority
over the other
b) He stands in a fiduciary relation to the
other
c) All of the above
position to dominate the will of another if
a) He stands in a fiduciary relation to the
other
b) He makes a contract with a person
whose mental capacity is temporarily
or permanently affected by reason of
age, illness or mental or bodily
distress
c) All of the above
319. The agreement entered into with free
consent is
a) Valid
b) Void
c) Voidable
d) Illegal
320. The agreement entered into without
free consent is
a) Valid
b) Void
c) Voidable
d) Illegal
position to dominate the will of another
by undue influence if the mental
capacity is affected temporarily or
permanently by reasons of
a) Age
b) Illness
c) Mental or bodily distress
d) All of the above
322. Who has defined that “ undue
influence is the unconscientions use, by
one person, of power possessed by him
over another in order to induce the other
party to enter into contract ?

a) Holland
b) Pollack
c) Lord Halsbury
d) Salmond
323. A contract which is aboided on
grounds of undue Inflence may be set
aside
a) Absolutely
b) Upon such terms and conditions as
the Court may deem fit
d) Both (A) and (B)
324. An illiterate old woman made a gift
deed of her entire property to her
nephew who managed her affairs. The
gift can be set aside on the grounds of
a) Mistake
b) Coercion
c) Fraud
d) Undue Influence
325. A applies to a Banker for a loan when
the money market is very stringent
Banker says that loan could be provided
only at such high interest A’s consent is
a) Not obtained by ndue Infuence
b) Obtained by undue influence
c) Not obtained by coercion
d) Obtained by fraud
326. Mere proof of nearness of relationship
is not sufficient for the Court to assume
that one relation was in a position to
dominate the will of another
a) True
b) Partly true
c) False
327. Which of the following relationships
raise presumption of undue influence ?
a) Parent and Child
b) Guardian and Ward
c) Spiritual Guru and Disciple
d) All of the above
328. Which of the following relationships
raise presumption of undue influence ?
a) Doctor and Patient
b) Solicitor and Client
c) Trustee and Beneficiary
d) All of the above
329. Which of the following relationship
raise presumption of Under influence?
a) Landlord and Tenant
b) Husband and Wife
c) Fiancé and Fiancee
d) Creditor and Debtor
330. undue influence is npt preumed
when the relationship between the
parties is
a) master- Servant
b) doctor-patent
c) husband-wife
d) shopkeeper-buyer
331. Coercion and Under Influence,
involve physical force or threat.
a) True
b) Partly True
c) False
332. To employ “coercion”, relationship
between the parties is
a) Necessary
b) Not necessary
c) Required
d) Presumed
333. To employ “undue Influence”,
relationship between the parties is
a) Necessary
b) Not necessary
c) Required
d) Presumed
334. Section 17 of the Indian Contract Act
deals with
a) Coercion
b) Undue Influence
c) Fraud
d) Mistake

335. Fraud means
a) Suggestion as a Fact, of something
which is not true, by a person who
does not believe it to be true
b) Active concealment of a fact
c) Promise made without any intention
of performing it
d) All of the above
336. Which of these constitute Fraud?
a) Any act fitted to deceive
b) Any such act or omission as
specifically declared by law to be
fraudulent
c) Both (a) and (b)
337. Which of these does not constitute
Fraud?
a) Suggestion as a fact, of something
which is not true, by a person who
does not believe it to be true
b) Active concealment of a Fact
c) Innocent statement, honestly
believing the same to be true.
d) Promise made without any intention
of performing it
338. Which of these does not constitute
Fraud?
a) Promise made without any intention
of performing it.
b) Physical threat to the person
c) Any act fitted to deceive
d) Any such act or omission as
specifically declared by Law to be
fraudulent
339. A mere attempt at deceit by one party
a) Is not fraud unless the other party is
actually deceived
b) Is fraud whether the other party has
been deceived or not
c) Amounts to mistake
d) Amount to undue influence
340. Fraud may be committed by
a) A party to the contract
b) Stranger to the contract
c) An agent of the party to the contract
d) Both (a) and (c)
341. Which of these constitute essential
elements of Fraud?
a) Representation should relate to a
material fact
b) Representation should be Falsse
c) The intention must be to induce the
other party to act upon it
d) All of the above
342. If a sells, by auction to B a horse
which A Knows to be unsound and A
says nothing to B about the horse’s
unsoundness, this amount to
a) Fraud
b) Not farud
c) Unlawful
d) Illegal
343. If A sells, by auction to B a horse
which A knows to be unsound and A
says nothing to B about the horse’s
unsoundness, this amount to
a) Fraud
b) Not fraud
c) Unlawful
d) Illegal
344. Duty to speak exists in case
a) Where the parties stand in a fiduciary
relationship
b) Where contract is a one of ubberima
fidei
c) Both (a) and (b)
345. Uberima fidei means
a) Bad faith
b) Utmost god faith
c) Goo faith
d) No faith at all
a) Consent obtained by fraud makes the
agreement void

b) Silence as to material facts always
amount to fraud
c) A deceit which does not deceive is no
fraud
d) Unilateral mistake of fact alwys
renders the contract voild
347. In which of the following cases, the
contract cannot be avoided on grounds
of fraud?
a) A fraud which did not cause the
consent of the party to the
agreement
b) If the party had the means to discover
the truth with ordinary dillgence
c) Where a party enters into a contract
in ignorance of fraud
d) All of the above
348. A bought shares in a Company on the
faith of a prospectus that contained an
untrue statement as to the directorship
of B. A had never heard of B and hence
such statement was immaterial from his
view point. A claimed damages for
fraud. His claim will be dismissed on the
ground that
a) There was no fraud
b) It is a subject matter covered under
Companies Act
c) The untrue statement had not
induced him to buy the shares
d) All of the above
351. In Derry Vs Peek it was observed that fraud
exists when it is shown that the false representation
has been made
a. Knowingly
b. Unintentionally
c. Recklessly careless whether it be true or
false
d. Both (a) and (c)
352. In cases of silence amounting to fraud where
the other party had the means of discovering truth
with ordinary diligence, the contract is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Not voidable
d. Conditional
353. A, fraudulently sold his car to B. After-wards ,
B came to known about the fraud, but instead of
complaining, he further sold the car to C. in this
case, B’s right to rescind the contract is
a. lost
b. not lost
c. strengthened
354. The important element which distinguishes
mispresentation from fraud is that the
misrepresentation is an
a. intentional statement
b. innocent statement
c. important statement
d. irrelevant statement
355. In a contract of insurance, keeping silent as to
material facts amounts to fraud.
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
356. For a marriage contract, the relatives speaking
for the girl failed to disclose that she was suffering
from epileptic fits. In this case, engagement is
voidable on account of
a. Fraud
b. Misrepresentation
c. undue influence
357. Section ………. of the Indian Contract Act
deals with “Misrepresentation”
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 18
358. Misrepresentation means
a. causing a party entering into an agreement
to make a mistake as to the subject matter
of contract
b. a positive assertion, in a manner warranted
by the information of the person making it,
not true but he believes it to be true

c. Any breach of duty, which gains an
advantage to the person committing it by
misleading another to his prejudice.
d. All of the above
359. When the contract is entered into under
misrepresentation, it is
a. void
b. valid
c. invalid
d. voidable
360. Which of these are features of
Misrepresentation, not treated as Fraud?
a. Innocent and Unintentional
b. Believes the representation to be true
c. No intention to deceive or defraud the other
party.
d. All of the above
361. Any breach of duty bringing gains to the Doer,
by misleading another to his prejudice is a case of
a. Suppression of Facts
b. Breach of Contract
c. Fraud
d. Misrepresentation
362. Misrepresentation results not only from
misstatement of facts, but also from suppression of
material facts.
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
363. Which of the following are essential features of
Misrepresentation?
a. Representation should be of a material fact
b. It must be made before the conclusion of
the contract
c. There should not be an intention to deceive
the other party
d. All of the above
364. A wrong statement of facts made to a third
person with an intent to communicate it to the party
involved amounts to misrepresentation.
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
365. Where consent is caused by Fraud or
Misrepresentation, the aggrieved party can sue for
damages.
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
366. Sohan induced Suraj to buy his motorcycle
saying that it was in a very good condition. After
taking the motorcycle, Suraj complained that there
were many defects in the motorcycle. Sohan
proposed to get it repaired and promised to pay
40% cost of repairs after a few days. the
motorcycle did not work at all. In this case, Suraj
a. can rescind the contract
b. has affirmed to the contract and cannot
rescind the contract
c. can return the motorcycle
d. all of the above
367. …….. Is an erroneous belief about
something?
a. Representation
b. Mistake
c. Fraud
d. Misrepresentation
368. When one of the parties is under a mistake as
to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, it is
called
a. Unilateral Mistake
b. Bilateral Mistake
c. Partial Mistake
d. Incomplete Mistake
369. Unilateral Mistake may relate to
a. Subject matter
b. Understanding terms or legal effect of
agreement
c. Neither (a) nor (b)
d. Both (a) and (b)
370. Erroneous opinion as to value of subject
matter is not a Mistake of Fact.
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
371. An old illiterate man was made to sign a bill of
exchange, by means of a false representation that
it was a guarantee. The contract is

a. illegal
b. Valid
c. Void
d. Voidable
372. When both parties are under a mistake as to a
matter of fact essential to the agreement, it is called
as
a. Unilateral Mistake
b. Bilateral Mistake
c. General Mistake
d. Total Mistake
373. Section ………. of the Indian Contract Act
deals with “Bilateral Mistake”.
a. 19
b. 20
c. 21
d. 22
374. Bilateral mistake may relate to
a. Subject Matter
b. Possibility of performance
d. Both (a) and (b)
375. Bilateral Mistake as to fact renders an
agreement void since
a. There is no consideration
b. Agreements is unlawful
c. There is no agreement
d. It is opposed to public policy
376. A agrees to sell his horse to B. But unknown
to both the parties, the horse had already died at
the time of making of the contract. The contracts is
a. Void
b. Valid
c. Voidable
d. Illegal
377. A wrote to B inquiring price of rifles suggesting
that he might buy as many as 50. On receipt of
information he telegraphed, “Send three rifles”
Due to telegraphic mistake, message was
transmitted as “Send the rifles”. B dispatched 50
rifles. In this case
a. There is no contract
b. There is a valid contract
c. A has to accept the loss on 50 rifles
d. A has to accept the loss on 3 rifles
378. A contracted to take on rent, a property for
viewing the coronation procession of the King.
Unknown to the parties, the procession had already
been cancelled. The contract is void due to
a. Mistake as to Physical Impossibility
b. Mistake as to Legal Impossibility
c. Object being opposed to public policy
d. All of the above
379. A contract to do a certain act which is not
permitted by law, is void in itself.
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
380. The maxim “Ignoranlia juris non excusa”
stands for
a. Law will not punish ignorant people
b. Law will punish illiterate people
c. Ignorance people can excuse law
d. Ignorance of law of land is no excuse
381. A had two scooters, one blank and the other
white, and offered to sell his black scooter to B for
Rs 12,000. B accepted the other believing it to be
for white. In this case, no contract arises between A
and B as there is no
a. Consensus ad idem
b. error in consensus
c. error in causa
d. both (a) and (b)
382. The case of ‘no consent’ i.e. when there is no
consent at all, are described by Salmond as
a. error in causa
b. error in consensus
c. consensus ad idem
d. offer and acceptance
383. In which of the following cases, of mistake of
both the parties, the contract is void ab initio
because of complete absence of consent
a. Where there is error as to the nature of
the contract
b. Where there is error as to the identity of
the parties
c. Where there is error as to the subject
matter of the contract
d. All of the above
384. threatening to commit any act forbidden by
IPC amounts to coercion under Section 15, if such
act is done with the intention of
a. causing the other party to enter into contract

b. injuring the other party
c. causing loss to the other party
d. All of the above
385. Unlawful detaining or threatening to detain any
property amounts to coercion under Section 15, if
such act is done with the intention of
a. causing the other party to enter into contract
b. injuring the other party
c. causing loss to the other party
d. All of the above
386. The threatening act amounting to coercion
a. Must be initiated by a party to the contract
only
b. Must be initiated by a stranger only
c. May be initiated by a party or by any
person, even by a stranger
d. Must be initiated by both the party as well
as stranger
387. The threatening act amounting to coercion
a. Must be directed against the party to
contract
b. Must be directed against stranger only
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. May be directed against the party or against
any person who is not a party
388. Threat to commit suicide amount to
i. Fraud
ii. Coercion
iii. Undue influence
iv. Offence under IPC
a. (i) and (ii)
b. (ii) and (iii)
c. (iii) and (iv)
d. (ii) and (iv)
389. Threat to detain property in unlawful manner
amount as
a. Fraud
b. Coercion
c. Mistake
d. All of the above
390. Undue influence is a kind of
a. Mental
b. Physical
c. Both (a) and (b)
391. Which of the following is not an essential
element of undue influence?
a. One party must be in a position to dominate
the will of the other party
b. The dominant party must use his dominant
position to obtain an unfair advantage over
the other party
c. The dominant party must obtain an unfair
advantage over the other party
d. One party must be in a dominant position,
but he may or may not use his position to
obtain unfair advantage over the weaker
party
392. A party is presumed to dominate the will of
another, where he
a. holds a real or apparent authority over the
other
b. makes a contract with another in mental
distress
c. Both (a) and (b)
393. A party is presumed to dominate the will of
another, where he
a. holds a real or apparent authority over the
other
b. stands in a fiduciary relation to the other
c. Both (a) and (b)
394. The fiduciary relations means the relationship
of
a. trust and confidence
b. master and servant
c. none of the above
d. both (a) and (b)
395. Which of the following relations fall in the
category of ‘fiduciary relations’ and usually raise the
presumption of undue influence?
a. Solicitor and client
b. doctor and patient
c. spiritual adviser and devotee
d. all of the above
396. Which of the following relations do not fall in
the category of ‘fiduciary relationship and thus does
not raise the presumption of undue influence?
a. solicitor and client
b. doctor and patient
c. spiritual adviser and devotee

397. Which of the following relations do not fall in
the category of fiduciary relationship and thus dose
not raise the presumption of undue influence?
a. Parent and child
b. Trustee and beneficiary
c. Landlord and tenant
d. Woman and her confidential managing
agents
398. Contracts with a pardanashin woman
raises the presumption of
a. domination of will
b. undue influence
c. fraud
399. When a contract is challenged in a court of law
on the ground of undue influence, the burden of
proof lies uponthe
a. stronger party
b. weaker party
c. court to prove the undue influence
400. On account of bilateral mistake, a contract to
be declared as void under Section 20, the mistake
must be about the
a. Existing fact
b. Future fact
c. Both of the above
401. When both the parties to an agreement have
different subject-matter In mind, the agreement is
a. not void
b. void
c. voidable
d. valid
402. When contract entered into by way of
unilateral mistake is void?
a. Mistake as to identity of the parties to an
agreement
b. Mistake as to nature of the agreement
c. None of the above
d. Either (a) or (b)
403. A, by fraudulent representation, got signed a
gift deed from B in his favour representing it to be a
power of attorney. The gift deed is
a. valid
b. voidable
c. void
d. illegal
404. A, intending to deceive B, falsely represents
that 500 bags are made daily at his factory, and
thereby induces B to buy the factory. The contract
is
a. voidable at the option of B
b. voidable at the option of A
c. void
d. none of the above
405. The husband asks his wife that he would
commit suicide, if she does not give him her
ornaments.
a. The contract can be avoided by the wife
b. The contract is void
c. The husband can enforce the contract
d. Both (b) and (c)
406. A agrees to sell a horse worth Rs 20,000 for
Rs 100. A’s consent to the agreement was freely
given.
a. This is a valid contract
b. This is a void contract
c. This is a voidable contract
d. This is an illegal contract
Void Agreements and Contigent
Contract
407. Consideration and object of an agreement is
unlawful if it
a. is forbidden by law
b. would defeat the provisions of any law
unlawful if it
a. would defeat the provisions of any low
b. creates injury to the person
c. is fraudulent
d. All of the above
a. All agreements are unlawful if court
consider it as immoral
b. Champerty agreements are always void
d. Both (a) and (b)

a. An agreement to create monopoly is void
b. An agreement to defraud others is unlawful
unlawful if it
a. is fraudulent
b. creates injury to property of any other
person
c. against public policy
d. all of the above
unlawful if it
a. is fraudulent
b. is possible
c. is impossible
d. all of the above
413. An act forbidden by law means
a. it is punishable by the Criminal Law
b. it is prohibited by a Special Act
414. The stifling agreement is
a. Wagering
b. Contigent
c. Voidable
d. Void
415. In the above question the agreement is void
on ground of
a. Unlawful consideration
b. Public policy
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither(a) nor (b)
416. A borrows money from B to purchase
smuggled cameras from C. B knows the purpose.
The agreement between A and B is
a. illegal
b. void
c. legal
d. voidable
417. A, B and C enter into an agreement for
sharing the money obtained by fraud. This
agreement is
a. Valid
b. Wagering
c. Void
d. Voidable
418. An agreement is void if the court considers it
as
a. Immoral
b. Within moral standards
419. A enters into agreement on behalf of her minor
daughter that her daughter will act in an adult
movie. Agreement is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
d. Contingent
420. In the above questions, agreement is void,
because it is
a. without consideration
b. immoral
c. fraudulent
d. contingent
421. A gave a lone to the guardian of a Minor to
celebrate the Minor’s marriage. The agreement is
a. Valid
b. Valid at the option of Minor
c. not enforceable
d. voidable
422. An agreement for improper promotion of
litigation is
a. voidable
b. not void
c. against public policy
d. valid
423. Which of the following agreements are valid?
a. Uncertain agreements
b. Wagering agreements
c. Agreements to do impossible events
424. Which of the following agreements are void?
a. Agreements to do impossible acts
b. Illegal agreements
c. Both (a) and (b)
425. If in a contract where promises are seperable
from other, one promise is legal and the other
promise is illegal, the legal promise is……..
a. enforceable
b. unenforceable
c. unlawful

426. if in a contract where promises are seperable
from other, one promise is leagal and other promise
is illegal, the illegal promise is …….
a. enforceable
b. unenforceable
c. unlawful
427. Which one of the following is a void
agreement?
a. An agreement without consideration
b. An agreement in restraint of marriage
c. An agreement in restraint of trade
d. All of the above
428. Of the following agreements, which one is not
void?
a. Agreement without consideration
b. Agreement in restraint of marriage
c. Wagering agreement
d. Agreement with physically disabled person
429. Section ……. of the Indian contract Act deals
with “Void Contract”.
a. 2 (i)
b. 2 (j)
c. 2 (d)
d. 2 (e)
430. Section …… of the Indian Contract Act deals
with “Voidable Contract”.
a. 2 (i)
b. 2 (j)
c. 2 (d)
d. 2 (e)
431. Section …… of the Indian contract Act deals
with “Agreements in restraint of Trade”.
a. 26
b. 27
c. 28
d. 29
432. The agreement to create monopoly is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Illegal
d. Wagering
433. In which of the following agreements,
Restraint of Trade is valid?
a. Agreement with Buyer of Goodwill
b. Trade Combinations not opposed to public
policy
c. Partnership Agreements
d. All of the above
434. Where a Seller of Goodwill of a business
agrees not to carry on similar business, the limits
and conditions imposed have to be …………
having regard to the nature of the business.
a. Considerable
b. Understandable
c. Reasonable
d. Suitable
435. Trade combination agreements like opening
and closing of business ventures, licensing of
traders, supervision and control of dealers, etc., are
a. void
b. valid
c. voidable
d. immoral
436. When two companies enter into an joint
venture agreement, the agreement is
a. opposed to public policy
b. void
c. either (a) or (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)
437. When two companies enter into an joint
ventures agreement, the agreement is
a. opposed to public policy
b. void
d. both (a) nor (b)
438. Out of the following, which is a valid restriction
on an employee?
a. During employment, he will not work at any
other place
b. After the period of employment, he will not
work anywhere
c. He will not resign from job
d. Both (b) and (b)
439. An agreement between ice manufacturers not
to sell ice below a stated price and to divide the
profits in a certain proportion is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Enforceable
d. Voidable

440. An agreement among the members of a co-
operative society to deliver all crops grown by them
to the society. The society sells it and divides the
profit amongst its member is
a. Void
b. Unenforceable
c. Valid
d. Voidable
441. Service agreement where an employee
agrees that he will not serve anybody else
during service period, is a
a. Valid agreement
b. Void agreement
c. Illegal agreement
d. Unlawful agreement
442. Where an employee enters into an agreement
with his employer not to engage in similar work
after the termination of this service, the agreement
is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Enforceable
d. Voidable
443. An agreement with employees to serve the
organization for a few years after training is
a. Voidable
b. Void
c. Unenforceable
d. Valid
444. Which of the following agreements in restraint
of trade is valid?
a. Partner not to carry on any business other
than that of the firm while he is a partner
b. Outgoing Partner not to carryon any business
similar to Firm’s within specified periods or
local limits.
c. Partners not to carry on similar business
within specified periods, upon dissolution of
Firm
d. All of the above
445. Where an employee undertook to serve his
employer for a period of 1 year but leaves the
service after 6 months , the agreements is
a. Void
b. Enforceable
c. Illegal
d. Voidable
446. “Agreements in restraint of Legal proceedings”
is provided under
a. Section 26
b. Section 27
c. Section 28
d. Section 29
447. Which of the following agreements is valid?
a. Restricting person from enforcing his rights
under any contract, by the court
b. Limiting the time within which any party may
enforce his rights by order of court
c. Waiver the rights of any party to the
agreement
d. All of the above
448. An agreement not to enforce any legal remedy
or enforce the right is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Unenforceable
449. An agreement between two parties to refer to
arbitration for any dispute between them is valid
a. If any party wishes so
b. If it is in writing
450. Uncertain Agreements are defined in section
….. of the Indian contract Act ,1872.
a. 26
b. 27
c. 28
d. 29
451. Uncertain agreement is
a. Voidable
b. Void
c. Valid
d. Illegal
452. An agreement is void, if the meaning of such
agreement is
a. not certain
b. not capable of being made certain
453. A says to B ‘’shall sell my house; will you
buy?’’ B says, ‘’yes, I will buy’’. The agreement is
a. Valid
b. Void

c. Voidable
d. Illegal
454. A says to B ‘’ I shall sell my house; will you
buy?’’ B says, ’’yes, I will buy’’. The agreement is
void due to
a. Uncertainty of meaning
b. Uncertainty of price
c. Uncertainty of subject matter
d. Uncertainty about the quality
455. A promised to pay an extra Rs 5,000 to B if
the horse he purchased from B proved to
be lucky. The promise is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Enforceable
456. A agreed to pay a certain sum, when he
wishes to pay. The agreement is void on
grounds of
a. inadequacy of consideration
b. agreement to agree in future
c. Uncertainty
d. all of the above
457. A agrees with B to sell all his goods stored in
warehouse at Ahmedabad for Rs 50,000. The
agreement is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. illegal
d. contigent
458. Illegal agreements are
a. Not enforceable by law
b. Prohibited
d. Both (a) and (b)
459. All illegal agreements are
a. void ab – initio
b. valid
c. voidable
d. enforceable
460. All void agreements are always
a. illegal
b. valid
c. enforceable
461. Void agreements are
a. Not punishable
b. Punishable
c. Prohlbited
d. Illegal
462. Illegal agreements may be punishable with
a. Fine
b. Imprisonment
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Any of the above
463. All void agreements may not be illegal but all
illegal agreements are always void.
a. True
b. False
c. Partly True
d. Partly False
464. An Agreement to murder a person is an
example of
a. Voidable Agreement
b. Illegal Agreement
d. Both (a) and (b)
465. No action can be taken for breach of an illegal
agreement.
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
466. “A Wagering Agreement is a promise to give
money or money’s worth upon the determination or
ascertainment of an uncertain event”. It is a said by
a. Anson
b. Pollock
c. Drucker
d. Cockbum
467. “A Wagering Agreement is a contract by A to
pay money to B on the happening of a given event
in contract of B’s promise to pay money to A on the
event of non happening.” It is said by
a. Anson
b. Pollock
c. Drucker
d. Cockbum
468. Which of the following is not a feature of a
Wagering Agreement?
a. Chances of gain or loss
b. Uncertainty of future event
c. Neither party have control over future event

d. Neither parties should have an interest in the
event
469. If either of the parties may win but cannot lose,
or both may lose and can not win, it is
a. a Wagering Agreement
b. not a Wagering Agreement
c. a Voidable Agreement
d. an illegal Agreement
470. Athletic competitions are valid because they
are
a. games of skill
b. just games
c. games of luck
d. all of the above
471. Neither party should have interest in the
happening or non-happening of the event other
than
a. His goodwill
b. The sum he stands to win or loss
d. Both (a) and (b)
472. A “Wagering Contract ‘’ is void under ……… of
the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
a. Section 30
b. Section 31
c. Section 32
d. Section 33
473. In a Wagering Agreement, the winning party
cannot recover the money.
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
474. Wagering Agreement, have been declared
illegal and hence void in
a. Gujarat
b. Maharashtra
c. Both (a) and (b)
475. In the State of Karnataka, Collateral
Transactions to a Wagering Agreement are
a. Voidable
b. Illegal and Void
c. Valid
d. Contingent
476 .In the States of Gujarat and Maharashtra,
collateral Transaction to a Wagering Agreement are
a. Voidable
b. Illegal and Void
c. Valid and Enforceable
d. Contingent
477. In India, Unauthorized Lottery is
a. Illegal
b. Void
c. Both (a) and (b)
478. A, in Ahmedabad, bets with B and loses. A
applies to C for a loan in order to pay B. C gives the
lone to A to enable him to pay B. In this case C can
a. recover the loan from A
b. not recover the loan from A
c. C can recover the loan from B
479. “Wagering Agreements cover Insurance
Contracts also”. This statement is
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
480. Share market transactions with a clear
intention only to settle the price difference are
a. Wagering Agreements
b. Not Wagering Agreements
c. Contingent Contract
d. Voidable Agreements
481. Share market transaction with a clear intention
not only to settle the price difference but delivery of
shares of goods are
c. Contingent Contracts
482. Prize Competitions which involve skill are
c. Void Agreements
483. Any agreements to solve picture puzzles are
c. Void Agreements

a. Prize competitions exceeding Rs 1000 is
wagering
b. Horse race agreements are always unlawful
c. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings
is valid
d. All of the above
a. Prize competition for horse race exceeding Rs
100 is wagering
b. Prize competitions for horse race exceeding
Rs 100 is wagering
c. Prize competitions exceeding Rs 1000 is
wagering
d. Both (a) and (b)
486. A contract entered into during war with an
alien enemy is
a. Ineffective
b. Valid
c. Voidable
d. Void-ab-initio
487. A contract entered into during war with an
alien friend is
a. Ineffective
b. Valid
c. Voidable
d. Void-ab-initio
488. Which of these are not opposed to public
Policy?
a. Trading with enemy
b. Stifling Prosecution
c. Compromise of compoundable offences
d. Agreement to commit a crime
489. Which of these are not opposed to public
Policy?
a. Champerty and Maintenance agreements
b. Agreements in restraint of parental rights
c. Agreements in restraint of marriage
d. Agreements to refer disputes to arbitration
490. Which of these are opposed to public policy?
a. Restraint of marriage
b. Restraint of personal freedom
c. Interference with course of Justice
d. All of the above
491. Where a person agrees to maintain a suit, in
which he has no interest, the proceeding is known
as
a. Champerty
b. Maintenance
c. Stifling agreement
d. Interference with course of justice
492. An agreement whereby one party assists
another in recovering money or property and, in
turn share in the proceeds of the action is called
a. Champerty
b. Maintenance
c. Stifling with Prosecution
d. Traficking the public office
493. A agrees to pay B Rs 15,000 for suing
C and in turn seeking 50 per cent share in
the proceeds received by B in the suit, This
is an example of
a. Stifling with Prosecution
b. Champerty
c. Maintenance
d. Interfere with course of justice
494. An agreement in restraint of Parental Right is
a. Enforceable
b. valid
c. voidable
d. void
495. Agreements which restricts freedom of
persons are
a. void
b. against public policy
c. both (a) and (b)
496. Marriage Brokerage Contracts are
a. Enforceable
b. Valid
c. Void
d. voidable
497. An agreement in which a person promises, for
a monetary consideration, to procure the marriage
of another is
a. Enforceable
b. Void
c. Valid
d. Voidable
498. A promises to pay B Rs 50,000 if B secures
him an employment in the public service. The
agreement is
a. Enforceable
b. Void
c. Valid

d. Voidable
499. A promises to pay B Rs 30,000 if B procure for
him the title “Padma Shri”. The agreement is
a. Enforceable
b. Void
c. Valid
d. Voidable
500. Agreements which create monopolies are
a. in restraint of Freedom of Trade
b. opposed to public policy
c. void
d. All of the above
501. Agreement intended to defraud Income Tax
Authorities is
a. Contrary to public policy
b. void
c. both (a) nor (b)
502. An agreement to remain unmarried is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Enforceable
503. An agreement not to marry by minor is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. enforceable
504. An agreement which restricts a person’s
freedom to marry person of his choice is against
public policy and is
a. Lawful
b. Illegal
c. Void
d. Enforceable
505. Unconditional Contracts are called
…… Contracts.
a. Unenforceable
b. Contingent
c. Quasi
506. Conditional Contracts are called
contracts.
a. Absolute
b. Contingent
c. Quasi
d. Illegal
507. Contingent contracts are
a. Illegal
b. not contract at all
c. wagering in nature
508. Contingent Contracts are
a. Valid contract
b. Illegal agreement
c. Voidable contracts
509. A contract based on the happening or non-
happening of a future event is called
a. a wagering contract
b. uncertain agreement
c. a contingent contract
d. voidable contract
510. A Contingent Contract is a contract to do or
not to do something, if some event, collateral to
such contract
a. happens
b. does not happen
511. Which of the following is a Contingent
Contract?
a. Contract of Insurance
b. Contract for doing impossible acts
c. Marriage Contracts
d. Wagering Agreements
512. The collateral event to a Contingent Contract
should be a/an
a. Uncertain Event
b. Certain Event
513. A contract is not contingent contract
a. If the event is bound to happen
b. If the promisor has control over the event
c. If the event is a part of the promise of the
contract
d. All of the above
514. If A promises to pay B Rs 10,000 if he so
chooses, it is a contingent contract
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False

515. A contingent contract to do or not to do
anything on the happening of an uncertain future
event
a. Is never enforceable
b. Is enforceable only at the time of making it
c. Becomes enforceable immediately when
event becomes impossible
d. Becomes enforceable only on the happening
of that event
517. A agrees to pay B Rs 50,000 if a Titanic ship
does not return. The ship is sunk. The contract can
be enforced
a. When the ship sinks
b. before the ship sinks
c. when the ship returns
d. when ship does not starts its journey
518. Contracts contingent upon the happening of
an Uncertain future Event within a fixed time,
becomes void
a. At the expiry of time fixed, if such event has
not happened
b. Before the time fixed, such event becomes
impossible
519. A promises to pay B Rs 10,000 if a “Titanic”
ship returns within a year. The contract
a. may be a enforced if the ship returns within the
year
b. becomes void, if the ship is burnt within the
year
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. either (a) nor (b)
520. The performance of contingent contract
depends upon
a. main event
b. collateral event
c. both (a) and (b)
d. either (a) or (b)
521. The event upon which performance of a
contingent contract depends must not depend upon
the ………… of the promisor.
a. mere will
b. act
c. rules
d. principles
522. A agrees to pay B Rs 50 if two parallel straight
lines intersect each other. The agreement is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
d. Illegal
523. Wagering Agreements
a. is a valid contract
b. is a game of chance
c. is a voidable contract
d. is a quasi-contract
524. An agreement for lawful consideration but with
an unlawful object, is ……..
a. Void
b. Wager
c. Voidable
d. Partially Illegal
525. An agreement with lawful object but for an
unlawful consideration, is______
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Wager
d. Partially unlawful
526. An agreement is said to be opposed to public
when it
a. Against the welfare of the society
b. Prejudical to the public interest or public policy
c. Either (a) and (b)
d. is against provision of any law
527. Which of the following statement are correct?
i. An agreement with voters to procure their
votes for notes is void.
ii. An agreement with a person for is procuring
a seat in a college for monetary
consideration is void
iii. Wagering agreement is voidable.
iv. An agreement restricting personal freedom
is void
a. (i), (ii),(iii)
b. (ii),(iii),(iv)
c. (i), (ii),(iv)
d. (i),(iii), (iv)
528. A agrees to pay Rs 20,000 to B if he produces
false evidence in his favour. This agreement is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Enforceable

d. Voidable
529. A champertous agreement which is fair and
made with bonafide object of assisting a person is
valid.
a. True
b. False
c. Partly true
d. Partly false
530. A collateral transaction to an illegal agreement
is
a. Valid
b. Voidable
c. Void
d. Uncertain
531. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. An illegal agreements is voidable
b. A transaction collateral to illegal agreement
is valid
c. Illegal agreements is enforceable
d. In case of illegal agreements, courts donot
help any party
532. An agreement which in restraint of marriage is
void if the restraint is
a. Complete only
b. Partial only
c. Complete or partial
d. Approved by parties
533. An agreement which prevents a person from
marrying a particular person, is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
d. Allowed with court permission
534. An agreement which prevents a person from
marrying a particular class is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
d. Allowed with permission of parties
535. Where an agreement in restraint of trade is
divisible, than the
a. Unrestricted part is valid and enforceable
b. Whole agreement is void
c. Whole agreement is enforceable
d. Restraint is not valid in the eyes of law
536. Where an agreement in restraint of trade is not
divisible, than the
a. Whole agreement is valid
b. Whole agreement is void and unenforceable
c. Unrestricted part is enforceable
537. A agrees to pay Rs 30,000 to B, a rival
shopkeeper, if he closes his business in A’s locality
only. This agreement is
a. Valid
b. Voidable
c. Void
538. A agrees to pay a certain sum of money to B,
a rival shopkeeper, if he closes his business for
three months in a year. This agreement is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
539. An agreement which restrains the seller of a
goodwill from carrying on a similar business within
specified local limits, is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
d. Contingent
540. An agreement which restrains a continuing
partner of a firm from carrying on
any business, other than the business of the firm, is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
d. Unlawful
541. A partner of a firm, so long as he is partner,
can be restrained from carrying on
a. Any business
b. Similar business
542. An agreement which restrains an outgoing
partner from carrying on the business similar to that
of the firm, is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
d. Unlawful
543. An outgoing partner can be restrained from
carrying on

a. Similar business only
b. Any business
c. Both of these
544. An agreement restraining the outgoing partner
from carrying on business similar to that firm will be
valid and enforceable if the restriction
a. Is reasonable
b. Specifies the local limits
c. Specifies the period for which it will remain
in force
d. All of the above
545. Regulations as to the opening and closing of
business in the market, are
a. Not legal
b. Valid
c. Void
d. Illegal
546. An agreement which partially restrains a
person from enforcing his legal right ,is
a. Void
b. Valid
c. Voidable
d. None of the these
547. A and B entered into an agreement, that A can
enforce his rights at Bombay only. This agreement
is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Contingent contract
d. Illegal
548. A agrees to sell to B all the production of this
only factory situated at Ahmedabad. This
agreement is
a. Void
b. Valid
c. Voidable, at the option of B
d. None of these
549. A new promise to pay the stake money
already won upon a wager, is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Contingent
550. A promises to pay Rs 500 to be if it rains on
the first Monday of the next month. It is a
a. Wagering agreement
b. Contingent contract
c. Void contract
d. Voidable contract
551. A agrees to pay Rs 5,000 to be if B’s car is
brunt, it is
a. Void
b. Voidable contract
c. Wagering agreement
d. Contingent contract
552. Which of the following is not an essential
requirement of a valid contingent contract?
a. The performance must be conditional
b. The event must be uncertain
c. The event must from a part of the contract
d. The event must be independent
553. A agrees to purchase B’s horse for Rs 5,000.
if the house proved lucky. It is
a. A contingent contract
b. Not contingent contract
c. Void agreement
d. Valid contract
554. A agrees to purchase B’s horse for Rs 5,000.
It is
a. A contingent contract
b. Not contingent contract
c. Void agreement
d. Valid contract
555. A contract dependent on the will of the
promisor is
a. An uncertain contract
b. A contingent contract
c. A forbidden contract
d. A voidable contract
556. A promises to pay Rs 5,000 to B if he feels like
to pay. This agreement is
a. Valid
b. Voidable
c. Void
d. Illegal
557. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Contingent contracts are void
b. Contingent contracts are valid
c. Contingent contracts are voidable
d. Contingent contracts fall in the category of
wagering agreements
558. B agrees to sell to A ‘’1 kg of grain at a price to
be fixed by C’’.

a. The agreement is valid
b. The agreement is void
c. The agreement is voidable
d. The agreement is illegal
559. The difference between contingent contract
and wagering agreements’ are as follows
a. A wagering agreement, consists of
reciprocal promises whereas a contingent
contract may not contain reciprocal
promises
b. In wagering agreement the uncertain event
is the sole determining factor while in a
contingent contract the event is only
collateral
c. Wagering agreement consists of reciprocal
promises whereas a contingent contract
may not contain such promises
d. All of the above
560. A agrees to pay Rs 50,000 to B if she brings a
Dinosaur from forest.
a. This is void agreement
b. This is a quasi contract
c. This is an implied contract
d. This is a wagering conduct
a. A wagering agreement is void
b. A contingent contract is valid
c. A contract of insurance is not a wagering
agreement
d. All of the above
Performance of contract
562. Performance of a contract may be in the form
of
a. actual
b. attempted
d. both (a) and (b)
563. Performance of contract means
a. fulfilling all the obligations by a promisee
b. fulfilling all the obligations by the promisor
c. performing all the promises and fulfilling all
the obligations by all the parties
d. both (a) or (b)
564. offer to perform is called
a. Attempted performance
b. Caveat emptor
c. Jus in personam
d. Jus in rem
565. When the parties under the contract fulfill their
respective promises, the contract is said to be
discharged
a. By breach of contract
b. By impossibility of performance
c. By agreement and novation
d. By performance of contract
566. An attempted performance discharges the
promisor from his liability
a. to deliver the goods
b. to pay the price
c. to pay the damages
d. above (a) and (b)
567. Which is not the essential of valid tender?
a. Tender must be conditional
b. Tender must be made at proper place
c. Tender must be for whole obligation
d. Tender must be made at a proper time
568. Which are the essential of valid tender?
a. Tender must be unconditional
b. Tender must be made at proper place
c. Tender must be to proper person
d. All of the above
569. The Parties to a Contract must
a. perform their respective promises
b. offer to perform their respective promises
570. The performance of a promise is not required
a. when the parties substitute the contract
b. when performance is possible
c. when the promisee rejects a tender of
performance
d. both (a) and (b)
571. The parties to a contract need not perform
when the performance is
a. dispensed with
b. excused under the provisions of any law
572. In case of death of the Promisor before
performance, the Representatives of the Promisor
are not bound when
a. It involves the personal skill

b. agreement exempt the performance of
promise on part of legal representative
573. A promises to deliver goods to B for Rs
20,000. A dies before performance of promises
a. The contract becomes void
b. The contract becomes impossible
c. The contract can be enforced against A’s
representatives and B is bound to pay Rs
20,000 to A;s representatives
d. The contract is void
574. A promises to paint a picture for B. A dies
before painting picture. Which one of the following
is the correct legal position?
a. The agreement becomes unlawful
b. The agreement becomes impossible
c. The agreement becomes voidable
d. The agreement is void ab initio
575. Where the Promisor offers to perform to the
Promisee, the Promisee is bound
a. to provide reasonable facilities for the
performance
b. to provide unreasonable opportunity
c. both (a) or (b)
576. A contracts to repair B’s house. B does not
show him the places that require repairs. In this
case
a. A must request B to show the required
places
b. A is excused from non-performance where it
is so caused by B’s neglect
c. B can sue A for non-performance
d. A can sue B for non-co-operation
577. An offer of performance is known as
a. Offer
b. Proposal
c. Tender
d. Acceptance
578. The offer to perform the contract must be
a. Unconditional
b. Conditional
c. Rational
d. Provisional
579. Which one of the following is correct about the
essentials of valid Tender?
a. The tender must be unconditional
b. The tender must be made at proper place
c. The Promisee must be given an opportunity
d. All of the above
580. The Offer to perform must be made to
a. the Promisee
b. anyone of the Joint Promises
c. Authorized of Promisee
d. Either (a) or (b) or (c)
581. In which of the following cases, the Promisor
is at fault?
a. Promisee does not give reasonable facilities
for performance
b. Promisor has disabled himself from
performing his promise in entirety
c. Promisor has refused to perform his
promise
d. Both (b) and (c)
582. Who cannot demand performance of a
Promise?
a. Promisee
b. Any of the Joint Promisees
c. Legal representative on death of Promisee
d. Stranger to the Contract
583. A promisee can accept the performance from
a. Promisor
b. Legal representative of the Promisor
c. Third party
d. Any of the above
584. In which situation only the Promisor should
perform the promise personally?
a. Where promisee intended that performance
of the promise by the Promisor himself
b. Where contract involves the use of personal
skills
c. Where the promise is founded on personal
confidence between the parties
d. All of the above
585. “A” promises to act in a movie for “B”. In this
case
a. Legal representative of A can perform the
promise
b. A’s agent can perform the promise
c. A’s employer can perform the promise
d. A must perform this promise personally
586. It is not always required of the parties to
perform the contract ……

a. in time
b. before time
c. personally
d. both (a) and (b)
587. A contract to marry a person shall be
performed by
a. Promisor
b. Representative of the Promisor
c. Relative of promisor
588. Where a Promisee accepts performance from
a third person, he
a. can also claim performance from the
Promisor
b. cannot afterwards enforce the promise
against the promisor
c. can still sue the third person
d. can sue promisor for breach contract
589. When two or more persons have made a joint
promise, then, unless a contrary intention appears
from the contract, the promise shall be performed,
during their joint lives
a. By any one of them
b. By a majority of the Joint Promisors
c. By all of the Joint Promisors
d. All of the above
590. When three person have made a joint
from the contract, the promise shall be performed,
after the death of the last survivor
a. By the Representatives of all the Promisors
jointly
b. By the Representatives of a majority of the
Promisors
c. By the Representative of any one of the
Promisors
d. Any one of the above
591. When two or more persons have made a joint
from the contract, all such persons must fulfill the
promise
a. Jointly
b. Severally
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Jointly or severally
592. In case of Joint Promise, a Promise can ask or
force
a. all the Joint Promisors to perform
b. any one of them to perform
c. some of them to perform
d. any of the above
593. The liability of Joint Promisors is
a. Joint
b. Several
c. Joint or several
d. Joint and several
594. A, B, and C Jointly promise to pay Rs 1000 to
D. D files a suit to recover the amount against
a. D must sue all of them
b. D can recover Rs 1000 only from A
c. D can recover the amount from any one of
them
d. D cannot sue any of them
595. If any one of Joint Promisors makes default in
such contribution, remaining Joint Promisors must
share the loss arising from such default
a. Equally
b. Not equally
c. In the ratio of their properties
596. In case of a Joint Promise, release of one of
Joint Promisors by the Promisee
a. discharges all Promisors
b. discharges the other Joint Promisors
c. does not discharge the other Joint
Promisors
d. discharge the Promisee
597. When a person has made a promise to two or
more persons jointly, then unless a contrary
intention appears from the contract, then, during
their joint lives, the right to claim performance rests
with
a. any one of the Joint Promises
b. a majority of the Joint Promisees
c. all of the Joint Promisees
598. When a person has made a promise to two or
more persons jointly, then unless a contrary
intention appears from the contract, and, after the
death of all of them, the right to claim performance
rests with
a. by the Representatives of all the Promisees
jointly

b. by the Representatives of any one of the
Promisees
599. Where time for performance is specified In a
contract
a. the Promisor has to perform without
application by the Promisee
b. the Promisor shall perform after specified
time in contract
d. both (a) and (b)
600. In a contract where time is not specified for
performance, the Promisor can perform the
contract
a. at any time he wishes
b. within the shortest time
c. within a reasonable time
d. within the latest time
601. In a contract where time is specified for
performance, the Promisor shall perform the
contract
a. Within specified time
b. within the shortest time
c. within a reasonable time
d. within the latest time
602. If time is the essence of the contract and the
Promisor fails to perform the contract within the
specified time, the contract
a. becomes void
b. is valid
c. becomes voidable at the instance of the
Promisee
d. voidable at the instance of the promisor
603. If time is not the essence of the contract, and
there is a failure to perform the contract by the
specified time, then, the contract
a. becomes void
b. becomes voidable at the instance of the
Promisee
c. becomes invalid and can’t claim loss
suffered by the Promisee
d. remains valid but the Promisee can recover
damage
604. If the promise is to be performed on a
specified day, the Promisor may perform the
promise
a. at any time on that specified day
b. at any time during the usual hours of
business on the specified day
c. at any time on any day
d. after the usual hours of business on the
specified day
605. Where place of performance is not specified,
the Promisor shall
a. ask Promisee as to where performance of
promise made
b. perform the promise at any place
c. not perform the promise
606. Whether time is the essence of the contract
depends on
a. the intention of the parties
b. the facts and circumstances of each case
c. the provisions of law
d. all of the above
607. Where time is the essence of the contract and
the Promisor fails to perform within specified time,
the contract is
a. voidable at the option of the Promisee
b. voidable at the option of the promisor
c. not voidable
d. valid
608. Where time of performance is specified in the
contract and the Promisee has accepted
performance at any time other than the agreed
time, the Promisee
a. cannot claim compensation
b. can claim compensation for loss
c. cannot claim performance of the promise
d. is entitled to rescind thee contract
609. Where time fixed for performance of promise
was extended by the Promisee and the object of
the contract is not a commercial one
a. Time is not the essence of the contract
b. Time is the essence of the contract
c. No presumption can be made
610. In a contract for sale and purchase of goods,
the prices of which fluctuate in the market, time is
a. not presumed to be the essence of the
contract
b. presumed to be the essence of the contract
c. no presumption as to time can be made

d. All of the above
611. Where reciprocal promises are to be
simultaneously performed
a. Promisor need not perform his part of
promise at all
b. Promisor need not perform his part of
promise unless Promisee is ready and
willing to perform his reciprocal promise
c. Promisor has to compel Promisee to
perform his promise first
d. Promises are not valid at all
612. If a contract provides for the order of
performance of reciprocal promises, the promises
shall be performed
a. in the order mentioned
b. in any reasonable order
c. in any appropriate order
d. in any order whatsoever
613. If a contract does not provide for the order of
performance of reciprocal promises, the promises
shall be performed
a. in any suitable order
b. in any reasonable order
c. in such order which the nature of
transactions require
d. in any order
614. Where a contract contains Reciprocal
Promises and one party to the contract prevents
the other from performing his promise, the contract
is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. voidable at the option of the party
preventing the other
d. voidable at the option of the party so
prevented
615. Where a contract contains Reciprocal
Promises and one party to the contract prevents
the other from performing his Promises, the party
so prevented can
a. avoid the contract
b. recover compensation from the party
preventing
c. Both (a) and (b)
616. A owes B total of Rs 25,000. He sends a
cheque for Rs 10,000 stating that it shall be
appropriated towards the first sum of Rs 10,000 he
took from B. B shall appropriate it
a. towards any debt due from A
b. towards any time barred debt due from A
c. towards any disputed debt due from A
d. towards that debt as indicated by A
617. A valid tender of promises
a. is equal to performance of promise
b. Something more than performance of
Promise
c. Both (a) and (b)
618. A entered into contract with B to deliver certain
goods to B. A offered the goods to B at proper time
and place, but B refused to accept the goods. In
this case,
a. A does not have any right against B
b. A can sue B for breach of contract, but not
discharged from his liability
c. A is discharged from his liability and can also
sue B fore breach of contract
d. B is not liable for breach of contract
619. A owes Rs 60,000 to B. Before clearing his
liability, A dies leaving behind an estate worth Rs
40,000. In this case, A’s legal representatives are
liable for
a. Rs 20,000
b. Rs 40,000
c. Rs 60,000
620. The promises forming consideration for each
other are called
a. Reciprocal Promises
b. Mutual Promises
c. Independent promises
621. A and B promise to marry each other. It is an
example of
a. Reciprocal promise
b. A’s promise is the consideration for B’s
promise
c. B’s promise is the consideration for A’s
promise
d. All of the above
622. The promises which are to be performed
simultaneously, are known as
a. Mutual and concurrent

b. Conditional and dependent
c. Mutual and independent
d. None of these
623. The sale of goods for cash is an example for
reciprocal promise known as
d. Cash and concurrent
624. Where the performance of a promise by one
party depends upon the prior performance of
promise by the other, the promise is known as
d. Concurrent and dependent
625. Where the promise by one party can be
performed without waiting for the other party to
perform his promise, the promise is known as
a. Conditional and dependent
b. Concurrent and independent
c. Mutual and concurrent
d. Mutual and independent
626. Where each party is a promisor as well as
promisee, it is a case of
a. unenforceable contract
b. reciprocal promises
c. unasertained agreement
d. contingent contracts
627. When the intention of the parties is that the
promise should be performed by the promisor
himself. Such promise must be performed by
a. The promisor
b. Any person with authority of the promisor
c. Third party
d. All of the above
628. A,B, and C jointly promise to pay D the sum of
Rs 6,000. C is compelled to pay the whole. A is
insolvent, but his assets are sufficient to pay one-
half of his debts.
a. C is entitled to receive Rs 1000 from A’s
estate, and Rs 2,500 from B
b. C is entitled to receive Rs 1,000 from A’s
c. C is entitled to receive Rs 1.000 from A’s
629. A promises to deliver goods at B’s godown. A
delivers the goods during business hour to B’s
house.
a. A has not performed his promise
b. A has not performed his promise
c. B has not performed his promise
d. Both (b) and (c)
630. When a promise is to be performed on a
certain day the question ‘’what is proper time and
place”
a. Is determined by the promisor
b. Is question of fact
c. Is determined by the promisee
d. All of the above
631. A desires B, who owes him Rs 100 , to send
him a note for Rs 100 by post. B puts into the post
a letter containing the note duly addressed to A.
a. The debt is discharged as soon as B posts
a letter addressed to A
b. The debt is not discharged even if B posts
the letter containing the note duly
addressed to A
c. The debt is discharged as soon as B posts
the letter containing the note duly
addressed to A
632. A promise B to sell him 100 bales of cotton, to
be delivered next day and B promises A to pay for
them within a month. A does not deliver according
to promise.
a. B’s promises to pay need not be performed.
and A must make compensation
b. A’s promise to deliver must be performed
c. B’s must clam compensation
d. B’s promises to pay need not be performed,
and A must make compensation
633. A contracts to act at a theatre for six months in
a consideration of a sum paid in advance by B. On
several occasions, A is too ill to act
a. The contract becomes void
b. The contract becomes voidable
c. The contract becomes illegal
d. Any one of the above
634. A owes B Rs 10,000. A enters into a contract
with B and gives his estate to B as mortgage for Rs
5,000 in place of the earlier debt of Rs 10,000

a. This is a new contract and extinguishes the
old one
b. This is a new contract but does not
extinguish the old one
c. Both are independent contracts
635. A hired a music hall to B for performing
concerts. The hall accidentally burnt before
beginning of the concert. The contract becomes
a. void
b. voidable
c. illegal
d. Any of the above
636. Ex turpi causa non oritur action means
a. From an illegal cause, no action arises
b. From an illegal cause action may arises
c. From an legal cause action may arises
d. From an legal cause action may not arises
637. A contracted to supply certain quantity of
timber to B. Before supply of any timber, war was
broke out resulting disruption of supply of the
timber.
a. A was discharged from performing the
contract
b. A was not discharged from performing the
contract
c. A has to pay compensation
d. A has to pay penalty
Discharge of contract
638. A contract is discharged by breach when a
party to a contract
a. refuses to perform his promise
b. fails to perform his promise
c. disables himself from performing his part of
the promise
d. all of the above
639. A agrees to marry B and B Promises to bring
for A , stars in consideration of marriage. The
agreement is
a. Void
b. Valid
c. Voidable
d. Illegal
640. A agrees with B to bring back the life of dead
patient for Rs 50,000. The agreement is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Unenforceable
d. Illegal
a. Performance of contract means discharge
of the contract
b. Rescission of contract cannot discharge a
contract
c. Material alteration in a contract discharges
the contract
d. Both (a) and (c)
642. Breach of a contract may be
a. Actual Breach
b. Anticipatory Breach
a. Performance of contract means contract
becomes void
b. Cancelation of contract cannot discharge a
contract

c. Alteration with the consent of party
discharges the contract
a. Impossibility to perform promise discharges
the contract
b. merger discharges the contract
c. Initial impossibility discharges the contract
d. All of the above
645. The doctrine of impossibility of performance
rendering a contract void is based on
a. Commercial impossibility
b. supervening impossibility
c. just and reasonable ground
d. unjust enrichment
646. Because of supervening event, the Promisor is
excused from the performance of the contract. This
is known as
a. Doctrine of frustration
b. Initial impossibility
c. Doctrine of ultra-vires
d. Operation of law
647. A contract is not considered void by
commercial impossibility.
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
a. Supervening impossibility never discharges
a contract
b. Anticipatory breach of contract does not
discharges the contract till the other party
elects to treat the contract as discharged
c. Both (a) and (b)
a. Supervening impossibility sometimes
discharges a contract
b. Actual breach of contract takes place before
the due date of performance
c. Both (a) and (b)
650. Third party’s failure to perform promise on
whose performance your performance of promise is
depend upon. In this case, contract
a. is not discharged
b. is discharged
c. becomes void
d. becomes voidable
651. A entered into a contract with B for supply of
100 bicycles manufactured by C. C did not
manufacture it. In this case
a. A is not discharged
b. A is discharged
c. Contract becomes void
d. Contract becomes voidable
652. A contracts with Indian Cricket Board to play
for IPL-2 at south Africa. A falls ill and is advised by
doctor to rest. The contract
a. is valid
b. is void ab initio
c. becomes void
d. is voidable at A’s option
653. When a contract becomes void, any benefit
received under such contract is bound …………. to
the person from whom he received it.
a. to restore such benefit
b. to make compensation for such benefit
a. Novation means making a new contract in
place of an old contract
b. Alteration means making a new contract in
place of an existing one
c. Performance of contract is not a method of
discharge of contract
d. All of the above
655. If the subject matter of a contract is destroyed
after formation of the contract, without fault of either
party, the contract
a. is rendered voidable
b. becomes void
c. continues to be valid
d. becomes unlawful
656. If the subject matter of a contract is destroyed
after formation of the contract, without fault of either
party, the contract is
a. voidable
b. discharged
c. not discharged
d. unlawful

657. A musical hall was agreed to be let out on
certain dates, but before those dates the hall was
destroyed by fire. The contract becomes void on
the ground of
a. impossibility of performance
b. illegality of object
c. unlawful consideration
d. All of the above
658. When the contract is made for several
purposes, failure of one of them
a. terminates the entire contract
b. does not terminate the entire contract
c. makes the contract unlawful
d. renders the object illegal
659. A agreed to supply certain goods to B.
As a result of an increase in raw material costs, it is
a no longer profitable for A to supply them at the
agreed rate. In this case
a. Contract becomes void
b. Contract is discharged
c. A cannot be excused for
d.
e. non-performance
f. A can be excused for non-performance
a. Contracts are discharged by lapse of time
b. Discharge of a party and discharge of
contracts are same and one thing
c. Cancelation of contract discharges the
contract
d. All of the above
661. Where performance has become more difficult
than estimated at the time of entering into contract,
the contract
a. is not discharged
b. is discharged
c. becomes void
d. becomes voidable
662. …………. indicates that the parties are not
further bound under the contract,
a. Waiver of a Contract
b. Breach of a Contract
c. Rescission of a Contract
d. Discharge of a Contract
663. When a contract ceases to bind the parties to
it, it is said to be
a. Discharged
b. Performed
c. Obliged
d. Rescinded
664. In which of the ways can a contract be
discharged?
a. By performance
b. By operation of law
c. By lapse of Time
d. All of the above
discharged?
a. By Performance
b. By Operation of law
c. By Mutual Agreement
d. All of the above
666. An obligation under a contract stands
discharged by
a. dispensing with the performance
b. impossibility of performance
c. death of the party and contract is personal
in nature
d. All of the above
a. Performance of contract and discharge of
contract have the same effects
b. Commercial impossibility is not impossibility
c. Commercial impossibility does not make the
contract void
d. Cancellation of a contract by mutual
consent of both parties is called waiver
668. A contract stands discharged
a. By performance of the contract
b. By breach of the contract
c. By agreement
d. All of the above
669. A contract can be discharged by performance
in which of the following ways?
a. Actual performance
b. By valid tender
d. Both (a) and (b)
670. A contracts to sell his scooter to B for Rs
50,000 and B agrees to pay on delivery. Both
parties perform promises. This is called
a. Waiver
c. Attempted performance of contract

d. Actual performance of a Contract
a. Anticipatory breach of contract takes place
after due date of performance
b. In case of anticipatory breach of contract,
contract may be kept alive
c. In case of actual breach of contract, the
contract becomes void if the time is the
essence of the contract
d. There is no consideration in novation of
contract
discharged by operation of law?
a. Death of Promisor
b. Insolvency of Promisor
c. Merger of Right
d. All of the above
discharged by operation of law?
a. Unauthorized material alteration contract
b. Vesting of right and liabilities in the same
person
d. Both (a) and (b)
674. In case of contracts involving personal skill or
expertise of the Promisor, death of the Promisor
leads to
a. Discharge of a Contract
c. Rescission of a Contract
d. Waiver of a Contract
675. A promises to perform a dance in B’s theatre.
A dies. The contract is
a. Void
b. Discharged
c. Rescinded
d. Voidable
676. Assignment by operation of law takes place
a. by the mutual consent of the parties
b. by the will of either party
c. when the subject matter of a contract
ceases to exist
d. by the death of a party to a contract
677. When person is declared insolvent, he is
………… all his contractual liabilities incurred prior
to date of insolvency order.
a. penalized for
b. responsible for
c. discharged from
d. both (a) and (c)
678. A took a house on rent from B. during tenancy,
A purchases that house. The earlier contract of
tenancy is
a. Void
b. Discharged
c. Rescinded
d. Voidable
679. Where any party makes any material alteration
to the terms of contract, with the consent of the
other party, the new contract is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
d. Discharged
680. Where any party makes any material alteration
to the terms of contract, without the consent of the
other party. The contract is
a. Void
b. Voidable
c. Valid
d. Discharged
681. A bill of exchange which was accepted by B,
reaches B’s hands after being negotiated and
endorsed through several other parties. The
contract is
a. Void
b. Discharged
c. Cancelled
d. Void ab initio
682. The alternation of a contract means alteration
in the ……. of an existing contract.
a. parties
b. time
c. parties and terms
d. terms
discharged by impossibility of performance?
a. Initial Impossibility
b. Supervening Impossibility
discharged by impossibility of performance?
a. Pre contractual Impossibility

b. Post contractual Impossibility
discharged by breach?
a. Anticipatory Breach
b. Actual Breach
discharged by agreement between parties?
a. Novation
b. Rescission
c. Alteration
d. All of the above
687.In which of the ways can a contract be
a. Novation
b. Merger
c. Remission
d. All of the above
a. Remission
b. Waiver
689. The original contract need not be performed if
there is
a. rescission of contract
b. novation of contract
c. alteration of contract
d. All of the above
690. If a new contract is substituted in place of an
existing contract, it is called
a. Alteration
b. Rescission
c. Novation
d. Waiver
691. For a valid novation, new contract must be
made
a. before making of the original contract
b. during the continuance of the original
contract
c. after the conclusion of the original contract
d. all of the above
692. Novation may take place between
a. the same parties
b. different parties
693. Alteration may take place between
a. the same parties
694. Remission may take place between
a. the same parties
695. Waiver may take place between
a. the same parties
696. In discharge of contract by novation, the
consideration for the new contract is
a. the discharge of the old contract
b. separately supplied
c. decided by the parties
d. all of the above
697. For discharge of a contract by novation,
consent of …………. is required
a. Promisee only
b. all the parties
c. at least two of the parties
d. promisor only
698. Rescission of a contract means
a. termination of contract
b. the renewal contract
d. substitution of new contract in place of
earlier one
699. Rescission may occur
a. by mutual agreement
b. where one party fails to perform his part of
the promise
700. Where a party under a voidable contract,
decides to rescind the same, the other party is
a. guilty of breach of contract
b. discharged from his promise

c. entitled for damages
d. All of the above
701. Rescission of a voidable contract shall be
communicated or revoked in the same manner as
the communication or revocation of
a. Breach
b. Acceptance
c. Proposal
d. Impossibility
702. A contracts with B to deliver goods to B on 1st
July. A does not deliver goods on 1st July. B may
rescind the contract. The contract is rescinded due
to
a. Mutual decision
b. A’s failure to perform
c. Impossibility of performance
d. Revocation of proposal
703. A contracts with B to deliver goods to B on 10
th July. A fails to deliver goods on 10th July. It is
said
a. Anticipatory Breach of contract
b. Actual Breach of contract
c. Novation of contract
d. Revocation of proposal
704. A, Hindu, who was already married, contracts
to marry B, a Hindu girl. The contract is void on the
ground of
a. Initial impossibility
b. Supervenining impossibility
c. Social impossibility
d. No consideration
705. When the parties mutually agree to change
certain terms of contract. This is called
a. rescission of contract
b. novation of contract
d. remission of contract
706. In case of alteration, there is a change in the
parties and new parties may be included.
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
707. If a person accepts a lesser sum of money
than what was contracted for in discharge of the
whole debt, it is known as
a. Waiver
b. Remission
c. Alteration
d. Rescission
708. Remission is the acceptance of
a. a lesser sum than what was contracted for
b. a lesser fulfillment of the Promise made
709. Under remission, a Promisee may
a. remit the whole or part of the performance
of a promise
b. extend time of performance
c. accept any other satisfaction instead of
performance
d. All of the above
710. A owes B Rs 50,000, Due date for payment is
25th March. A pays to B Rs 30,000 on 25th March
who accepts it in full satisfaction of the debt. The
debt is discharged on account of
a. remission
b. extension time of performance
c. novation
d. All of the above
711. Abandonment of a right under the contract is
called
a. Waiver
b. Breach
c. Rescission
d. Alteration
712. Intentional relinquishment of a right under the
contract is called
a. Waiver
b. Breach
c. Rescission
d. Alteration
713. Giving up of right under the contract is called
a. Waiver
b. Breach
c. Rescission
d. Alteration
714. No consideration is necessary for a waiver.
a. True
b. Partly True
c. False
715. In case of Novation, there is

a. change to some of the terms and conditions
of the original Contract
b. substitution of an existing contract with new
one
716. In case of Alteration, there is
a. change to some of the terms and conditions
of the original contract
b. substitution of an existing contract with new
one
717. Novation can be made by
a. change in the terms of the contract
b. change in the contracting Parties
718. Alteration can be made by
a. change in the terms of the contract
b. change in the contracting Parties
719. In case of Alteration
a. Old terms and conditions need not be
performed
b. New terms and conditions must be performed
c. Both (a) and (b)
720. Where one party to a contract fails or refuses
to do his part of the promises it is called
a. Breach of contract
b. Cancelation of contract
721. Actual Breach may take place
a. Expressly
b. Impliedly
722. Actual Breach may take place
a. on the due date of performance
b. during the course of performance
c. neither (a) or (b)
723. Where one party to a contract declares his
intention of not performing the contract before the
performance is due, it is called
a. Actual Breach
724. Anticipatory Breach may take place
a. Expressly
b. Impliedly
c. Either (a) nor (b)
725. Anticipatory Breach may take place when a
party
a. Refuses to perform his promise Under the
contract
b. Deliberately disables himself from
performing the promise before due date of
performance
c. Neither (a) or (b)
d. Either (a) nor (b)
726. A agreed to supply certain goods to B which
were to be imported by c. But C failed to import the
goods. In this case, the contract is
a. Discharged
b. Not discharged
c. Voidable
d. Impossible to perform
727. The breach of contract means the
a. Performance of contract by both the parties
b. Failure of a party to perform his obligations
c. Payment of compensations due to
nonperformance
d. Postponement of the performance of
contract
728. A contracted to supply 200 bags of rice to B
on 30th December, 2008. After supplying 20 bags
of rice. A informed B that he will not supply
remaining bags of rice to B. In this case,
a. There is anticipatory breach of contract
b. There is actual breach of contract
729. A contracts to marry B. Before the agreed date
of marriage, A marries C. Here, B is entitled to sue
A for
a. Actual Breach in an express manner

b. Anticipatory Breach in an express manners
c. Actual Breach in an implied manner
d. Anticipatory Breach in an implied manner
730. In case of Anticipatory Breach, the Promisee
can
a. Put an end to the contract
b. Elect to keep the contract alive till the date
of performance
731. Where in an anticipatory breach, the Promisee
opts to put an end to the contract and treat the
anticipatory breach as actual breach of contract,
the Promisee
a. is excused from performance of his Promise
b. has to perform his part of the promise
c. has to perform his part of the promise to the
extent of benefits received by him
d. has to consider the contract as illegal
732. Where a party to contract transfers his rights
under the contract to another person, it is legally
known as
a. Novation of contract
b. Rescission of contract
c. Waiver of contract
d. Assignment of contract
733. The assignment of contract by operation of
law takes place
a. On the death of party
b. With mutual consent of parties
c. On confirmation by legal representatives
d. Either (b) or (c)
734. The term “frustration” is used in the English
law which is the parallel concept
a. Initial impossibility
b. Supervening impossibility
c. Commercial impossibility
d. Public policy
735. A contract is void on the ground of initial
possibility
a. Only where it is unknown to the parties
b. Only where it is known to the parties
c. Whether it is known or unknown to the
parties at the time of agreement
d. When it is known to the third parties
736. In case the performance of a contract
becomes more difficult due to some unexpected
events, than the contract
a. Becomes void on account of impossibility
b. Becomes voidable on account difficulty
c. is discharged on account of impossibility
d. is not discharged on account of impossibility
737. A contract to buy B’s scooter for Rs 10,000,
but breaks the promise. What compensation must
A pay to B?
a. The excess amount of the contract price
over the price which B can obtain for the
scooter at the time of breach of promise
b. The contract price of Rs 10,000
c. The price which B demands
738. In ………………. contracting parties may not
remain same.
a. Remission
b. Recission
c. Novation
d. Alteration
Remedies for Breach of Contract
739. The remedies available to a person, suffering
from breach of contract are
a. Suit for Damages
b. Suit for Injunction
c. Quantum Meruit
d. All of the above
740. The remedies available to a person, suffering
from breach of contract are
a. Recession of Contract
b. Stay order from court
c. Quantum Meruit
d. All of the above
741. Which of these are remedies to the aggrieved
party, in case of breach of contract?
a. Rescission of contract
b. Suit for Specific Performance
c. Both (a) and (b)
742. The contract may be rescind by
a. Aggrieved party
b. Court

743. The Court may grant rescission where the
contract is
a. unlawful
b. void
c. unenforceable
d. All of the above
744. The court may grant rescission where the
contract is
a. unlawful
b. valid
c. unenforceable
d. All of the above
745. Where the Court orders the defaulting party to
carry out the promise according to the terms of the
contract, it is called
a. Quantum Meruit
b. Rescission
c. Injunction
d. Specific Performance
746. Which remedy for breach of contract may be
ordered by the court?
a. specific performance
b. injunction
d. both (a) or (b)
747. Specific Performance may be ordered by the
Court when
a. the contract is voidable
b. damages are an adequate remedy
c. damages are not an adequate remedy
d. Quantum meruit is not possible
748. Specific Performance can be granted by court
where
a. monetary compensation is not an adequate
relief
b. it is not possible to measure the actual
damages
d. neither (a) or (b)
749. In case of breach of contract of sale of some
antique goods, the Court may grant
a. Quantum Meruit
b. Rescission
c. Specific Performance
d. Injunction
750. In which of the following situations, specific
Performance is not granted?
a. where monetary compensation is an
adequate relief
b. where the contract is impersonal in nature
c. where monetary compensation is not an
adequate relief
d. Both (a) and (b)
751. In which of the following situations specific
performance is not granted?
a. where monetary compensation is an
adequate relief
b. where the contract is of a personal skill
752. In which of the following situations, specific
Performance is not granted?
a. where it is not possible for the Court to
supervise Performance of contract
b. where the contract is ultra-vires
d. neither(a) nor (b)
753. …………. means an order of the Court
restraining a person from doing what he promised
not to do.
a. Quantum Meruit
b. Rescission
c. Injunction
754. A, a singer, agreed with B to perform at his
theatre for two months, on a condition that during
that period, he would not perform anywhere else, B
could move to the Court for
a. grant of injunction restraining A from
performing in other places
b. specific performance
c. allowing B to perform in other places
d. all of the above
755. Quantum Meruit is __________ word
a. English
b. French
c. Latin
d. German
756. Quantum Meruit means
a. a non-gratuitous promise
b. as gratuitous promise
c. as much as is earned

d. as much as is paid
757.When a person has done some work under a
contract, and other party repudiates the contract
then the party who performed the work, can claim
remuneration for done. This is based on the
principle of
a. Rescission
b. Quantum Meruit
c. Injunction
758. To claim remedy under Quantum Meruit, the
original contract
a. should remain intact
b. must be discharged
c. must be fully performed
d. all of the above
759. Remedy under Quantum Meruit, is available to
a. Party at fault
b. Party not at the fault
d. Both (a) and (b)
760. Quantum Meruit is not applicable when
a. Indivisible Contract not performed
completely
b. Divisible contract not performed at all
c. Work is performed gratuitously
d. All of the above
761. if an agreement has become void, any
advantage received by party under such agreement
shall restore it, or to make compensation for it. This
is based on the principle of
a. Specific Performance
b. Rescission
c. Injunction
d. Quantum Meruit
762. A, a businessman leaves his goods at B’s
place by mistake. B treats the same as his own and
uses it. B is bound to compensate A for it, under
the principle of
a. Specific Performance
b. Reemission
c. Special damages
d. Quasi contract
763. Compensation is to be paid by the party
receiving the benefit, where an act is done by
another party, without an intention of
gratuitousness. For this purpose
a. There need not be any contract between the
parties
b. The contract between the parties may also
be void
764. When an indivisible contract for lump sum
amount is completely performed but badly, the
person who has performed, can
a. claim the lump sum amount
b. claim the lump sum amount less deduction
for bad work
c. not claim any amount at all
d. perform the work again
765. The aggrieved party is entitled to claim
monetary compensation for the loss caused due to
non-performance of promise. This is called
a. Damages
b. Restitution
c. Quantum Meruit
d. Injunction
766. In case of breach of contract, the
compensation can be claimed for
a. remote consequence of the breach
b. the natural consequence of breach
c. indirect consequence of the breach
d. All of the above
767. In case of breach of contract, the Indian Law
awards damages
a. For loss of profit which may have been
earned
b. Which arose naturally
c. As matter of penalty
d. To compensate party from physical loss
768. While determining damages, which of the
following are taken into account?
a. inconvenience caused by nonperformance
b. motive of breach
c. manner of breach
d. All of the above
769. The measure of damages in case of breach of
a contract is the difference between the
a. contract price and the market price at the
date of breach
b. contract price and the maximum market
price during last 6 months

c. contract price and the price at which the
plaintiff might have sold the goods
d. contract price and the price fixed by Court
770. A contracts to deliver 1,000 bags of rice at Rs
100 per bag on a future date. On the due date he
refuses to deliver. Market Price on that day is Rs
120 per bag. Which Damages can be granted by
court?
a. Ordinary damage
b. Special damages
c. Remote damages
d. Vindicative damages
771.A contract to deliver 1,000 bags of rice at Rs
100 per bag on a future date. On due date he
refuses to deliver. Market price on that day is Rs
120 per bag. The ordinary Damages will be
a. Rs 20,000
b. Rs 1,20,000
c. Rs 1,00,000
d. Rs 20
772. Damages which an aggrieved party claims.
beside general damages for any loss he has
suffered owing to special circumstances known to
both the parties at the time of signing the contract
are called
a. Vindictive Damages
b. Nominal Damages
c. General Damages
d. Special Damages
773. When there is breach of contract, special
damages are awarded
a. Only when there are special circumstances
b. Only when there is special loss
c. When there is a notice of the likely special
loss
d. All of the above
774. When there are certain extraordinary
circumstances present and it is communicated to
the promisor, non-performance of promise entitles
the Promisee to claim
a. Ordinary Damages
b. Special Damages
d. Both (a) and (b)
775. Hadley vs. Baxendale case is a leading case
on
a. Breach of Implied Term
c. Remoteness of Damages
d. Bilateral Mistake of Fact
776. H’s mill stopped due to breakdown of a shaf,
which in was delivered to B, a common carrier to be
taken to the manufacturer for repairs. H did not
communicate to B, that delay in delivery would
cause loss of profits. For some reason, the delivery
was delayed by B beyond reasonable time. Here
a. H can rescind the contract
b. H cannot claim loss of profits from B
c. H can claim loss of profits from B
d. H can claim loss of profits from the
manufacturer
777. The damages awarded by way of punishment
are called
a. Special Damages
b. Ordinary Damages
c. Exemplary Damages
d. Nominal Damages
778. Nominal damages are awarded to indicate that
the party has …………….
a. won the case
b. actually suffered the loss
c. suffered huge loss
d. suffered unusual loss
779. Exemplary damage is also known as
a. vindictive damages
b. punitive damages
c. Direct damages
780. Vindictive Damages have been awarded
a. for a breach of promise to marry
b. for wrongful dishonour of a cheque
781. Nominal Damages can be
a. Claimed by the aggrieved party as a matter
of right
b. awarded only at the discretion of the Court
c. claim by the aggrieved party for loss
d. all of the above
782. Liquidated damages means an amount of
………. that may result from breach of contract
a. actual loss
b. loss suffered
c. pre-estimated probable loss

d. pre-estimated actual loss
783. General damages arises
a. Naturally in the usual course from the
breach of contract itself
b. In the unsual circumstance from the breach
of contract
c. In the special circumstance from breach of
contract
d. When special loss from breach of contract
784. Duty to mitigate damages on the part of
injured party arises in case of
a. anticipatory breach
b. actual breach
c. neither (a) nor (b)
785. Pre estimated amount of compensation
payable in case of breach of contract is called
a. Penalty
b. Liquidated damages
a. Liquidated damages are pre-estimated
probable damages
b. Penalty is imposed by way of punishment
for breach of contract
c. Courts generally do not award vindictive
damages
d. All of the above
787. The intention for fixing Liquidated Damages is
a. Recovery of damages that might arise due
to breach
b. Recover more amount of damages than
suffered due to breach
c. neither (a) or (b)
d. both (a) and (b)
788. If parties make no attempt to estimate the loss
but in advance, fix an amount payable on non-
performance of the contract, such amount is called
a. Exemplary Damages
b. Special damages
c. Liquidated Damages
d. Penalty
789. The essence of Liquidated damages is that is
should be
a. genuine pre-estimate of damages
b. more than probable damages
c. less than probable damages
d. any of the above
790. Where the amount payable in case of breach
is fixed in advance by way of liguidated damages,
the aggrieved party may claim
a. a reasonable compensation for the breach
b. the amount so fixed in the contract
c. (a) or (b) whichever is lower
d. (a) or (b) whichever is higher
791. Liquidated damages are calculated ………. A
contract
a. at the time of making
b. after making
c. at the time of performance of
792. Penalty for breach of contract are estimated
…… a contract
a. at the time of making
b. after making
c. at the time of performance of
d. either (b) or (c)
793. A stipulation for increased interest from the
date of default is known as
a. compensation
b. penalty
c. Liquidated damages
d. Damages
794. Quasi Contract is based upon the principle of
a. Equality
b. No unjust enrichment of a part at the
cost of another
d. Both (a) and (b)
795. A Quasi Contract
a. is a contract
b. is an agreement
c. has only a legal obligation
d. is none of these
a. In Quasi-contract, the promise to pay is
always an implication of law and not of
facts
b. Quasi-contracts are not contracts at all
c. A quasi-contracts is implied in law
d. A quasi-contracts is not a real contract

797. Claim for necessaries supplied to a person
incompetent to contract, from the property of such
person. It is covered under concept of
a. Quasi contract
b. Caveat emptor
c. Contigent contract
d. Wagering agreement
a. Quasi contracts are intentionally made by
the parties
b. Quasi contracts are imposed by law
c. Quasi contracts are based on implied
intentions of the parties
d. Both (b) and (c)
799. In case of necessaries supplied to a person
incompetent to contract, which of the following is
true?
a. Property of the incapable person shall be
liable
b. The incapable person is not liable
personally
c. Where the incapable person does not own
any property, nothing shall be payable
d. All of the above
a. A quasi contract is not based on the ground
of natural justce
b. Quasi contract are based on express
intentions of the parties
c. Quasi contract give rise to obligations
similar to that of a true contract
d. All of the above
801. A who supplies the wife and children of B, a
lunatic, with necessaries suitable to their condition
in life, is entitled to be reimbursed from
a. B’s property
b. B’s personally
c. B’s wife and children
d. As directed by Court
802. A quasi contract is not a ……. Contract.
a. real
b. valid
c. real and valid
d. voidable
803. A quasi contract is …….. law.
a. entered by
b. creature of
c. made by
d. both (a) and (c)
a. Claim on quantum meruit arises when a
contract has become void
b. Claim on quantum meruit does not arise
when the contract is divisible
c. Specific performance order is possible only
by a Court
d. Both liquidated damages and are stipulated
at the time of formation of contract
805. A person enjoying the benefits of a lawful non-
gratuitous act of another
a. is not liable to compensate that another
b. that another cannot claim any compensation
c. is liable to compensate for that
d. has to perform the same non-gratuitous act
in return
806. Obligation of a person enjoying benefit of non-
gratuitous act arises in respect of
a. Lawful acts only
b. Illegal acts only
c. Either (a) nor (b)
d. Both (a) and (b)
807. A saves B’s goods from fire.
a. A is not entitled to compensation from B
b. A is entitled to any compensation from B
c. B must compensate A
808. A finder of goods means
a. a person who finds the goods belonging to
another
b. a person who returns any goods to the
owner
c. a person who finds goods belonging to
another, and takes them into his custody
d. any of the above
809. A finder of goods
a. has no responsibility for the goods
b. is subject to the same responsibility as a
bailee
c. is the owner of the goods
810. Responsibility of finder of lost goods is
covered by concept of ___________
a. Quasi contract
b. Wagering agreement

c. Contigent contract
d. Caveat emptor
811. A finder of lost goods is a
a. Bailor
b. Bailee
c. True owner
d. Thief
812. A and B jointly owe Rs 10 lakhs to c. A pays
the amount to C and B, not knowing this fact, pays
Rs 10 lakhs over again to C.
a. C is bound to repay the amount to be
b. C is bound to repay the amount to B and A
jointly
c. C is bound to repay the amount to A and B
equally
d. C is not bound to repay the amounts to B
813. A Quasi- contract arises from
a. the intention of parties
b. compliance of all legal formalities
c. from a true contract
d. from the principle of natural justice
814. Which of the following statements is correct
with reference to quasi-contractual obligations?
a. There is no real contract in existence
b. There is no offer and acceptance
c. There is no intention to make a contract
d. All of the above
815. Ordering the relief by way of specific
performance of contract, is
a. At the discretion of the Court
b. Right of a person and the court must give it
c. Provided in the Indian Contract Act
d. Both (a) and (b)
816. In which of the following cases, can specific
performance be allowed?
a. Contract to sing a song
b. Contract to paint a picture
c. Contract to enter into partnership at will
817. Where the banker wrongfully dishonours a
customer’s cheque, the court may award
a. Ordinary damages
b. Special damages
c. Exemplary damages
818. A contracts toi repair B’s house and receive
payment in advance. A repairs the house, but not
according to contract.
a. B is entitled to recover from A the additional
cost of making the repairs as per the
contract
b. B is not entitled to recover any cost from A
c. B is entitled to recover penalty from A for
non performance of the contract
819. A give B a bound for the repayment of Rs
1,000 with interest at 12 percent at the end of six
months, with a stipulation that, in case of default,
interest shall be payable at the rate of 15 percent
from the date of default.
a. B is entitled to recover from A, a reasonable
compensation
b. B is not entitled to recover from A any
compensation
c. B is entitled to recover from A,
compensation and interest
d. Any of the above
820. Which of the following state is correct?
a. Ordinarily, the damages for loss of
reputation are not recoverable
b. Nominal damages are very small in amount
c. Nominal damages are not small in amount
d. Both (a) or (b)

The Basic of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
1.c 2. a 3. c 4. d 5.c
6. d 7. c 8. d 9.b 10 . b
11. b 12. d 13. c 14.d 15. a
16.c 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. a
21. a 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. b
26. d 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. b
32. b 33. c 34. c 35. d 36. a
37. d 38. c 39. c 40. b 41. b
42. a 43. a 44.c 45.a 46.b
48. a 49. a 50. a 51. b 52. c
53. c 54. c 55. a 56. d 57. d
58. d 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. d
63. d 64. a 65. a 66. c 67. a
68. b 69. a 70. d 71. d
Offer and Acceptance of the Offer
72. a 73. b 74. c 75. c 76. c
77. b 78. c 79. d 80. b 81. a
82. a 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. b

87. b 88. c 89. a 90. c 91. a
92. a 93. b 94. a 95. c 96. d
97. d 98. c 99. c 100. a 101. b
102. d 103. c 104. a 105. b 106. b
107. d 108. c 109. d 110. b 111. b
112. c 113.c 114. a 115. a 116. a
117. a 118. d 119. d 120. c 121. c
122. a 123. a 124. c 125. d 126.d
127. b 128. d 129.c 130.c 131.a
132.c 133.b 134.b 135.d 136.d
137.d 138.d 139. b 140. b 141. c
142. a 143.c 144.b 145.c 146.d
147.d 148.b 149.c 150.b 151.d
152.c 153.d 154.b 155.c 156.d
157.d 158.a 159.c 160.c 161.d
162.d 163.b 164.a 165.c 166.d
167.d 168.d 169.a 170.c 171.a
172.b 173.d 174.d 175.b 176.c
Capacity of the Party
177.c 178. b 179. c 180. d 181. c
182. c 183. c 184. c 185. c 186. a
187. c 188. c 189. a 190. b 191. d
192. a 193. b 194. b 195.c 196.c
197. b 198. c 199. b 200. d 201. d
202. d 203.a 204.c 205.b 206.a
207.d 208.d 209.c 210.d 211.b
212.a 213.c 214.d 215.b 216.d
217.c 218.d 219.b 220.b 221.b
222.d 223.d 224.c 225.b 226.c
227.a 228.d 229.c 230.c 231.c
232.a 233.c 234.b 235.a
Consideration
236.b 237.c 238.d 239.c 240. b
241.d 242.c 243.b 244.d 245.b
246.a 247.a 248.b 249. b 250. d
251.d 252.d 253.c 254.c 255.b
256.b 257.c 258.c 259.a 260.b
261.a 262.d 263.b 264.a 265.c
267.b 268.c 269.c 270.a 271.a
272.b 273.a 274.d 275.c 276.b
277.a 278.a 279.c 280.a 281.b
282.a 283.c 284.d 285. b 286.c
287. a 288.a 289.d 290.b 291.d
292.b 293.d 294.b 295.a
Free Consent
296.c 297.b 298 d 299.c 300.c
301.a 302.d 303.c 304.d 305.d
306.c 307.b 308.c 309.b 310.b
311.d 312.c 312 b 314.c 315.b
316.b 317.c 318.c 319.a 320.c
321.d 322.c 323.c 324.d 325.a
326.a 327.d 328.d 329.c 330.d
331.b 332.b 333.a 334.c 335.d
336.c 337.c 338.b 339.a 340.d

341.d 342.c 343.b 344.c 345.b
346.c 347.d 348.a 349.d 350.d
351. d 352. c 353. a 354. b 355. a
356. a 357. d 358. d 359. d 360. d
361. d 362. a 363. d 364. a 365. b
366. b 367. b 368. a 369. d 370. a
371. c 372. b 373. b 374. d 375. c
376. a 377. a 378. a 379. a 380. d
381. d 382. b 383. d 384. a 385. a
386. c 387. d 388. d 389. b 390. a
391. d 392. c 393. d 394. a 395. d
396. d 397. c 398. b 399. b 400. a
401. b 402.d 403. c 404. a 405. a
406. a
Void Agreements and Contigent Contract
407. c 408. d 409. d 410. c 411.d
412. a 413. c 414. d 415. b 416. b
417. c 418. a 419. a 420. b 421. c
422. c 423. d 424. c 425. a 426. b
427. d 428. d 429. b 430. a 431. b
432. b 433. d 434. c 435. b 436. d
437. d 438. a 439. a 440. c 441. a
442. b 443. d 444. d 445. b 446. c
447. d 448. b 449. b 450. d 451. b
452. c 453. b 454. b 455. b 456. c
457. a 458. d 459. a 460. d 461. a
462. d 463. a 464. b 465. a 466. a
467. d 468. d 469. b 470. a 471. b
472. a 473. a 474. c 475. c 476. b
477. c 478. b 479. c 480. a 481. b
482. b 483. b 484. a 485. d 486. d
487. b 488. c 489. d 490. d 491. b
492. a 493. b 494. d 495. c 496. c
497. b 498. b 499. b 500. d 501. c
502. b 503. a 504. c 505. d 506. b
507. d 508. a 509. c 510. d 511. a
512. a 513. d 514. c 515. d 516. c
517. a 518. c 519. c 520. b 521. a
522. a 523. b 524. a 525. a 526. c
527. c 528. b 529. a 530. c 531. d
532. c 533. a 534. a 535. a 536. b
537. c 538. a 539. c 540. c 541. c
542. c 543. a 544. d 545. b 546. b
547. a 548. b 549. b 550. b 551. d
552. c 553. c 554. d 555. a 556. c
557. b 558. a 559. d 560. a 561. d
Performance of the Contract
562. c 563. c 564. a 565. d 566. d
567. a 568. d 569. c 570. d 571. c
572. c 573. c 574. b 575. a 576. b
577. c 578. a 579. d 580. d 581. d
582. d 583. d 584. d 585. d 586. c

587. a 588. b 589. c 590. a 591. d
592. d 593. d 594. c 595. a 596. c
597. c 598. a 599. a 600. c 601. a
602. c 603. d 604. b 605. a 606. d
607. a 608. a 609. a 610. b 611. b
612. a 613. c 614. d 615. c 616. d
617. d 618. c 619. b 620. a 621. d
622. a 623. a 624. b 625. d 626. b
627. a 628. a 629. a 630. b 631. c
632. d 633. a 634. a 635. a 636. a
637. b
Discharge of Contract
638. d 639. a 640. a 641. d 642. c
643. c 644. c 645. b 646. a 647. a
648. b 649. d 650. a 651. a 652. c
653. c 654. a 655. b 656. b 657. a
658. b 659. c 660. b 661. a 662. d
663. a 664. d 665. d 666. d 667. a
668. d 669. c 670. d 671. b 672. d
673. d 674. a 675. b 676. d 677. c
678. b 679. c 680. d 681.b 682. d
683. c 684. c 685. c 686. d 687. d
688. c 689. d 690. c 691. b 692. c
693. a 694. a 695. a 696. a 697. b
698. a 699. c 700. b 701. c 702. b
703. b 704. a 705. c 706. c 707. b
708. c 709. d 710. a 711. a 712. a
713. a 714. a 715. b 716. a 717. c
718. a 719. c 720. a 721. c 722. d
723. b 724. c 725. d 726. b 727. b
728. b 729. d 730. c 731. a 732. d
733. a 734. b 735. c 736. d 737. a
738. c
Remedies for Breach of contract
739. d 740. d 741. c 742. c 743. a
744. a 745. d 746. c 747. c 748. c
749. c 750. d 751. c 752. c 753. c
754. a 755. c 756. c 757, b 758. b
759. c 760. d 761. d 762. d 763. c
764. b 765. a 766. b 767. b 768. d
769. a 770. a 771. a 772. d 773. c
774. d 775. c 776. b 777. c 778. a
779. d 780. c 781. b 782. c 783. a
784. d 785. c 786. d 787. a 788. d
789. a 790. c 791. a 792. a 793. d
794. d 795. d 796. b 797. a 798. b
799. d 800. c 801. a 802. a 803. b
804. b 805. c 806. a 807. a 808. c
809. b 810. a 811. b 812. a 813. d
814. d 815. a 816. d 817. c 818. a
819. a 820. d

Foundation level law_extra_multiple_choice_questions_practice_sheet

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