Ged Science Test
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This document contains a 50 question science practice test with multiple choice answers. The test covers topics in biology, chemistry, physics and earth science. Questions assess understanding of concepts like photosynthesis, cellular structure, genetics, the scientific method, and ecosystems. The test is designed to help students prepare for science exams.
Ged Science Test
- 2. 99 PracticeTest 1. All of the following may inhibit enzymatic reactions EXCEPT (A) temperature (B) pH level (C) excess of substrate (D) lack of substrate 2. All of the following are steps of photosynthesis EXCEPT (A) Chlorophyll is absorbed through plant roots. (B) During photolysis a photon of light is absorbed by the chlorophyll pigment, which then is in an excited (higher energy) state. (C) Water is separated into hydrogen and oxygen atoms. (D) An ADP molecule is phosphorylated to ATP. 3. Which has the least mass? (A) Proton (B) Neutron (C) Electron (D) Hydrogen atom 4. Most animals have internal or external skeletons for structure and support. Which of the following parts provide a similar function in plant cells? (A) Cytoplasm (B) Chloroplasts (C) Cell membranes (D) Cell walls Use the following to answer Questions 5–8. (A) Gravity (B) Force (C) Inertia (D) Momentum 5. Mass times acceleration 6. Acts at a distance and attracts bodies of matter toward each other www.tutorferry.com
- 3. 100 Science 7. Mass times velocity 8. A particle at rest will stay at rest and a particle in motion will stay in motion until acted upon by an outside force. Use the text and diagram to answer Questions 9–10. The crust is the outermost layer of what we think of as “the Earth.” It includes the mountains, valleys, continents, continental shelves, ocean basins, etc.The crust is rich in oxygen, silicon, and aluminum, with lesser amounts of other elements like iron, nickel, etc. It has low density (2.5 to 3.5 gm/cm3 ), that floats on the denser mantle. Several separate tectonic plates float beneath it on the surface of the mantle.The tectonic plates touch but magma can leak between the plates, at times causing volcanoes or the formation of under ocean ridges of new rock. 9. There is a line of volcanic activity that shows up in white on this map. It stretches through the Aleutian Islands of Alaska, around the Eastern shore of Asia, Japan, and the Pacific Islands, to the Western shore of South America and Central and North America. This area has been nicknamed the “Ring of Fire” due to its highly volatile volcanic activity. Explain using evidence from the map and text why this area would be subject to high volcanic disruption. www.tutorferry.com
- 4. 101 PracticeTest 10. Many of Earth’s major landforms are features that occurred due to _________ hitting each other. (This would be a drop-down type question on the GED® test. (A) continental shelves (B) continents (C) tetonic plates (D) faults 11. Pathogens in the form of airborne droplets are most likely to cause which of the follow- ing illnesses? (A) Throat infection (B) Stomach virus (C) AIDS (D) Malaria 12. In glycolysis, a molecule of glucose is broken down into all of the following EXCEPT (A) pyruvic acid (B) ATP (C) CO2 (D) H+ 13. Astronomers observing the redshift of light from a faraway star means that the star is (A) moving away from us (B) moving toward us (C) ready to explode (D) a dwarf star www.tutorferry.com
- 5. 102 Science 14. Rabbits are not native to Australia, having been brought there from England by sailors in the 18th century. Yet rabbits have thrived and have in fact overpopulated Australia. In addition, rabbits and certain native Australian wallabies, although not closely related, resemble each other as to body structure and habits. Which idea about evolution is supported by these facts? (A) Mass extinctions of species and the emergence of new species can be studied by examining the fossil record. (B) Different species originally developed because of changes in some shared ances- tral genetic code. (C) Many species have body parts that look similar because they evolved from the same ancestral mammal. (D) Species evolve in similar ways when they react to similar surroundings. Use the following to answer Questions 15–17. (A) Radiation (B) Convection (C) Irradiation (D) Conduction 15. An athlete with a sore shoulder places a warm compress on it to transfer energy to soothe the muscle. 16. On a cold February morning, a blower system in a car warms up after several minutes and blows air through vents in the floor, dashboard, and windshield. Eventually, the driver is able to unbutton his coat and stay warm when the outside temperature is still 23°F. 17. Getting ready for a fall cruise inspires a young lady to spend a couple of weeks going to a local spa and reclining under a tanning lamp. However, such practices might result in dangerous overexposure to ultraviolet rays that can lead to cancer or premature aging of the skin. www.tutorferry.com
- 6. 103 PracticeTest Use the following reading passage for Questions 18-20. Fish health in ponds depends on dissolved oxygen mostly produced through the process of pho- tosynthesis by phytoplankton (microscopic plants). 6CO2 Carbondioxide + 6H2 O Water sunlight nutrients C6 H12 O6 Carbohydrate + 6O2 Oxygen The equation above illustrates the process of photosynthesis. Photosynthesis occurs during the day producing oxygen. At night the process of respiration occurs in the phytoplankton, repre- sented by the equation below. It uses dissolved oxygen and produces carbon dioxide. 6O2 Oxygen + C6 H12 O6 Carbohydrate sunlight nutrients 6CO2 Carbondioxide + 6H2 O Water + Energy 18. The following graph shows the pattern of dissolved oxygen in the pond over a 24 hour period due to the photosynthetic and respiration processes. Think about how you would complete the last two points on the graph for the hours of 21:00 and 00:00 (midnight) on day 2. 106 104 102 100 98 96 94 92 90 00:00 Midnight 03:00 06:00 09:00 Time Changes in pond’s dissolved oxygen saturation level over 24-hour period. 12:00 Noon 15:00 18:00 21:00 00:00 Midnight DissolvedOxygen(%saturation) The points on the graph would (A) go a lot higher? (B) drop quite a bit? (C) go up a little? (D) drop a bit? www.tutorferry.com
- 7. 104 Science 19. The respiration reaction shown below and that occurs at night is a _______________ reaction. This would be a drop-down question type on the GED® test. (A) decomposition (B) combination (C) replacement (D) double replacement 6O2 Oxygen + C6 H12 O6 Carbohydrate 6CO2 Carbondioxide + 6H2 O Water + Energy 20. Considering the paragraph and the graph, explain what effect shortening days of sun- light in winter would have on the pond ecosystem. 21. Energy flows through the food chain from (A) producers to consumers to decomposers (B) producers to secondary consumers to primary consumers (C) decomposers to consumers to producers (D) secondary consumers to producers www.tutorferry.com
- 8. 105 PracticeTest Use the following information to answer Questions 22–25. Normal skin color in mice is dominant to albino. In the following questions, N stands for normal skin color and n for albino. 22. Three offspring of two normal skinned parents have normal skin, but one is albino. Which of the following must be true? (A) One parent must have the NN genotype. (B) Both parents must have the NN genotype. (C) One parent must have the nn genotype. (D) Both parents must have the Nn genotype. 23. The albino offspring from the F1 generation described above produces one albino off- spring and one normal offspring in the F2 generation. What must be the genotype of the albino’s mate? (A) Either Nn or NN (B) Either Nn or nn (C) Nn (D) nn 24. What percentage of the offspring of two albino parents would most likely be normal? (A) 100% (B) 50% (C) 10% (D) 0% 25. What are the chances that two normal parents each carrying recessive genes for albinism could have a heterozygous normal offspring? (A) 1 out of 2 (B) 3 out of 4 (C) 2 out of 3 (D) 0 out of 4 www.tutorferry.com
- 9. 106 Science 26. Which of the following chemical equations is NOT properly balanced? (A) FeCl3 – 3NaOH → Fe(OH)3 – 3NaCl (B) CH4 + O2 → CO2 + 2H2 O (C) C3 H3 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2 O (D) 2NaCL + F2 → 2NAF + CL2 27. The stratosphere troposphere exosphere Select is the densest atmospheric layer, accounting for most of the mass of the atmosphere. It contains 99% of the water vapor found in the atmosphere. Use the following information to answer Questions 28–29. The formation of holes in the Earth’s ozone layer due to chemicals used by humans allows more ultraviolet (UV) light to reach the oceans. Increased UV light can kill phytoplankton, marine algae, and other microorganisms. 28. Which statement BEST describes how a large decrease in phytoplankton and marine algae would affect the ocean food web? (A) The effect would not be drastic since the organisms are so small. (B) The number of marine animals would decrease due to the decrease in producers. (C) The number of consumers in the food web would increase as the producers decrease. (D) The number of decomposers would increase as the phytoplankton and marine algae die. www.tutorferry.com
- 10. 107 PracticeTest 29. Which of the following explains the MOST LIKELY effect of increased UV light on alpine and polar lakes that are very clear? (A) The increase in solar UV radiation would increase the rate of mutation in microorganisms such as phytoplankton and algae, so that they would no longer be a healthy food source for marine animals. (B) The UV light would raise the temperature of the alpine and polar lakes, which would help the microorganisms repair themselves. (C) The UV light would stimulate photosynthesis, resulting in a more stable ecosystem. (D) The UV light would penetrate to a greater depth in lakes that have clear water, potentially doing greater damage to the ecosystem. 30. Why does a food chain generally have no more than five trophic levels? (A) There is a loss of energy at each trophic level. (B) There is no way to determine the upper trophic levels. (C) Many organisms have multiple food sources. (D) The loss of biodiversity has limited the variety of organisms. 31. Which of the following statements is correct in comparing and contrasting prokaryotes and eukaryotes? (A) Eukaryotes are much larger than prokaryotes, but otherwise they share the same structure. (B) Cytoplasm is found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes but in a slightly dif- ferent form in each. (C) Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes are mainly multicellular. (D) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes both have distinct organelles, although prokaryotes have fewer of them. 32. Which of the following is NOT included in the body’s first line of defense against disease-causing agents? (A) Stomach acid (B) Mucous membranes (C) Phagocytes (D) Cilia www.tutorferry.com
- 11. 108 Science 33. A ball rolling at a velocity of 12 m/sec hits a wall after 36 seconds. What is the accelera- tion of the ball? (This would be a fill-in-the-box question type.) (A) –23.334 m/sec (B) 23.334 m/sec (C) 0.334 m/sec2 (D) –0.334 m/sec² 34. A food pyramid is shown below. owls snakes bacteria toads grasses grasshoppers In this food pyramid, toads are which of the following? (A) Primary consumers (B) Secondary consumers (C) Producers (D) Tertiary consumers www.tutorferry.com
- 12. 109 PracticeTest 35. Look at the population graph below. 0 20 40 60 80 100 Population Time Interval Logistic Growth Model 1000 900 800 700 600 500 400 300 200 100 0 Which of the following population factors does the dotted line represent? (A) Lack of competitors (B) Carrying capacity (C) Migration (D) Frequency of reproduction 36. The Florida panther once roamed widely in the southeastern United States. The number of Florida panthers was drastically reduced due to loss of habitat, hunting, and even collisions with automobiles. By the 1970s, the estimated number of Florida panthers had shrunk to only six. Which of the following describes the most likely next stage in this situation? (A) Genetic defects in the population due to inbreeding (B) Genetic diversity due to interbreeding with other free-roaming puma species (C) Improvement of the Florida panther’s gene pool due to inbreeding (D) Development of two new breeds of Florida panther www.tutorferry.com
- 13. 110 Science 37. Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is an enzyme vital to the production of the prostaglandins, but also contributes to the inflammation of joints in medical conditions such as arthri- tis. New medications that block the production of prostaglandins by COX-2 enzymes and thereby relieve the symptoms of arthritis are a type of (A) hormone (B) chemical inhibitor (C) ion (D) prosthetic group 38. Look at the diagram below of the human female reproductive system. + Fallopian tubes Ovaries Uterus Cervix Endometrium Vagina Female Reproductive System Seen from the Front In human sexual reproduction, the fertilized ovum attaches to which of the following? (A) Fallopian tube (B) Uterus (C) Endometrium (D) Vagina www.tutorferry.com
- 14. 111 PracticeTest 39. A person who contracts chicken pox as an adult lacks which of the following? (A) memory cells (B) memory cells for a specific pathogen (C) plasma cells (D) B lymphocyte cells 40. The water molecule has many special properties. Which of the following occurs because of water’s cohesive behavior? (A) Water is able to cool down and heat up slowly. (B) Water is able to float in solid form. (C) Water is able to dissolve many substances. (D) Water is able to move from the roots to the leaves of plants. 41. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which the carbon cycle uses carbon to build organic compounds? (A) plant and animal respiration (B) transpiration (C) photosynthesis (D) combustion Use the following terms to answer Questions 42–43. (A) Cellular respiration (B) Fermentation (C) Kreb’s Cycle (D) Photosynthesis 42. Anaerobic process producing two ATP molecules per glucose molecule. 43. Breaks down pyruvic acid molecules into CO2 molecules, H+ (protons), and 2 ATP molecules. www.tutorferry.com
- 15. 112 Science Use this information to answer Questions 44–46. A student wants to know how temperature affects the rate of the catalyzed reaction for the stomach enzyme pepsin. She sets up an experiment in the lab using reaction chambers set at varying temperatures. 44. Identify the independent variable and dependent variable for this experiment and place the correct component into the boxes: This would be a drag-and-drop question type. (A) Pepsin (B) Rate of reaction (C) Temperature (°C) (D) Catalyzation reaction Independent Variable Dependent Variable 45. In which step of the nitrogen cycle do bacteria and fungi break excess nitrates back into their elements and release elemental nitrogen back into the atmosphere? (A) Ammonification (B) Denitrification (C) Nitrogen fixing (D) Decomposition www.tutorferry.com
- 16. 113 PracticeTest 46. Which graph shows the most likely result of this experiment? (A) 0 10 RateofEnzymeReaction 20 Temperature (°C) 30 40 50 60 70 (B) 0 10 RateofEnzymeReaction 20 Temperature (°C) 30 40 50 60 70 (C) 0 10 RateofEnzymeReaction 20 Temperature (°C) 30 40 50 60 70 (D) 0 10 RateofEnzymeReaction 20 Temperature (°C) 30 40 50 60 70 www.tutorferry.com
- 17. 114 Science 47. The gravity from the moon pulls the ocean causing it to bulge and rise on one side while it lowers on the other as the Earth rotates and the Moon orbits forming tides. The sun has some gravitational effect on tides, but not as much as the moon. Tides rise and fall daily with the rotation of the Earth. Especially high (spring) tides occur during which of the following positions of the sun/earth/moon? (A) Sun Earth M (B) Sun Earth M (C) Sun Earth M (D) Sun Earth M www.tutorferry.com
- 18. 115 PracticeTest Use the information in this table to answer Questions 48–50. Properties of Substances Substance Reaction with Water Phase at Room Temperature Reaction to Flame Density Hydrogen (gas) none gas explosive 0.00009 g/ml Sodium bubbling solid explosive 0.97 g/ml Mercury none liquid none 13.6 g/ml 48. Which substance would be considered most highly reactive? (A) Hydrogen (B) Sodium (C) Mercury (D) Argon 49. It was concluded from these tests that the phase of a substance determines how reactive it would be. Is this a reasonable conclusion? (A) It is a reasonable conclusion since both gases do not react with water (B) It is a reasonable conclusion since the solid is the most reactive (C) It is a reasonable conclusion since not all substances can be reactive (D) It is a poor conclusion since the two gases have very different reactions 50. Which of the tests measured physical properties? (A) Density, reaction to flame (B) Reaction to flame and water (C) Density, phase (D) Phase, reaction to water www.tutorferry.com