Guidelines3D PRINTINGPRINTERSSYSTEMPurpose This deliverab.docx

Guidelines
3D PRINTING/PRINTERSSYSTEM
Purpose: This deliverable will be the initial sections of the
design management plan. It will generalize the system (3D
PRINTING/PRINTERS) to a set of system and functional
requirements, and will also include discussion of design
approach and stakeholder management. Specifically, elements
of a design plan that describes the design methodology, plan for
identifying and managing stakeholders, incorporation of design
standards and regulatory requirements and, finally, the system
level requirements governing the design.
The research paper should adhere to the following guidelines:
Due Date: 1 report is due by Friday, June 23.
Paper format:
· No more than 3 pages
· Margin: 1-inch on all sides.
· Spacing: Double-spaced.
· Font: 12
· Each page must be numbered
Sources: Be sure to include references in APA style for
information supporting choice of design methodology,
stakeholder identification and management, design standards
and development of system level requirements.
Structure: The paper should have the following elements. This
may serve as an outline for your submission.
Introduction: The information that you will need to provide at
this stage of design management is at a higher level than the
specific system (3D PRINTING/PRINTERS) you have chosen.

For this you will need to “back up” to a “solution neutral”
point, to describe the system you are endeavoring to design.
As such, the introduction should outline the operational or
customer needs that will guide the design process, including
system level requirements and concept selection. So, you must
think in general terms about the high-level purpose that your
system is designed to serve.
Design Methodology: The plan for design management starts
with selection of a specific design methodology. Describe the
design approach you think is most suited to the solution-neutral
problem you have defined and provide rationale for your choice
of design methodology. Make sure to describe how you plan to
integrate models and methods into your design approach.
Standards & Regulation Management: Identify specific
standards that apply to your design problem and how you plan
to incorporate them into the design process. Also, discuss any
regulatory requirements that may be applicable (these should be
incorporated as system level requirements).
Stakeholder Management: This part of the design management
plan is the stakeholder management plan. List known
stakeholders for your design effort and explain how any
additional stakeholders will be identified. Develop the
stakeholder classification matrix and explain how it will be used
in managing stakeholders through the design process. Don’t
forget to discuss stakeholder engagement, communication,
requirements solicitation and expectation management.
Conceptual Design Plan: Describe your approach to conceptual
design and how it fits into the overall design methodology.
Describe the need and the approach to feasibility/requirements
analysis, along with discussion of any external/design
constraints that may be applicable. Provide examples of system
level requirements (functional, non-functional, performance,

interface, verification) applicable to your design problem.
Reference: In this section, cite any references in APA format.
Psychology Quiz
Question 1
As compared to more traditional, one-on-one and face-to-face
assessments, a disadvantage of CAPA is that it typically
deprives the assessor of the opportunity to:
a.
Have a Bowflex workout during the assessment.
b.
Make certain that test forms can be kept secure.
c.
Observe the test-taker's test-taking behavior.
d.
Tailor the test's content to the responses.
2 points
Question 2
Which of the following would probably provide the best
information about trends in psychological testing and
assessment?
a.
Test critiques.
b.
Journal articles.
c.
Test manuals.

d.
Ask-oscar.com.
2 points
Question 3
How did the work of Wundt differ from that of Galton, Binet,
and James McKeen Cattell?
a.
Wundt used standardized psychological tests.
b.
Wundt utilized humans and not animal research subjects.
c.
Wundt focused on how individuals were the same rather than
different.
d.
Wundt focused on how individuals were different rather than
the same.
2 points
Question 4
According to the Standards for Educational and Psychological
Tests and Manuals, the responsibility for the use of
psychological tests is that of:
a.
Professionals with the highest academic degree in psychology.
b.
Professionals with the necessary training and experience.
c.

Professionals who have state certification to administer a
particular test.
d.
Professionals who have received online certification in test
administration.
2 points
Question 5
Which case resulted in the ruling that intelligence tests could
not be used to place Black children in special classes in
California?
a.
Hobson v. Hanson (1967).
b.
Larry P. v. Riles (1979).
c.
Debra P. v. Turlington (1981).
d.
Griggs v. Duke Power Company (1971).
2 points
Question 6
Users of psychological tests are frequently tempted to treat
ordinal data as if it were interval data. This is the case because
of the:
a.
Difficulties that would be encountered if the data were treated
as ratio data.
b.

Frequent need to do more than simply rank order test scores.
c.
Unwritten rule that exists pertaining to the equal intervals
between points measured.
d.
Added flexibility of interval level data for statistical
manipulation.
2 points
Question 7
The fact that a test score that has a normal distribution test
score has a normal distribution:
a.
Suggests that the test is biased.
b.
Makes it relatively harder to assume that the test measures what
it was intended to measure.
c.
Makes it unlikely that the test is suitable for use with
populations with psychological disturbances.
d.
Makes the interpretation of test scores simpler than would be
the case if the test score had a non-normal distribution.
2 points
Question 8
Referring to a psychological trait as a construct means that it:
a.
Is an idea whose time has come, gone, and come back again.

b.
Has few practical real-world applications and is only of interest
from an academic standpoint.
c.
Was developed by naturalistic observation rather than rational,
systematic theorizing.
d.
Is an informed, scientific concept developed to describe or
explain behavior.
2 points
Question 9
A test that yields information about a test-taker's relative
standing in a group is referred to as:
a.
Criterion-referenced.
b.
Norm-referenced.
c.
Standard-referenced.
d.
None of these.
2 points
Question 10
Which type of reliability estimate would be appropriate only
when evaluating the reliability of a test that measures a trait
that is relatively stable over time?

a.
Parallel-forms.
b.
Alternate-forms.
c.
Test-retest.
d.
Split-half.
2 points
Question 11
What term refers to the degree of correlation between all the
items on a scale?
a.
Inter-item homogeneity.
b.
Inter-item consistency.
c.
Inter-item heterogeneity.
d.
Parallel-form reliability.
2 points
Question 12
Item response theory (IRT) focuses on:
a.
Circumstances under which the test was developed.

b.
How a particular test was administered.
c.
The individual items of a test.
d.
Reasons for delay on one line of the New York City subway
system.
2 points
Question 13
In classical test theory, an observed score on an ability test is
presumed to represent the test-taker's:
a.
True score.
b.
True score less the variance.
c.
True score combined with extraneous factors.
d.
The test-taker's true score and error.
2 points
Question 14
The form of criterion-related validity that reflects the degree to
which a test score is correlated with a criterion measure
obtained at the same time that the test score was obtained is
known as:
a.
Predictive validity.

b.
Construct validity.
c.
Concurrent validity.
d.
Content validity.
2 points
Question 15
In studies that indicate that Aatention deficit disorder occurs in
approximately 2 percent of the population, the 2 percent
represents the __________ for the disorder.
a.
Hit rate.
b.
Base rate.
c.
Miss rate.
d.
Sample.
2 points
Question 16
Each of the three approaches to validity assessment in the
trinitarian model should be thought of as:
a.
Mutually exclusive as evidence of a test's validity with any one
source necessary and sufficient for demonstrating a test's

validity.
b.
One type of evidence that, with others, contributes to a
judgment concerning the validity of a test.
c.
Insufficient either by themselves or together with the other two
to demonstrate the validity of a test.
d.
None of these.
2 points
Question 17
"It's a measure of validity that arrived at by a comprehensive
analysis of how scores on the test relate to other test scores."
This statement is a reference to:
a.
Face validity.
b.
Content validity.
c.
The Trinitarian index.
d.
Construct validity.
2 points
Question 18
If undertaken for the purpose of evaluating a particular
intervention, a utility analysis can be helpful in making
decisions about whether:

a.
One training program is preferable to another training program.
b.
Any intervention is better than no intervention.
c.
One tool of assessment is more practical than another.
d.
All of these.
2 points
Question 19
An empirical standard used to divide a group of data into two or
more distinct categories describes a:
a.
Cut score.
b.
Predictive yield.
c.
Norm-referenced test.
d.
Hit rate.
2 points
Question 20
Test items that contain alternatives with five points ranging
from strongly agree to strongly disagree are characterized as
using this approach to scaling:

a.
Guttman scaling.
b.
Likert scaling.
c.
Nielson scaling.
d.
Opinion scaling.
2 points
Question 21
A developer is interested in deriving an index of the difficulty
of the average item for his math test. As his consultant on test
development, you advise him that this index could be obtained
by:
a.
Identifying the item deemed to be average in difficulty and then
deriving an item-difficulty index for that item.
b.
Averaging the item-difficulty indices for all test items and then
dividing by the total number of items on the test.
c.
Dividing the total number of items on the test by the average
item-difficulty index.
d.
Asking that very same question to a more knowledgeable test
development consultant.
2 points
Question 22

When testing is conducted by means of a computer within a
CAT context, it means that:
a.
A test-taker's response to one item may automatically trigger
what item will be presented next.
b.
Testing may be terminated based on some preset number of
consecutive item failures.
c.
Testing may be terminated based on some pre-set, maximum
number of items being administered.
d.
All of these.
2 points
Question 23
Item analysis is conducted to evaluate
a.
Item reliability.
b.
Item validity.
c.
Item difficulty.
d.
All of these.
2 points
Question 24

The term cross-battery assessment refers to:
a.
The selective use of subtests from different test batteries.
b.
The use of multiple test batteries in assessment.
c.
The use of culturally responsive tools of assessment.
d.
Using physical tests in combination with psychological tests.
2 points
Question 25
Which of the following best characterizes the basis of CHC
theory?
a.
Practical relevance.
b.
Factor analysis.
c.
Intuitive beliefs.
d.
The published writings of hundreds of independent
practitioners.
2 points
Question 26
Culture-specific and culture-reduced tests have been shown to

have:
a.
Limited value in predicting educational achievement.
b.
Significant value in predicting educational achievement.
c.
Have little application in industrial and organizational settings.
d.
Significant value in predicting vocational success.
2 points
Question 27
The magnitude of the Flynn effect is dependent most on:
a.
The population on whom the test was normed.
b.
The model of intelligence employed by the test developers.
c.
When the test was normed.
d.
The methods used by the test developers to norm the test.
2 points
Question 28
According to Piaget, a form of cognitive structure or
organization is referred to as:
a.

A set.
b.
A construct.
c.
A pattern.
d.
A schema.
2 points
Question 29
Validity of short forms may be reduced because fewer items:
a.
Mean that the test will not be used as often as the longer form.
b.
Lowes test utility, which negatively impacts validity.
c.
Mean that the test can only be used for screening purposes.
d.
Lower test reliability, which negatively impacts validity.
2 points
Question 30
The deviation IQ reflects a comparison of the performance of
the individual with the performance of others:
a.
In the entire standardization sample.
b.

In the same grade in the standardization sample.
c.
Of the same age in the standardization sample.
d.
In the same grade and of the same age in the standardization
sample.
2 points
Question 31
Contributing greatly to the success of the WPPSI was the fact
that this test:
a.
Represented a downward extension of the WISC.
b.
Was the test of choice with gifted preschoolers.
c.
Aadequately represented minorities in the standardization
sample.
d.
Contained many items reflecting the CHC theory of
intelligence.
2 points
Question 32
A ratio IQ is calculated as follows:
a.
Mental age multiplied by chronological age, divided by 100.
b.

Chronological age divided by mental age, multiplied by 100.
c.
Mental age divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100.
d.
Deviation IQ divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100.
2 points
Question 33
RtI is said to be multilevel in nature because there are at least
three levels of intervention. As noted in the text, these three
levels feature instruction administered
a.
1) By parents, 2) by teachers, and 3) by tutors providing
individualized instruction.
b.
1) By school officials, 2) by special educators, and 3) by
individual tutors.
c.
1) In the regular classroom, 2) in small groups, and 3) in
individualized instruction.
d.
1) In a special education class, 2) individualized, and 3) at-
home by parents.
2 points
Question 34
Aptitude tests measure:
a.
The cognitive abilities that intelligence tests measure.

b.
Learning that has occurred as a result of exposure to a relatively
defined learning experience.
c.
Learning that has occurred informally through life experiences.
d.
Learning that has occurred through formal structured input.
2 points
Question 35
Curriculum-based assessment refers to the assessment of:
a.
Material that is taught in the classroom.
b.
Knowledge as applied to the real world.
c.
Knowledge transferred from one area to another.
d.
Government-mandated topic areas.
2 points
Question 36
A key definitional difference between the terms personality trait
and personality statehas to do with:
a.
The extent to which personality is viewed as a physical
attribute.

b.
How stable over time the characteristic is exhibited.
c.
Whether or not the characteristic is subject to a halo effect.
d.
The motivation of the person or persons doing the rating.
2 points
Question 37
A culturally sensitive psychological assessment includes
sensitivity to which of the following?
a.
Acculturation and language.
b.
Values and worldview.
c.
Personal identity.
d.
All of these.
2 points
Question 38
Word association tests such as that developed by Jung:
a.
Are usually based on cognitive theories of personality.
b.
Are based on the premise that certain key words represent areas
of conflict.

c.
Utilize only traumatic stimulus words, in an attempt to diagnose
associative disturbances.
d.
Employ normative databases with samples matched to U.S.
census data.
2 points
Question 39
Based on several review articles cited in the text, what
conclusion can reasonably be made about the Rorschach test and
its contribution to psychological assessment?
a.
Rorschach-based interpretations represent the essence of
"scientifically informed psychological assessment."
b.
Rorschach-based interpretations have little reliability and even
less validity.
c.
There exists a mixture of favorable and unfavorable reviews of
the Rorschach's contributions to psychological assessment.
d.
None of these.
2 points
Question 40
Identification of the antecedents and consequences of behavior
is a routine part of:
a.

An analogue analysis.
b.
A functional analysis.
c.
A psychic analysis.
d.
Behavioral determination.
2 points
Question 41
Forensic psychology is different from clinical psychology
because in forensic psychology:
a.
The clinician's client may not be the assessee.
b.
When the assessee is in an adversarial relationship with the
assessor, the assessee may not be truthful.
c.
The clinician may be called on to offer recommendations that
run counter to the welfare of the assessee.
d.
All of these.
2 points
Question 42
The Barnum effect in psychological report writing refers to:
a.
Very technical jargon that is difficult for lay readers of the

report to understand or interpret.
b.
Cconflicting statements about the person within the same report.
c.
Statements that are prejudicial in nature.
d.
Vague and general statements that could be applied to most
people in many situations.
2 points
Question 43
Which of the following is not a category listed in your text in
the description of a mental status examination?
a.
Sensorium.
b.
Socioeconomic status.
c.
Memory.
d.
Appearance.
2 points
Question 44
The mental status examination used as part of the
neuropsychological evaluation:
a.
Is exactly the same as a mental status examination used during a

clinical or counseling assessment.
b.
Will typically delve into specific areas of interest more
extensively than the one used as part of a clinical or counseling
assessment.
c.
Typically includes the administration of an intelligence test.
d.
Typically includes the administration of a neuropsychologically
oriented adjective checklist.
2 points
Question 45
Most neuropsychologists prefer which of the following when
conducting a neuropsychological evaluation?
a.
A prepackaged neuropsychological battery.
b.
A flexible neuropsychological battery.
c.
The Halstead-Reitan.
d.
The Luria-Nebraska.
2 points
Question 46
The study of neuropsychology is best characterized as the study
of:

a.
Nervous system/cognition relationships.
b.
Brain/behavior relationships.
c.
Stimulus/response relationships.
d.
Physical/platonic relationships.
2 points
Question 47
Your ability to remember all of the different types of reliability
is an example of __________ memory.
a.
Procedural.
b.
Declarative.
c.
Short-term.
d.
Sheer endurance.
2 points
Question 48
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 stated that tests like the General
Aptitude Test Battery:
a.
Must no longer be administered.

b.
Must produce equal mean scores for all races.
c.
Could no longer be race-normed.
d.
Violate the civil rights of minority groups.
2 points
Question 49
Which of the following is true of the Myers-Briggs Type
Indicator (MBTI)?
a.
Despite weak psychometric qualities, the test remains popular.
b.
The test is really not a measure of type in the strict sense of that
word.
c.
The test has strong validity.
d.
The test is widely used as an adjunct to random drug testing.
2 points
Question 50
Motivation research includes:
a.
Focus groups.
b.

Individual interviews.
c.
Both A and B.
d.
None of these.

Guidelines3D PRINTINGPRINTERSSYSTEMPurpose This deliverab.docx

More Related Content

Similar to Guidelines3D PRINTINGPRINTERSSYSTEMPurpose This deliverab.docx (20)

More from whittemorelucilla (20)

Recently uploaded (20)

Guidelines3D PRINTINGPRINTERSSYSTEMPurpose This deliverab.docx