ITIL Foundation V2 200 Sample Questions

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ITIL Foundation Examinations - 200 Sample Questions
1. How can Service Level Management use data from the incident register at the Service Desk?
Service Level Management uses this data ...

A. To draw up the Service Level Agreement (SLA).
B. To draw up reports about the number and nature of incidents in a certain period.
C. To determine the availability of an IT Service, on the basis of the number of incidents resolved.
D. Together with other data to work out whether the service level agreed upon has been achieved.

Answer: D

2. Which statement describes a Service Desk activity?

A. To function as the first point of customer contact.
B. To investigate the cause of disruptions for the customer.
C. To trace the cause of incidents.

Answer: A

3. Consider the following statements:

1. An SLA is a contract drawn up by the IT department which states what the customer may and may not do with his
computer.

2. A Service Catalogue describes concisely and specifically the IT services that the IT department can offer a customer.
Which of these statements is correct?

A. Only the first
B. Only the second
C. Both
D. Neither

Answer: B

4. What is the correct description of 'impact'?

A. The degree to which the provision of services is disrupted and the speed with which this must be remedied
B. The degree to which the user indicates how quickly the incident must be resolved.
C. The effect that an incident has on the components of the IT infrastructure, including the consequences for the service that
has been agreed upon.
D. The effect that an incident has on the activities of the users and the speed with which the incidents must be resolved.

Answer: C

5. Which task is a Problem Management responsibility?

A. To co-ordinate all modifications to the IT infrastructure.
B. To record incidents for later study.
C. To approve all modifications made to the Known Error database.
D. To identify user needs and modify the IT infrastructure based on such needs.

Answer: C

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6. The manufacturer claims that the new line of central mainframes can reach an MTBF of 5000 hours
What does this mean?

A. That the mainframes have an average life of 5000 hours
B. That the mainframes operate continuously for an average of 5000 hours
C. That the mainframes will fail every 5000 hours
D. That the mainframe can operate continuously for a maximum of 5000 hours.

Answer: B

7. Network managers are overloaded with work. They hardly get a chance to manage the network. One of the reasons
for this is that users approach them directly to answer all kinds of questions.
Which ITIL process or function needs to be set up to improve this situation?

A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Error Control
D. Service Desk
E. Incident Management
F. Problem Management

Answer: D

8. Data in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) niay be updated only if an order instruction has been
given for this:
Which process gives this order?

C. Service Desk
D. Service Level Management

Answer: A

9. A change has taken place in the IT infrastructure
How is Change Management related to the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? Change Management...

A. Checks whether the change has been made in the CMDB.
B. Carries out investigations into the degree of consistency in the CMDB.
C. Provides Configuration Management with the data required to implement the change in the CMDB.
D. Implements the change in the CMDB and informs Configuration Management about it.

Answer: C


1. A change in the IT infrastructure is always the result of a change of a Service Level
2. A Service Level Agreement (SLA) exhibits many similarities to a procedure for drawing up a Request for Change (RFC).

Are these statements correct?

A. Only the first
B. Only the second
C. Both
D. Neither

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Answer: D
11. The performance of the network in a large computer centre is monitored 24 hours a day.
This produces data for which processes?

A. Availability Management, Capacity Management and Change Management
B. Availability Management, Capacity Management and Problem Management
C. Change Management, Financial Management and Service Level Management
D. Financial Management, Service Desk and Problem Management

Answer: B

12. The sequence of dealing with problems must be based on...

A. The category to which the problem belongs.
B. The impact of the problem.
C. The priority of the problem.
D. The urgency of the problem.

Answer: C

13. A new networked computer is installed to replace an existing PC. The old PC is installed as a print server for the
local area network.
Which process is responsible for registering this modification in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?

C. Problem Management
D. Release Management

Answer: B

14. A computer operator establishes that a memory disk is in danger of becoming completely full.
He reports this to...

A. Capacity Management.
B. Change Management.
C. Planning & Control for IT Services
D. Service Level Management.

Answer: A

15. Because of its increased dependency on information systems, a large financial institution decides that there must be
plans for the provision of IT services following a major interruption to the service.
Which process, therefore, should be implemented?

A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Service Management

Answer: B

16. A printer in a department of an insurance office has broken down. Hardware Support wants to approach the
supplier of the printer to remedy the defect.
Hardware Support can obtain data from Configuration Management about which of the following:

1. The location of the printer
2. The type of maintenance contract

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3. The number of disruptions the printer has experienced in the last six months

Which of the above is correct:

A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. 1,2, and 3

Answer: D

17. What information does the Service Desk provide to the IT management of an organisation?

A. All deviations from the specified service levels
B. The growth of the IT infrastructure
C. The time spent on investigation and diagnosis for each department
D. The number of incidents per category

Answer: D

18. Which is the correct combination of concepts and ITIL processes?

•1. CMDB
•2. DSL
•3. MTBF
•4. SLA

•a. Availability Management
•b. Configuration Management
•c. Service Level Management
•d. Release Management

A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
B. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a,4-c
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Answer: B

19. Which of these tasks is a task of Problem Management?

A. Co-ordination of all changes to the IT infrastructure.
B. Classification of Requests for Change (RFCs).
C. Approval of all changes / modifications made to the Known-Error database.
D. Recognising user's requirements and subsequently implementing changes to the IT infrastructure.

Answer: C

20. Which of the following activities does the Service Desk undertake?

A. Error Control, Recording Incidents, Status Accounting
B. Impact determination, Problem Management, Verification
C. Incident Management, Providing Management Information, Recording CIs
D. Incident Management, Providing Management Information, Recording Incidents

Answer: D

21.Key features of all IT services are recorded in...

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A. The Service Catalogue.
B. The Service Level Management Database.
C. Service Level Requirements.
D. Service Level Agreements.

Answer: A

22. Which activity is a Release Management responsibility?

A. To check whether any illegal software on computers within the organisation.
B. To store the original versions of all authorised software within the organisation.
C. To register where each software version is available.

Answer: B

23.Give one reason why charging for IT services is an important element of Financial Management?

A. The availability of an IT service can be measured.
B. The resources needed for an application can be determined.
C. The use of IT services can be influenced.
D. Scenarios for capacity planning can be investigated.

Answer: C

24. Which of the concepts below belongs to IT Service Continuity Management?

A. Serviceability
B. Maintainability
C. Resilience
D. Vulnerability

Answer: D

25.The Service Desk has handled 2317 calls this month. What are the majority of these calls likely to include?

A. Modifications to Service Level Agreements (SLAs).
B. Notices regarding modified Configuration Items (CIs).
C. Requests to the IT organisation for user support.

Answer: C

26. For which ITIL process is the determination of priorities based on impact and urgency an essential activity?

C. Financial Management for IT Services

Answer: A

27.A user calls the Service Desk with a complaint that, when using a particular application, an error always occurs that
breaks his connection to the network. Which process has overall responsibility for tracing the underlying cause?

A. Service Desk
B. Network Management

D. System Management

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E. Incident Management

Answer: C

28. Which of the examples below is NOT an example of a configuration item?

A. A user manual
B. A company's organisation chart
C. A systems update procedure
D. A unique identification code

Answer: D

29.Service Level Requirements are used in the Service Level Management process. Which statement best describes what
these Service Level Requirements represent?

A. The amount of defined IT service that the customer requires.
B. What the IT organisation expects of the customer.
C. The conditions required for the Service Level Agreement (SLA).
D. A paragraph of the SLA with additional specifications required to execute the SLA.

Answer: A

30. A steel company merges with a competitor. The IT departments, along with the IT infrastructures of both
companies will be combined.
Which process is responsible for determining the required disk and memory space required for applications running in
the combined IT infrastructure?

A. Application Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Computer Operations Management

Answer: B

31. A new disk unit has to be installed to solve a problem with making back-ups on the network, and the procedures for
making back-ups have to be changed. Through which process does formal approval have to be given for carrying out
the changes?

C. Network Management
D. Problem Management

Answer: A

32. Given the following formula:
Availability percentage = ((i-ii)/iii)*100
III What should be filled in for i, ii and iii?

A. I Reliability II Duration of fault III Agreed time
B. I Reliability II Duration of fault III Resilience
C. I Maintainability II Resilience III Resilience
D. I Maintainability II Resilience III Maintainability
E. I Agreed time II Duration of fault III Agreed time

Answer :E

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33. Consider the following activities:
1. Change categorisation
2. Change implementation
3. Change review
4. Change scheduling
5. Filtering requests for change

In which sequence should these activities be carried out in order to implement a change in the IT infrastructure in a
controlled fashion?

A. 1-4-5-2-3
B. 1 -5-4-3-2
C. 4-1-5-3-2
D. 5-1-4-2-3
E. 5-1-2-4-3

Answer: D

34. Which function is not part of Financial Management for IT services?

A. Budgeting
B. Charging
C. Procurement
D. Pricing

Answer: C

35. It is important for the operation of a given application that the version of the software installed on each of the
computers on the network is the same.
Which process is responsible for this?


Answer: D

36. Consider the following statements.

1. To determine the impact of change it is necessary to understand the structure of the IT services and the way they support
the business processes concerned.
2. The relationships between the various components of the infrastructure play an important role in determining the impact of
a change.

A. Only the first
B. Only the second
C. Both
D. Neither

Answer: C

37. You work at the Service Desk of an organisation. A user calls up to say that his terminal does not function.
This is a (n)...

A. Incident

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B. Known Error
C. Problem
D. Request for Change

Answer: A

38. What is the consequence when the Configuration Item (Cl) level is too high?

A. Certain parts of the infrastructure cannot be checked and managed properly.
B. Certain problems cannot be analysed because the information available is inadequate.
C. There is insufficient assurance that the information provided correctly reflects reality.

Answer: A

39.To carry out the planned installation of new software releases, the network server needs expanding.
Which process is responsible for investigating the required disk space of the network server?

A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management

Answer: A

40. An organisation starts to use Intranet and e-mail. As many 'images' are sent back and forth over the network, its
capacity needs expanding.
Which process is suitable for approving this capacity expansion?

D. Problem Management

Answer: B

41. Consider the following statements; which is NOT true?

A. Change Management is responsible for providing a detailed specification of the effect on CIs of an authorised change.
B. Change Management keeps a record of all changes by logging, tracking and reviewing them.
C. Change Management receives, records and helps allocate priorities to all RFCs.
D. Change Management will ensure that adequate back-out plans are prepared before changes are implemented.

Answer: A

42. A user reports to the Service Desk a loss of the network connection that occurs repeatedly when using a specific
application. Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the cause?

B. Incident Management

Answer: C

43. A major change to an existing service is to be designed and built and the issue of what Configuration Management is
responsible for has been raised.
For which of the following activities does Configuration Management NOT have a responsibility?

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A. Quality assurance of the software modules.
B. Controlling the completeness and correctness of all data about the software modules.
C. Naming and recording data about software modules.
D. Registering and monitoring the status of the software modules

Answer: A

44. The Service Desk is informed that a user has forgotten her password after her holiday. This only affects the one user.
The Service Desk and the user are both aware that solving this incident will take only a few minutes.
>From the information given, you would say that...

A. The impact is high
B. The priority is high
C. The urgency is high
D. Little can be said about impact, priority or urgency

Answer: D

45. A serious incident has occurred. The assigned solution team is unable to resolve the problem within the agreed time.
The Incident Manager is called in. Which form of escalation describes the above sequence of events?

A. Formal escalation
B. Functional escalation
C. Hierarchical escalation
D. Operational escalation

Answer: C

46. The successful diagnosis of a problem results in a known error. On the basis of this known error a request for
change may be raised.
The known error record may be closed when...

A. A review of the change has led to a satisfactory result.
B. The proposal for change is lodged with Change Management.
C. The request for change is authorised by the Change Advisory Board.
D. Incidents related to the known error don't occur any more.

Answer: A

47. If a company decides to charge its internal customers for the IT services they use in order to improve general cost
awareness, which function will make sure that the charges and the services to which they relate are formally agreed and
documented?
A. Service Level Management.
B. Financial Management for IT Services.
C. Local Management.
D. Customer Management.

Answer: A

48. Which statement best describes a Problem?

A. One or more Known Errors.
B. A known cause of one or more disruptions.
C. An unknown cause of one or more incidents.
D. A Known Error with one or more incidents.

Answer: C

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49. Which best describes the contents of the Definitive Software Library?

A. All the software likely to be needed by in-house software developers and maintainers.
B. Copies of all live software used on the infrastructure.
C. Authorised versions of all software used on the infrastructure.
D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing.

Answer: C

50. Performance Management and Resource Management are parts of which process?

C. IT Service Continuity Management

Answer: B

51. Which one of the following is NOT a task of Capacity Management?

A. Monitoring overall performance of the IT infrastructure.
B. Sizing and or modelling of new applications.
C. Procuring of new / upgraded hardware.
D. Assessing the possible benefits of new technology to the organisation.

Answer: C

52. A new service is to go live tomorrow. Which of the following should be available at the Service Desk?

1. The Service Level Manager to take the heat out of any angry confrontations very quickly.
2. Support scripts.
3. The appropriate change schedule.
4. Network specialists.

A. 1 and 4.
B. 2 and 3.
C. 1,2 and 3.
D. All of them.

Answer: B

53. Risk Management is an essential part of one of the following pairs of functions, which pair?

A. Problem Management & Capacity Management.
B. Availability Management & Service Level Management.
C. IT Service Continuity Management & Financial Management for IT Services.
D. IT Service Continuity Management & Availability Management.

Answer: D

54. 'Maintainability' is best described as:

A. The contractual conditions under which infrastructure components are maintained.

B. The ability of a Cl to be retained in or restored to a condition in which it can perform its required functions.
C. An umbrella term used to described serviceability, resilience and reliability.
D. The ability of a set of configuration items to maintain a service when one or more of the CIs have failed.

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Answer: B

55. Which of the following are prime responsibilities of Availability Management?

1. To plan for and monitor the availability of IT services agreed in SLA's.
2. To negotiate the availability levels in SLA's.
3. To record details of unavailability events.
4. To initiate changes to the infrastructure to prevent failures of availability.

A. 1 and 2.
B. 3 and 4.
C. All of them.
D. 1 and 4.

Answer: D

56. The steps in the Incident Management process might best be described as:

A. Incident recording and alerting, initial support and classification, investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery,
closure.
B. Incident recording, initial codification and allocation, maintaining customer contact, service recovery.
C. First line incident support, day to day contact with users, business system support, management reporting on IT services
quality.

Answer: A

57. In which cases must a review take place after implementation of a change?

A. If another incident of the same type occurs again.
B. Always.
C. At the request of the person who submitted the change request.
D. Randomly.

Answer: B

58. Consider the following statements.

1.To be able to define Service Desk impact codes, it is necessary to have
information about the structure of the IT services and how they provide
support for the business processes.

2.The criteria for determining the impact codes are established in consultation
with the organisation.

3.The relationships between the various components in the infrastructure
play an important role in determining the impact.


A. only the first and second
B. only the first and third
C. only the second and third

D. all three

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Answer: D

59. A Service Desk is suddenly inundated with phone calls from customers who cannot work any more. After
questioning callers it soon becomes clear that an important system on a central UNIX server has failed.
For which of the following actions is the Service Desk NOT responsible?

A. The categorisation of incoming calls.
B. Identifying the cause of the failure.
C. The prioritisation of incoming calls.
D. The escalation of the incidents.

Answer: B

60. The management of ABC Ltd. has insisted that each request for a new workstation installation be handled with
optimum efficiency and effectiveness. Which ITIL process is designed to achieve this desired outcome?

B. Customer Liaison

Answer: A

61. What is the most important advantage an organisation should gain from establishing a Definitive Software Library?

A. Only tested and certified software versions will be used in the organisation
B. The owner of the Definitive Software Library has the option to decide which software is used in an organisation
C. The end users can choose from a wide range of controlled and certified software
D. A greater number of software versions can be offered to the end users.

Answer: A

62. Which of the following best describes a Configuration Baseline?

A. The standard configuration for the Configuration Management Database (CMDB).
B. A description of a standardised Configuration Item (Cl).
C. A set of Configuration Items (CIs) that is delivered once.
D. A recorded snapshot of a product or service, to provide a basis for a configuration auditor regression.

Answer: D

63. Which statement defines the role of the Definitive Software Library (DSL) in the Release Management process?

A. A physical storage area for the original versions of all authorised software in use.
B. A reference manual that includes all software documentation.
C. A registration tool for all software items.
D. A type of Configuration Management Database (CMDB) for software.

Answer: A

64. Your Network Department has made an agreement with an external organisation in order to fulfil its agreement
with its internal customer. Where would the agreement with the external organisation be specified?

A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

B. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C. Service Level Requirement (SLR)
D. Underpinning Contract (UC)

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Answer: D

65. In an organisation with widely distributed Service Desk which one of the following is most important?

A. That all staff speak the same language.
B. That all incidents recording is via the 24-hour clock.
C. That they share a common means of recording information for analysis.
D. That the Service Desk staff have access to a common pool of problem solvers.

Answer: C

66. Which task is the responsibility of Configuration Management?

A. Convening the Configuration Advisory Board.
B. Physically managing software items.
C. Installing equipment at the workplace.
D. Recording the relationships between Configuration Items (Cls).

Answer: D

67. A delivery of PC's is received in the goods inwards department. The status of the PC's has to be changed from
"ordered" to "in stock". Which function is responsible for recording this change of status?

A. Financial Management for IT Services.
B. Problem Management.
C. Configuration Management.
D. Change Management.

Answer: C

68. Security is one of the significant elements of:

B. Availability Management.
C. Resource Management.

Answer: B

69. Which of the following statements are true?

The Change Advisory Board (CAB) should ensure that the proposed changes are assessed for:

1. The likely impact on recovery plans.
2. The effect of not implementing the change.
3. The resources required to implement the change.
4. The likely impact on capacity and performance.

A. 1,2 and 3.
B. All of them.
C. 2,3 and 4.
D. 1,2 and 4.

Answer: B

70. What is the primary objective of error control?

A. To figure out the details for work-arounds.

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B. To resolve Known Errors through the Change Management process.
C. To recognise and register Known Errors.
D. To register and manage Known Errors.

Answer: B

71. The best Mission Statement for Capacity Management is:

A. To ensure that cost justifiable IT capacity, matched to the agreed needs of the customers, always exists.
B. To ensure that sufficient IT capacity exists to meet customer demands during the current procurement cycle.
C. To ensure that at times of peak demands, sufficient IT capacity exists and that such capacity is provided at minimum cost to
the business.

Answer: A

72. When processing a Request for Change (RFC), the Change Manager initiates a number of activities.
Which action is required if this involves a complex change?

A. The Change Manager reports the change to Problem Management.
B. The Change Manager reports the change to Incident Management.
C. The Change Manager presents the change to the Change Advisory Board.
D. The Change Manager presents the change to the IT Manager.

Answer: C

73. Which of the listed tasks are regarded as proactive?

1. Control of Known Errors.
2. Reviewing incident and problem analysis reports to identify trends.
3. Preventing problems in one service being replicated in another.
4. Identifying the root cause of incidents.

A. 1 and 4.
B. 1,2 and 3.
C. 2 and 3.
D. 1 and 3.

Answer: C

74. The percentage of business operations support requests closed without requiring further action is an effectiveness
metric of:

A. Availability Management.
B. Problem Management.
C. The Service Desk.

Answer: C

75. Which statement correctly describes the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management?

A. Asset Management only deals with what is owned; Configuration Management deals with everything in the
infrastructure.
B. Asset Management is a superset of Configuration Management because it includes non-IT assets such as chairs and
tables.
C. Asset Management deals with the financial aspects of Configuration Items (CIs); Configuration Management only deals
with the technical details of the infrastructure.

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D. Configuration Management goes much further than Asset Management because it also specifies the relationships
between assets.

Answer: D

76. Which of the following describes the normal sequence of events for fault resolution

A. Problem - Incident - Change - Known Error.
B. Incident - Problem - Change - Known Error
C. Incident - Problem - Known Error - Change.
D. Problem - Incident - Known Error - Change.

Answer: C

77. Consider the following statements :
1. SLAs should define roles & responsibilities on both sides of the agreement.
2. SLAs should be regularly monitored and reports should be produced and circulated.
3. Underpinning contracts should be reviewed before SLAs are signed.

A. None are correct.
B. 1 & 2 are correct.
C. 2 & 3 are correct.
D. All are correct.

Answer: D

78. Customers find that during acceptance tests response times do not always meet the level specified in the Service
Level Requirement. Nevertheless they decide to introduce the new application.
Which process is responsible for the registration and processing of this shortcoming after 'go live'?

B. The application developers.
C. Problem Management.

Answer: C

79. Which ITIL process uses Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)?

C. IT Service Continuity Management

Answer: A

80. Which of these is NOT true? Availability levels will depend upon:

A. Reliability of components.
B. Component expenditure.
C. Resilience to failure.
D. Quality of maintenance / support.

Answer: B

81. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Problem Management may be involved when a major incident occurs

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B. The Service Desk monitors problems throughout their lifecycles
C. Problem Management is responsible for managing the resolution of problems
D. Problem Management is responsible for Error Control

Answer: B

82. For which of the following activities is the Service Desk NOT responsible?

A. Impact analysis
B. Root cause identification
C. Categorisation and prioritisation
D. Escalation

Answer: B

83. Which of these is NOT a Capacity Management activity?

A. Tuning
B. Demand Management
C. Application sizing
D. Maintainability

Answer: D

84. Following the release of a software upgrade to fix a known error, which area is responsible for ensuring that the
CMDB has been updated correctly?

B. Problem Management
C. Configuration Management

Answer: C

85. Consider the following situations:

1. An incident exceeds the downtime stipulated within a SLA
2. The business impact of an incident changes due to unforeseen circumstances
3. The number of users impacted by an incident is greater than first thought
4. A senior user in the customer's organisation complains about the lack of progress being made on a particular incident

Which of the above could be valid reasons for the Service Desk to invoke escalation procedures?

A. All four
B. 2, 3 & 4
C. 1, 2 & 3
D. 1, 3 & 4

Answer: A

86. A customer has requested a review of charges for services provided under an SLA. Within the SLA there is
provision for this. Who will review this with the customer?

A. The IT Finance Manager
B. The Configuration Manager

C. The Service Level Manager
D. The Change Manager

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Answer: C

87. Which of the following is the last activity in the Problem Management process?

A. The referral of any associated RFCs to Change Management
B. Log the problem
C. Closing the Problem Record, having completed all Problem Management activities
D. Initiating a review of the problem and its impact

Answer: C

88. Which of the following justifications could be considered a valid reason for a business not having any continuity
plans for a specific IT service?

A. The IT department does not have the skills for developing continuity plans
B. The IT department has made a decision that the risk of disaster is small
C. The business does not have time to be involved in preparing continuity plans
D. A management decision has been made following a business impact assessment

Answer: D

89. Which of the following is NOT a Problem Management responsibility?

A. Ownership of an incident throughout its lifecycle
B. Investigation & Diagnosis
C. Raising Requests for Change
D. Maintenance of a known error database

Answer: A

90. Change Management ensures that scheduling decisions are based on:

1. Business urgency
2. Business impact
3. Resource requirements and availability

Which of the above are correct?

A. 1&2
B. All three
C. 1&3
D. 2&3

Answer: B

91. Writing-off an equal amount of an asset's value each year, usually a fixed percentage of cost, is known as ...

A. Transfer costs
B. Discounted cash flow
C. Net book value
D. Depreciating

Answer: D

92. When establishing a new SLA, or amending an existing one, which of the following should the Service Level
Manager take into account:

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1. That the new, or revised, SLA reflects the targets agreed with the customer
2. That the conditions in other SLAs can continue to be met
3. The potential impact on existing IT Service Continuity plans

Of the above, which are true?

A. 1&2
B. 2&3
C. 1, 2 & 3
D. 1&3

Answer: C

93. There is a network incident that affects 200 users. At the same time the Managing Director's printer has broken and
he wants to print a report now. Which of the following statements can be deduced from this information?

A. There is insufficient information to determine which incident has the higher priority
B. The Managing Director's printer must be fixed because of the higher business impact
C. Both incidents have an equally high priority
D. The network incident has a higher priority than the Managing Director's printer because it affects a lot more people

Answer: A

94. Which of the following is NOT a concern of Resource Capacity Management?

A. Differential charging for exceptional workloads
B. Understanding new applications in order to assess their potential impact on the infrastructure
C. Service resilience
D. Use of alternative technologies

Answer: A

95. Under an ITIL Change Management process, once a change has been built, who should undertake further testing?
A. The Change Builder
B. The Change Manager
C. The Change Advisory Board
D. An independent tester

Answer: D

96. Consider this list:

1. Analytical
2. Simulation
3. Demand
4. Resource
Which of those listed above are techniques of IT Modelling?

A. 3&4
B. 1&2
C. 2&3
D. 1&4

Answer: B

97. A known error occurs when:

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A. An error has occurred several times and has been passed to Problem Management
B. An error occurs that has not been diagnosed and for which a circumvention does not yet exist
C. A problem has been diagnosed and a resolution or circumvention exists
D. The resolution of a problem has been implemented

Answer: C

98. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Maintaining the agreed level of confidentiality is a concern of Availability Management
B. Availability Management should contribute to the design and development of new software products
C. Availability Management negotiates availability levels with customers to ensure that their requirements are met
D. Availability Management is concerned with the performance of hardware CIs

Answer: C

99. The term Variant' is best used to describe:

A. Unauthorised or illegal versions of software
B. An incident which has the same impact as an existing known error but a different root cause
C. A Cl based on another, but with minor amendments applied
D. The difference between forecast and actual resource usage

Answer: C

100. Consider the following information:

1. Type
2. Unique identifier
3. Version number
4. Copy number

Which of the above details should be recorded for every Cl recorded within the CMDB?
A. 1&2
B. 1, 3 & 4
C. All of them
D. 2&3

Answer: A

101. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the IT Service Continuity planning team?

A. Outlining possible measures to protect an IT service
B. Deciding the business criticality of an IT service
C. Testing the plans for recovery of an IT service
D. Identifying the risks to an IT service

Answer: B

102. Which of the following abbreviations most accurately represents 'downtime'?

A. MTTR
B. CFIA
C. MTBF
D. MTBSI

Answer: A

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103. Which is the correct combination of terms and Service Management processes?
1 CMDB
2 CFIA
3 DHS
4 OLA

A Availability Management
B Release Management
C Service Level Management
D Configuration Management

A. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A.4-B
B. 1-D, 2-A, 3-6,4-C
C. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C.4-D
D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B.4-A

Answer: B

104. Which of the following best describes 'reliability'?

A. The combination of confidentiality, integrity and maintainability
B. The ability of a service to remain functional even though some components have failed
C. The ability of a Cl to remain functional under given conditions
D. The ability of a Cl to be retained in, or restored to, an operational state

Answer: C

105. Which of the following activities is the responsibility of Change Management?

A. Reviewing changes to ensure they have worked
B. Creating a change to rectify a known error
C. Determining the release strategy for a major change
D. Implementing a software change at a remote site

Answer: A

106. Within an ITIL compliant Change Management process, who initially assesses the category of a proposed change?

A. Change Manager
B. Change Advisory Board
C. Change Requestor
D. Change Implementer

Answer: A

107. An advantage of a gradual recovery portable approach is that:

A. Restoration of telecommunications will be simple
B. It can be established in a convenient location
C. It is the cheapest option
D. Access to the site will be available immediately

Answer: B

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108. Which of the following activities is NOT part of the release process:

A. Moving software from the DSL to the development environment
B. Moving software from the DSL to the live environment
C. Moving software from the development to the test environment
D. Moving software from the live environment to the DSL

Answer: D

109. Charging business users a premium rate for using resources at peak times is known as:
A. Peak resource charging
B. Differential charging
C. Notional charging
D. Discounting

Answer: B

110. Which of the following statements best describes the Definitive Software Library?

A. A secure software library containing all versions of software CIs in their definitive, quality controlled, form
B. A logical library, held securely on computer, containing all versions of software CIs
C. A secure, physical library containing the latest version of every software Cl in a quality controlled manner
D. A logical library, held securely on computer, containing the latest version of every software Cl

Answer: A

111. Which is the correct combination of concepts and Service Management processes?

1 Risks
2 Reliability
3 Thresholds
4 Roll-outs

A Capacity Management
B Release Management
C Availability Management
D IT Service Continuity Planning

A. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
B. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
C. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

Answer: C

112. One reason for building a Cost Model is so that:

A. Charges will reflect what the market will bear
B. It can be related directly to its constituent units
C. The costs of IT can be aligned to business activities
D. It is easy for IT to calculate

Answer: C

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113. In terms of IT Service Continuity Management, a 'Reciprocal Arrangement' means:

A. Taking the best of all other approaches
B. Having a mirrored service in another location
C. Entering into an agreement with another organisation using similar technology
D. Not having more than one other site to move to

Answer: C

114. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Release Management process?

A. To assess the impact of software changes
B. To agree the content of software releases, through liaison with Change Management
C. To design and implement effective procedures for the distribution of changes to software across the organisation
D. To prevent software viruses entering the organisation

Answer: A

115. Risk assessment is NOT a major part of which of the following processes?

A. Service Level Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Change Management
D. Availability Management

Answer: A

116. Which of the following is most involved with the day-to-day provision of quality services?

A. Customer Services
B. Applications Development
C. Service Delivery
D. Service Support

Answer: D

117. The Service Level Manager requires confirmation that the internal Service Desk can answer Customer calls within
10 seconds. In which document might the Service Desk's agreement to this requirement be recorded?

A. Internal Specification Sheet
B. Operational Level Agreement
C. Service Level Agreement
D. An underpinning third party contract

Answer: B

118. Which of the following is NOT part of the role of the Service Desk?

A. Providing support to the user community
B. Resolving the root causes of incidents
C. Acting as day-to-day interface between IT services and users
D. Monitoring the progress of incidents

Answer: B

119. Which of the following would NOT normally be regarded as one of the major input cost elements of an IT service?

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A. Accommodation
B. Transfer
C. Software
D. Cost Model

Answer: D

120. Items of information stored in the CMDB relating to a specific Cl are known as:

A. Components
B. Features
C. Attributes
D. Characteristics

Answer: C

121. Which of the following lists best describes the key attributes needed by Service Desk Staff?

A. Good interpersonal skills; tenacious; technically astute; firm
B. Business aware; articulate; methodical; tolerant; good interpersonal skills
C. Logical; methodical; tenacious; forthright; analytical
D. Well presented; technical specialist; numerate; good interpersonal skills

ANSWER: B

122. Which of the ITIL processes is responsible for ensuring the organisation is aware of new and changing technology?

C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. Configuration Management

ANSWER: A

123. Which incidents should be logged by the Service Desk?

A. Only incidents not resolved at logging
B. Only incidents from bona fide customers
C. All incidents except simple enquiries
D. All incidents

ANSWER: D

124. What information does Configuration Management provide to the IT management of an organisation?

A. Variations from the agreed service levels
B. Time spent on investigation and diagnosis by each support group
C. Number of incidents and problems per category
D. Details and history of the IT infrastructure

ANSWER: D

125. The words Delta, Full and Package describe different types of release. Which one of the following statements is
true?

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A. A Package release contains hardware and software
B. Urgent changes are always Delta releases
C. A Delta release is only ever part of a Package release
D. A Full release releases the 'normal release unit' into the live environment

ANSWER: D

126. Availability Management is responsible for:

1. understanding the reliability of components to carry out a required function under given conditions over a certain
period of time
2. the ease with which maintenance of service components can be carried out
3. negotiating availability levels with customers
Which of these is correct?

A. Only 2 & 3
B. Only 1 & 2
C. 1, 2 & 3
D. Only 1 S3
ANSWER: B

127. Which is the correct combination of concepts and ITIL processes?

1. Cl level
2. Disaster
3. Risk Analysis
4. Confidentiality

B Configuration Management
C IT Service Continuity Planning
D Service Level Management

A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-c, 4-a B
B. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-a
C. 1-d, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D. 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b

Answer: A

128. A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) can contain different Configuration Items (CIs). Which of the
items below would NOT normally be regarded as a Cl?

A. A user name
B. A video monitor
C. A bought-in software package
D. A procedure

Answer: A

129. In relation to IT Service Continuity Planning, the severity of a disaster depends upon:

A. The time of day it occurs
B. How many people are available to assist in recovery

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C. The type of disaster, whether flood, fire, etc
D. The impact upon customers' businesses

Answer: D

130. What is the main difference between a CMDB {Configuration Management Database) and a typical asset register?

A. A CMDB is a computerised system - most asset registers are not
B. There is no difference
C. Only hardware and software is recorded in a CMDB
D. A CMDB is a database that shows the relationships between items

Answer: D

131. Application Sizing is a technique used by Capacity Management. Why is Application Sizing Important?

A. The availability of an IT service can be measured
B. The use of an IT application can be controlled
C. The maintenance of technical skills is important to application developers
D. The resources needed for an application and its performance can be predicted

Answer: D

132. When can the building, testing and implementation of a change begin?

A. If it is urgent, as soon as the Request for Change has been classified
B. As soon as there is a back-out plan for the change
C. As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change Advisory Board
D. As soon as the Request for Change has been formally authorised

Answer: D

133. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Change Management and Configuration
Management:

A. There are no dependencies between Configuration Management & Change Management
B. If Change Management is implemented without Configuration Management; the result will be less effective
C. Change Management cannot be implemented without Configuration Management
D. Change Management and Configuration Management must be implemented simultaneously

Answer: B

134. Without a good Accounting System you cannot:

1. Know the full cost of services provided
2. Judge the efficiency of Problem Management
3. Recover costs related to usage, should you so wish

Which of the above is true?

A. 1.2&3
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 1 & 2 only

Answer: A

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135. In which two Service Management processes would you be most likely to use a risk analysis and management
method?

A. Change & Cost Management
B. Availability Management & IT Service Continuity Management
C. Incident & Change Management
D. Service Level Management & IT Service Continuity Management

Answer: B

136. Salesmen are able to use their laptops from hotels to obtain information on travel routes and travelling times. On
several occasions they have found that when a certain modem had been installed, communication was unsatisfactory. A
temporary solution to this fault has been identified. Which processes other than Incident Management are involved in
achieving a structural solution ?

A. Change, Configuration, Release & Problem Management
B. Only Configuration, Problem & Release Management
C. Only Change & Release Management
D. Only Change, Release & Configuration Management
E. Only Problem & Release Management

Answer: A

137. Percentage availability is calculated as:

A. (Downtime x 100) / Agreed Service Time
B. (Agreed Service Time x 100) /Downtime
C. ((Agreed Service Time - Downtime) x 100) / Agreed Service Time
D. Agreed Service Time / ((Agreed Service Time - Downtime) x 100)

Answer: C

138. What is the difference between a Problem and a Known Error?

A. A Known Error is always the result of an Incident, a Problem is not
B. There is no real difference between a Problem and a Known Error
C. In the case of a Known Error there is a fault in the IT Infrastructure, with a Problem there is not
D. In the case of a Known Error the underlying cause of the Problem is known

Answer: D

139. Which of the following are direct advantages of entering into Service Level Agreements?

1. The expectations of both the IT customer and the provider should be aligned
2. Fewer incidents will occur
3. Unambiguous measurements of service provision will be provided
4. The number of changes that have to be backed out will decrease

A. 2&4
B. 1&2
C. 3&4
D. 1&3

Answer: D

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140. Students at a college can send in their course work from their home PC via the telephone Network. They can then
check the results on their PCs. A student needs an existing set of programs that can be configured for the particular
course that the student is following. Which process is responsible for the correct configuring and transmission of the
programs?
A. Release Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Network Management

Answer: A

1. ITIL processes should be implemented in such a way that the contribution to the organisation is not only clear but also
actually achieved
2. A characteristic of the ITIL approach is that a department is given responsibility for the Service Support and Service
Delivery processes, so that the resources allocated can be used as efficiently as possible


A. Both
B. Only 2
C. Neither
D. Only 1

Answer: D

142. Consider the following metrics:

1. Number of incidents closed on without onward referral
2. Number of incidents correctly categorised at logging
3. Number of hardware faults reported

Which of the above are valid performance indicators for the Service Desk?

A. All three
B. 1&2
C. 1&3
D. 2&3

Answer: B

143. Which of the following data is least likely to be used in the incident control process?

A. Incident category
B. Make/model of faulty item
C. Impact code
D. Cost of faulty item

Answer: D

144. One of the objectives of Problem Management is to minimise the impact of problems on IT Services. Which one of
the following activities is NOT a responsibility of Problem Management?

A. Working with third party suppliers
B. Working with Availability Management to ensure agreed levels of service availability
C. Known Error management

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D. Always taking charge of difficult incidents

Answer: D

145. A trend analysis of incident data indicates that over 30% of incidents regularly recur. Which of the following
activities will contribute most to cutting down the percentage of regularly recurring incidents?

A. A presentation to the board of directors to explain the importance of Problem Management
B. Implementation of the Problem Management process
C. The selection of an appropriate tool to log all incident data more accurately
D. The introduction of a single Service Desk number so customers know who to contact

Answer: B


1. Customers should always be invoiced for the IT services they use
2. The only reason services are charged for is to make customers aware of the costs involved in using those services

A. Both
B. Only 1
C. Neither
D. Only 2

Answer: C
147. How frequently should CAB/EC meetings be held?
A. Daily
B. Monthly
C. Weekly
D. As required

Answer: D

148. Consider the following statements about IT Service Continuity Planning:

1. The intermediate recovery external option offers a remote installation, fully equipped with all the required hardware,
software, communications and environmental control equipment
2. The intermediate recovery external option is often shared between multiple customers and in the event of a disaster
may not be available due to over-subscription

A. Both
B. Neither
C. Only 1
D. Only 2

Answer: A

149. In Availability Management terms, what do the letters CIA stand for?

A. Component Impact Analysis
B. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C. Configuration Item Availability
D. Central Intelligence Agency

Answer: B

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150. Which of the following are NOT the concern of IT Financial Management?

A. Telephone charges
B. Invoicing
C. Differential charging
D. Reviewing IT service quality

Answer: D

151. If a customer complains that service levels are below those agreed in the SLA, apparently due to a number of
related hardware incidents, who is responsible for ensuring the cause is investigated?

A. The Incident Manager
B. The Capacity Manager
C. The Problem Manager
D. The Availability Manager

Answer: C

152. Which of the following statements on IT Financial Management is correct?

A. An IT Financial Manager identifies the costs incurred by IT and might propose prices for the services supplied
B. In order to be able to set up Budgeting and Accounting, SLAs and OLAs need to have been agreed
C. It is only possible to be cost conscious if the customer is charged for services
D. IT Financial Management must agree charges with the customer before establishing a Cost Model

Answer: A

153. Managing service availability is now more important than ever because.....

A. The dependence of customers on their IT has grown
B. System Management tools can now provide much more real time performance management information
C. More IT systems are now outsourced
D. More service providers now have Service Level Agreements with their customers

Answer: A

154. Which of the following can be regarded as CIs?

1. Hardware
2. Documentation
3. Staff
4. Software
5. Network components

A. 1, 4 & 5
B. 1, 2, 4 & 5
C. 1&4
D. All of them

Answer: D

155. Your organisation has just entered into a Gradual Recovery IT Service Continuity agreement. Within the ITIL
definition, which of the following lists is INCORRECT for what you could find at the contingency site?

A. A building, electricity, telecommunications equipment, office space for technical staff
B. Stand-by generator, telecommunications equipment, system manuals, support staff, water

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C. A building, telecommunications equipment, a computer, support staff, documentation
D. A building, electricity, water, support staff, system manuals

Answer: C

156. A company has received messages concerning errors in the daily batch run which handles the ordering of raw
materials for the manufacturing process. This is probably due to an incorrect change in the software. The change
involved extending the "stock number" field by two positions. This change was also introduced in a monthly program
that has not yet been run. The situation needs to be corrected very quickly to avoid affecting manufacturing. What is the
best possible solution to be adopted by Problem Management when handling the error?

A. The errors are reported and, because the underlying cause is known, handled by Change Management as a Request for
Change with the status of 'urgent change'

B. The errors are reported as Problems at the Service Desk and, because manufacturing is involved, are directly introduced as
Changes

C. The errors are reported as incidents to the Service Desk and after some research they are identified as Known Errors,
which can then be changed

D. The errors are reported as Incidents and a Problem is identified. After the cause of the error has been established and a
temporary workaround found, it is labelled as a Known Error that can be corrected by raising a Request for Change

ans: D

157. Which if the following would you NOT expect to see in an IT Service Continuity Plan?

A. Contact lists
B. The version number
C. Reference to change control procedures
D. Full Service Level Agreements

Answer: D


1. Effective Change Management ensures that urgency and impact are keys to decisions made on the scheduling of
changes
2. Change Management controls all aspects of the change process

Which of these statements is true?
A. 1
B. Neither of them
C. 2
D. Both of them

Answer: D

159. Differential charging is a technique used in.................

A. FTA
B. Status Accounting
C. Demand Management

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D. CRAMM

Answer: C

160. One of Release Management's tasks is to set up a DHS. Which statement most closely describes the DHS?

A. A DHS is a number of physical locations where baselines are stored
B. Before setting up a DHS a tool should first be purchased for releasing the hardware into the live environment
C. A DHS is an area set aside for the secure storage of definitive hardware spares
D. A DHS is a database in which all definitive hardware Configuration Items are recorded

Answer: C

161. Service Desk staff need:

1. A good telephone manner

2. Some technical appreciation of the supported services

3. Awareness of the likely business impact of service incidents

A. 1&2
B. 1, 2 & 3
C. 2&3
D. 1&3

Answer: B

162. Which of the following can be OMITTED from an urgent software release in exceptional circumstances?

A. Undertaking full testing
B. Updating the CMDB
C. Incrementing the version number
D. Putting the amended version in the DSL

Answer: A

163. A good Incident Management process will:

A. Ensure that error corrections are treated as urgent changes
B. Diagnose the underlying cause of incidents quickly
C. Restore normal service operation as quickly as possible following an incident
D. All of the other answers

Answer: C

164. The primary responsibility of Incident Control is:

A. Keeping customers informed of future problems
B. Matching incidents with known errors
C. Restoring service following incidents
D. Raising multiple incidents to Problem Management

Answer: C

165. Which of the following statements best describes the level to which CIs would normally be broken down:

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A. The lowest possible level
B. The level at which they will be independently installed, changed or replaced
C. The level which best facilitates the identification of the root cause of all System incidents
D. The level at which it is possible to identify the suppliers of all subcomponents

Answer: B

166. Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of Problem Management?

A. Co-ordinating major problem reviews
B. Determining the root cause of incidents
C. Providing management information on incidents, problems and known errors
D. Implementing error resolutions

Answer: D

167. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Charging is required in order to cost IT services
B. Budgeting and accounting for IT services is essential for effective Service Management
C. It is better to budget and account for IT services before implementing charging
D. Charging may lead to the recovery of costs

Answer: A

168. Which of the following is necessary in order to start IT Services Continuity Planning?

A. Include continuity measures in Change Management procedures
B. Identify appropriate countermeasures
C. Conduct a business impact analysis
D. Establish a contract with an intermediate recovery provider

Answer: C

169. Status Accounting is an important part of which process?

A. IT Financial Management
C. Incident Management
D. Configuration Management

Answer: D

170. Which of the following is NOT a technique usually associated with Availability Management?

A. Auto error detection
B. Duplexing
C. Analysing data
D. Queuing theory

Answer: D

171. Which of the following statements is true?

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A. Service Level Agreements are between user departments and technical support providers and are written in business
language
B. Operational Level Agreements are between internal service providers and may be written in technical language
C. Operational Level Agreements are between Service Level Management and external providers and are written in
business language
D. Service Level Agreements are between user departments and Service Level Management and are written in technical
language

Answer: B

172. Which is the correct combination of concepts and Service Management processes?

1 Vulnerability
2 Maintainability
3 Resource
4 Impact

B Capacity Management
C Problem Management
D IT Service Continuity Planning

A. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B.4-C
B. 1-B.2-A, 3-C.4-D
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
D. 1-D.2-C, 3-A.4-B

Answer: A

173. Problem Management includes several core activities. Which one of the following most accurately summarises
these?

A. Problem control, error control, management reporting
B. Identification, control, status accounting, verification
C. Incident control, severity analysis, support allocation, reporting
D. Identification, severity analysis, support allocation, investigation

Answer: A

174. The Service Desk is unable to deal with a customer's enquiry. What action should they take?

A. Log the details and inform the customer of the incident number. Tell them someone will contact them within an agreed
time with an update. Retain ownership of the incident but refer to appropriate second line support group. Monitor progress and
keep customer informed

B. Tell them to ring back if it happens again
C. Log the details and inform the customer of the incident number. Suggest they ring back if they have not heard within 48
hrs
D. Suggest the customer contacts a third party

Answer: A

175. When writing an IT Service Continuity Plan it is essential to prepare for a return to normal working. Which of
these is it essential to include in the section of the plan that deals with the return to normal working?

A. Removal of data from standby equipment

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B. A list of contacts for the emergency suppliers
C. Bonus payments for staff involved in the disaster
D. Creation of an updated version of the IT Service Continuity Plan

Answer: A

176. Which of the following best describes why an SLA should contain definitions of terms?

A. To ensure that anywhere there is a measurement required within the SLA then it is realistically measurable
B. To ensure that both the customer and IT can unambiguously understand the terms in the SLA
C. To make sure that all clauses in the SLA make sense
D. To ensure that the customer's understanding of a particular term is the one meant in the SLA

Answer: B

177. Which of the following would NOT normally be discussed in a typical service review with a customer?

A. Authorisation for changes to the service
B. Service performance trends
C. Corrective actions to be taken
D. Customer satisfaction with the service

Answer: A

178. Which of the following will NOT be provided by a good Service Desk?

A. Reduced requirement for IT knowledge throughout the user community
B. Effective correction of the root cause of incidents
C. Early warning of potential business IT operational failures
D. Keeping customer's informed

Answer: B

179. Which of the following IT Service Continuity measures is likely to be the most appropriate for 24x7 business
critical system running on a mainframe?

A. Cold standby facility to be located in the car park
B. Reciprocal arrangement with a local company
C. Hot standby at a site some distance away
D. Dormant contract with a mainframe supplier

Answer: C

180. Impact assessment is NOT normally part of which of the following processes?

A. Problem Management
B. IT Service Continuity Planning
C. Incident Management

Answer: D

181. An overhead would normally be regarded as which of the following?

A. An indirect cost
B. A discounted charge
C. A direct cost
D. The market price

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Answer: A

182. Consider these statements:

1. Service Capacity Management should ensure that the type, pattern and typical resource requirements of all services is
understood

2. Undertaking Service Capacity Management is sufficient to ensure that the performance difficulties never arise

Which of these statements is/are correct?

A. Neither
B. Both
C. Only 2
D. Only 1

Answer: D

183. A properly implemented and tested IT Service Continuity Plan can help business continuity by:

A. Planning the implementation of new services at times that don't impact the business
B. Enabling a speedy recovery of service after a disaster
C. Reviewing trends in incidents and planning to avoid repetition
D. Having planned maintenance tasks that reduce the likelihood of incidents

Answer: B

184. From a well-informed User's perspective, which of the following is a likely sequence in the management of a service
failure?

A. Incident Management, Change Management, Release Management, Problem Management
B. Incident Management, Problem Management, Release Management, Change Management
C. Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, Release Management
D. Change Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Release Management

Answer: C

185. The Change Management function is NOT responsible for:

A. Scheduling a change to the network
B. Ensuring that a change to an application is prioritised
C. Ensuring that the impact of a change to hardware is fully assessed
D. Implementing the release of a software change

Answer: D

186. Which of the following need NOT be recorded as part of a Change Record?

A. The scheduled implementation date
B. Some details of the back-out plan
C. Any CAB recommendations
D. The names of the CAB members

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Answer: D

187. Consider the following:

1. Details of a Cl must be entered into the CMDB after it is added to the live environment

2. A Cl consists of a number of component CIs

Which of the above statements is true in all cases?

A. Both 1 & 2
B. Neither
C. Only 1
D. Only 2

Answer: B

188. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management process?

A. Distributing software
B. The physical aspects of software control
C. Helping to determine the software release policy
D. Ensuring that CMDB entries concerning software CIs are verified

Answer: D

189. Which is the correct sequence of events for describing an incident lifecycle after the incident has occurred?

A. Detection, Repair, Recovery, Restoration, Diagnosis
B. Detection, Recovery, Repair, Restoration, Diagnosis
C. Detection, Diagnosis, Recovery, Repair, Restoration
D. Detection, Diagnosis, Repair, Recovery, Restoration

Answer: D

190. Which of the following statements best describes a 'problem'?

A. An incident which has been diagnosed and for which a resolution exists
B. An incident that has passed its service level for fixing
C. An incident that has occurred more than once
D. The unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents

Answer: D

191. By introducing budgeting and accounting for IT services, which of the following will be a DIRECT benefit?

A. Better value for money
B. Clearer charging policies
C. Improved financial forecasting
D. Higher quality support

Answer: C

192. Which of the following statements is true?

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A. Physical copies of all CIs are stored in the DSL
B. The DSL contains source code only
C. Release Management is responsible for managing the organisation's rights and obligations regarding software
D. A change may only be developed from non-definitive version of software in the case of an urgent release

Answer: C

193. In which of the following circumstances is requesting an urgent change justified?

A. Only one small component requires changing and it is unlikely to affect any other components
8. The CAB meeting has been cancelled because most of the members are unavailable at the time previously agreed
C. The supplier has advised that previous versions will not be supported very much longer
D. The change is needed to correct an error on a business critical system

Answer: D

194. The prime responsibility of Availability Management is:

A. To understand the behaviour of CIs
B. To deliver a level of availability that enables customers to satisfy their business objectives
C. To negotiate and manage support contracts for hardware and software
D. To manage security and serviceability of all IT services

Answer: B

195. Which of the following is NOT a valid charging policy?

A. Cost recovery
B. Activity base costing
C. 'Cost plus' pricing
D. Market rate

Answer: B

196. Which of the following are likely members of the Change Advisory Board?

A. Problem Manager
B. Change Manager
C. All of them
D. Customer representatives

Answer: C

197. Which of these is NOT a purpose for which Service Capacity Management information can be used?

A. DSL control
B. Systems throughput calculation
C. Network performance analysis
D. Demand Management

Answer: A

198. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a hardware Cl?

A. Number of items
B. What it costs
C. A supplier's part number

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D. A manufacturer's serial number

Answer: A

199. Which of the following list will NOT have a direct impact upon IT capacity?

A. An increase in network bandwidth available
B. A reduction in transactions processed
C. A reduction in the number of files to be stored
D. An increase in the cost per transaction

Answer: D

200. Which of the following is most involved with the: Incident - Problem - Known Error - Change lifecycle?

A. Service Support
B. Service Management
C. Service Delivery
D. Customers Services

Answer: A

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ITIL Foundation V2 200 Sample Questions

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ITIL Foundation V2 200 Sample Questions