Practice Test in Science
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The document is a compilation of questions and topics related to accreditation and equivalency tests for secondary level science under the Alternative Learning System. It covers various subjects including communication technology, animal and plant biology, waste management, earthquakes, and health issues related to pesticide use. The content consists of multiple-choice questions designed to assess knowledge in these areas.
Practice Test in Science
- 1. ALTERNATIVELEARNING SYSTEM (ALS) ACCREDITATION AND EQUIVALENCY TEST FOR SECONDARY LEVEL SCIENCE (Part 1) Compiled by: ALS Implementers of Cluster IV Division of Eastern Samar
- 2. 1. This is the collection and transfer of information (voice, sound, text, video, etc.) over long distances. a. television c. telephone b. telecommunications d. telegraph 2. A/An __________ communication system makes two-way communication possible. a. interactive c. fax b. electromagnetic d. none of the above 3. The __________ sends and receives voice data. Wireless versions of this technological device were created to give the user freedom of movement. a. radio c. facsimile b. telephone d. Internet 4. The Internet __________. a. is a worldwide system of different computer networks b. has e-mail c. carries the WWW d. all of the above 5. __________ is the key technology underlying all modern communication technology a. Internet c. Interactivity b. Electronics d. Worldwide Web 6. A network _________ communication devices. a. separates c. speeds up b. connects d. slows down 7. Which of the following is an example of a new sending/receiving device? a. computer c. fax machine b. cellular phone d. all of the above 8. Communication technology can ____________ in a company. a. make work faster c. make workers less productive b. make work easier d. all of the above 9. Which of the following can be considered as a communication technology-aided crime? a. stealing ATM cards b. stealing other people’s documents from their computers c. selling pirated CDs d. all of the above 10. Which of the following statements about communication technology and the environment is true? a. Communication technology can help in the efforts to save the environment. b. Using communication technology uses up so much energy. c. Communication technology can hinder efforts to save the environment. d. All of the above. 11. Which of these animals can you find at home or in your community? a. lion c. leopard b. tiger d. cat 12. The following are all vertebrates except _________. a. man c. fish
- 3. b. dog d. housefly 13. Which is not an invertebrate? a. jellyfish c. shrimp b. whale d. octopus 14. Which of the following serves as a habitat for rats? a. rice field c. barn b. house d. all of the above 15. Fishes thrive in an aquatic habitat. Where can you not find fishes? a. River c. desert b. lake d. ocean 16. Which of the following is a herbivore? a. elephant c. snake b. man d. chicken 17. Which of the following is a carnivore? a. carabao c. rat b. goat d. hawk 18. Below are pictures of the stages of the life cycle of a mosquito. Which of the following choices correctly corresponds to the stage shown in the picture above it? a. adult c. pupa b. eggs d. larva 19. Animals are important because _________________ . a. they are sources of food b. they serve as sources of income c. they help people carry out their tasks d. all of the above 20. Which statement shows proper handling and care of animals? a. Feed your animals only once a week. b. Give your animals food and fresh clean water daily. c. Bring your pet to the veterinarian every five years. d. Keep your pet in a covered cage all the time. 21. Which of the following is not a reason for classifying plants? a. to give order to the many plant varieties b. to easily distinguish groups of plants based on certain characteristics c. to categorize plants into smaller groups so as to easily identify them d. to find the relationship between plants and animals 22. Which of the following plants are aquatic? a. watermelon, mango and sampaloc b. orchids and green ivy c. lotus, water lily and kangkong d. string beans and cabbage 23. Plants that have soft, greenish stems are called __________. a. terrestrial c. aquatic b. herbaceous d. aerial 24. They are plants that grow upright, but stay close to the ground and do not grow tall.
- 4. a. shrubs b. vines c. trees d. flowers 25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of flowering plants? a. They bear seeds b. They have true roots, stems and leaves. c. They are simple plants that live in water. d. The flower is their reproductive structure. 26. What do you call the asexual reproduction in plants? a. vegetation c. fertilization b. vegetation propagation d. pollination 27. What do sweet potatoes use to reproduce? a. tubers b. leaves c. rhizomes d. roots 28. Which part of the plant produces pollen? a. anther b. sepal c. pistil d. petal 29. What is the term for the union of a sperm cell and an egg cell? a. vegetative propagation c. vegetation b. pollination d. fertilization 30. What is the process through which the pollen is transferred from the anther to the stigma of a flower? a. pollination c. fertilization b. vegetative propagation d. asexual reproduction 31. Which of the following statements about our garbage problem is not true? a. The increase in the number of people’s activities has also led to the increase in the production of wastes. b. The use of open dump sites is a long-term solution to the garbage problem. c. Composting is an alternative to using open dump sites. d. Recycling is an alternative to using open dump sites. 32. Which of the following statements about organic materials is not true? a. Organic materials are biodegradable. b. Dried leaves and vegetable peels are examples of organic materials. c. Organic materials come from nonliving things. d. Organic materials can decompose completely. 33. Composting will be most successful when your compost bin ___________. a. is warm, has moisture and air passages b. is exposed to extreme sunlight or rain c. has many materials with nitrogen rather than with carbon d. has a mixture of organic and inorganic materials 34. If your compost pile smells bad it __________. a. is ready for use b. is either too wet or too tight c. is too small d. needs more organic materials 35. Turning the pile from time to time will __________. a. aid in its decomposition b. kill some of the bad microorganisms in it
- 5. c. lower the compost heap’s temperature d. limit the surface area which microorganisms can work on 36. Which of the following statements about composting is not true? a. Composting is a form of recycling. b. You can control the speed of decomposition. c. Composting is the process of decomposing inorganic materials. d. Only organic materials can be composted. 37. The end product of composting is _____. a. organic material b. humus c. inorganic material d. waste 38. Which of the following is not an organic material? a. Hay b. dry leaves c. roof sheets d. leftover fruits and vegetables 39. Which of the following is not a benefit of composting? a. It saves you money. b. It reduces the amount of wastes which might otherwise fill up landfills. c. It makes old bottles clean and ready for use again. d. It reduces soil erosion. 40. Which of the following are needed in composting? a. biological process, carbon and nitrogen, surface area and right temperature, moisture and aeration b. organic materials, inorganic materials, biological process, carbon and nitrogen c. dried leaves, animal manure, carbon, nitrogen and worms d. biological process, carbon and oxygen, surface area, temperature, moisture and aeration. 41. Which of the following materials should not be used in composting? a. kitchen wastes b. hay c. pernicious weeds d. wood 42. Which of the following statements is not true about the role of worms and bacteria in composting? a. They aid in decomposition. b. They “break down” the organic materials. c. They cause temperature to rise inside the compost bin. d. They block the air passages to the compost bin. 43. Compost materials are layered ____. a. to ensure that the compost heap will be filled faster b. to ensure that enough water and air circulate in it c. to ensure that the temperature at the bottom is colder than the temperature on top d. all of the above
- 6. 44. After you have prepared the compost bin, you should ____. a. check the number of worms in it b. mix the pile from time to time c. add another layer of compost every day d. add worms regularly to aid in the decomposition 45. The compost is ready when ____. a. it acquires a rotten smell b. it becomes hard as a rock c. it turns dark brown, crumbly, and has an earthy smell d. it does not decompose 46. Giant sea waves caused by an earthquake on the ocean floor are called __________. a. plates b. faults c. tides d. tsunamis 47. The shaking and trembling that result from the sudden movement of a part of the earth’s crust is known as ___________. a. landslide b. mudflow c. earthquake d. tectonic plate 48. The underground point of origin of an earthquake is located at x. What does x represent? a. focus b. epicenter c. magma d. wave 49. The spot on the surface of the earth directly above x is y. What do you call y? a. focus b. epicenter c. magma d. wave 50. The phenomenon that results when the shaking brought on by an earthquake decreases the stiffness and strength of soil is called _______. a. siltation b. liquefaction c. landslide d. fire 51. The zone that circles the Pacific Ocean is called the Ring of Fire because there are many _________ in this area. a. forest fires starting b. denuded mountains c. volcanoes erupting d. deep valleys 52. The ___________ Scale contains the values of the magnitude of an earthquake.
- 7. a. Celsius b. Richter c. Mercalli d. Rossi-Forel 53. The destructive effects of an earthquake are indicated by its intensity. a. True b. False 54. When an earthquake has a magnitude of 8 on the Richter Scale, how will you describe its effects on areas near the epicenter? a. damaging shocks b. destruction in populated areas c. serious damage to buildings d d. destroyed communities 55. What is the safety measure that people should observe before an earthquake occurs? a. Conduct fire drills. b. Conduct earthquake drills. c. Conduct military drills. d. Conduct calisthenics drills. 56. The three layers of the earth are the ________. a. core, asthenosphere and mantle b. crust, mantle and core c. crust, magma and core d. mantle, core and magma 57. The driving force for the movement of the earth’s plates is _______. a. conduction b. stress c. radiation d. convection 58. A __________ occurs when two plates are moving away from each other. a. divergent plate boundary b. subduction zone c. convergent plate boundary d. mid-ocean ridge 59. When two continental plates collide, a _________ is formed. a. mountain range b. volcano arc c. mid-ocean ridge d. trench 60. The strongest earthquakes occur in the _________. a. transform plate boundary b. subduction zone c. divergent plate boundary d. island arc 61. An earthquake can either be _________ or _________. a. tectonic; mountainous
- 8. b. tectonic; volcanic c. volcanic; oceanic d. volcanic; island 62. What causes a tectonic earthquake? a. sudden movement of rocks in the earth’s crust b. formation of hills and mountains c. continuous eruption d. volcanic eruption 63. Mt. Mayon has been active for several years now. What will people living near it feel when it erupts? a. landslide b. storm surge c. tectonic earthquake d. volcanic earthquake 64. What occurs when there are tectonic and volcanic activities in the earth’s crust? a. typhoon b. earthquake c. storm surge d. landslide 65. Which of the following describes the intensity of an earthquake? a. duration of the shaking b. distance from epicenter c. highest near epicenter d. lowest near epicenter 66. Which of the following is not an indication of an earthquake? a. peculiar movements and behavior of some animals such as snakes and jellyfish b. lowering of a portion of the earth’s crust c. rising of a portion of the earth’s crust d. drastic changes in the weather 67. Which of these is likely to happen when an earthquake with a magnitude of 7 occurs? a. heavy rainfall b. changes in temperature c. roaring of thunder d. serious damages on structures and other properties 68. Earthquakes occur frequently in our country because the Philippines _________. a. lies in Antarctica b. is near China Sea c. lies within the Ring of Fire d. is part of the Mediterranean Sea 69. The more destructive earthquakes along the Philippine Fault are found in __________. a. Luzon, Masbate and Mindanao b. Luzon, Samar and Mindanao c. Luzon, Leyte and Mindanao d. Luzon, Bicol and Mindanao
- 9. 70. Look at the diagram below. X and Y represent __________. a. asthenosphere and plate b. mid-ocean ridge and asthenosphere c. subduction zone and mid-ocean ridge d. plate and mid-ocean ridge 71. During an earthquake, you should _________. a. stay wherever you are b. run into the building nearest you c. go outdoors d. stay beside a window 72. Earthquakes can now be predicted with accuracy. a. True b. False 73. Intensity is affected by such factors as distance of the location from the epicenter and __________. a. energy released by the earthquake b. presence of bodies of water in the place c. nature of surface materials d. animal behavior 74. Earthquakes with a magnitude of ____ occur once every 5 to 10 years. a. 6.5 b. 4.5 c. 7.0 d. 8.0 75. _________ is a phenomenon that occurs as a result of an earthquake and which leads to a decrease in the strength and stiffness of the soil. a. Fire b. Tsunami c. Liquefaction d. Landslide 76. Which of the following best describes an inactive volcano? a. growth of plants in a small area b. plant growth on almost its whole surface c. smoke coming out of its crater d. gases coming out of its crater 77. Which of the following tells that Taal Volcano is active? a. numerous recorded eruptions b. rich fishing grounds c c. numerous craters d. plant growth in the area 78. Which of the following can be considered a harmful effect of volcanic eruptions? a. formation of lakes which can become rich fishing grounds b. contribute to the soil’s fertility c. produce materials used for building houses d. pollute the air and environment 79. When a volcano erupts, magma and hot gases come out of it. What do you call the magma that comes out of the ground? a. lahar b. lava c. rock d. mineral 80. Dengue is transmitted by: a. contaminated food and water
- 10. b. mosquitoes that bite during daylight c. inhaling virus or bacteria d. bacteria that invade the skin or a wound 81. The signs of acute respiratory infection are: a. sudden fever, bruising, gum and nose bleeding b. jaundiced eyes and skin c. dehydration and diarrhea d. fever, cough, and cold 82. The usual signs and symptoms of cholera are: a. sudden fever, bruising, gum and nosebleeds b. jaundiced eyes and skin c. dehydration and diarrhea d. fever, cough and cold 83. The signs and symptoms of hepatitis A are: a. sudden fever, bruising, gum and nosebleeds b. jaundiced eyes and skin c. dehydration and diarrhea d. fever, cough and cold 84. The signs and symptoms of typhoid fever are: a. numbness of the face b. cough, cold and fever c. high body temperature and diarrhea d. fever, gum and nosebleeds 85. When Ramon came back from the field to spray pesticides, what did he feel? a. He felt dizzy and didn’t feel like working any longer in the field. b. He felt good, having killed all the insects. c. He felt hungry so he went home early. 86. What did his Uncle say about the dangers of using pesticides? a. “Don’t worry. Nothing will happen.” b. “They can cause headaches, nausea, and they can even kill you.” c. “You can always do it over and over again.” 87. Sita uses an empty bottle of pesticides to keep spices in. What did her Uncle say about this? a. “Never use a pesticide container for other things.” b. “As long as you wash it well, it’s okay.” c. “You can also keep other food in it.” 88. There are three ways in which a pesticide can enter your body. Which is the most dangerous? a. swallowing or ingesting it b. absorbing it through the skin c. inhaling it 89. What are some of the precautions that should be taken when spraying a pesticide? a. Use protective gear. Don’t smoke while spraying. b. It’s okay to smoke while you spray. c. Don’t wear goggles so you can see better. 90. A disease caused by eating contaminated shellfish is _________.
- 11. a. typhoid fever b. dengue c. red tide poisoning d. fever 91. Direct contact with pesticides is _________. a. very dangerous b. not that dangerous c. harmless d. unavoidable 92. There are three ways in which pesticides can enter your body. Which is the most dangerous? a. Inhalation b. swallowing or ingestion c. absorption through the skin d. smelling 93. Motor vehicles are major sources of air pollution. Smog is extremely _________. a. Harmless b. harmful and a serious health hazard c. safe and sanitary d. heavy 94. An empty pesticide container _________. a. can be used again to keep spices in. b. can be given to children as long as you’ve washed it well. c. is dangerous and shouldn’t be used again. d. can be used as a flower vase. 95. When does fire occur? a. when soil is mixed with fuel b. when heat, fuel and oxygen combine c. when water comes in contact with air d. when fuel is mixed with water 96. Which type of fire involves cloth, rubber or paper? a. Class “A” – ordinary combustibles b. Class “B” – flammable liquids c. Class “C” – energized electrical equipment d. Class “D” – manually-operated equipment 97. Which of the following is NOT a flammable liquid? a. gasoline b. oil-based paint c. grease d. wood 98. What is the most common source of fire in the home? a. overheated electrical appliance b. cigarette lighters c. cooking equipment d. lightning 99. Which of the following can be worn when cooking? a. loose blouse b. long-sleeved polo
- 12. c. long, loose dress d. short-sleeved shirt 100. Which of the following situations is a possible cause of fire and fire-related injuries? a. flammable liquids stored in properly labeled, non-glass containers b. not smoking when in bed c. a candle left burning when everyone in the house is asleep d. turning off the stove after cooking 101. It is a kind of burn that affects only the outer layer of the skin, or the epidermis. a. first-degree burn b. second-degree burn c. third-degree burn d. fourth-degree burn 102. It is the breathing in of harmful gases, vapors and tiny substances in smoke. a. sunburn b. dog bite c. fall d. smoke inhalation 103. What should you remember when using a stove? a. Always turn off the stove after cooking. b. Allow your pressure cooker to boil dry. c. Let the stove get red hot. d. Leave the stove while cooking. 104. Which of the following is the incorrect way of storing flammable liquids? a. in properly labeled, tightly closed containers b. near a stove while cooking c. away from electric and glass appliances d. out of reach of children 105. are the harmful microorganisms capable of spoiling meat? a. bacteria, molds, yeast b. molds, insects, viruses c. bacteria, viruses, insects d. molds, viruses, insects 106. The method used in making achara is _________________. a. pickling b. freezing c. boiling d. drying 107. The use of salt and vinegar in preserving fresh fruits and vegetables helps _________________. a. improve the color b. slow down the growth of harmful microorganisms c. slow down the fermentation process d d. improve the taste 108. Ate Rose mentioned fermentation. What does this mean? a. The conversion of carbohydrates into acid b. The process of drying fruit and vegetables in order to preserve them c. A food preservation technique which involves the use of a net d. The process of canning fruits, vegetables and fish 109. What is the purpose of sealing preserved fruits or vegetables in a sterilized jar? a. to protect them against harmful microorganisms
- 13. b. to improve the taste c. to improve the color d. to keep the preserved product moist 110. Fermented and pickled food products can be expected to last for _________________. a. only a few days b. several months c. 24 hours d. one month 111. Which method is used in making daing? a. Drying b. Pickling c. Curing d. Refrigeration 112. Why is it necessary for fish to be placed in a net when drying? a. fish will dry faster b. fish will not stay moist c. fish will be cooked d. fish will become moist 113. Common causes of food spoilage are _____________. a. bacteria, molds, yeasts b. molds, insects, viruses c. bacteria, viruses, insects d. molds, viruses, insects 2. 114. The ideal freezing temperature is _____________. a. 4°C or lower b. 2°C or lower c. 0°C or lower d. all of the above 115. Spoiled meat is usually _____________. a. odorless b. reddish-pink in color c. covered with greenish-blue to brownish-black spots d. firm 116. The process of meat contamination starts during _____________. a. slaughtering b. slicing c. selling d. storing 117. Meat is an ideal place for microorganisms to grow because _____________. a. it is exposed to air b. it has lots of nutrients and moisture content c. it is clean d. it is not cooked well 118. Exposing food to the sun is a form of food preservation called _____________.
- 14. a. drying b. heating c. lighting d. smoking 119. Smoking helps preserve the food because of _____________. a. pectin b. natural smoke c. alum d. pyro ligneous acid 120. It is one of the earliest ingredients used in food preservation. Almost all foods can be preserved using _____________. a. vinegar b. spices c. salt d. sugar 121. _____________ absorbs water from food, thereby preventing harmful microorganisms from growing. a. Vinegar b. Spices c. Salt d. All of the above 122. _____________ it is a preservative ingredient that delays microbial growth due to its acid content. a. Vinegar b. Spices c. Salt d. Sugar 123. Which of the following ingredients is used to add flavor and aroma to the food as well as natural chemicals that delay microbial growth? a. vinegar b. spices c. salt d. sugar 124. Which of the following is not a form of biotechnology? a. the use of machines to make alcohol and yogurt b. the selective breeding of animals c. the use of natural pest control in agriculture d. the use of microorganisms to produce vaccines 125. The standard curing ingredients for meat are _____________. a. salt, sugar and saltpeter b. vetsin, salt and sugar c. saltpeter, salitre and potassium nitrate d. salt, pepper and vinegar 126. When pickling vegetables, the most important ingredient is _____________. a. the brine solution b. the vinegar solution c. alum d. all of the above 127. Fermentation happens when microorganisms transform foods containing _____________. The end product changes color, odor, and flavor, but is safe and delicious to eat. a. water b. protein c. carbohydrates d. salt 128. “Vegetable jelly” or pectin is the main ingredient in _____________. a. jams b. jellies c. candies d. fruit preserves 129. What common illness is characterized by inconsistent bowel movement with hard and dry stools? a. diarrhea c. insomnia b. constipation d. influenza
- 15. 130. What do you call the inability to fall asleep, often leading to not feeling rested in the morning? a. Insomnia c. fever b. diarrhea d. flu 131. Stomachaches, frequent and watery stools and vomiting, characterize this illness. What is this? a. constipation c. diarrhea b. fever d. flu 132. This is a natural reflex of the lungs to rid of excess mucus. What is this? a. cold c. insomnia b. coughing d. influenza 133. Which of these medicines should be taken when you have a dry cough? a. antitussive c. loperamide b. expectorant d. Lomotil 134. What illness is characterized by a high body temperature, headache, muscle pain, exhaustion and loss of appetite? a. fever c. nausea b. diarrhea d. influenza 135. The common cold is characterized by what symptoms? a. sneezing, watery eyes and hacking cough b. dry and scratchy throat and chills c. irregular bowel movement d. both a and b 136. Nausea is characterized by what symptoms? a. dizziness and vomiting b. dry and scratchy throat c. frequent and watery stools d. none of the above 137. Which is not an antidiarrheal medicine? a. loperamide c. expectorant b. lomotil d. bismuth subsalicylate 138. A common cold may become severe and lead to what kind of illness? a. Flu b. influenza c. fever d. all of the above 139. Fruits and vegetables are what type of food? a. regulating b. energy-giving c. body-building d. protein-rich 140. What are some examples of body-building foods? a. rice, corn, potatoes b. fish, chicken, eggs, milk c. green leafy vegetables, fruits d. bread, pasta, camote 141. Which factor impairs physical health?
- 16. a. proper nutrition b. inadequate sleep c. cleanliness d. exercise 142. People who don’t get enough sleep at night usually_______________. a. feel better the next day b. feel energetic c. get more enjoyment from their work and social activities d. none of the above 143. This program addresses health problems related to air, water and soil pollution. a. Safe Water and Sanitation b. Environmental Health Program c. Prevention and Control of Cardiovascular Diseases and Cancer d. Control of Tuberculosis and Other Communicable Diseases 144. What foods are rich in vitamins and minerals and help maintain the normal functioning of different body parts? a. body-building foods b. regulating foods c. energy-giving foods d. protein-rich foods 145. Brushing your teeth is essential especially if you want to___________. a. preserve your teeth b. avoid tooth decay c. avoid pain d. all of the above 146. A balanced diet consists of foods that are rich in___________. a. carbohydrates and fats b. vitamins and minerals c. carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins and minerals d. carbohydrates, proteins and minerals 147. While we sleep, our body cells are repaired or restored. Inadequate sleep___________. a. lowers our resistance to infections b. makes us nervous c. makes us irritable d. all of the above 148. If water has a suspicious color, odor, taste and sediments, then___________. a. it should be used for drinking b. it should be used for cleaning and washing purposes only c. it should be thrown away d. it should be boiled for drinking 149. One of the simple ways to reduce stress is____________. a. Smoking b. regular exercise c. drinking alcohol
- 17. d. eating a lot 150. Being overweight can also cause problems such as____________. a. sleep apnea (interrupted breathing during sleep) b. scurvy c. diabetes d. (a) and (c) 151. We can maintain a clean environment by_____________. a. disposing of our garbage outside the house b. using chemical pesticides to kill all insects c. cleaning our house at least once a week d. properly disposing of our garbage everyday 152. What are the factors that contribute to good health? a. proper nutrition, clean environment, recreation b. poor nutrition, contaminated water, smoking cigarettes c. floods and inadequate shelter d. personal hygiene, animals and insects, adequate clothing 153. What are the factors that bring about many diseases? a. education, pollution, sanitation b. inadequate sleep, poor nutrition, calamities c. bad habits such as smoking and drinking alcohol d. (b) and (c) 154. One of the responsibilities of a pregnant woman is to ____________. a. be careful in choosing her food b. take medicines even without a doctor’s consent or advise c. undertake rigorous daily exercise to prepare her body for the physical demands of pregnancy d. stay in bed during the last three months of pregnancy 155. Which of the following is a sign of pregnancy? a. Irritability c. morning sickness b. weight gain d. all of the above 156. Regular checkups are important during pregnancy because ____________. a. a pregnant woman needs to take many different kinds of medicines b. a pregnant woman needs opportunities to exercise c. it is the doctor’s advice d. the health of a pregnant mother and her unborn baby must be protected 157. It is best for the pregnant woman to see her doctor when she experiences ____________. a. fluid discharge from the vagina b. abdominal pains c. severe headaches d. all of the above 158. A pregnant woman urinates frequently due to ____________. a. the pressure on the bladder brought about by the unborn baby’s continuous growth b. the intake of vitamins
- 18. c. her gaining weight d. none of the above 159. A doctor can estimate a pregnant woman’s delivery date based on the ___________ day of her last menstrual period. a. third c. first b. last d. none of the above 160. Pregnant women should eat the right kinds of food every day in order to make herself and her baby healthy. Their diet should include ___________. a. chocolates and other sweets b. soft drinks c. milk d. alcoholic drinks 161. This is one of the special nutrients that make the unborn baby’s bones healthy. a. Folate b. Calcium c. Iron d. all of the above 162. The pregnant mother will definitely experience changes in her __________. a. bowel movement b. nipples c. moods d. all of the above 163. The pregnant woman especially needs three nutrients in order to deliver a healthy and normal baby. These are ______________________________. a. vitamin A, folate and calcium b. folate, calcium and iron c. vitamin C, iron and vitamin A d. folate, iron and vitamin C 164. It is important for pregnant women to take care of their kidneys. The most convenient and economical way to do this is to drink at least ______ glasses of liquid daily. a. 4 to 5 c. 6 to 8 b. 1 to 3 d. none of the above 165. Pregnant women should eat foods rich in calcium. This special nutrient makes the unborn baby’s __________strong and healthy. a. bones c. eyes b. hair d. none of the above 166. In taking care of the nipples, the pregnant woman must __________. a. wash them with alcohol b. wash them with mild soap and water c. wear tight brassieres d. put perfume on them 167. The best type of shoes for pregnant women are __________. a. high-heeled shoes b. colorful shoes
- 19. c. wedge-soled shoes d. low-heeled shoes 168. It is best for the pregnant woman to have __________ around while she is doing some exercises, so that this person can help her in case of accidents. a. someone b. a relative c. a friend d. any of the above 169. During pregnancy, fiber-rich foods like fruits and cereals will keep pregnant women from being __________. a. constipated c. dizzy b. overweight d. sleepy 170. If a pregnant woman continuously suffers from fever and headache, it would be best for her to _____________________. a. take paracetamol b. wait for the pain to pass c. drink lots of water d. see a doctor 171. To lessen hunger, the pregnant woman must __________. a. “eat for two” b. eat light snacks in between meals c. drink soft drinks d. sleep more 172. Working pregnant women should take advantage of their rest periods. This means that they should _________________. a. eat more during rest periods b. rest by lying down as often as possible c. drink more water d. all of the above during rest periods 173. An unborn baby grows its hair, eyebrows and lashes during its... a. 3rd month b. 5th month c. 6th month d. 7th month 174. At the third month, the unborn baby’s ______ is completely formed. a. legs b. face c. ears d. arms 175. One can detect the ________ of the unborn baby when it reaches the fifth month. a. heartbeat b. personality c. gender/sex d. feelings 176. The baby’s face appears like that of an old man’s when it reaches its… a. 4th month b. 8th month c. 6th month d. 5th month 177. The pregnant woman starts to feel the movements of her baby by the… a. 3rd month b. 4th month c. 5th month d. 6th month 178. Which of the following is considered work in a scientific sense? a. closing the door b. lifting an object c c. climbing up a flight of stairs d. all of the above
- 20. 179. Which of the following is a unit of work? a. newton-meter b. newton/meter c. joule/second d. kilowatt 180. Which of the following can a machine not do? a. multiply force b. multiply speed c. transform energy d. produce energy 181. Which of the following are the most basic types of machines? a. lever and screw b. lever and wheel and axle c. lever and inclined plane d. screw and pulley 182. Which of the following is not a wedge? a. chisel b. jackscrew c. nail d. knife 183. Which of the following is a lever? a. screw b. Ferris wheel c. ax d. tooth 184. It is ideal to plant during a full moon because _____________________. a. the good spirits are out in the rice fields to help the farmers b. the moon’s gravity helps the plants absorb moisture better c. the farmers can see better because of the light from the moon 185. The practice described in Question No. 1 is called ___________________. a. lunar agriculture b b. moon ritual c. working with good spirits 186. An eclipse happens when _____________________. a. an angry demon tries to eat the sun or moon b. the people do not make an offering c. the moon lines up exactly with the earth and the sun 187. Rain is _____________________. a. precipitation in liquid form b. b. the tears of a sad god c. the result when a person with a bad voice sings 188. Rain plays a major role in the _____________________. a. vapor cycle b. water cycle c. heat cycle 189. The moon is the earth’s one and only _____________________. a. friend b. satellite c. planet 190. A solar eclipse occurs when the moon is between the _________________. a. earth and sun b. earth and Jupiter
- 21. c. sun and Mercury 191. During a lunar eclipse, the moon’s usual color is ____________________. a. light blue b. dark brown c. deep-coppery orange 192. Some water from rivers, lakes, streams, wetlands and oceans evaporate because of _____________________. a. the air around us b. the sun’s heat c. the moon’s light 193. Water vapor in the air condenses into clouds. When it can no longer hold the moisture, it falls to the ground as _____________________. a. rain b. clouds c. air 194. Pesticides are compounds used to __________________. a. control pests b. keep plants healthy c. keep water clean d. cure human diseases 195. Pesticides have __________________. a. no harmful effects b. both harmful and useful effects c. only useful effects d. no effect 196. Pests are _________________. a. all harmful to plants b. all helpful to plants c. both helpful and harmful to plants d. neither helpful nor harmful to plants 197. When you see a single pest on the farm, you should _________________. a. spray homemade pesticides immediately b. monitor the pest to know when it becomes harmful to plants c. don’t mind it because it is only one d. spray chemical pesticides 198. When you see a snake, you should __________________. a. immediately kill it b. kill it only when it harms you, but keep it because it eats the rats in the farm c. kill it when its population is becoming big d. b and c 199. When spraying plants, it is safer and better to use _________________. a. homemade pesticides b. chemical pesticides c. either a or b d. none of the above 200. Chemical control should be used __________________.
- 22. a. only when the alternative methods to control pests are not applicable and unavailable b. whenever possible c. everytime there is a pest in the far d. when there is no time to prepare alternative controls 201. Which among the following is made up of decomposing matter like remains of plants, animal and other natural wastes that carry average amounts of nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium? a. organic fertilizer b. chemical pesticide c. homemade pesticide d. commercial fertilizer 202. Compost-making is the way to produce organic fertilizer. Which of the following cannot be included in the compost? a. Plastics b. animal wastes c. food wastes d. dried plants 203. Integrated Pest Management is a concept that ___________________. a. helps maintain balance in the environment b. gives effective ways to combat diseases and pests in plants c. studies the life cycle of pests and finds natural ways to fight them d. all of the abov 204. What is the first thing you should do when a plugged radio falls on a tub full of water? a. Get the radio out of the water. b. Drain the water from the tub. c. Unplug the radio from the electric outlet while your whole body is still wet. d. Turn off the electric power from the fuse box or circuit breaker. 205. What should you do if your television starts malfunctioning? a. Try to shake and tap the appliance to see if it will work again. b. Try to open the back panel of the television to see what is wrong with the wiring. c. Bring the television to the repair shop. d. Buy another television. 206. What should you do if you see a man trapped inside a car and there is a live electrical wire near the car? a. Save the man by trying to get the live wire away from the car. b. Tell the man to get out of his car and away from the live wire. c. Tell the man to stay in the car and call the electric company to ask for help. d. Save the man by helping him get out of the car. 207. What is the first thing you should do when you see a person get electrocuted and become paralyzed from a faulty appliance? a. Grab his arm and move him away from the faulty appliance. b. Push him away from the faulty appliance using a metal rod. c. Call the paramedics for help. d. Switch off the electric power in your house from the fuse box or circuit breaker.
- 23. e. Splash the victim with water to prevent electric burns. 208. What is the first thing you should do when a faulty appliance explodes and catches fire? a. Put out the fire using water. b. Put out the fire using a fire extinguisher and turn off the main power from the fuse box. c. Get all your valuable things and run away from the house. d. Call the fire department for help. e. Cover the burning appliance with a wet blanket to put out the fire. 209. The electric fan converts electrical energy into what useful form of energy? a. heat energy b. mechanical energy c. sound energy d. light energy e. magnetic energy 210. Which of these is a unit of measure for the power rating of an appliance? a. kilowatt-hour b. volt c. kilowatt d. watt-hour e. ampere