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see attachment:
1. A key objective of change control in configuration
management is to keep track of actions taken in response to
change requests.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q2. A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection
mechanism is that:
[removed]
a. It only focuses on things that can be measured
[removed]
b. It takes time frame into consideration
[removed]
c. It is too much based on subjective judgment
[removed]
d. It does not entail prioritizing
Q3. Good functional requirements
[removed]
a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed
[removed]
b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the
deliverable will do
[removed]
c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should
do
[removed]
d. Are created after development of the technical
specifications
Q4. A project can be terminated prematurely because the
original objectives may no longer be valid.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q5. A tool that graphically shows cost variance is:
[removed]
a. A chart of accounts
[removed]
b. A code of accounts
[removed]
c. A histogram (also called a resource loading chart)
[removed]
d. A cumulative cost curve (also called S-curve)
Q6. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be
considered is:
[removed]
a. Staff empowerment
[removed]
b. Technical requirements of the project
[removed]
c. Theory X management principles
[removed]
d. Theory Y management principles
Q7. When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path
tasks whose costs of crashing are highest.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q8. The poor man's hierarchy is a method for:
[removed]
a. Project estimation
[removed]
b. Project scheduling
[removed]
c. WBS construction
[removed]
d. Project selection
Q9. Ensuring a one-to-one correspondence between
specification items and general design items is a feature of:
[removed]
a. Scope statement definition
[removed]
b. WBS construction
[removed]
c. Rapid prototyping
[removed]
d. Configuration management
Q10. The astute project manager typically uses only one
management style in order not to confuse his/her teammates.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q11. Structured Walk-Through is a methodology used in:
[removed]
a. PERT
[removed]
b. GERT
[removed]
c. VERT
[removed]
d. Project Evaluation
Q12. If EV = $300, AC = $400, and the project budget is
$1,000, what is the estimated final cost of the project (this is
known as EAC, estimate at complete)?
[removed]
a. $750
[removed]
b. $1,000
[removed]
c. $1,250
[removed]
d. $1,333
Q13. If review of a project's status indicates that EV = $400,
AC = $400, and PV = $500, the project is:
[removed]
a. On budget, behind schedule
[removed]
b. On budget, ahead of schedule
[removed]
c. Over budget, behind schedule
[removed]
d. Over budget, ahead of schedule
Q14. In project management, the level of uncertainty plays a
major role in determining the adequacy of a project plan.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q15. The purpose of mid-project evaluation is:
[removed]
a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates
[removed]
b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the
project plan
[removed]
c. To determine whether the original objectives are still
relevant
[removed]
d. To re-baseline the project budget
Q16. Confidence in the accuracy of a cost estimate increases
when top-down and bottom-up estimates converge.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q17. Milestones, like tasks, consume resources.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q18. A project team structure that closely reflects the physical
structure of the deliverable is known as:
[removed]
a. Egoless
[removed]
b. Specialty
[removed]
c. Surgical
[removed]
d. Isomorphic
Q19. Which of the following is an example of a project?
[removed]
a. Maintaining e-mail addresses
[removed]
b. Capacity planning
[removed]
c. Submitting travel and expense reports
[removed]
d. Sending monthly reports to top management
Q20. The critical path:
[removed]
a. Provides the duration of a project
[removed]
b. Has the shortest duration on a project
[removed]
c. Is the most expensive path to implement
[removed]
d. Contains the project's most significant tasks
Q21. In risk management, insurance is an example of:
[removed]
a. Risk avoidance
[removed]
b. Risk deflection
[removed]
c. Risk acceptance
[removed]
d. Contingency planning
Q22. The bottom-most level of the WBS -- the level at which
project budget and schedule data are captured -- is called:
[removed]
a. Work package
[removed]
b. Code of accounts
[removed]
c. Budget baseline
[removed]
d. Change control level
Q23. What is the function of a change control board (CCB) in
configuration management?
[removed]
a. To assess the management impacts of change requests
[removed]
b. To initiate changes needed on the project
[removed]
c. To focus on the technical implication of change requests
[removed]
d. To approve change requests coming from senior
management
Q24. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can:
[removed]
a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project
[removed]
b. Show how many resources will be used on the project
[removed]
c. Show the interdependencies of tasks
[removed]
d. Show actual versus planned schedule status
Q25. Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical
specifications.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q26. A laissez-faire management style may lead to a ship
without rudder syndrome.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q27. The resource planning tool that enables us to identify who
we need to carry out what tasks is called:
[removed]
a. A resource Gantt chart
[removed]
b. A resource matrix (also called the responsibility chart)
[removed]
c. A resource ogive
[removed]
d. A resource loading chart (also called a resource histogram)
Q28. When we have objective data on the probability of an
event, we are involved with decision making under certainty.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q29. Which of the following is a scope planning tool?
[removed]
a. Benefit/cost analysis
[removed]
b. WBS
[removed]
c. Earned Value analysis
[removed]
d. Fast tracking
Q30. The Theory X approach to managing workers is a classic
example of a top-down view of how people should be managed.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q31. Scope creep means:
[removed]
a. Needs emergence and identification
[removed]
b. Uncontrolled changes to a project's requirements during
project execution
[removed]
c. Migration of project needs to requirements
[removed]
d. Imprecise scope statement
Q32. An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q33. Concurrent engineering involves overlapping tasks and
phases to accelerate a project's schedule.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q34. Bottom-up estimates:
[removed]
a. Are based on historical trends
[removed]
b. Can be derived from the WBS
[removed]
c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation
[removed]
d. a and c
Q35. Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it
will take to complete a task produces the same results.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q36. There is a definite link between the level of risk an
enterprise encounters and project time frame.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q37. A modern view in Human Resource Management is that
positive motivation results from an opportunity to achieve and
experience self-actualization.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q38. The type of management whose focus is on activities
whose variances lie outside the acceptable range is:
[removed]
a. Management by Objectives
[removed]
b. Management by Exception
[removed]
c. Management by Walking Around
[removed]
d. Management by Control Limits
Q39. Which of the following shows resource allocation over
time?
[removed]
a. Resource Gantt chart
[removed]
b. Resource matrix
[removed]
c. S-Curve
[removed]
d. Resource leveling
Q40. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective
reporting system?
[removed]
a. SMART
[removed]
b. KISS
[removed]
c. MBO
[removed]
d. LOWBALLING
Q41. If the latest time you can start a task is five hours into the
project, and the earliest time is three and a half hours into the
project, how much slack (also called float) does the task have?
[removed]
a. 0.5 hours
[removed]
b. 1.5 hours
[removed]
c. 2.5 hours
[removed]
d. 8.5 hours
Q42. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets
the present value of cash outflow equal to the present value of
cash inflow.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q43. Configuration management is a:
[removed]
a. Methodology for working closely with customers by
developing and updating requirements for faster response to
changing customer needs
[removed]
b. Methodology for ensuring that requirements evolve with
evolving customer requirements
[removed]
c. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and
for controlling very tightly any changes to them
[removed]
d. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and
for facilitating any changes to them with minimum customer
input
Q44. According to PMI, a WBS should focus on
[removed]
a. Tasks
[removed]
b. Deliverables
[removed]
c. Interrelationships among activities
[removed]
d. Cost of the project
Q45. Under what conditions may a project manager accept a
change request?
[removed]
a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines,
or resources
[removed]
b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although
it has effects on deadlines and resources
[removed]
c. If the request is coming from a valued customer
[removed]
d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer
Q46. Which of the following methods involves performing tasks
in parallel?
[removed]
a. Crashing
[removed]
b. Fast tracking
[removed]
c. Leveling
[removed]
d. Hammocking
Q47. Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates):
[removed]
a. Are based on historical trends
[removed]
b. Can be derived from the WBS
[removed]
c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages
[removed]
d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs
Q48. Under rapid prototyping (also called application
prototyping), the customer actually sees and works with the
deliverable as it evolves.
[removed]
a. true
[removed]
b. false
Q49. Definitive estimates are generally derived from:
[removed]
a. Bottom-up estimates
[removed]
b. Top-down estimates
[removed]
c. Expert judgment cost estimates
[removed]
d. Order of magnitude estimates
Q50. An effective project manager must:
[removed]
a. Tell his team members what to do
[removed]
b. Be the most capable person on the team technically
[removed]
c. Be focused on achieving results
[removed]
d. Not trust his team members to achieve results without his
personal attention to detail

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see attachment1. A key objective of change control in configura.docx

  • 1. see attachment: 1. A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q2. A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that: [removed] a. It only focuses on things that can be measured [removed] b. It takes time frame into consideration [removed] c. It is too much based on subjective judgment [removed] d. It does not entail prioritizing Q3. Good functional requirements [removed] a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed [removed] b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the
  • 2. deliverable will do [removed] c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do [removed] d. Are created after development of the technical specifications Q4. A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no longer be valid. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q5. A tool that graphically shows cost variance is: [removed] a. A chart of accounts [removed] b. A code of accounts [removed] c. A histogram (also called a resource loading chart) [removed] d. A cumulative cost curve (also called S-curve)
  • 3. Q6. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is: [removed] a. Staff empowerment [removed] b. Technical requirements of the project [removed] c. Theory X management principles [removed] d. Theory Y management principles Q7. When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path tasks whose costs of crashing are highest. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q8. The poor man's hierarchy is a method for: [removed] a. Project estimation [removed] b. Project scheduling [removed] c. WBS construction
  • 4. [removed] d. Project selection Q9. Ensuring a one-to-one correspondence between specification items and general design items is a feature of: [removed] a. Scope statement definition [removed] b. WBS construction [removed] c. Rapid prototyping [removed] d. Configuration management Q10. The astute project manager typically uses only one management style in order not to confuse his/her teammates. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q11. Structured Walk-Through is a methodology used in: [removed] a. PERT
  • 5. [removed] b. GERT [removed] c. VERT [removed] d. Project Evaluation Q12. If EV = $300, AC = $400, and the project budget is $1,000, what is the estimated final cost of the project (this is known as EAC, estimate at complete)? [removed] a. $750 [removed] b. $1,000 [removed] c. $1,250 [removed] d. $1,333 Q13. If review of a project's status indicates that EV = $400, AC = $400, and PV = $500, the project is: [removed] a. On budget, behind schedule [removed] b. On budget, ahead of schedule
  • 6. [removed] c. Over budget, behind schedule [removed] d. Over budget, ahead of schedule Q14. In project management, the level of uncertainty plays a major role in determining the adequacy of a project plan. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q15. The purpose of mid-project evaluation is: [removed] a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates [removed] b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan [removed] c. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant [removed] d. To re-baseline the project budget Q16. Confidence in the accuracy of a cost estimate increases when top-down and bottom-up estimates converge.
  • 7. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q17. Milestones, like tasks, consume resources. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q18. A project team structure that closely reflects the physical structure of the deliverable is known as: [removed] a. Egoless [removed] b. Specialty [removed] c. Surgical [removed] d. Isomorphic Q19. Which of the following is an example of a project? [removed]
  • 8. a. Maintaining e-mail addresses [removed] b. Capacity planning [removed] c. Submitting travel and expense reports [removed] d. Sending monthly reports to top management Q20. The critical path: [removed] a. Provides the duration of a project [removed] b. Has the shortest duration on a project [removed] c. Is the most expensive path to implement [removed] d. Contains the project's most significant tasks Q21. In risk management, insurance is an example of: [removed] a. Risk avoidance [removed] b. Risk deflection [removed]
  • 9. c. Risk acceptance [removed] d. Contingency planning Q22. The bottom-most level of the WBS -- the level at which project budget and schedule data are captured -- is called: [removed] a. Work package [removed] b. Code of accounts [removed] c. Budget baseline [removed] d. Change control level Q23. What is the function of a change control board (CCB) in configuration management? [removed] a. To assess the management impacts of change requests [removed] b. To initiate changes needed on the project [removed] c. To focus on the technical implication of change requests [removed] d. To approve change requests coming from senior
  • 10. management Q24. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can: [removed] a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project [removed] b. Show how many resources will be used on the project [removed] c. Show the interdependencies of tasks [removed] d. Show actual versus planned schedule status Q25. Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q26. A laissez-faire management style may lead to a ship without rudder syndrome. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false
  • 11. Q27. The resource planning tool that enables us to identify who we need to carry out what tasks is called: [removed] a. A resource Gantt chart [removed] b. A resource matrix (also called the responsibility chart) [removed] c. A resource ogive [removed] d. A resource loading chart (also called a resource histogram) Q28. When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with decision making under certainty. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q29. Which of the following is a scope planning tool? [removed] a. Benefit/cost analysis [removed] b. WBS
  • 12. [removed] c. Earned Value analysis [removed] d. Fast tracking Q30. The Theory X approach to managing workers is a classic example of a top-down view of how people should be managed. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q31. Scope creep means: [removed] a. Needs emergence and identification [removed] b. Uncontrolled changes to a project's requirements during project execution [removed] c. Migration of project needs to requirements [removed] d. Imprecise scope statement Q32. An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost. [removed]
  • 13. a. true [removed] b. false Q33. Concurrent engineering involves overlapping tasks and phases to accelerate a project's schedule. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q34. Bottom-up estimates: [removed] a. Are based on historical trends [removed] b. Can be derived from the WBS [removed] c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation [removed] d. a and c Q35. Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a task produces the same results. [removed] a. true
  • 14. [removed] b. false Q36. There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project time frame. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q37. A modern view in Human Resource Management is that positive motivation results from an opportunity to achieve and experience self-actualization. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q38. The type of management whose focus is on activities whose variances lie outside the acceptable range is: [removed] a. Management by Objectives [removed] b. Management by Exception [removed]
  • 15. c. Management by Walking Around [removed] d. Management by Control Limits Q39. Which of the following shows resource allocation over time? [removed] a. Resource Gantt chart [removed] b. Resource matrix [removed] c. S-Curve [removed] d. Resource leveling Q40. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system? [removed] a. SMART [removed] b. KISS [removed] c. MBO [removed] d. LOWBALLING
  • 16. Q41. If the latest time you can start a task is five hours into the project, and the earliest time is three and a half hours into the project, how much slack (also called float) does the task have? [removed] a. 0.5 hours [removed] b. 1.5 hours [removed] c. 2.5 hours [removed] d. 8.5 hours Q42. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets the present value of cash outflow equal to the present value of cash inflow. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q43. Configuration management is a: [removed] a. Methodology for working closely with customers by developing and updating requirements for faster response to changing customer needs
  • 17. [removed] b. Methodology for ensuring that requirements evolve with evolving customer requirements [removed] c. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them [removed] d. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating any changes to them with minimum customer input Q44. According to PMI, a WBS should focus on [removed] a. Tasks [removed] b. Deliverables [removed] c. Interrelationships among activities [removed] d. Cost of the project Q45. Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request? [removed] a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources
  • 18. [removed] b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and resources [removed] c. If the request is coming from a valued customer [removed] d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer Q46. Which of the following methods involves performing tasks in parallel? [removed] a. Crashing [removed] b. Fast tracking [removed] c. Leveling [removed] d. Hammocking Q47. Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates): [removed] a. Are based on historical trends [removed] b. Can be derived from the WBS
  • 19. [removed] c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages [removed] d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs Q48. Under rapid prototyping (also called application prototyping), the customer actually sees and works with the deliverable as it evolves. [removed] a. true [removed] b. false Q49. Definitive estimates are generally derived from: [removed] a. Bottom-up estimates [removed] b. Top-down estimates [removed] c. Expert judgment cost estimates [removed] d. Order of magnitude estimates Q50. An effective project manager must: [removed]
  • 20. a. Tell his team members what to do [removed] b. Be the most capable person on the team technically [removed] c. Be focused on achieving results [removed] d. Not trust his team members to achieve results without his personal attention to detail