Soil Science Practice Related to Soil Science Practice
- 1. i STATE UNIVERSITIES AND COLLEGES – ASSOCIATION OF COLLEGES OF AGRICULTURE IN THE PHILIPPINES (SUC-ACAP) PRACTICE TEST FOR THE LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR AGRICULTURISTS Soil Science Introduction Soil Physics Soil Chemistry Soil Microbiology Soil Fertility, Conservation, and Management Soil Survey, Classification, and Land Use 2021
- 2. ii ISBN # All rights reserved. No part of this module may be used or reproduced in any manner without written permission from the State Universities and Colleges-Association of Colleges of Agriculture in the Philippines (SUC-ACAP).
- 3. iii TABLE OF CONTENTS Preface iv Foreword vi List of Writers and Contributors vii Practice Test 1 Introduction (Soil Genesis, Weathering, and Soil Formation) 1 Soil Physics 5 Soil Chemistry 13 Soil Microbiology 21 Soil Fertility, Conservation, and Management 23 Soil Survey, Classification, and Land Use 28 Answer Key 33
- 4. iv PREFACE Republic Act 8435 or the Agriculture and Fisheries Modernization Act of 1997, simply known as AFMA, was enacted on December 22, 1997. It is a policy instrument defining measures to modernize Philippine agriculture for the country to compete in the global market. A basic human resource development framework in modernizing agriculture under the Act is to enhance the professional competency of agriculturists by upgrading the standards of the agriculture and fisheries education that will ensure to similarly upgrade the quality and sustainability of, and promote global competitiveness, at all levels. One strategy for professionalizing the agriculture sector is the Licensure Examination for Agriculturists (LEA). First implemented in 2003, LEA serves as a standardized evaluation tool to identify graduates of Agriculture and Agriculture- related degree programs who are academically and technically fit to be admitted in the agricultural profession. The three-day examination consists of multiple-choice type questions in the following component subjects: Crop Science, Soil Science, Crop Protection, Animal Science, Agricultural Economics and Marketing, and Agricultural Extension and Communication. The COVID-19 pandemic has been a major concern of all higher education institutions. When review sessions for licensure board exams are already supposed to be grinding, SUCs are confronted by the reality that face-to-face review is undeniably not possible. Under the circumstance, universities face new pressures to provide an engaging, motivating, and effective teaching and learning experiences for both reviewees and reviewers. Following this, the SUC-ACAP, with its goal of advancing the agriculture professional competency among their member-institutions, and the College of Agriculture and Food Science, UP Los Baños embarked on a joint initiative to enhance the capability of the SUC faculty particularly those engaged in the conduct of review classes in preparation for the Licensure Exam for Agriculture (LEA). To achieve this, the joint initiative conducted three online lectures, namely, 1) Innovative Teaching Methods and Tools Designed for Online Review Classes by no less than the Chancellor of the UP Open University, Dr. Melinda dP. Bandelaria. This online course aimed at introducing the faculty participants to the particularities of conducting review classes online with the use of innovative methods and tools; 2) Test Construction: the Multiple-Choice Type Test from a seasoned UP faculty, Dr. Blanda R. Sumayao, which gave the faculty-participants the opportunity to review the principles and rules for constructing multiple-choice type tests; and 3) Design and
- 5. v Development of Review Materials for LEA, again with Dr. Bandelaria with the objective of providing the faculty-participants the necessary knowledge and skills in designing and developing review materials and planning for the delivery of online review sessions. The Project initiative also gave the faculty-participants the opportunity to review their course syllabus viz-a-viz CMO #14 S. 2008 or the CHED-prescribed outline which enabled them to design and develop this harmonized syllabus for each of the six core subject matter area. The review materials are thus a product of many minds and talents, that is, of faculty-participants from the different SUCs. I would like to acknowledge all the writers/contributors who willingly presented themselves to the initiative and for strictly following deadlines in submitting drafts; to all University Presidents and the Deans of the Colleges of Agriculture who have been highly committed to the objective of this Project initiative and for the support provided to the faculty-participants; to all Cluster and Sub-Cluster Coordinators for the constant reminders and follow-ups; and to the SUC-ACAP Secretariat for the untiring administrative support. And lastly, we are grateful to the College of Agriculture and Food Science, UP Los Baños for being true to its commitment of being a public service University, providing scholarly and technical assistance to its sister and brother SUCs. Specifically, we thank the Subject Area Coordinators/Specialists who unselfishly guided our faculty participants throughout their journey in the project, as well as the Technical Assistants and Administrative Staff who have lend full support to attaining the objectives of the joint initiative. As I have always reiterated in many occasions, let us be reminded that student preparation for the licensure is just one of the factors that would determine performance. It is still incumbent upon us SUCs or higher educational institutions to ensure that we will be able to provide the necessary prerequisite services and institutional support in order for students to ultimately pass successfully and help advance the students’ professional careers post licensure exam. The preparation for publication of these review materials was supported by the SUC-ACAP. EDGARDO E. TULIN, PhD President, SUC-ACAP /Sept 2021
- 6. vi FOREWORD Unlike in Lord of the Rings and Harry Potter films, there are no wizards, Balrogs, Voldemort, precious rings, or elderly wands, on the journey to becoming a professional agriculturist. But there are narrow bridges and mazes that you must travel and cross over. One of these challenges is the Professional Licensure Exam. In the current climate where globalization, changing natural conditions, production, and social composition; migratory movements, among others, have significantly impacted most agricultural landscapes in the developing world, more than ever, the Licensure Exam for Agriculture has become all the more relevant as it prepares graduates of Agriculture to embrace the tasks ahead of them with utmost professionalism by way of recognizing their expert knowledge and practice. The Licensure Examination for Agriculture was established to recognize the expert knowledge and practice of aspiring professional agriculturists. This Review Material produced by the faculty participants of the joint initiative of the UPLB College of Agriculture and Food Science (UPLB-CAFS)- State Universities and Colleges-Association of Colleges of Agriculture in the Philippines (SUC-ACAP) is a comprehensive resource that covers all the six core subject areas in the field of agriculture namely, Agricultural Economics, Agricultural Extension, Animal Science, Crop Protection, Crop Science, and Soil Science. I commend the faculty of the CAFS who unselfishly devoted their time in coaching and mentoring the faculty participants as well as in providing direction during the development of the review materials. The materials hope to serve as a valuable review tool to students of SUC-ACAP member institutions. I wish you the best in your journey and beginning your career as a professional agriculturist. ELPIDIO M. AGBISIT, JR., PhD Dean College of Agriculture and Food Science UP Los Baños /Sept 2021
- 7. vii List of Writers/Contributors Soil Fertility, Conservation, and Management Cluster Lovely Luar-Perez (University of Rizal System) – Cluster Leader Anane R. Sereñina (Mindoro State College of Agriculture and Technology) Salvo O. Salvacion (Southern Luzon State University) Venus O. Saz, Ph.D. (Cavite State University) Grace R. Enojada (Cebu Technological University) Soil Physics Cluster Nonilona Daquiado, Ph.D. (Central Mindanao University) – Cluster Leader Jeam Catague (Palawan State University) – Co-cluster Leader Joseph Paul Abad, Ph.D. (Tarlac Agricultural University) Mel Chrisel Sales, Ph.D. (University of Southern Mindanao) Rodelio Alejo (Bulacan Agricultural State College) Paul John Pangilinan (Central Luzon State University) Soil Chemistry Cluster Ryan T. Sarimong, Ph.D. (Capiz State University Burias Campus) – Cluster Leader Ronaldo G. Orpiano, Ph.D. (Occidental Mindoro State College) Rafael R. Rafael, Ph.D. (Pampanga State Agricultural University) Eva R. Orlina, Ph.D. (Aklan State University) Arsenio D. Bulfa, Jr. (Silliman University) Virginia Isabelle Mapa (Tarlac Agricultural University) Soil Microbiology Cluster Ma. Lourdes O. Marzo, Ph.D. (Western Philippines University) – Cluster Leader Angel Lovely Pama (Western Philippines University) Jocelyn A. Bernabe, Ph.D. (Mariano Marcos State University) Emilie Gonzales (Pampanga State University) Jonnie Huervana (West Visayas State University) Jerome Jorolan (Southern Philippines Agribusiness & Marine & Aquatic School of Technology) Jan Micah Manaman* (Pampanga State University) *contributor Soil Survey, Classification, and Land Use Janet D. Villamor, Ph.D. (Mariano Marcos State University) – Cluster Leader Christine Mae Atup (Bohol Island State University) Brian Gabriel J. Buenaobra (Sorsogon State University) Julian O. Cumad (Cebu Technological University) Gerry May Espejon (University of Eastern Philippines) Fernan T. Fiegalan (Central Luzon State University) Rhea Joy D. Flora (Guimaras State College) Kenneth Oraiz (Visayas State University) Maryvic P. Pedrosa (Central Philippines State University) Mable Kate B. Sawey (Ifugao State University) Carmenchita M. Tumaca (Aklan State University)
- 8. 1 SOIL SCIENCE PRACTICE TEST Choose the letter that corresponds to the correct answer INTRODUCTION (SOIL GENESIS, WEATHERING, AND SOIL FORMATION) 1. The physical and chemical alteration of rocks or minerals at or near the Earth’s surface a. Weathering b. Soil development c. Soil formation d. Pedogenic processes 2. The most important chemical weathering process a. Hydration b. Hydrolysis c. Oxidation d. Reduction 3. Rock metamorphism is caused by a. High temperature b. Earthquake c. Weathering d. Sedimentation 4. The type of igneous rock that formed below the Earth’s surface a. Intrusive b. Extrusive c. Felsic d. Mafic 5. The following are intrusive igneous rocks except a. Basalt b. Diorite c. Gabbro d. Granite
- 9. 2 6. The model explaining the influence of magmatic composition and melting temperature on mineral or rock formed a. Polynov’s Series b. Goldich’s Stability Series c. Jenny’s Factors of Soil Formation d. Bowen’s Reaction Series 7. A banded metamorphic rock derived primarily from acidic igneous rocks a. Gneiss b. Schist c. Slate d. Marble 8. The process that turns sediments into consolidated sedimentary rocks a. Metamorphism b. Lithification c. Deposition d. Subduction 9. The “Generalized Processes Model” in soil formation (addition, losses, translocation, and transformation) that discusses the mechanisms through which soils develop was proposed by a. Lomonosov b. H. Jenny c. V. V. Dokuchaev d. E. W. Hilgard 10. Parent material transported by flowing water give rise to these soils a. Alluvial b. Colluvial c. Lacustrine d. Residual 11. Transported parent material from sloping terrain aided by gravitational force a. Alluvium b. Colluvium c. Loess deposits d. Eolian deposits
- 10. 3 12. The two-dimensional figure or vertical face of the soil that is exposed which includes all the layers from the surface down to parent materials. a. Pedon b. Profile c. Solum d. Regolith 13. The degree of differences in soil properties influenced by temperature and moisture regimes from a continuous patter over a certain landscape a. Climosequence b. Toposequence c. Biosequence d. Lithosequence 14. The degree of differences in soil properties marked by the type of land use and anthropogenic activities is called a. Climosequence b. Toposequence c. Biosequence d. Lithosequence 15. Which of the following is not a secondary mineral? a. Gypsum b. Carbonates c. Feldspar d. Clay minerals 16. The following processes describe chemical weathering, except a. Removal and combination of oxygen ions to minerals in rocks b. Peeling off of rock surface by force of water c. Reaction with H+ ions d. Reaction with organic acids 17. Moh’s scale is the measure of minerals’ resistance to damage. The hardest and softest minerals are a. Jasper and Gypsum b. Diamond and Talc c. Topaz and Calcite d. Corundum and Apatite
- 11. 4 18. Pedology which originated from the Russian word “Pedologiya” has two divisions namely; a. Pedology and Edaphology b. Soil genesis and Morphology-Classification c. Mineralogy and Petrology d. Survey and Classification 19. Which of the following describes igneous rocks? a. Deposited by gravity b. Either plutonic or volcanic c. Formed by weathering and sedimentation d. Developed from pre-existing rock by heat, pressure or chemical activity 20. The primary mineral that is also known as “plagioclase feldspar” a. Apatite b. Biotite c. Anorthite d. Albite
- 12. 5 SOIL PHYSICS 1. What element of the Munsell color system indicates the strength of the spectral color? a. Saturation b. Exposure c. Chroma d. Hue e. Contrast 2. What element of the Munsell color system represents the degree of darkness to the lightness of a color? a. Chroma b. Hue c. Value d. Exposure e. Lightness 3. Which of the following colors is the darkest? a. 10R 5/6 b. 7.5YR 2.5/3 c. 5YR 5/8 d. 2.5YR 8/4 e. 5B 6/1 4. Color associated with gleying a. Yellowish brown b. Reddish brown c. Reddish gray d. Bluish gray e. Dark brownish gray 5. What is the pedogenic process that is responsible for the browning of soil? a. Ferrugation b. Rubification c. Melanization d. Leunization e. Braunification
- 13. 6 6. Which of the following pedogenic processes does not cause paling of soil? a. Accumulation of dissolved salts b. Accumulation of carbonates c. Increase of manganese oxide d. Waterlogging and gleying e. Removal of aluminum and iron oxide 7. Soil separate that has a diameter range of 0.02 mm to 0.002 mm a. Colloid b. Sand c. Silt d. Loam e. Clay 8. It states that the settling velocity for spherical particles in a viscous medium is equal to the square of the diameter of the particles multiplied by a proportionality constant (K). a. Law of gravity b. Stoke’s law c. Einstein’s theory d. Law of thermodynamics e. Newton’s law 9. How much sand is in a soil that contains 28% silt and 40% clay? a. 30% b. 22% c. 42% d. 35% e. 32% 10. It is an artificially formed cohesive chunk of soil. a. Clay b. Ped c. Clod d. Granular e. Block 11. Which of the following is structureless? a. Single-grained b. Layered
- 14. 7 c. Platy d. Crumb e. Blocky 12. Which of the following aggregates are formed in soils with high organic matter content? a. Block-like b. Wedge-like c. Spheroidal d. Prism-like e. Plate-like 13. Which among the following is a very porous spheroidal structure? a. Angular b. Crumb c. Platy d. Wedge e. Lenticular 14. It is a grape-like spheroidal structure. a. Granular b. Crumb c. Platy d. Subangular e. Columnar 15. Which structure is polyhedral in shape and has sharp edges? a. Subangular blocky b. Wedge c. Prismatic d. Platy e. Columnar 16. Which of the following is an elliptical interlocking aggregate? a. Wedge b. Lenticular c. Blocky d. Columnar e. Platy
- 15. 8 17. It is a vertically oriented aggregate with flat tops. a. Columnar b. Prismatic c. Angular blocky d. Granular e. Lenticular 18. Which of the following aggregates is horizontally oriented? a. Columnar b. Blocky c. Granular d. Platy e. Massive 19. It is a soil process in which clay particles are aggregated together by calcium into microscopic clumps? a. Aggregation b. Flocculation c. Dispersion d. Transformation e. Calcification 20. It is the specific gravity of soil. a. Bulk density b. Particle density c. Total porosity d. Gravity e. Magnetism 21. What is bulk density? a. It is the specific gravity of the soil b. It is the mass of a unit volume of dry soil c. It is the volume of water d. It is the density of soil porosity e. All of the above 22. Pores ranging from 0.03 to 0.08mm that retain water after drainage and transmits water by capillary action a. Micropores b. Mesopores
- 16. 9 c. Macropores d. Cryptopores e. Ultramicropores 23 Which of the following is a unit that is used in dry specific volume? a. Cubic meter per kilograms of soil b. Grams per cubic centimeter of soil c. Grams per liter d. Kilograms per hectare e. Percent 24 Which of the following are water draining pores? a. Micropores b. Nanopores c. Macropores d. Cryptopores e. Ultramicropores 25. What type of pores has a discontinuous spherical or elliptical shape? a. Matrix b. Vesicular c. Vughs d. Channels e. Tubular 26. Compute for the total porosity with the following given values: Va = 8g/cc, Vs = 38g/cc, and Vt = 50g/cc. a. 24% b. 16% c. 21% d. 11% e. 8% 27. If a soil has 2g/cc Vp and 4g/cc Vt, what is the void ratio? a. 1 b. 0.5 c. 2 d. 1.5 e. 0.05
- 17. 10 28. What is the force that must be overcome by plant roots to draw water from the soil? a. Gravity b. Soil pressure c. Magnetism d. Moisture tension e. Osmosis 29. This index expresses the water volume present in the soil relative to the pore volume. a. Degree of Saturation b. Gravimetric water content c. Volumetric water content d. Water potential e. Soil water depth 30. It is the percentage of water that occupies the pore spaces present in the water-draining soil. a. Depth of Water b. Volumetric water content c. Degree of saturation d. Gravimetric water content e. Soil water depth 31. The movement of water in the soil is always from: a. Higher to lower soil water suction b. Higher to lower soil water potential c. Higher to lower soil water tension d. Lower to higher soil water potential e. Lower to higher concentration 32. Which of the following is not included in soil water potential? a. Gravitational potential b. Pressure potential c. Volumetric potential d. Metric potential e. Osmotic potential 33. It is the maximum amount of moisture the soil can hold after drainage in each period. a. Maximum holding capacity b. Permanent wilting point c. Field capacity d. Hygroscopic coefficient
- 18. 11 e. Saturated level 34. Available water capacity is calculated as a. saturation or maximum water holding minus hygroscopic coefficient b. permanent wilting point minus hygroscopic point c. field capacity minus permanent wilting point d. saturation or maximum water holding minus permanent wilting point e. saturation or maximum water holding minus field capacity 35. Gravitational water capacity is equal to a. permanent wilting point minus hygroscopic point b. field capacity minus hygroscopic coefficient c. field capacity minus permanent wilting point d. maximum water holding capacity minus field capacity e. saturation or maximum water holding minus permanent wilting point 36. What is the upper limit of available soil water? a. Permanent wilting point b. Field capacity c. Hygroscopic coefficient d. Saturated moisture content e. Maximum holding capacity 37. What is the lower limit of available soil water? a. Saturated water content b. Hygroscopic coefficient c. Field capacity d. Permanent wilting point e. Maximum holding capacity 38. What is soil water suction if the soil is at its field capacity? a. 0 bar b. 3 bars c. 1/3 bar d. 1 bar e. 15 bars 39. It refers to the strength with which soil materials are held together or the resistance of soils to deformation and rupture.
- 19. 12 a. Soil consistency b. Soil biology c. Soil structure d. Soil texture e. Soil density 40. What is the soil’s consistency if it is non-coherent? a. Soft b. Loose c. Plastic d. Single Grained e. Firm
- 20. 13 SOIL CHEMISTRY 1. The seat of chemical activity in the soil. a. Clay b. Humus c. Soil colloids d. All of the above 2. The negative charges of this type of soil colloid are associated with partially dissociated enolic (-OH), carboxyl (-COOH), and phenolic groups. a. Layer aluminosilicates b. Amorphous aluminosilicates c. Al and Fe oxides d. Humus 3. Replacement of a cation of higher valence with another cation of lower valence but similar size in the clay crystal structure. a. Isomorphous substitution b. Cation exchange capacity c. Isomorphous replacement d. Cation exchange 4. Which of the following is true about the properties of soil colloids as compared to crystalloids? a. Colloids, as opposed to crystalloids, are unable to pass through a semi-permeable membrane. b. Even though the colloidal particles are extremely small, they are bigger than molecules of crystalloid dissolved in water. c. The membrane allows the passage of water and of the dissolved substance through its pores but retains the colloidal particles. d. All of the above 5. Soil colloids are minute and, therefore, have a large surface area per unit mass. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The external surface area of 1 g of colloidal clay is 10,000 times that of 1 g of coarse sand. b. The external surface area of 1 g of colloidal clay is 1,000 times that of 1 g of coarse sand. c. The external surface area of 1 g of colloidal clay is 100 times that of 1 g of coarse sand.
- 21. 14 d. The external surface area of 1 g of colloidal clay is 10 times that of 1 g of coarse sand. 6. The process by which soil colloids in suspension coalesce to form bulky porous masses is called: a. flocculation b. coagulation c. aggregation d. A and B 7. This layer is made up of a swarm of loosely held (adsorbed) cations attracted to the negatively charged surfaces. a. Outer ionic layer b. Inner ionic layer c. Diffuse double layer d. All of the above 8. Which of the following statements is true about dispersion and flocculation of soil colloid? a. As long as the colloidal particles remain negatively charged, they repel each other, and the suspension remains stable. b. If they lose their charge on any account, or if the magnitude of the charge is reduced, the particles coalesce, form flock or loose aggregates, and settle down. c. The reverse process of the breaking up of flocks into individual particles is known as deflocculation or dispersion. d. All of the above 9. Amorphous soil colloids commonly associated with materials of volcanic origin. a. Imogolite and allophane b. Gibbsite c. Goethite d. Hematite 10. This is an example of a 1:1 non-expanding type of silicate clay mineral. a. Illite b. Kaolinite c. Montmorillionite d. Vermiculite 11. The orderly arrangement of atoms in the clay crystalline structure. a. lattice structure
- 22. 15 b. layered structure c. octahedron d. tetrahedron 12. It belongs to the 2:1 expanding type of silicate clay mineral. a. Kaolinite b. Montmorillionite c. Vermiculite d. Halloysite 13. The source of positive charge of silicate clays. a. Isomorphous substitution b. Protonation c. Ion exchange d. Dissociation 14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cation exchange reactions? a. stoichiometric b. specific c. reversible d. instantaneous 15. Which of the following clay minerals has the highest CEC? a. Illite b. Kaolinite c. Montmorillonite d. Halloysite 16. A 50-gram soil saturated with 8 meq Ca2+ and 2 meq H+ has a cation exchange capacity equal to: a. 10 meq/100 g soil b. 16 meq/100 g soil c. 20 meq/100 g soil d. 25 meq/100 g soil 17. The following factors affect the cation exchange capacity of soils, except: a. kind of clay b. amount of clay c. bulk density d. amount of organic matter
- 23. 16 18. A chemical property of soils which describes the proportion of exchange sites occupied by basic cations. a. Percent base saturation b. Cation exchange capacity c. Exchangeable sodium percentage d. Sodium adsorption ratio 19. As percent base saturation increases, a. pH decreases b. pH increases c. pH does not change d. none of the above 20. What is the % BS of a soil that has a CEC of 38 meq/100 g soil and basic cations summing up to 29 meq/100 g soil? a. 13.10% b. 76.32% c. 76.00% d. 80.00% 21. Which of the following soils can be considered most fertile? a. A soil with %BS of 40% b. A soil with %BS of 60% c. A soil with %BS of 80% d. A soil with %BS of 85% 22. When base saturation is high, the chances that plant roots absorb essential basic cations over acidic cations a. increases. b. decreases. c. does not change. d. none of the above 23. One of the effects of high sodium in soils is dispersion of soil particles, which leads to a. poor structure b. poor drainage c. hard crusts when dry d. all of the above
- 24. 17 24. The ESP of a soil that has 5 meq Na+ /100 g soil and CEC of 40 meq/100 g soil is a. 10% b. 12.5% c. 12% d. 15% 25. A soil with high %BS and high ESP has: a. high pH b. low pH c. moderate pH d. no effect on pH 26. The measurable expression of soil reaction is called: a. acid saturation b. base saturation c. CEC d. soil pH 27. A soil with a pH of 8.0 has a H+ ion concentration of: a. 1x108 M b. 0.00000008 M c. 0.00000001 M d. 8x10-6 M 28. In addition to hydrogen, the cation that normally tends to increase in exchangeable form with increasing soil acidity is: a. aluminum b. calcium c. ammonium d. magnesium 29. These elements become more soluble or available at soil pH < 5.0. a. Fe, Al b. Ca, Mg c. N, P, K d. Fe, Ca, Al
- 25. 18 30. Soils that usually need to be limed are those with: a. pH less than 5.0 b. pH greater than 5.0 c. pH 7.0 d. pH above 7.0 31. To raise the pH of a soil from 4.5 to 6.5 requires 5 tons of Ca(OH)2/ha. If the available liming material in the market is CaCO3 with 75% purity, how much of this liming material is needed to attain the desired pH value? a. 7.94 tons CaCO3 / ha b. 8.44 tons CaCO3 / ha c. 9.00 tons CaCO3 / ha d. 9.64 tons CaCO3 / ha 32. Aside from neutralizing soil acidity, liming material like CaCO3 also a. improve soil texture b. improve soil structure c. increase CEC d. both B and C 33. It is the capacity of a liming material to neutralize acids expressed as the percentage of the molecular weight of calcium carbonate. a. Percent calcium carbonate b. Alkalinity index c. Relative neutralizing power d. Percent calcium saturation 34. The lime produced by hydrating calcium oxide is: a. Ca(OH)2 b. CaCO3 c. CaO d. CaMg(CO3)2 35. This soil condition is usually associated with a salinity problem. a. Fine texture b. Poor internal drainage c. Level topography d. Soil acidity
- 26. 19 36. Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of saline soils? a. A soil pH <8.5 b. An ECe >4.0 dS/m c. An ESP <15 d. All of the above 37. It is a measure of salinity or concentration of dissolved salts. a. Electrical conductivity b. Soil pH c. Total dissolved solids d. Residual calcium carbonate value 38. This is a property of solutions used to quantify the alkalinity hazards of irrigation water applied to soils. a. Electrical conductivity b. Soil pH c. Total dissolved solids d. Residual calcium carbonate value 39. It refers to the total concentration of inorganic solids and is usually expressed in mg L-1 or ppm. a. Electrical conductivity b. Soil pH c. Total dissolved solids d. Residual calcium carbonate value 40. This is otherwise known as white alkali soils. a. Sodic soils b. Saline-sodic soils c. Saline soils d. Alkaline soils 41. Due to extreme alkalinity, the surface of this soil is usually discolored by the dispersed humus, hence, sometimes called as black alkali soil. a. Sodic soils b. Saline-sodic soils c. Saline soils d. Alkaline soils 42. Sodic soils have high exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) and are:
- 27. 20 a. well aggregated b. highly fertile c. highly dispersed d. very acidic 43. The high ESP of soils may be reduced by adding: a. lime b. gypsum c. fertilizers d. saltwater 44. A 100-g soil sample contains the following exchangeable cation: Cation meq/100g Ca++ 18 Mg++ 11 K+ 3 Na+ 4 H+ 3 Al+++ 1 The exchangeable sodium percentage is: a. 10% b. 12% c. 15% d. 18% 45. The cation exchange capacity of the soil in no. 44 is a. 40 meq/100 g b. 36 meq/100 g c. 29 meq/100 g d. none of the above
- 28. 21 SOIL MICROBIOLOGY 1. The conversion of ammonium (NH4) to organic N is a. immobilization b. mineralization c. fixation d. nitrification 2. The mode of reproduction of bacteria is by means of a. Binary fission b. Binary fusion c. Bacteria reproduction d. All of the above 3. The most numerous and most diverse group of soil microorganisms are a. Fungi b. Bacteria c. Algae d. Actinomycete 4. Association between plant root and fungi is known as a. Lichen b. Symbiosis c. Competition d. Mycorrhiza 5. Which of the following is not a biological process? a. Leaching b. Mineralization c. Nitrification d. Denitrification 6. The form of nitrogen that is not involved in the process of denitrification, a. NO3 - b. NO2 - c. N2 d. None of the Above 7. Plant materials with wide C:N ratios are slowly decomposed while those with narrow C:N ratios are, a. Easily decomposed
- 29. 22 b. Slowly decomposed c. A & B d. All of the above 8. A stable product of OM decomposition whose color is black or dark brown, a. Soil b. Compost c. Humus d. All the above 9. Which of the following are properties of humus? a. High water holding capacity b. Insoluble in water c. Both A & B d. Neither A nor B 10. Which of the following factors is the least influential on the decomposition of OM? a. Temperature b. Parent material c. Vegetation d. Topography
- 30. 23 SOIL FERTILITY, CONSERVATION, AND MANAGEMENT 1. Liebig’s Law of the Minimum in effect states that plant growth and yield a. are limited by excess of a particular nutrient b. are limited by the absence of a nutrient c. are limited by excess of one nutrient d. All of the above 2. The inherent capacity of the soil to provide nutrients to plants in the right amount and proportion. a. Nutrient supplying capacity b. Soil fertility c. Soil resilience d. Soil productivity 3. Who is the father of soil chemistry? a. Benjamin Franklin b. Edmund Ruffin c. Justus Von Liebig d. Thomas Jefferson 4. Which of the following statements is true? a. A fertile soil is always productive. b. A productive soil means it is always fertile. c. A fertile soil is always suitable for all crops d. None of the above 5. The father of modern fertilizer industry is a. Benjamin Franklin b. Edmund Ruffin c. Justus Von Liebig d. Thomas Jefferson 6. The chemical formula of sulfate is a. S b. SF c. SO4 2- d. H₂S
- 31. 24 7. The available form of nitrogen is a. NO b. NH4 + c. N₂O d. (NH₄)₂SO₄ 8. Of all the essential elements, these are not absorbed in ionic forms. a. C, H and O b. N, P and K c. Ca, Mg and S d. All of the above 9. The major form of nitrogen in the soil is a. Available b. Elemental c. Inorganic d. Organic 10. One of the following is immobile in plants a. Nitrogen b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Sulfur 11. High levels of this element in the soil hinders the uptake of K. a. Nitrogen b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Sulfur 12. A method of soil fertility evaluation whereby nutrients are known before a crop is planted. a. Biological test b. Nutrient deficiency symptoms c. Plant analysis d. Soil Test
- 32. 25 13. Useful in identifying hidden hunger in plants. a. Microbiological testing b. Observation of nutrient deficiency symptoms c. Plant analysis d. Soil Testing 14. A qualitative rapid test for soil N, P and K. a. Diagnostic method b. Minus One Element Technique c. Soil Test Kit d. Soil Sampling 15. Measurement of the leaf greenness indicates the plant a. Chlorophyll content b. Nitrogen content c. Photosynthetic efficiency d. All of the above 16. Which of the following is a major constituent of dissolved salts in the soil? a. Na+ b. Ca2+ c. Mg2+ d. All of the above 17. High-pH soil which has relatively low soluble salts but high in exchangeable sodium. a. Acidic b. Saline c. Saline-sodic d. Sodic 18. Which of the following statements is (are) true? a. P fixation refers to the entrapment of P in the interlayers of 2:1 clay minerals. b. P fixation is a benefit to farmers because it serves as a storage mechanism to provide plant-available P. c. P fixation may be decreased by liming an acid soil that contains a large amount of iron and aluminum oxide clays. d. P fixation becomes a problem only when soil P content exceeds 2000 kg P/ha (15- cm depth).
- 33. 26 19. Which of the following conditions is not a major problem associated with sodic soils? a. extremely slow movement of air and water b. extremely high pH (between 8.5 and 10.5) c. toxicity of sodium and bicarbonate ions d. none of the above 20. Iron deficiency is commonly observed in these types of soils: a. acid soils b. neutral soils c. alkaline soils d. saline soils 21. The most active agent of soil erosion process in the Philippines and other areas in the humid tropics a. Glaciers b. Ice c. Water d. Wind 22. The ability of rainfall to cause soil erosion. a. Erodibility b. Erosivity c. Detachability d. None of the above 23. A type of soil erosion characterized by uniform removal of soil. a. Gully erosion b. Rill erosion c. Sheet erosion d. Surface erosion 24. The first step of soil erosion by water. a. Deposition b. Detachment c. Rainfall impact d. Transportation 25. Erosion which is prevalent on river bodies a. Bank erosion
- 34. 27 b. Gully erosion c. Rill erosion d. Sheet erosion 26. Soil loss through erosion can be calculated using a. Einstein’s relativity equation b. Mitcherlich’s equation c. Trigonometric equation d. Universal soil loss equation 27. In the USLE equation, the soil cover and management factor is represented by a. C b. K c. P d. R 28. Which among these is considered a mechanical method of soil conservation? a. high density planting b. mulching c. pond and check dam d. strip cropping 29. The best method of plowing in hilly areas to prevent soil erosion is to a. plow along contour lines b. plow up and down the hill c. plow using carabao up and down the hill d. plow using hand tractor up and down the hill 30. Which soil conservation technique is the least effective in dissipating raindrop impact? a. contour composting b. contour furrows c. contour hedgerow d. natural vegetation
- 35. 28 SOIL SURVEY, CLASSIFICATION AND LAND USE 1. Refers to the classification system developed by the USDA Soil Survey which classifies soil on basis of properties. a. WRB b. Soil Taxonomy c. Soil Survey d. Soil genesis 2. A subsoil with high clay accumulation is designated as: a. Bt b. Btc c. Bw d. Cr 3. Soils with no diagnostic horizons a. Entisols b. Inceptisols c. Aridisols d. Ultisols 4.Broadest group of soil taxonomy. a. Soil order b. Soil series c. Great group d. Suborder 5. Soil horizons found in mature soils a. AB b. ABCD c. ABC d. AR 6. The soil horizon also referred to as topsoil a. O b. A c. B d. C 7. This horizon is plowed and rich in humus a. Ah b. Bt
- 36. 29 c. Ap d. Bw 8. Organic soils that exhibit or possess a histic epipedon belong to the order: a. Mollisols b. Histosols c. Oxisols d. Ultisols 9. A soil order characterized as shrinking and swelling dark clay soils a. Gelisols b. Vertisols c. Inceptisol d. Entisols 10. Soils found in cold regions a. Spodosols b. Aridisols c. Ultisols d. Gelisols 11. Moderately leached soils having an argillic or natric horizon a. Aridisols b. Alfisols c. Histosols d. Ultisols 12. What does GIS stand for? a. Generic Information System b. Geological Information System c. Geographic Information System d. Geographic Information Sharing e. Geomorphologic Information System 13. A system for computer software, hardware and data, and personnel to help manipulate, analyze, and present information that is tied to a spatial location. a. GPS b. GIS c. ArcGIS d. Remote Sensing e. Manifol
- 37. 30 14. There are two ways to input and visualize data in GIS. Vector and Raster data. Examples of raster data are a. pixels and Grid b. aerial photo c. satellite image d. linear e. a, b and c 15. There are two ways to input and visualize data in GIS. Vector and Raster data. These are examples of vector data except one: a. points, lines, and polygon b. features (such as house, lake, etc.) c. attributes (size, type, length d. pixels and grid e. a, b, and c. 16. Some applications of GIS are as follows except one. a. soil fertility mapping b. soil erosion hotspot assessment c. land changes analysis and prediction d. minus one element technique e. land planning and zoning 17. Which of the following statements is not true about GIS analysis? a. In doing reclassification, everything within a range becomes same value b. Converting vector layer to raster, it is useful for making raster calculation with vector data c. For Surface analysis, consider the hillshade, slope, aspect, viewshed, cutfill and curvature d. GIS analysis on distance and location includes distance and proximity analysis, density mapping and zonal overlay e. GIS can analyze without an ARCGIS software. 18. Reconnaissance maps, considered to be in the 4th and 5th Order of soil surveying, has a usual scale of a. <1:10,000 b. 1:10,000 to 1:50,000 c. 1:50,000 to 1:100,000 d. >1:100,000 e. None of the choices above 19. This type of mapping unit is delineated within a single soil taxon. a. Association b. Complex
- 38. 31 c. Undifferentiated group d. Consolidation e. Consociation 20. In the planning and operation of soil survey, the appraisal of the physical and social environment is needed. These include the following factors, except a. Topography b. Remote sensing data c. Geology d. Field studies e. Climatic condition 21. The soil survey report must contain the following topics, except a. Abstract b. Review of related literatures c. Methodology d. Main report e. Summary 22. The first soil survey conducted in the Philippines was in Negros province during 1935. The survey was intended to evaluate the agricultural land for what crop? a. Sugarcane b. Rice c. Corn d. Cassava e. None of the choices above 23. Activities which cause beneficial changes in the quality of land a. land improvement b. land use c. land limitation d. land characteristic 24. It is a mapped area of land with specified characteristics. Their degree of homogeneity or of internal variation varies with the scale and intensity of the study. a. land use b. land mapping unit c. land characteristics d. land qualities 25. It is an attribute of land that can be measured or estimated. Examples are slope angle, rainfall, soil texture, available water capacity, biomass of the vegetation, etc. a. land characteristics b. land qualities
- 39. 32 c. land mapping unit d. land use 26. It refers to the set of land qualities that determine the production and management conditions of a kind of land use. a. land use b. land requirement c. land qualities d. land 27. It was defined by FAO (1976) as “the assessment of the land performances when used for specific purposes”. a. land use b. land evaluation c. land requirement d. land qualities 28. It is a scientific appraisal of the physical characteristics of the land. “It is an inherent capacity of land to perform the general land use function”. a. land capability classification b. land suitability evaluation c. land evaluation d. land use 29. Based on the FAO system of land suitability classification, a land is not suitable if a. land units without limitations or with 2 or 3 slight limitations b. land units with 2 or three slight limitations and no more than two moderate limitations c. land units with more than two moderate limitations that however does not exclude the use of the land d. land units with severe limitation that exclude the use of the land or more than one severe limitation that can be corrected 30. Based on the FAO system of land suitability classification, a land is highly suitable if a. land units without limitations or with 2 or 3 slight limitations b. land units with 2 or three slight limitations and no more than two moderate limitations c. land units with more than two moderate limitations that however does not exclude the use of the land d. land units with severe limitation that exclude the use of the land or more than one severe limitation that can be corrected
- 40. 33 ANSWER KEY Introduction (Soil Genesis, Weathering, and Soil Profile Development) 1. A 11. B 2. B 12. B 3. A 13. A 4. B 14. B 5. A 15. C 6. D 16. B 7. A 17. B 8. B 18. B 9. C 19. B 10. A 20. D Soil Physics 1. C 11. A 21. B 31. B 2. C 12. C 22. A 32. D 3. B 13. B 23. A 33. C 4. D 14. A 24. C 34. C 5. E 15. A 25. B 35. D 6. C 16. A 26. A 36. B 7. C 17. B 27. A 37. D 8. B 18. D 28. D 38. C 9. E 19. B 29. A 39. A 10. C 20. B 30. C 40. B
- 41. 34 Soil Chemistry 1. C 10. B 19. B 28. A 37. A 2. D 11. A 20. B 29. A 38. D 3. A 12. B 21. D 30. A 39. C 4. D 13. B 22. A 31. C 40. C 5. B 14. B 23. D 32. D 41. A 6. D 15. C 24. B 33. C 42. C 7. A 16. C 25. A 34. A 43. B 8. D 17. C 26. D 35. B 44. A 9. A 18. A 27. C 36. D 45. A Soil Microbiology 1. A 6. D 2. B 7. A 3. B 8. C 4. D 9. C 5. A 10. C
- 42. 35 Soil Fertility, Conservation, and Management 1. B 11. C 21. C 2. B 12. D 22. B 3. B 13. C 23. B 4. D 14. C 24. B 5. C 15. D 25. A 6. C 16. D 26. D 7. B 17. D 27. A 8. A 18. C 28. C 9. D 19. D 29. A 10. C 20. C 30. B Soil Survey, Classification, and Land Use 1. B 11. B 21. B 2. A 12. C 22. A 3. A 13. B 23. A 4. A 14. E 24. B 5. C 15. D 25. A 6. B 16. D 26. B 7. C 17. E 27. B 8. B 18. D 28. A 9. B 19. E 29. D 10. D 20. D 30. A