1) Which of the following is an example of a secondary groupA) .docx
- 1. 1) Which of the following is an example of a secondary group? A) the psychology class you are presently in B) the graduating seniors at a large university C) a family D) all are secondary groups 2) In-group perceptions can develop A) any time two or more people gather B) based on ethnicity C) based on clear set rules D) all of the above are reasons ingroups develop perceptions 3) What is the correct sequence of group formation, according to the text? A) forming, storming, norming, and performing B) storming, forming, norming, and performing C) forming, storming, performing, and norming D) norming, storming, performing, and forming 4) Which statement is true about the group communication networks? A) when tasks are complicated or decisions require complex input, decentralized net- works are best B) centralized communication networks allow for individuals to communicate more freely with one another C) centralized and decentralized networks result in about the same type of performance in groups D) where one or two individuals control the flow of information it is called decentralized communication network 5) With electronic communication A) each group member has a greater likelihood of participating B) status inequities are enhanced C) groups are more likely to be vulnerable to problems such as
- 2. groupthink D) the highest status group members do most of the talking 6) The group polarization effect refers to A) groups doing less work than individuals no matter what the task B) a few group members opting to oust other group members C) feeling less responsible during group decision making D) groups shifting to a more extreme decision than individuals alone 7) Two well-documented leadership styles are ________ and ________. A) severe; moderate B) casual; intense C) people-oriented; task-oriented D) thoughtful; thoughtless 8) Groupthink begins when A) the leader is not very directive or authoritative B) the group is close-knit and attractive to members C) the group members are not concerned with consensus D) the group is too open to ideas from outsiders 9) Which of the following are signs of groupthink? A) a poorly designed solution B) isolation of the group from criticism C) mindguards D) all of the above 10) The text states that when choosing a career goal, it’s best to begin by A) asking your parents, spouses, or friends for their ideas B) taking stock of yourself C) scanning the classified ads in the newspaper D) looking over the Occupational Outlook Handbook 11) People who score high on the Realistic theme of the Strong Interest Inventory would most likely enjoy a job working as an A) engineer
- 3. B) accountant C) stockbroker D) biologist 12) Most job changes occur A) as an individual faces retirement B) during young adulthood C) during the retirement years D) during middle age 13) Surveys on job satisfaction show that A) women are much less satisfied with their jobs than men are B) professional workers are more satisfied than workers in lower-level jobs C) most people dislike their jobs intensely D) older workers are less satisfied than younger workers are 14) One of the best ways to increase the proportion of minority groups in the workplace is to A) lower the educational requirements for many jobs B) provide more high tech jobs in the workplace C) raise the educational level of minority students D) encourage minority students to take jobs in manufacturing 15) The majority of people report their favorite activity in the evening is A) creating works of art or crafts such as weaving and painting B) watching television C) talking to family members or friends D) participating in their favorite sports activity 16) One of the stereotypes in our society is that A) men are the natural controllers in sexual matters B) women desire sexual variety more than men do C) initiating sexual activity is a feminine role D) masculinity and femininity are polar opposites 17) The characteristic that combines desirable masculine and feminine characteristics in one person is known as
- 4. A) decidophobia B) eccentricism C) adrogyny D) femasculinity 18) The phase of the sexual response cycle in which the usual signs of sexual arousal become more pronounced as the partners approach climax is called A) plateau B) excitement C) orgasm D) resolution 19) Which is experienced by men but not women? A) plateau B) orgasm C) refractory period D) all stages in the sexual response cycle are experienced by both sexes 20) Hypoactive or inhibited sexual desire is commonly caused by A) anger, boredom, or anxiety B) genetic deficiencies C) hormonal deficiencies D) psychopathology 21) ________ is the emotional aspect (e.g. sharing, support) of love in Sternberg’s trian gular theory of love. A) Commitment B) Intimacy C) Passion D) there is no emotional aspect of love in this theory 22) Research about attachment style shows that A) we do not attach to our romantic partner as we did to our parents B) people with an avoidant style are very attracted to each other
- 5. C) attachment styles have little impact on later positive adult attachments; early attach- ment styles only affect negative attachments later in life D) parents influence the style of their children 23) Studies of divorce indicate that A) most divorces are initiated by the women B) men and women are equally involved in initiating the divorce C) men initiate most divorces D) meddling in-laws induce divorce 24) Statistically, second marriages are A) more likely to be cross-racial B) less likely to last as long as first marriages C) more likely to end in divorce than first marriages D) none of these is true 25) About ________ percent of divorced people remarry within one year after their divorce. A) 25 B) 40 C) 55 D) 10 1) Who suffers more from stress? A) women more than men B) well versus less educated individuals C) high rather than low income employees D) all of these 2) According to Hans Selye, stress which has a beneficial effect on us is called A) hypostress B) hyperstress C) distress D) eustress 3) Some students feel distressed only in test situations. They might be said to suffer from A) acute stress
- 6. B) eustress C) hypostress D) hyperstress 4) Which term does not describe the Type A personality? A) holds rigorous standards B) competitive and sometimes hostile C) forgiving and relaxed D) distressed and time urgent 5) Diane, a keyboard specialist, adapted to her stressful job with few complaints. Now, a year later, Diane discovers she has developed an ulcer from the demands of her boss to meet deadlines and to type accurately. Such stress- related illnesses are likely to occur in which stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A) resistance B) exhaustion C) alarm D) the intermediate stage 6) Attributing our unacceptable feelings to others is known as A) repression B) displacement C) projection D) denial 7) When Mohammed’s girlfriend unexpectedly broke off their relationship, he said it was just as well because he no longer loved her. Yet, Mohammed unconsciously loved her. Mohammed’s response is an example of A) sublimation B) repression C) denial D) reaction formation 8) Women are more likely to cope with stress through A) medication
- 7. B) sleeping C) social support D) working out 9) A problem-solving response to stress that involves mutual accommodation among all the participants is A) substitution B) withdrawal C) denial D) negotiation 10) In terms of mental disorders, most mental health professionals greatly attend to A) the legal model of insanity B) the person’s reputation among his or her peers C) the statistical rarity of the behavior D) the individual’s level of personal distress 11) During any one-year period, the proportion of adults in the general population who are suffering from some type of psychological disorder is about A) 1 in 3 adults B) 1 in 10 adults C) 1 in 20 adults D) 1 in 4 adults 12) Sets of symptoms more common in some societies are called A) culture-bound syndromes B) societal syndromes C) culture-clash syndromes D) secular syndromes 13) The most common psychological disorders in the United States are those labeled A) anxiety disorders B) schizophrenic disorders C) phobic disorders D) bipolar disorders 14) A critical feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder is
- 8. A) anxiety about being anxious all the time B) fear of losing control C) an over-inflated sense of responsibility D) fear of dirt 15) Bipolar disorder includes A) schizophrenia and one other form of psychosis B) two different personality disorders at the same time C) mania and depression in the same individual D) phobia with at least one personality disorder 16) The process of helping clients gain mastery of their unconscious conflicts through techniques such as the analysis of transference is called A) person-centered therapy B) behavior therapy C) rational-emotive therapy D) psychoanalysis 17) Which of the following is not one of the newer forms of insight therapy? A) behavioral therapy B) actualization therapy C) existential therapy D) logotherapy 18) The notion that the people who can help you best are those who have similar prob- lems is a common assumption in A) contextual therapy B) social skills training C) gestalt therapy D) mutual-help groups 19) Which of the following is commonly prescribed for patients suffering from a bipolar disorder? A) an antipsychotic drug B) lithium C) a tranquilizer
- 9. D) cocaine 20) Unlike psychologists, psychiatrists A) cannot conduct family therapy B) don’t do group therapy C) have a Ph.D. degree D) have a medical degree 21) People tend to overestimate the risk of death from causes such as A) accidents B) strokes C) diabetes D) heart attacks 22) What is the typical emotional sequence in the experience of death? A) anger, resentment, denial, depression, acceptance B) denial, resentment, bargaining, depression, acceptance C) depression, resentment, denial anger, bargaining, acceptance D) none of these sequences is correct 23) According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, once terminally ill patients realize they are dying, they enter a second stage in the dying process characterized by A) bargaining B) depression C) denial D) anger 24)The emotional intensity of grief is especially likely to be expressed in physical symp- toms among A) younger women B) adolescents C) older adults D) middle-aged adults 25) Funeral ceremonies are primarily for the benefit of A) churches and synagogues B) the larger community
- 10. C) the deceased D) the survivors