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UNIT 1
1) The amount of information available for our use doubles
every
A) two years
B) century
C) decade
D) 5-7 years
2) The highest levels of technophobia are exhibited by
A) women and minority group members
B) mid-level managers
C) children
D) middle-class men
3) What is the most popular (frequent) method used by
Americans to find information?
A) radio
B) Internet
C) TV
D) newspapers
4) One of the dramatic changes in the United States today is the
increase in
A) manufacturing and heavy industry
B) the homogeneity of the population
C) cultural diversity
D) blue-collar workers
5) People who habitually say, “Naturally, I act this way because
of the way I grew up”
fail to realize, as the text suggests, that
A) free choice and responsibility go hand in hand
B) they have fewer options than their parents
C) they cannot take calculated risks
D) their choices are limited
6) All of the following traits remain rather stable over a lifetime
EXCEPT
A) neuroticism
B) self-esteem
C) introversion
D) expressiveness
7) The experience of personal growth usually ends with the
stage of
A) acknowledging change
B) feeling anxiety and discomfort
C) reorganizing our experience
D) changing our attitudes
8) We are more apt to have positive, gratifying feelings about
an experience of personal
growth at the third and final stage designated as
A) sensing dissatisfaction
B) acknowledging change
C) experiencing dissonance
D) reorganizing our experience
9) When scientists examine existing data such as historical
documents, they are using
the ________ method.
A) growth
B) conceptual
C) archival
D) empirical
10) In which psychoanalytic stage did Freud say genuine love
develops?
A) oral
B) anal
C) latency
D) genital
11) Which concept is not part of Freud’s view of the psyche?
A) consciousness
B) unconscious
C) ultraconscious
D) preconscious
12) Carol likes Dr. Reed, the supervisor of her practice
teaching. In fact, Carol often finds herself adopting many of Dr.
Reed’s methods and mannerisms in the classroom. Bandura
refers to this type of learning as
A) classical conditioning
B) observational learning
C) due to the effects of unconscious Oedipal wishes
D) identification with the parent figure
13) Social learning theorists such as Bandura regard the
inconsistencies in human behavior as largely the product of
A) conditioned responses
B) personality traits
C) unconscious conflicts
D) situational factors
14) From which perspective are psychologists most likely to
argue that spanking is harmful to children?
A) the humanistic perspective
B) the psychoanalysis perspective
C) the learning perspective
D) all of these
15) Humanistic psychology has received national prominence as
A) deconstructivist
B) emphasizing individual sameness
C) Freud’s theory
D) the third force in psychology
16) Research shows that older people score lower in ________
than younger people.
A) conscientiousness
B) agreeableness
C) social vitality
D) all of the above
17) Research (Scarr) suggests that ________ child care is what
really matters.
A) the quantity of
B) the person who provides
C) the quality of
D) the proximity of parent work places to
18) Physical changes include all but which of the following?
A) graying hair
B) less physical energy
C) hair loss in men
D) weight loss around the waist
19) Women in midlife often
A) avoid the workforce
B) avoid schooling
C) worry about their biological clock
D) avoid adoption
20) What is true of the Social Security system?
A) the government can be depended on to help the elderly even
if they have never worked a day in their lives
B) individuals automatically receive it upon retirement
C) the age for eligibility is rising
D) all of these are true
21) The process of ascribing the cause of an event to something
A) is known as self-assessment
B) maintains a balanced view of self-concept
C) is called attribution
D) is labeled self-activation
22) Experiences that are consistent with both our sensory
reactions and self-concept
A) comprise the core of our self-concept
B) are denied to awareness
C) are usually distorted
D) are rarely accurately labeled
23) One of the most common ways our self-concept changes is
A) through our interactions with people
B) by avoiding successful people and therefore upward
comparison
C) through criticism from others; praise has little effect on most
people
D) by not getting too close to people
24) The text suggests that when being criticized, it is better to
ask the person to
A) relax and not be so sensitive
B) mind his/her own business
C) be more specific and provide more information
D) prove that the criticism is incorrect
25) During the latter stages of psychotherapy and personal
growth, individuals
A) reaffirm their commitments and ideals
B) are less aware of the complexity of their feelings
C) deny the negative aspects of themselves
D) become more self-directed
UNIT 3
1) Which of the following is an example of a secondary group?
A) the psychology class you are presently in
B) the graduating seniors at a large university
C) a family
D) all are secondary groups
2) In-group perceptions can develop
A) any time two or more people gather
B) based on ethnicity
C) based on clear set rules
D) all of the above are reasons ingroups develop perceptions
3) What is the correct sequence of group formation, according
to the text?
A) forming, storming, norming, and performing
B) storming, forming, norming, and performing
C) forming, storming, performing, and norming
D) norming, storming, performing, and forming
4) Which statement is true about the group communication
networks?
A) when tasks are complicated or decisions require complex
input, decentralized net-
works are best
B) centralized communication networks allow for individuals to
communicate more freely
with one another
C) centralized and decentralized networks result in about the
same type of performance
in groups
D) where one or two individuals control the flow of information
it is called decentralized
communication network
5) With electronic communication
A) each group member has a greater likelihood of participating
B) status inequities are enhanced
C) groups are more likely to be vulnerable to problems such as
groupthink
D) the highest status group members do most of the talking
6) The group polarization effect refers to
A) groups doing less work than individuals no matter what the
task
B) a few group members opting to oust other group members
C) feeling less responsible during group decision making
D) groups shifting to a more extreme decision than individuals
alone
7.) Two well-documented leadership styles are ________ and
________.
A) severe; moderate
B) casual; intense
C) people-oriented; task-oriented
D) thoughtful; thoughtless
8) Groupthink begins when
A) the leader is not very directive or authoritative
B) the group is close-knit and attractive to members
C) the group members are not concerned with consensus
D) the group is too open to ideas from outsiders
9) Which of the following are signs of groupthink?
A) a poorly designed solution
B) isolation of the group from criticism
C) mindguards
D) all of the above
10) The text states that when choosing a career goal, it’s best to
begin by
A) asking your parents, spouses, or friends for their ideas
B) taking stock of yourself
C) scanning the classified ads in the newspaper
D) looking over the Occupational Outlook Handbook
11) People who score high on the Realistic theme of the Strong
Interest Inventory would
most likely enjoy a job working as an
A) engineer
B) accountant
C) stockbroker
D) biologist
12) Most job changes occur
A) as an individual faces retirement
B) during young adulthood
C) during the retirement years
D) during middle age
13) Surveys on job satisfaction show that
A) women are much less satisfied with their jobs than men are
B) professional workers are more satisfied than workers in
lower-level jobs
C) most people dislike their jobs intensely
D) older workers are less satisfied than younger workers are
14) One of the best ways to increase the proportion of minority
groups in the workplace is
to
A) lower the educational requirements for many jobs
B) provide more high tech jobs in the workplace
C) raise the educational level of minority students
D) encourage minority students to take jobs in manufacturing
15) The majority of people report their favorite activity in the
evening is
A) creating works of art or crafts such as weaving and painting
B) watching television
C) talking to family members or friends
D) participating in their favorite sports activity
16) One of the stereotypes in our society is that
A) men are the natural controllers in sexual matters
B) women desire sexual variety more than men do
C) initiating sexual activity is a feminine role
D) masculinity and femininity are polar opposites
17) The characteristic that combines desirable masculine and
feminine characteristics in
one person is known as
A) decidophobia
B) eccentricism
C) adrogyny
D) femasculinity
18) The phase of the sexual response cycle in which the usual
signs of sexual arousal
become more pronounced as the partners approach climax is
called
A) plateau
B) excitement
C) orgasm
D) resolutionUnit 3 Examination 144 Psychology of Adjustment
19) Which is experienced by men but not women?
A) plateau
B) orgasm
C) refractory period
D) all stages in the sexual response cycle are experienced by
both sexes
20) Hypoactive or inhibited sexual desire is commonly caused
by
A) anger, boredom, or anxiety
B) genetic deficiencies
C) hormonal deficiencies
D) psychopathology
21) ________ is the emotional aspect (e.g. sharing, support) of
love in Sternberg’s trian
gular theory of love.
A) Commitment
B) Intimacy
C) Passion
D) there is no emotional aspect of love in this theory
22) Research about attachment style shows that
A) we do not attach to our romantic partner as we did to our
parents
B) people with an avoidant style are very attracted to each other
C) attachment styles have little impact on later positive adult
attachments; early attachment styles only affect negative
attachments later in life
D) parents influence the style of their children
23) Studies of divorce indicate that
A) most divorces are initiated by the women
B) men and women are equally involved in initiating the divorce
C) men initiate most divorces
D) meddling in-laws induce divorce
24) Statistically, second marriages are
A) more likely to be cross-racial
B) less likely to last as long as first marriages
C) more likely to end in divorce than first marriages
D) none of these is true
25) About ________ percent of divorced people remarry within
one year after their divorce.
A) 25
B) 40
C) 55
D) 10
UNIT 4
1) Who suffers more from stress?
A) women more than men
B) well versus less educated individuals
C) high rather than low income employees
D) all of these
2) According to Hans Selye, stress which has a beneficial effect
on us is called
A) hypostress
B) hyperstress
C) distress
D) eustress
3) Some students feel distressed only in test situations. They
might be said to suffer
from
A) acute stress
B) eustress
C) hypostress
D) hyperstress
4) Which term does not describe the Type A personality?
A) holds rigorous standards
B) competitive and sometimes hostile
C) forgiving and relaxed
D) distressed and time urgent
5) Diane, a keyboard specialist, adapted to her stressful job with
few complaints. Now,
a year later, Diane discovers she has developed an ulcer from
the demands of her
boss to meet deadlines and to type accurately. Such stress-
related illnesses are likely
to occur in which stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
A) resistance
B) exhaustion
C) alarm
D) the intermediate stage
6) Attributing our unacceptable feelings to others is known as
A) repression
B) displacement
C) projection
D) denial
7) When Mohammed’s girlfriend unexpectedly broke off their
relationship, he said it was
just as well because he no longer loved her. Yet, Mohammed
unconsciously loved her.
Mohammed’s response is an example of
A) sublimation
B) repression
C) denial
D) reaction formation
8) Women are more likely to cope with stress through
A) medication
B) sleeping
C) social support
D) working out
9) A problem-solving response to stress that involves mutual
accommodation among all
the participants is
A) substitution
B) withdrawal
C) denial
D) negotiation
10) In terms of mental disorders, most mental health
professionals greatly attend to
A) the legal model of insanity
B) the person’s reputation among his or her peers
C) the statistical rarity of the behavior
D) the individual’s level of personal distress
11) During any one-year period, the proportion of adults in the
general population who
are suffering from some type of psychological disorder is about
A) 1 in 3 adults
B) 1 in 10 adults
C) 1 in 20 adults
D) 1 in 4 adults
12) Sets of symptoms more common in some societies are called
A) culture-bound syndromes
B) societal syndromes
C) culture-clash syndromes
D) secular syndrome
13) The most common psychological disorders in the United
States are those labeled
A) anxiety disorders
B) schizophrenic disorders
C) phobic disorders
D) bipolar disorders
14) A critical feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder is
A) anxiety about being anxious all the time
B) fear of losing control
C) an over-inflated sense of responsibility
D) fear of dirt
15) Bipolar disorder includes
A) schizophrenia and one other form of psychosis
B) two different personality disorders at the same time
C) mania and depression in the same individual
D) phobia with at least one personality disorder
16) The process of helping clients gain mastery of their
unconscious conflicts through
techniques such as the analysis of transference is called
A) person-centered therapy
B) behavior therapy
C) rational-emotive therapy
D) psychoanalysis
17) Which of the following is not one of the newer forms of
insight therapy?
A) behavioral therapy
B) actualization therapy
C) existential therapy
D) logotherapy
18) The notion that the people who can help you best are those
who have similar problems is a common assumption in
A) contextual therapy
B) social skills training
C) gestalt therapy
D) mutual-help groups
19) Which of the following is commonly prescribed for patients
suffering from a bipolar
disorder?
A) an antipsychotic drug
B) lithium
C) a tranquilizer
D) cocaine
20) Unlike psychologists, psychiatrists
A) cannot conduct family therapy
B) don’t do group therapy
C) have a Ph.D. degree
D) have a medical degree
21) People tend to overestimate the risk of death from causes
such as
A) accidents
B) strokes
C) diabetes
D) heart attacks
22) What is the typical emotional sequence in the experience of
death?
A) anger, resentment, denial, depression, acceptance
B) denial, resentment, bargaining, depression, acceptance
C) depression, resentment, denial anger, bargaining, acceptance
D) none of these sequences is correct
23) According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, once terminally ill
patients realize they are dying,
they enter a second stage in the dying process characterized by
A) bargaining
B) depression
C) denial
D) anger
24)The emotional intensity of grief is especially likely to be
expressed in physical symp-
toms among
A) younger women
B) adolescents
C) older adults
D) middle-aged adults Unit 4 Examination 197 Psychology of
Adjustment
25) Funeral ceremonies are primarily for the benefit of
A) churches and synagogues
B) the larger community
C) the deceased
D) the survivors

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  • 1. UNIT 1 1) The amount of information available for our use doubles every A) two years B) century C) decade D) 5-7 years 2) The highest levels of technophobia are exhibited by A) women and minority group members B) mid-level managers C) children D) middle-class men 3) What is the most popular (frequent) method used by Americans to find information? A) radio B) Internet C) TV D) newspapers 4) One of the dramatic changes in the United States today is the increase in A) manufacturing and heavy industry B) the homogeneity of the population C) cultural diversity D) blue-collar workers 5) People who habitually say, “Naturally, I act this way because of the way I grew up” fail to realize, as the text suggests, that A) free choice and responsibility go hand in hand B) they have fewer options than their parents
  • 2. C) they cannot take calculated risks D) their choices are limited 6) All of the following traits remain rather stable over a lifetime EXCEPT A) neuroticism B) self-esteem C) introversion D) expressiveness 7) The experience of personal growth usually ends with the stage of A) acknowledging change B) feeling anxiety and discomfort C) reorganizing our experience D) changing our attitudes 8) We are more apt to have positive, gratifying feelings about an experience of personal growth at the third and final stage designated as A) sensing dissatisfaction B) acknowledging change C) experiencing dissonance D) reorganizing our experience 9) When scientists examine existing data such as historical documents, they are using the ________ method. A) growth B) conceptual C) archival D) empirical 10) In which psychoanalytic stage did Freud say genuine love develops? A) oral
  • 3. B) anal C) latency D) genital 11) Which concept is not part of Freud’s view of the psyche? A) consciousness B) unconscious C) ultraconscious D) preconscious 12) Carol likes Dr. Reed, the supervisor of her practice teaching. In fact, Carol often finds herself adopting many of Dr. Reed’s methods and mannerisms in the classroom. Bandura refers to this type of learning as A) classical conditioning B) observational learning C) due to the effects of unconscious Oedipal wishes D) identification with the parent figure 13) Social learning theorists such as Bandura regard the inconsistencies in human behavior as largely the product of A) conditioned responses B) personality traits C) unconscious conflicts D) situational factors 14) From which perspective are psychologists most likely to argue that spanking is harmful to children? A) the humanistic perspective B) the psychoanalysis perspective C) the learning perspective D) all of these 15) Humanistic psychology has received national prominence as A) deconstructivist
  • 4. B) emphasizing individual sameness C) Freud’s theory D) the third force in psychology 16) Research shows that older people score lower in ________ than younger people. A) conscientiousness B) agreeableness C) social vitality D) all of the above 17) Research (Scarr) suggests that ________ child care is what really matters. A) the quantity of B) the person who provides C) the quality of D) the proximity of parent work places to 18) Physical changes include all but which of the following? A) graying hair B) less physical energy C) hair loss in men D) weight loss around the waist 19) Women in midlife often A) avoid the workforce B) avoid schooling C) worry about their biological clock D) avoid adoption 20) What is true of the Social Security system? A) the government can be depended on to help the elderly even if they have never worked a day in their lives B) individuals automatically receive it upon retirement C) the age for eligibility is rising
  • 5. D) all of these are true 21) The process of ascribing the cause of an event to something A) is known as self-assessment B) maintains a balanced view of self-concept C) is called attribution D) is labeled self-activation 22) Experiences that are consistent with both our sensory reactions and self-concept A) comprise the core of our self-concept B) are denied to awareness C) are usually distorted D) are rarely accurately labeled 23) One of the most common ways our self-concept changes is A) through our interactions with people B) by avoiding successful people and therefore upward comparison C) through criticism from others; praise has little effect on most people D) by not getting too close to people 24) The text suggests that when being criticized, it is better to ask the person to A) relax and not be so sensitive B) mind his/her own business C) be more specific and provide more information D) prove that the criticism is incorrect 25) During the latter stages of psychotherapy and personal growth, individuals A) reaffirm their commitments and ideals B) are less aware of the complexity of their feelings
  • 6. C) deny the negative aspects of themselves D) become more self-directed UNIT 3 1) Which of the following is an example of a secondary group? A) the psychology class you are presently in B) the graduating seniors at a large university C) a family D) all are secondary groups 2) In-group perceptions can develop A) any time two or more people gather B) based on ethnicity C) based on clear set rules D) all of the above are reasons ingroups develop perceptions 3) What is the correct sequence of group formation, according to the text? A) forming, storming, norming, and performing B) storming, forming, norming, and performing C) forming, storming, performing, and norming D) norming, storming, performing, and forming 4) Which statement is true about the group communication networks? A) when tasks are complicated or decisions require complex input, decentralized net- works are best B) centralized communication networks allow for individuals to communicate more freely
  • 7. with one another C) centralized and decentralized networks result in about the same type of performance in groups D) where one or two individuals control the flow of information it is called decentralized communication network 5) With electronic communication A) each group member has a greater likelihood of participating B) status inequities are enhanced C) groups are more likely to be vulnerable to problems such as groupthink D) the highest status group members do most of the talking 6) The group polarization effect refers to A) groups doing less work than individuals no matter what the task B) a few group members opting to oust other group members C) feeling less responsible during group decision making D) groups shifting to a more extreme decision than individuals alone 7.) Two well-documented leadership styles are ________ and ________. A) severe; moderate B) casual; intense C) people-oriented; task-oriented D) thoughtful; thoughtless 8) Groupthink begins when A) the leader is not very directive or authoritative
  • 8. B) the group is close-knit and attractive to members C) the group members are not concerned with consensus D) the group is too open to ideas from outsiders 9) Which of the following are signs of groupthink? A) a poorly designed solution B) isolation of the group from criticism C) mindguards D) all of the above 10) The text states that when choosing a career goal, it’s best to begin by A) asking your parents, spouses, or friends for their ideas B) taking stock of yourself C) scanning the classified ads in the newspaper D) looking over the Occupational Outlook Handbook 11) People who score high on the Realistic theme of the Strong Interest Inventory would most likely enjoy a job working as an A) engineer B) accountant C) stockbroker D) biologist 12) Most job changes occur A) as an individual faces retirement B) during young adulthood C) during the retirement years D) during middle age 13) Surveys on job satisfaction show that A) women are much less satisfied with their jobs than men are
  • 9. B) professional workers are more satisfied than workers in lower-level jobs C) most people dislike their jobs intensely D) older workers are less satisfied than younger workers are 14) One of the best ways to increase the proportion of minority groups in the workplace is to A) lower the educational requirements for many jobs B) provide more high tech jobs in the workplace C) raise the educational level of minority students D) encourage minority students to take jobs in manufacturing 15) The majority of people report their favorite activity in the evening is A) creating works of art or crafts such as weaving and painting B) watching television C) talking to family members or friends D) participating in their favorite sports activity 16) One of the stereotypes in our society is that A) men are the natural controllers in sexual matters B) women desire sexual variety more than men do C) initiating sexual activity is a feminine role D) masculinity and femininity are polar opposites 17) The characteristic that combines desirable masculine and feminine characteristics in one person is known as A) decidophobia B) eccentricism C) adrogyny
  • 10. D) femasculinity 18) The phase of the sexual response cycle in which the usual signs of sexual arousal become more pronounced as the partners approach climax is called A) plateau B) excitement C) orgasm D) resolutionUnit 3 Examination 144 Psychology of Adjustment 19) Which is experienced by men but not women? A) plateau B) orgasm C) refractory period D) all stages in the sexual response cycle are experienced by both sexes 20) Hypoactive or inhibited sexual desire is commonly caused by A) anger, boredom, or anxiety B) genetic deficiencies C) hormonal deficiencies D) psychopathology 21) ________ is the emotional aspect (e.g. sharing, support) of love in Sternberg’s trian gular theory of love. A) Commitment B) Intimacy C) Passion D) there is no emotional aspect of love in this theory
  • 11. 22) Research about attachment style shows that A) we do not attach to our romantic partner as we did to our parents B) people with an avoidant style are very attracted to each other C) attachment styles have little impact on later positive adult attachments; early attachment styles only affect negative attachments later in life D) parents influence the style of their children 23) Studies of divorce indicate that A) most divorces are initiated by the women B) men and women are equally involved in initiating the divorce C) men initiate most divorces D) meddling in-laws induce divorce 24) Statistically, second marriages are A) more likely to be cross-racial B) less likely to last as long as first marriages C) more likely to end in divorce than first marriages D) none of these is true 25) About ________ percent of divorced people remarry within one year after their divorce. A) 25 B) 40 C) 55 D) 10 UNIT 4 1) Who suffers more from stress? A) women more than men B) well versus less educated individuals
  • 12. C) high rather than low income employees D) all of these 2) According to Hans Selye, stress which has a beneficial effect on us is called A) hypostress B) hyperstress C) distress D) eustress 3) Some students feel distressed only in test situations. They might be said to suffer from A) acute stress B) eustress C) hypostress D) hyperstress 4) Which term does not describe the Type A personality? A) holds rigorous standards B) competitive and sometimes hostile C) forgiving and relaxed D) distressed and time urgent 5) Diane, a keyboard specialist, adapted to her stressful job with few complaints. Now, a year later, Diane discovers she has developed an ulcer from the demands of her boss to meet deadlines and to type accurately. Such stress- related illnesses are likely to occur in which stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A) resistance
  • 13. B) exhaustion C) alarm D) the intermediate stage 6) Attributing our unacceptable feelings to others is known as A) repression B) displacement C) projection D) denial 7) When Mohammed’s girlfriend unexpectedly broke off their relationship, he said it was just as well because he no longer loved her. Yet, Mohammed unconsciously loved her. Mohammed’s response is an example of A) sublimation B) repression C) denial D) reaction formation 8) Women are more likely to cope with stress through A) medication B) sleeping C) social support D) working out 9) A problem-solving response to stress that involves mutual accommodation among all the participants is A) substitution B) withdrawal C) denial
  • 14. D) negotiation 10) In terms of mental disorders, most mental health professionals greatly attend to A) the legal model of insanity B) the person’s reputation among his or her peers C) the statistical rarity of the behavior D) the individual’s level of personal distress 11) During any one-year period, the proportion of adults in the general population who are suffering from some type of psychological disorder is about A) 1 in 3 adults B) 1 in 10 adults C) 1 in 20 adults D) 1 in 4 adults 12) Sets of symptoms more common in some societies are called A) culture-bound syndromes B) societal syndromes C) culture-clash syndromes D) secular syndrome 13) The most common psychological disorders in the United States are those labeled A) anxiety disorders B) schizophrenic disorders C) phobic disorders D) bipolar disorders 14) A critical feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder is A) anxiety about being anxious all the time B) fear of losing control
  • 15. C) an over-inflated sense of responsibility D) fear of dirt 15) Bipolar disorder includes A) schizophrenia and one other form of psychosis B) two different personality disorders at the same time C) mania and depression in the same individual D) phobia with at least one personality disorder 16) The process of helping clients gain mastery of their unconscious conflicts through techniques such as the analysis of transference is called A) person-centered therapy B) behavior therapy C) rational-emotive therapy D) psychoanalysis 17) Which of the following is not one of the newer forms of insight therapy? A) behavioral therapy B) actualization therapy C) existential therapy D) logotherapy 18) The notion that the people who can help you best are those who have similar problems is a common assumption in A) contextual therapy B) social skills training C) gestalt therapy D) mutual-help groups 19) Which of the following is commonly prescribed for patients suffering from a bipolar
  • 16. disorder? A) an antipsychotic drug B) lithium C) a tranquilizer D) cocaine 20) Unlike psychologists, psychiatrists A) cannot conduct family therapy B) don’t do group therapy C) have a Ph.D. degree D) have a medical degree 21) People tend to overestimate the risk of death from causes such as A) accidents B) strokes C) diabetes D) heart attacks 22) What is the typical emotional sequence in the experience of death? A) anger, resentment, denial, depression, acceptance B) denial, resentment, bargaining, depression, acceptance C) depression, resentment, denial anger, bargaining, acceptance D) none of these sequences is correct 23) According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, once terminally ill patients realize they are dying, they enter a second stage in the dying process characterized by A) bargaining B) depression C) denial
  • 17. D) anger 24)The emotional intensity of grief is especially likely to be expressed in physical symp- toms among A) younger women B) adolescents C) older adults D) middle-aged adults Unit 4 Examination 197 Psychology of Adjustment 25) Funeral ceremonies are primarily for the benefit of A) churches and synagogues B) the larger community C) the deceased D) the survivors