6 VSTEP TEST ...........................

Mục lục
Test 1: …………………………………………….. trang 02
Test 2: …………………………………………….. trang 18
Test 3: …………………………………………….. trang 33
Test 4: …………………………………………….. trang 48
Test 5: …………………………………………….. trang 63
Test 6: …………………………………………….. trang 77
Tapescript:………………………………………trang 107
Key: ………………………………………………… trang
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TEST 1
A: LISTENING
Directions: This is the listening test for levels from 3 to 5 of the Vietnam’s 6-level Language
Proficiency Test. There are three parts to the test. You will hear each part once. For each part of
the test there will be time for you to look through the questions and time for you to check your
answers. Write your answers on the question paper. You will have 5 minutes at the end of the test
to transfer your answers onto the answer sheet.
PART 1
There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short
recording. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You now have 45
seconds to look through the questions and the options in each question.
1. When is the man’s appointment?
A. Wednesday B. Thursday C. Friday D. Tuesday
2. Which is the aunt’s postcard?
A. a pretty village right by the sea B. big trees
C. a pretty village behind the tall trees D. a pretty village on the hills
3. What time will the plane to Milan leave?
A. 01:00 B. 07:15 C. 08:15 D. 06:15
4. Which present has the girl bought her mother?
A. earrings B. music CD C. pen D. notebook
5. What time will the pie be ready?
A. four fifteen B. five o’clock C. twenty past five D. fifty past four
6. What time is the swimming lesson today?
A. half past four B. fifteen to five C. fifteen past five D. four thirty
7. Which subject does the boy like best?
A. information technology B. geography C. sports D. design
8. Which T-shirt does the boy decide to buy?
A. a short-sleeved T-shirt with round neck B. a V-neck black T-shirt
C. a long-sleeved T-shirt D. a sleeveless white T-shirt
PART 2
You will hear three different conversations. In each conversation there are four questions.
For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversations
only once.
Conversation 1. You will hear a conversation between a girl, Kate, and a boy,
George. 9. What is Kate’s health problem?
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A. She has coughs B. She has headache
C. She has toothache D. She has stomach ache
10. What does Kate’s problem affect her classmates?
A. It makes them funny. B. It makes them annoyed.
C. It makes them happy. D. It makes them excited.
11. What did Kate have last year?
A. She had coughs B. She had headache
C. She had a fall off her bike D. She had stomach ache
12. What does Kate have now, too?
A. She has backache B. She has headache
C. She has toothache D. She has temperature
Conversation 2. You will hear a conversation between a man and a woman at
home. 13. Why does the man want to go out?
A. Because he feels bored staying at home. B. Because he feels safe staying at home.
C. Because he feels cold staying at home. D. Because he feels hot staying at home. 14. Why
does the woman want to stay at home?
A. Because she has coughs. B. Because she feels tired. C. Because she has
toothache. D. Because she has stomach ache. 15. Why doesn’t the woman want to
watch an Italian film?
A. Because she is short of money.
B. Because she is serious about it.
C. Because she’s afraid she will fall asleep watching it.
D. Because she has stomach ache
16. Why doesn’t the woman want to watch a Robert de Niro?
A. Because she feels too busy to watch it.
B. Because she feels too serious to watch it.
C. Because she doesn’t want to watch it the third time.
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D. Because she doesn’t want to watch it the second time.
Conversation 3. You will hear a conversation between a girl, Lisa, and a boy, Ben,
about holidays.
17. What does the girl think about a good holiday?
A. It may be cheap. B. It may be very cheap.
C. It may be expensive. D. It may be very expensive.
18. Why doesn’t the boy want to walk?
A. Because he feels too hot to do it.
B. Because he finds it hard to do it.
C. Because he doesn’t like hard work.
D. Because she doesn’t like the sounds of people walking.
19. What does the girl think about the food in Youth Hostels?
A. It is comfortable. B. It is good.
C. It is sometimes good. D. It is clean and cheap.
20. What does the boy decide to do in the end?
A. go home
B. leave home
C. sell his home
D. enjoy his holiday home

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PART 3
You will hear three different talks or lectures. In each talk or lecture there are five questions.
For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the talks or lectures
only once.
Talk/Lecture 1. You will hear a girl talking about her life since she left
Vietnam. 21. Why did the speaker have to help her mother with the
shopping?
A. There were no Vietnamese people living near her.
B. There were no Vietnamese working in the stores.
C. There wasn't always someone to go shopping with her.
D. Her mother could speak a little English.
22. Why did her father find working in a factory difficult?
A. He couldn't speak any English.
B. He didn't have many friends there.
C. He had had a much better job in Vietnam.
D. He couldn’t get used to the working style.
23. Why are the speaker and her brother more fortunate than their sisters? A. They
did not need extra English lessons. B. They look more American. C. They speak with
American accents. D. They quickly adopted the way of life. 24. What has the speaker
forgotten about life in Vietnam?
A. Living close to other people B. The warm weather
C. Wearing traditional clothes D. Traditional food
25. Why does she find it difficult to invite friends to her home?
A. Her parents do not have much money.
B. Her parents haven’t adopted an American way of life.
C. Her parents only know how to cook Vietnamese food.
D. Her parents do not speak English well.
Talk/Lecture 2. Listen to a woman talking about boys and girls in American
schools. 26. What happened in American schools before 1972?

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A. Girls didn’t go to school.
B. Every classroom was a mix of boys and girls.
C. Boys could learn what they wanted.
D. They didn’t teach girls some subjects.
27. What is the reason that most American schools have mixed
classes? A. Scientists said that it was the best thing.
B. Teachers did not want to teach single-gender classes.
C. A law gave girls an equal chance to learn.
D. Boys and girls behave better in such classes.
28. Why might girls not get a chance to talk much in a class with
boys? A. Because the teacher doesn’t ask them questions
B. Because boys are louder and often talk first
C. Because boys know the correct answers
D. Because girls are often shy.
29. What is NOT the reason that some schools are reconsidering separating classes?
A. They prefer the old teaching styles. B. Boys learn differently than girls. C. Boys and
girls can bother each other. D. Boys and girls like different things. 30. Which is one class
that is not mentioned as being separated?
A. Math B. Social Studies C. Science D. Physical Education
Talk/Lecture 3. Listen to a talk about body language in American Culture at a
student orientation meeting.
31. Who is listening to the orientation talk?
A. the director of international students
B. new international students
C. the teachers of international department
D. all first-year students in the college
32. What is the purpose of this talk?
A. to introduce the director for international student affairs
B. to deal with all international students’ problems.

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C. to inform the importance of using English in class.
D. to introduce common problems in non-verbal communication.
33. According to the speaker, what is body language?
A. It’s the use of verb tenses and modals. B. It’s the way to ask for directions
C. It’s the language used in class only. D. It’s the language of movements and facial
expressions.
34. In American culture, …
A. Eye contact is the same as most cultures.
B. making eye contact is a sign of disrespect.
C. people don’t look in others’ eyes while talking.
D. eye contact is considered as a sign of honesty.
35. According to the speaker, what is TRUE about handshakes in American Culture? A.
A handshake shouldn’t be too strong. B. Handshakes are not common. C. Handshakes
need to be firm. D. Shaking hands is not important.

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B: READING
Time permitted: 60 minutes
Number of questions: 40
_________________________________________________________________________
Directions: In this section you will read FOUR different passages. Each one is followed by 10
questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each
question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a
passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to
the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
A new study, conducted by scientists from Oxford University, the Chinese Academy of
Medical Sciences and the Chinese Center for Disease Control, has warned that a third of all
men currently under the age of 20 in China will eventually die prematurely if they do not give
up smoking.
The research, published in The Lancet medical journal, says two-thirds of men in China now
start to smoke before 20.Around half of those men will die from the habit, it concludes.
In 2010, around one million people in China died from tobacco usage. But researchers say that
if current trends continue, that will double to two million people - mostly men - dying every
year by 2030, making it a "growing epidemic of premature death".
But co-author Richard Peto said there was hope - if people can be persuaded to quit. "The key
to avoid this huge wave of deaths is cessation, and if you are a young man, don't start," he said.
In many parts of China, meals often fit a comfortable pattern. After putting down their
chopsticks, men commonly push their chairs back from the table and light cigarettes. No
wonder China has struggled to impose a smoking ban in public places. Here, relationships are
often built amid clouds of smoke.
Expensive brands of cigarettes, often decorated with gold detailing on the cartons, are given as
gifts. And ordinary brands are affordable to all but the very poor, costing just 2.5 yuan ($0.4;
£0.25) a pack.
In a country where smoking is so ingrained in daily life, few understand the harmful effects of
tobacco use. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), only 25% of Chinese adults
can list the specific health hazards of smoking, from lung cancer to heart disease.
Perhaps it should come as no surprise, then, that only 10% of Chinese smokers quit by choice.
Instead, most are forced to give up their cigarettes because they're too sick to continue.
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While smoking rates have fallen in developed countries -to less than one in five in the US - they
have risen in China, as cigarettes have become more available and consumers richer.
Authorities have shown concern over the rise, with Beijing even introducing a public smoking
ban. But efforts have been hampered by the habit's popularity, and its usefulness as a source of
tax - the government collects about 428 billion yuan (£44billion, $67billion) in tobacco taxes
each year.
Globally, tobacco kills up to half of its users, according to the World Health Organization.
1. How many Chinese men start to smoke before the age of 20?
A. one-third B two-thirds C. half D. all of them
2. What does the word “those men” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Men who smoke under the age of 20 B. Men who smoke above the age of 20 C.
Men who give up smoking D. Men who smoke in public
3. By 2030, how many men in China may die from smoking every year?
A. one million B. two million C. three million D. four million
4. In many areas of China, when do men usually smoke?
A. Before a meal B. After a meal
C. Before they go to sleep D. When they get up
5. According to WHO, only_______ of Chinese adults can list bad effects of
smoking. A. one-third B. one-fourth C. one-fifth D. a half
6. “Beijing” refers to ……….
A. China B. The city of Beijing
C. The Chinese government D. People who live in Beijing
7. What is Richard Peto’s attitude toward smoking in China?
A. He doesn’t believe that people will give up smoking
B. He is disappointed with the Chinese government.
C. He thinks that people possibly stop smoking if they see reasons.
D. He is sure about the rise of future deaths in China.
8. Which of the following words does the word “hamper” have closest meaning to?
A. basket B. assist C. prohibit D. restrict
9. What is the writer’s purpose?
A. To argue over smoking policy in China B. To support smoking in China C. To warn
and prevent smoking in China D. To report the result of a research paper
10. What does the writer imply about Chinese government?
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A. They do not want to stop people from smoking.
B. They have tried to stop people from smoking in public but with little
success. C. They have tried to close tobacco companies.
D. They do not care about smoking.
The evidence that humans are causing global warming is strong, but the question of what to do
about it remains controversial. Economics, sociology, and politics are all important factors in
planning for the future.
Even if we stopped emitting greenhouse gases (GHGs) today, the Earth would still warm by
another degree Fahrenheit or so. But what we do from today forward makes a big difference.
Depending on our choices, scientists predict that the Earth could eventually warm by as little
as 2.5 degrees or as much as 10 degrees Fahrenheit.
A commonly cited goal is to stabilize GHG concentrations around 450-550 parts per million
(ppm), or about twice pre-industrial levels. This is the point at which many believe the most
damaging impacts of climate change can be avoided. Current concentrations are about 380
ppm, which means there isn't much time to lose. According to the IPCC, we'd have to reduce
GHG emissions by 50% to 80% of what they're on track to be in the next century to reach this
level.
Is this possible?
Many people and governments are already working hard to cut greenhouse gases, and
everyone can help.
Researchers Stephen Pacala and Robert Socolow at Princeton University have suggested one
approach that they call "stabilization wedges." This means reducing GHG emissions from a
variety of sources with technologies available in the next few decades, rather than relying on an
enormous change in a single area. They suggest 7 wedges that could each reduce emissions, and
all of them together could hold emissions at approximately current levels for the next 50 years,
putting us on a potential path to stabilize around 500 ppm.
There are many possible wedges, including improvements to energy efficiency and vehicle fuel
economy (so less energy has to be produced), and increases in wind and solar power, hydrogen
produced from renewable sources, biofuels (produced from crops), natural gas, and nuclear
power. There is also the potential to capture the carbon dioxide emitted from fossil fuels and
store it underground—a process called "carbon sequestration."
In addition to reducing the gases we emit to the atmosphere, we can also increase the amount of
gases we take out of the atmosphere. Plants and trees absorb CO2 as they grow, "sequestering"
carbon naturally. Increasing forestlands and making changes to the way we farm could increase
the amount of carbon we're storing.
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Some of these technologies have drawbacks, and different communities will make different

decisions about how to power their lives, but the good news is that there are a variety of
options to put us on a path toward a stable climate.
11. The word “we” in paragraph 2refers to ………..
A. humans B. economists, sociologists, and politicians
C. animals D. scientists
12. According to paragraph 2, how many degrees could the Earth warm up?
A. 2.5 B. 2.5 or 10 C. 10 D. from 2.5 to 10
13. According to paragraph 3, why should we stabilize GHG concentrations around 450-550
parts per million?
A. to avoid the most serious effects of climate change
B. to avoid all damaging impacts of climate change
C. to mend the most damaging impacts of climate change
D. to stop climate change
14. What does “which” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. current concentrations B. that current concentrations are about 380 ppm C.
380 ppm D. ppm
15. Why does the author mention Stephen Pacala and Robert Socolow?
A. To introduce two researchers in the field
B. To proves that researchers are working to reduce GHG emission
C. To introduce one way to reduce GHG emission
D. To introduce Princeton University
16. What stabilization wedges are NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. create environment-friendly materials
B. capture and store carbon dioxide underground
C. increase the use of renewable energy
D. grow more trees
17. What does “them” refer to?
A. researchers B. humans C. renewable resources D. wedges
18. What is the best title for this passage?
A. Arguments over Global Warming B. Global Warming and its Causes
C. Global Warming Solutions D. Global Warming’s Effect on Earth
19. “Sequestering” has closest meaning to ……….
A. absorb B. isolate C. release D. emit
20. Why does the writer mention “drawbacks” in the last paragraph?
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A. To introduce the disadvantages of solutions in the following paragraph B.

To emphasize the disadvantages of the solutions in the previous paragraph C.
To recommend readers not to use the solutions
D. To emphasize the advantages of the solutions in different contexts
Art communicates to us primarily through our eyes. We look at art, and we try to find some
meaning in the experience. If we are to begin to think about art more seriously, we might do
well to become more aware of the process of seeing itself.
Science tells us that seeing is a mode of perception, or the recognition and interpretation of
sensory data-in other words, how information comes in our senses, and what we make of it. In
visual perception our eyes take in information in the form of light patterns; the brain processes
these patterns to give them meaning. The mechanics of perception work much the same way for
everyone, yet in a given situation we do not all see the same things.
We can take great pleasure in merely looking at art, just as we take pleasure in the view of a
distant mountain range or watching the sun set over the ocean. But art, unlike nature, is a human
creation. It is one of the many ways we express ourselves and attempt to communicate. A work
of art is the product of human intelligence, and we can meet it with our own intelligence on
equal footing. This is where study comes in.
The understanding of process - the how - often contributes quite a lot to our appreciation of art.
If you understand why painting in watercolor may be different from painting in oil, why clay
responds differently to the artist's hands than does wood or glass - you will have a richer
appreciation of the artist's expression.
Knowing the place of a work of art in history - what went before and came after - can also
deepen your understanding. Artists learn to make art by studying the achievements of the past
and observing the efforts of their contemporaries. They adapt ideas to serve their own needs and
then bequeath those ideas to future generations of artists. For example, Matisse assumed that
his audience would know that Venus was the ancient Roman goddess of love. But he also
hoped that they would be familiar with one Venus in particular, a famous Greek statue known
as the Venus de Milo.
An artist may create a specific work for any of a thousand reasons. An awareness of the why
may give some insight as well. Looking at Van Gogh's The Starry Night, it might help you know
that Van Gogh was intrigued by the belief that people journeyed to a star after their death, and
that there they continued their lives. "Just as we take the train to get to Tarascon or Rouen," he
wrote in a letter, "we take death to reach a star." This knowledge might help you understand why
Van Gogh felt so strongly about the night sky, and what his painting might have meant to him.
But no matter how much you study, Van Gogh's painting will never mean for you exactly what it
meant for him, nor should it. Great works of art hold many meanings. The greatest of them seem
to speak anew to each generation and to each attentive observer. The most important
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thing is that they mean something for you, that your own experiences, thoughts, and emotions
find a place in them.

21. According to paragraph 2, the process of visual perception ………..
A.is not the same for all people B. begins with patterns of light C. is not very
scientific D. requires other senses to function
22. What did Matisse reinterpret?
A. A goddess from mythology B. A painting by another artist
C. An ancient sculpture D.A man in history
23. The word “them” in the last paragraph refers to ……….
A. each attentive observer B. thoughts and emotions
C. a lifetime of experiences D. great works of art
24. The word “bequeath” in the passage is closest in meaning to …………… A.
make out B. pass on C. look over D. take in
25. The author mentions all of the following ways to enhance the appreciation of art
EXCEPT ……
A. understanding the artistic processB. becoming familiar with the history
C. experiencing the art by copying D. knowing about the life of the artist
26. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. Visual perception of sensory material
B. The historical context for artistic expression
C. Studying Van Gogh's The Starry Night
D. The appreciation of works of art
27. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in
the passage?
A. We see images differently because of the mode of perception.
B. Although we see images differently, the mode of perception is similar.
C. Since the mode of perception is similar, we see images in the same way.
D. When the mode of perception is the same, we see the same images
28. Why might Van Gogh have painted The Starry Night?
A. To symbolize the journey of life after death
B. To create a dramatic contrast with the sky
C. To place a strong image in the foreground
D. To include nature from his early experience
29. The word “intrigued” in the passage is closest in meaning to ………..
A. very pleased B. very confused C. very interested D. very surprised
30. What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
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A. Greatest artworks are impossible to understand.
B. The author shows negative feelings toward contemporary art.
C. People need knowledge to understand art.
D. What we see in art is determined by our emotions, experiences, and thoughts.

Antibiotics block the life cycle of bacteria that invade the human body. The first of these
antibiotics, penicillin, works by blocking the molecules that construct the cell walls of particular
bacteria. The bacteria, with incomplete cell walls, are not able to reproduce.
When penicillin was introduced during World War II, it was truly a "miracle drug." Until that
time, anyone who was cut or wounded stood a great risk of infection. Once penicillin became
available, the situation changed. Wounded soldiers, children with ear infections, and many
others began to benefit from the ability to block the growth of bacteria.
While humanity may have won that particular battle against bacteria, the war is far from over.
The reason is that in any bacterial population, there are bound to be a few bacteria that, for one
reason or another, are not affected by a particular antibiotic. For example, they may have a
slightly differently shaped enzyme that builds cell walls, so that penicillin will not fit onto that
particular shape of the enzyme. These bacteria will not be affected by that particular drug.
For that small group, the antibiotic is a real godsend. It doesn't affect them, but it does wipe
out all of their competition. They are thus free to multiply, and, over time, all of the bacteria
will have whatever properties that made those individuals resistant.
Traditionally, medical scientists have dealt with this phenomenon by developing a large number
of antibiotics, each of which intervenes in the bacterial life cycle in a slightly different way.
Consequently, if you happen to have a bacterium that is resistant to one antibiotic, probably it
will succumb to the action of another. You may, in fact, have had the experience of going to a
doctor with an infection, being given an antibiotic, and then finding that it didn't work. In all
likelihood, all your doctor had to do then was prescribe a different antibiotic and everything was
fine.
The problem is that as time has passed, more and more bacteria have become resistant to
antibiotics. In fact, currently, there is one strain of bacteria- Staphylococcus-that is resistant to
every commercially available antibiotic except one, and in 1996, a bacterium with lowered
resistance to that last antibiotic appeared in Japan.
The appearance of drug-resistant bacteria is not particularly surprising; in fact, it probably
should have been anticipated. Nevertheless, in the late 1980s, there was a general sense of
complacency among scientists on the antibiotic question. Little profit was to be made by
developing the one-hundred-and-first antibiotic. Drug companies concentrated their efforts on
other areas. Therefore, a gap developed between the production of new antibiotics and the
development of resistance among bacteria.
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By the early 1990s, this gap was recognized and highlighted in several national news magazines.
More companies returned to develop new kinds of antibiotics, and currently, a number are
undergoing clinical trials. By early in the twenty-first century, some of these new drugs will start
to come on the market, and the problem will be "solved," at least for the moment.
Additional research will focus on the processes by which cells repair the constant damage to

DNA, but the computer design of new drugs, the development of new antibiotics, and
techniques to combat bacteria should remain a top priority.
31. How do antibiotics treat infections?
A. They interfere with the reproductive cycle of bacteria.
B. They construct cell walls to resist bacteria.
C. They inject enzymes that explode in affected cells.
D. They increase the mitosis of healthy cells
32. The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to ……….
A. whatever properties B. resistant bacteria
C. their competition D. those individuals
33. The word “anticipated” in the passage is closest in meaning to …….
A. predicted B. concealed C. investigated D. disregarded
34. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
A. The "miracle drug" penicillin B. Drug-resistant bacteria
C. Staphylococcus infections D. Gene therapy treatments
35. According to paragraph 4, why do some bacteria benefit from antibiotics? A. The
antibiotic eliminates competing bacteria, allowing resistant bacteria to
reproduce.
B. The resistant bacteria compete with the antibiotic, and the bacteria become stronger.
C. The competition helps the resistant bacteria to multiply by reproducing with the
resistant type.
D. The properties of the antibiotic are acquired by the bacteria, making it resistant to
the competition.
36. The word “complacency” in the passage is closest in meaning to ……
A. consensus of agreement B. fear of consequences
C. lack of concern D. awareness of potential
37. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in
the passage?
A. Some antibiotics affect a population of bacteria more efficiently than others. B.
There are several reasons why some bacteria do not respond to most antibiotics. C.
The effect of antibiotics on bacteria is to bind them together into one population. D.
A small number of bacteria in any sample will probably be resistant to a specific
antibiotic.
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38. The author mentions all of the following reasons for drug resistant bacteria to appear
EXCEPT…….
A. there was not enough profit incentive for companies to continue developing new
antibiotics
B. statistically, some drug-resistant bacteria will occur naturally in any large population
of bacteria

C. the newer antibiotics were not as strong and effective as the original penicillin-based
drugs
D. competing bacteria are destroyed by antibiotics, allowing resistant bacteria to
prosper.
39. It can be inferred from the passage that …….
A. research to develop new antibiotics will not be necessary in the future B. the
scientific community was not surprised by the resistant strains of bacteria C.
antibiotics are not very expensive when they are made available commercially D.
it takes years for a new drug to be made available commercially for consumers
40. Which of the following statements is NOT a main idea of the passage?
A. Many strains of bacteria have become resistant to the antibiotics currently available.
B. Funding for the production of new antibiotics has been allocated to drug companies.
C. The first antibiotics were very effective in blocking the reproduction of bacteria. D.
New antibiotics are being developed to combat bacteria that resist the older antibiotics.
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C: WRITING
Time allowed: 60 minutes
No. of items: 2
TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

You had arranged to meet a friend next week, but you have realized that you will not be
able to go
Write a letter to your friend. In your letter:
• Cancel the meeting with your friend and apologize
• Explain why you cannot be able to meet your friend
• Suggest where and when you could see each other instead
You should write at least 120 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task
fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
TASK 2
There is a big number of people who wish to live in big cities.
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the advantages and disadvantages of living
in big cities. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.
Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
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D: SPEAKING
PART 1: SOCIAL INTERACTION
Let’s talk about: Games and Sports
1. Which indoor games do you play regularly?
2. Which indoor games are common in your hometown?
3. Do you take part in any outdoor sports regularly? (Which?)

Now, let’s talk about: Keeping Fit
1. How often do you do any exercise?
2. Do you prefer to exercise alone or in a class? Why?
3. What do you think is the best type of exercise? Why?
PART 2: SOLUTION DISCUSSION
Should we learn English in a foreign English centre or in a Vietnamese center?
PART 3: TOPIC
Describe a person who has strong influence on you
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TEST 2
A: LISTENING
PART 1

1. What colour is Mary’s coat?
A. yellow B. blue C. brown D. black
2. What did the woman repair?
A. chair B. shelf C. desk D. bed
3. What are they going to buy for Pam?
A. a book B. a plant C. some chocolates D. candies
4. What has the girl lost?
A. mobile phone B. purse C. pen D. bag
5. Which sport will the boy do soon at the centre?
A. waterskiing B. diving C. sailing D. swimming
6. Who lives with Josh in his house?
A. his grandmother B. his father C. his sister D. his mother
7. What will the girl take with her on holiday?
A. suitcase B. sports bag C. backpack D. overhead bag
8. Where do the boys decide to go?
A. cinema B. game store C. park D. library
PART 2
only once.
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Conversation 1. You will hear a journalist interviewing Geoff Thompson, a British
sportsman. 9. Where was Geoff Thompson born?
A. In London. B. In the North of England.
C. In the South of London. D. In Britain.
10. How did he know about karate?
A. He discovered karate by himself.
B. He’s interested in karate owning to a sports center during a school visit.

C. His friend introduced it to him.
D. He knew it when moving to London.
11. When did he take part in the World Championships in Taiwan?
A. In 1972. B. In 1980. C. In 1982.
D. After starting training with a British coach.
12. How many times has he got the World Champion?
A. Two times. B. Three times. C. Four times. D. Five times.
Conversation 2. You will hear a man telephoning to talk about the job in a
hotel. 13. Which position does this hotel need?
A. A temporary staff. B. A stable staff.
C. A part-time receptionist. D. A full-time waiter.
14. What about the hour of work?
A. There are two shifts and two days off.
B. There are two shifts and one day off.
C. There’s a day shift from 7 to 2 and a late shift from 4 till 11.
D. There is only afternoon shift.
15. What does the woman mention about the uniform?
A. It’s prepared by the hotel. B. He needs to wear dark clothes. C. He needs a white shirt
and dark trousers. D. He needs wear uniform five days a week.
16. When does he start his job?
A. At the end of May. B. On the 10th
of May.
C. On the 10th
of June. D. On the 28th
of June.
20
Conversation 3. Listen to part of a conversation at a university library.
17. What does the man plan to write his paper on?
A. The preservation of old books. B. The local coal industry.
C. The famous archives librarian. D. The collection of rare books.
18. What security procedures does the librarian tell the man he must
follow? A. Show her his note cards before leaving.
B. Show her his ID card.

C. Pay a fee.
D. Allow his ID card to be copied; sign in and out of the archives room.
19. Why did the librarian mention the age of the books?
A. They need to be handled with gloves.
B. The man can only look at photographs of them.
C. They were added to the collection recently.
D. They are value books.
20. How did the man collect his needed information about his paper?
A. He took a picture. B. He scanned these images.
C. He could just look them. D. He photocopied these books.
PART 3
only once.
Talk/Lecture 1. You will hear a presentation about fashion at work.
21. The presenter doesn’t wear a suit because …
A. He is not an important person.
B. He wants to talk about different fashion trend.
C. The presentation is not formal.
D. He works for a fashion company.
22. According to the speaker, which statement is TRUE?
A. It’s important to look casually-dressed in public.
21
B. A suit is necessary when meeting clients.
C. Wearing shorts is OK, sometimes.
D. Nobody can describe the way he’s dressed.
23. What does the phrase “Dress-down Fridays” mean?
A. Employees must wear fashionable clothes on Fridays.
B. Employees can wear anything they want on Fridays.
C. Employees are allowed to wear informally on Fridays.

D. Employees are required to wear special clothes on Fridays.
24. According to the speaker, who may be the most informal dressers? A. People
working in IT B. People working in banks. C. People working in customer services. D.
People working with clients. 25. What does a customer feel about a man in uniform?
A. reliable B. recognized C. expertised D. reassured
Talk/Lecture 2. Listen to a man talking about sleeping habits.
26. How many hours of sleep do experts suggest for kids?
A. Ten B. About fifteen C. 1,400 D. 70
27. According to the speaker, why is sleep important for the brain?
A. Sleep generates dreams so brain can relax.
B. Brain can rest in a sleep.
C. Sleep can save energy for the brain.
D. Sleep improves the effectiveness of the brain.
28. Why don’t the students learn well when they are tired?
A. They can’t finish their homework. B. They can’t deal with troubles in class. C.
They get very excited. D. They can’t pay attention very well 29. Which is NOT a reason
for poor sleep?
A. drinking soda B. playing computer games
C. staying up late D. exercising before sleep
22
30. What should students try to do each night?
A. Watch a scary movie B. Drink some hot tea C. Go to bed
at a regular time D. relax with a TV show
Talk/Lecture 3. Listen to a woman talking about northern
lights. 31. Which is NOT the shape of the northern lights?
A. a straight line B. a curved line
C. a round shape D. an oval shape

32. What does “aurora borealis” exactly mean?
A. northern lights B. northern dawn
C. northern sky D. early morning lights
33. Where is the best place to see the northern lights?
A. The northernmost point of Earth
B. The north of Poland
C. Anywhere in Scandinavian countries
D. Most parts of the world
34. What is one of the stories developed by people before modern
science? A. The lights were caused by foxes.
B. The lights were the dance of animals.
C. The lights appeared when people.
D. The lights came from fires of northern gods.
35. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this
talk? A. A description of the lights
B. The scientific explanation for the lights
C. The discovery of the lights
D. Beliefs about the lights
23
B: READING
_________________________________________________________________________
questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or, to each
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage
on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

the answer sheet.
Doctors treat patients for free at clinic in Ha Noi
Line
For 20 years, Dang Thi Nhan, 67, has been waking up about 30 minutes earlier
each day to bake cakes or prepare tea for two retired doctors in a clinic near her house in Ha
Noi's Giap Bat Ward. That is all Nhan can offer as thanks to doctors who provide free health
checks for herself, her paralysed husband and their 43-year-old disabled 5
son. "If one day they cannot take care of themselves and need some one to look after,
I will do it voluntarily till the day they are gone," Nhan said.
The small clinic, situated on Kim Dong Street, has become familiar to many
people in Ha Noi. It was established in 1992 by Dr Truong Thi Hoi To, 84, a former principal
of Nam Dinh Medical College, Le Thi Soc, 87, a retired nurse from Saint Paul 10
Municipal Hospital, and Le Thanh Thuoc, the late deputy director of the Viet Nam
National Cancer Hospital, who died last year. The clinic used to open every Monday
and Thursday. However, after doctor Thuoc died and due to the deteriorating health of
the two other medics, the clinic now only opens on Monday mornings at 8 am. Patients
not only receive health checks, but they also receive free medicine. A
15
Since 2014, the clinic has treated about 8,500 patients, according to Giap Bat
ward's Red Cross Association. On its first days, the clinic faced numerous difficulties due to
lack of money. Mrs. To, founder of the clinic, had to spend her own pension and encourage
her children and relatives to donatemoney to purchase medical equipment and medicine. The
clinic also had to relocate seven times as To and her co-workers 20
could not afford high rents. Despite these difficulties, they never thought of giving up.
"Being able to help my patients brings me unspeakable joy. This is also my life target.
It warms my heart to see the happy faces of the patients," To said. B
Tran Thi Toan, 64, a patient from Nam Dinh Province, now works as a servant
in Ha Noi. She is grateful to doctor To and nurse Soc not just for the free treatment, 25
but for their caring manner. Toan said: "They give me meticulous treatment and clear,
detailed instruction as well as advise me on a healthy and happy lifestyle". Toan feels
24
shy about her job, so the doctors' care and compassionate attitude have become her
inspiration in life. C
30
To the doctors, the most precious thing they receive from their patients is
confidence in their skills, which can only be achieved through ethics and medical
excellence. "The success of a doctor does not lies in how much money they earn, but
how many people they help", Soc said. Sharing Soc's opinion, To said that "Medical
practitioners should not consider their profession as a tool to get rich. They should not
benefit from their patients' pain. Patients come first, not money." D
1. How old was Dang Thi Nhan when she first started to bake cakes or prepare tea for the two
doctors?

A. 20 B. 67 C. 43 D. 47
2. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ……………
A. two doctors B. husband and son C. health checks D. cakes
3. The word "late" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ……………….
A. last-minute B. behind C. delayed D. deceased
4. The word "its" in paragraph 3 refers to ……………..
A. Red Cross Association B. the clinic C. medicine D. pension
5. Who probably did not work in a hospital before retirement?
A. Le Thi Soc B. Le Thanh Thuoc
C. Truong Thi Hoi To D. All of them
6. In which lines does the author mention about the bad health condition of the doctors at the
clinic…..
A. line 5 B. line 13 C. line 23 D. line 28
7. The word "donate" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by
……………. A. give B. take C. keep D. get
8. What has helped Mrs. Tran Thi Toan gain confidence in her life?
A. her job as a servant
B. her gratitude to all doctors
25
C. her healthy and happy lifestyle
D. doctors' caring manner and free treatment at clinic
9. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit? "They
treat me as a close member of their family. There is no discrimination between the rich and
the poor. Everyone is treated equally." She added.
A. A B. B C. C D. D
10. The last paragraph indicates Mrs. Soc's opinion that a doctor is successful if
…. A. he/ she earns a lot of money
B. he/ she is confident in his/her skills
C. he/ she helps a lot of patients
D. he/ she benefits from their patients' pain
To Get a Job in Your 50s, Maintain Friendships in Your 40s.
Line

We hear it all the time: People who are over 50 take longer to find jobs than
younger people. Connie Wanberg, a professor at the Carlson School of Management at
the University of Minnesota, had long heard gloom-and-doom stories to that effect, but
she wondered how strong the data was to support them.
5
Very, as it turned out. According to a study by Professor Wanberg and others,
job seekers over 50 were unemployed 5.8 weeks longer than those from the ages of 30 to 49.
That number rose to 10.6 weeks when the comparison group was from 20 to 29. Professor
Wanberg and three other researchers — Darla J. Hamann, Ruth Kanfer and Zhen Zhang —
arrived at those numbers by analyzing and synthesizing hundreds 10
of studies by economists, sociologists and psychologists.
But it is important not to jump to conclusions about the cause, Professor
Wanberg said. “It’s not very unusual for everybody to think that the reason for the difficulty
in finding jobs at 50s is discrimination,” she said. That can sometimes be the case, but the
reality is that the behavior required to find work does not play to many 15
older people’s strengths. Once they become aware of this, they can act to compensate.
In their study, the researchers found that older people on average had smaller social networks
than younger people, Professor Wanberg said. This is not necessarily bad — as we age, many
of us find that the quality of our relationships is more important than the quantity. But in the
job search process, the number of connections 20
we maintain in our professional and personal networks is often critical. As people age,
they also tend to stay in the same job longer, consistent with a pattern of wanting to
put down roots. During that time, the skills people have learned and the job search
strategies they once used may become outdated — especially as technology evolves
ever more quickly.
25
The cure for these drawbacksis fairly straightforward. Once you hit your early
40s, even if you are not looking for a job, work to learn new skills and stretch yourself,
26
Professor Wanberg said. Also, keep your networks strong by staying in touch with
former colleagues and classmates, along with current co-workers and clients whom you
don’t see regularly, she said.
30
Finding a job after 50 doesn’t have to be as discouraging as it is often
portrayed to be, Professor Wanberg said. Just recognize that some of the obstacles you face
are inherent to the aging process, she said. She stressed that her findings reflected only
averages and that individual behavior varies greatly. Certainly, many older people maintain
wide social circles and often learn skills. But in general, older job seekers must 35
take more steps to find employment than younger ones, she said.
Once older workers do find a new employer, they can use their knowledge,
wisdom and emotional intelligence — qualities that older people often possess in
abundance —to thrive in their new positions.
11. The word "gloom-and-doom" in the first paragraph could be best replaced by
……………. A. hopeless B. interesting C. cheerful D. strange

12. According to the study, which age group has the least unemployed time? A. less
than 20 B. from 20 to 29 C. from 30 to 49 D. over 50
13. In the third paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence “It’s not very unusual for
everybody to think that the reason for the difficulty in finding jobs at 50s is
discrimination"? A. People do not usually think about the cause of discrimination in finding
jobs at 50s. B. People do not usually think that discrimination is the reason for the difficulty at
50s. C. People commonly believe that finding jobs at 50s causes discrimination. D. People
commonly believe that discrimination makes finding jobs at 50s difficult.
14. The word "their" in paragraph 4 refers to …………….
A. the researchers B. older people
C. social networks D. younger people
15. The word "critical" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by …………..
A. huge B. demanding C. trivial D. important
16. What advice does Professor Wanberg give to over 50 year-old job seekers when they are still
at early 40s?
A. maintaining small but strong social networks
B. becoming aware of their strengths
C. learning new skills and keeping wide social circles
D. staying in the same job longer.
17. The word "these drawbacks" in paragraph 6 refers to ………….
A. outdated skills and job search strategies
B. small numbers of connection networks
C. lost social circles with co-workers and clients
27
D. low quality and small quantity of relationships
18. What of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
A. Finding a job after 50 is not at all hopeless
B. Older people hardly learn new skills and maintain wide social
networks C. Older people often have many good qualities
D. Findings of the study does not hold true for all older people.
19. Which of the following would best describe Professor Wanberg's attitude towards finding a
job after 50?
A. hopeless B. frustrated C. optimistic D. discouraging
20. What is the purpose of this passage?
A. To report the difficulties of finding jobs at 50s.
B. To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of 50 year-old job seekers.
C. To warn people against skipping jobs at later ages.

D. To raise awareness on the importance of maintaining social connections and learning
new skills at early stages.
Line
MARY'S FIRST JOB
When I was just fifteen, my father purchased an old hostel in the country where
we lived and decided to turn it into a luxury hotel. At the early stages of the hotel, he
experimented with everything. None of us had ever worked in a hotel before, but my dad had a
vision of what guests wanted. His standards were extremely high and he 5
believed that to reach those standards the most important thing was work. For a month
that summer I worked as a waitress at breakfast and dinner. As part of the job I had to
lay the tables in the dining room beforehand and clean up afterwards. This gave me the
middle of the day free for studying because my school report predictably had not lived
up to my father’s high expectations.
10
Like all the other waitresses, I was equipped with a neat uniform and told to
treat the guests as though they were special visitors in my own home. Although I felt
more like a stranger in theirs, I did not express my feelings. Instead I concentrated on
doing the job as well as, if not better than, the older girls.
In the kitchen I learned how to deal with Gordon, the chef, who I found rather
15
daunting. He had an impressive chef's hat and a terrifying ability to lose his temper
28
and get violent for no clear reason. I avoided close contact with him and always
grabbed the dishes he gave me with a cold look on my face. Then, as I walked from the
kitchen to the dining room, my cold expression used to change into a charming smile.
I found waiting at breakfast was more enjoyable than at dinner. The guests
20
came wandering into the dining room from seven-thirty onwards, staring with
pleasure at the view of the sea and the islands through the dining room window. I
always made sure that everyone got their order quickly and I enjoyed getting on well
with the people at each table.
In the evenings it was funny how differently people behaved; they talked with
25
louder, less friendly voices, and did not always return my smile. However, that all
changed when Dad created a special role for me which improved my status
considerably.

I started by making simple cakes for guests’ picnics and soon progressed to
more elaborate cakes for afternoon teas. I found that recipes were easy to follow and 30
it was amusing to improvise. This led to a nightly event known as Mary’s Sweet
Trolley. I used to enter the dining room every evening pushing a trolley carrying an
extraordinary collection of puddings, cakes and other desserts. Most of them were of
my own invention, I had cooked them all myself, and some were undeniably strange.
21. The word "it" in line 2 refers to ……………..
A. an old hostel B. the country
C. a luxury hotel D. Mary's first job
22. What did the people working at the hotel have in common?
A. They knew what the guests expected. B. They shared all the jobs. C. They
lacked experience. D. They enjoyed the work.
23. Mary's working day was organized in order to give her …………….
A. time for her school work. B. working experience.
C. time at midday to relax. D. time to have lunch with her fat her.
24. In the second paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence "my school report predictably
had not lived up to my father’s high expectations"
A. The school made a report about my expectations to my father.
B. My father has not satisfied with my results at school.
C. The report from school is highly predictable to my father.
D. My father expects to receive the school report soon.
25. What does the writer mean by "daunting" in line 16?
A. disgusting B. frightening C. interesting D. strange
26. What did Mary do while she walked from the kitchen to the dining room?
A. She smiled at Gordon in a friendly way.
B. She avoided touching Gordon.
C. She checked the food Gordon gave her.
29
D. She started to look more friendly.
27. Why did Mary enjoy serving breakfasts more than dinners?
A. She enjoyed the view from the dining room while working.
B. She had a better relationship with the guests.
C. The guests were more punctual than at dinner.
D. She worked more efficiently at breakfast.
28. How did Mary’s father improve her position in the hotel?
A. He put her in charge of the restaurant.
B. He asked her to provide entertainment for the guests.
C. He made her responsible for part of dinner.

D. He gave her a special uniform.
29. What was special about the food on Mary’s Sweet Trolley?
A. Mary made it following traditional recipes.
B. Mary made the same food for picnics.
C. Mary and Gordon made it together.
D. Mary made most of it without following recipes.
30. What impression does Mary give of her job throughout the passage? A. It brought
her closer to her father. B. It was sometimes uncomfortable. C. It was always
enjoyable. D. It was quite easy to do.
30
Line
Potash (the old name for potassium carbonate) is one of the two alkalis (the
other being soda, sodium carbonate) that were used from remote antiquity in the making of
glass, and from the early Middle Ages in the making of soap: the former being the product of
heating a mixture of alkali and sand, the latter a product of alkali 5
and vegetable oil. Their importance in the communities of colonial North America
need hardly be stressed.
Potash and soda are not interchangeable for all purposes, but for glass-or soap-
making either would do. Soda was obtained largely from the ashes of certain Mediterranean
sea plants, potash from those of inland vegetation. Hence potash was 10
more familiar to the early European settlers of the North American continent. The

settlement at Jamestown in Virginia was in many ways a microcosm of the economy of
colonial North America, and potash was one of its first concerns. It was required for the
glassworks, the first factory in the British colonies, and was produced in sufficient
quantity to permit the inclusion of potash in the first cargo 15
shipped out of Jamestown. The second ship to arrive in the settlement from England
included among its passengers experts in potash making.
The method of making potash was simple enough. Logs was piled up and
burned in the open, and the ashes collected. The ashes were placed in a barrel with holes in
the bottom, and water was poured over them. The solution draining from the 20
barrel was boiled down in iron kettles. The resulting mass was further heated to fuse
the mass into what was called potash.
In North America, potash making quickly became an adjunct to the clearing of
land for agriculture, for it was estimated that as much as half the cost of clearing land could
be recovered by the sale of potash. Some potash was exported from Maine and 25
New Hampshire in the seventeenth century, but the market turned out to be mainly
domestic, consisting mostly of shipments from the northern to the southern colonies. For
despite the beginning of the trade at Jamestown and such encouragements as a series of
acts to encourage the making of potash, beginning in 1707 in South Carolina, the
softwoods in the South proved to be poor sources of the substance.
31. What aspect of potash does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How it was made
B. Its value as a product for export
C. How it differs from other alkalis
D. Its importance in colonial North America
32. All of the following statements are true of both potash and soda EXCEPT
…………… A. They are alkalis.
B. They are made from sea plants.
C. They are used in making soap.
D. They are used in making glass.
31
33. They phrase "the latter" in paragraph 1 refers to ……………….
A. alkali B. glass C. sand D. soap
34. The word "stressed" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ………………….. A.
defined B. emphasized C. adjusted D. mentioned
35. The word "interchangeable" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to …..
A. convenient B. identifiable C. equivalent D. advantageous
36. It can be inferred from the passage that potash was more common than soda in colonial
North America because ……..
A. the materials needed for making soda were not readily available
B. making potash required less time than making soda
C. potash was better than soda for making glass and soap

D. the colonial glassworks found soda more difficult to use
37. According to paragraph 4, all of the following were needed for making potash EXCEPT
…… A. wood B. fire C. sand D. water
38. The word "adjunct" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ……
A. addition B. answer C. problem D. possibility
39. According to the passage, a major benefit of making potash was that
……. A. it could be exported to Europe in exchange for other goods
B. it helped finance the creation of farms
C. it could be made with a variety of materials
D. stimulated the development of new ways of glassmaking
40. According to paragraph 5, the softwoods in the South posed which of the following
problems for southern settles?
A. The softwoods were not very plentiful.
B. The softwoods could not be used to build houses.
C. The softwoods were not very marketable.
D. The softwoods were not very useful for making potash.
32
C: WRITING (Time allowed: 60 minutes)
TASK 1
Your friend Jane has written you a letter. Part of it says
“What’s your favorite day of the week? I’d love to hear all about it”
Write an email responding to your friend. You should write at least 120 words. Your response

will be evaluated in terms of Task fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
TASK 2
Nowadays online shopping becomes more popular than in-store shopping. Is it a positive or
a negative development? Give your reasons and examples.
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the effect of online shopping. Include
reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.
Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
33
D: SPEAKING
Let’s talk about your hometown
1. When is the best time to come to your hometown? Why?
2. What do you like best about your hometown?
3. Do you think your hometown is the best place to grow up? Why/ Why not?
Now, let’s talk about your best friend.
1. What does your best friend look like?
2. How did you meet your best friend?

3. In your opinion, what is the best quality of a good friend?
Your friends are going to have a party. Where and when should they have the party?
PART 3: TOPIC
Describe an activity you like to do in your free time
34
TEST 3
A. LISTENING
PART 1

1. What have they forgotten?
A. ticket B. camera C. passport D. bag
2. What time does the train go?
A. 06.15 B. 07.40 C. 06.10 D. 07.10
3. How did the woman get to work?
A. by bicycle B. by bus C. by car D. by train
4. Where are the man’s shoes?
A. under the chair B. by the television
C. by the door with the other rubbish D. under the table
5. What will Paul get at the shop?
A. mushrooms B. onions C. carrots D. red pepper
6. How were they told to do their homework?
A. write it in the books B. write it on paper C. type it D. email it
7. What did Helen buy?
A. gloves B. sweater C. socks D. hat
8. How did the woman get to work today?
A. by bus B. a neighbour offered her a lift C. by bike D. walk
35
PART 2: You will hear three different conversations. In each conversation there are
four questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will
hear the conversations only once
Conversation 1. You will hear a conversation between a boy, Tyrone, and a
receptionist. 9. What hours does the speaker work on Monday?
A. Noon to 6 PM B. 8:15 AM to 5 PM C. 7 AM to 12 PM D. 5 PM to 9 PM 10. On
which two days does the speaker have the same schedule?
A. Monday and Tuesday B. Wednesday and Thursday C. Tuesday and

Thursday D. Thursday and Friday
11. What is the main purpose of the speaker's talk?
A. To discussthe importance of the job
B. To compare the work of doctors and dentists
C. To describe a typical week at work
D. To explain the details of a day at work
12. What does the speaker think of her work?
A. She enjoys sleeping late every morning. B. It is difficult to describe her schedule.
C. She enjoys helping the patients. D. It is too complicated to remember.
Conversation 2: Listen to the conversation an answer the questions
13. According to the conversation, which item did the woman NOT purchase with her
credit card?
A. a digital camera B. DVD player C. a TV D. a stereo
14. What is one reason to explain why the woman obtained a student credit card?
A. She wants to buy things at a discount using the card
B. She hopes to establish a good credit rating.
C. She doesn't want to borrow from her parents.
D. She can be financially independent.
15. What does the woman imply about how she plans on resolving her credit card
problems? A. She hopes that someone will give her the money.
B. She plans on getting rid of her student credit cards.
36
C. She’ll get a part-time job
D. She is going to return the items she purchased on the card.
16. What is the man going to do for the woman to help her manage her
money? A. help her find a better paying job to cover her expenses
B. teach her how to prepare a financial management plan
C. show her how she can apply for low-interest student credit cards
D. teach her how to shop wisely.
Conversation 3. Listen to a conversation between a man and a florist.
17. Why does the customer not buy the recommended sandwich at the beginning of
the conversation?

A. It is too expensive. B. He is not interested in ordering a burger. C. It is not tasty.
D. He fears the food will make him sick. 18. How does the specialty drink get its name?
A. It contains a wide range of ingredients. B. It is prepared in the kitchen sink. C.
It contains chicken soup. D. It comes in a very large cup. 19. Why was the man
surprised by the price of his meal?
A. He thought the drink should have been included.
B. He felt the meal was way overpriced.
C. He was charged for two sandwiches instead of one.
D. It was lower than he had expected.
20. What does the customer decide to do at the end of the
conversation? A. He orders something from the restaurant menu.
B. He plans to come back at weekend.
C. He decides to look for another place to eat.
D. He plans to come in a week when the prices are lower.
PART 3
only once.
37
Talk/Lecture 1. You will hear a woman called Sandy talking to a group of students about
her job.
21. What did Sandy Duffy want to be when she was at school?
A. a journalist B. a musician C. A director D. A basketball player 22. What did
Sandy study at university?
A. Math and Physics B. film making C. Technology D. Art 23. How did
Sandy get her first job as a video game writer?
A. She answered a job advertisement.
B. She met someone at a conference.
C. She sent some information about herself to a company.

D. She was invited by a friend.
24. What does Sandy like best about being a video game writer?
A. the prizes she has won. B. the high salary
C. the people she works with D. the great working condition
25. What does Sandy dislike about being a video game writer?
A. She has to travel a lot. B. She has to work long hours.
C. She often has to change her job. D. She has to live far from home.
Talk/Lecture 2: Listen and answer the questions
26. How long does the trek last?
A. a day B. three days C. five days D. a week 27. The trek aims to raise
money for …………..
A. health care B. school education C. hospital D. the old people 28. The cost
of the trek includes ………………
A. flight and airport taxes B. medical provision and taxes
C. Foods D. Food and accommodation
29. Participants must ………………
A. walk across a glacier. B. complete a fitness course.
38
C. agree to raise fundsfor the charity. D. pay amount of money. 30. The trip
starts on ……………..
A. 1st
of November B. 3rd
of November C. 13th
of November D. 23th of November
Talk/Lecture 3. Listen to a woman talking about changes of India.
31. Where do many of the rich people live?
A. next to the new road B. in the cities.
C. in the countryside. D. in isolated places.
32. How long is the road?
A. 600 kilometres B. 6,000 kilometers
C. 60,000 kilometres D. 60 miles

33. What can you see on the computers at the road’s headquarters in Delhi? A.
small vehicles on the road B. any vehicle and problems on the road C. big vehicles on
the road D. serious problems on the road
34. What types of transport can you see on the road?
A. all types B. mostly cars C. mostly motorbikes D. the presenter doesn’t say
35. Why does the presenter describe the new road as a symbol of India’s
future? A. because it’s the same shape as the country of India.
B. because it is modern, it is helping the economy grow.
C. Because India has big population
D. Because India has lots of transport
39
B: READING
_________________________________________________________________________
the answer sheet.

Phillis Wheatley was born in Gambia (in Africa) on May 8, 1753 and died in Boston on
December 5, 1784.
When she was 7 or 8, she was sold as a slave to John and Susanna Wheatley of Boston. She was
named after the ship that brought her to America, The Phillis.
The Poetry Foundation describes her sale:
In August 1761, “in want of a domestic,” Susanna Wheatley, … purchased “a slender, frail
female child … for a trifle”… The captain of the slave ship believed that the waif was terminally
ill, and he wanted … at least a small profit before she died. … The family surmised the girl—
who was “of slender frame and evidently suffering from a change of climate,” nearly naked,
with “no other covering than a quantity of dirty carpet about her” - to be “about seven years old
… from the circumstances of shedding her front teeth.”
(http://www.poetryfoundation.org/bio/phillis wheatley)
Phillis was very intelligent. The Wheatley family taught her to read and write, and encouraged her
to write poetry. Her first poem “On Messrs. Hussey and Coffin” was published when she was only
twelve. In 1770, "An Elegiac Poem, on the Death of that Celebrated Divine, and Eminent Servant
of Jesus Christ, the Reverend and Learned George Whitefield" made her famous. It was published
in Boston, Newport, and Philadelphia.
When she was eighteen, Phillis and Mrs. Wheatley tried to sell a collection containing twenty eight
of her poems. Colonists did not want to buy poetry written by an African. Mrs. Wheatley wrote to
England to ask Selina Hastings, Countess of Huntingdon, for help. The countess was a wealthy
supporter of evangelical and abolitionist (anti-slavery) causes. She had Poems on Various Subjects,
Religious and Moral published in England in 1773. This book made Phillis famous in
40
England and the thirteen colonies. She wrote a poem for George Washington in 1775, and he
praised her work. They met in 1776. Phillis supported independence for the colonies during the
Revolutionary War.
After her master died, Phillis was emancipated. She married John Peters, a free black man, in 1778.
She and her husband lost two children as infants. John would be imprisoned for debt in 1784.
Phillis and her remaining child died in December of 1784 and were buried in an unmarked grave.
Nevertheless, the legacy of Phillis Wheatly lives on. She became the first African American and
the first slave in the United States to publish a book. She proved that slaves or former slaves had
a valuable voice in the Revolutionary era.
1. It can be inferred from the passage that the Countess of Huntingdon …
A. didn't care about Phillis' poetry
B. helped Phillis get her writings published
C. believed in slavery
D. was surprised that Phillis could read and write

2. What question is answered in last paragraph?
A. Who did Phillis marry? B. Where were Phillis' works published? C. What
did Phillis prove? D. Why was Phillis a slave?
3. Phillis finally became free …
A. when she published her poems in England
B. after meeting the Countess of Huntingdon
C. when she became wealthy
D. after her master died
4. Phillis' first attempt at selling her poetry in America (the colonies) was … A.
illegal B. imaginary C. unsuccessful D. successful
5. Which of the following is TRUE about Phillis Wheatley?
A. She was the first African-American slave to visit England.
B. She was the first African-American and slave to publish a book in the United
States. C. She was the first African-American and slave to be able to read and write D.
She was the first African-American and slave to meet George Washington.
41
6. The Wheatley family estimated the age of the slave girl they named "Phills" by
… A. her size B. the condition of her teeth C. her color D. her weight 7. By the age
of twelve, Phillis was …
A. no longer a slave B. married C. a published poet
D. still not able to read or write
8. The slaveowner who sold Phillis to the Wheatley family believed …
A. she would soon recover from her illness B. she was very intelligent
C. she was worth a lot of money D. she would soon die 9. Who was
George Whitefield?
A. A military general B. Somebody who Phillis admired greatly
C. Phillis' husband D. A slave owner
10. Where is Phillis Wheatley buried?
A. No one knows B. Africa C. Boston D. Virginia

The conservatism of the early English colonists in North America, their strong attachment
to the English way of doing things, would play a major part in the furniture that was made in New
England. The very tools that the first New England furniture makers used were, after all, not much
different from those used for centuries- even millennia: basic hammers, saws, chisels, planes,
augers, compasses, and measures. These were the tools used more or less by all people who worked
with wood: carpenters, barrel makers, and shipwrights. At most the furniture makers might have
had planes with special edges or more delicate chisels, but there could not have been much
specialization in the early years of the colonies.
The furniture makers in those early decades of the 1600’ s were known as “joiners,” for the
primary method of constructing furniture, at least among the English of this time, was that of
mortise-and-tenon joinery. The mortise is the hole chiseled and cut into one piece of wood, while
the tenon is the tongue or protruding element shaped from another piece of wood so that it fits
into the mortise; and another small hole is then drilled (with the auger) through the mortised end
and the tenon so that a whittled peg can secure the joint- thus the term “joiner." Panels were fitted
into slots on the basic frames. This kind of construction was used for making everything from
houses to chests.
Relatively little hardware was used during this period. Some nails-forged by hand- were
used, but no screws or glue. Hinges were often made of leather, but metal hinges were also used.
The cruder varieties were made by blacksmiths in the colonies, but the finer metal elements were
42
imported. Locks and escutcheon plates -the latter to shield the wood from the metal key- would
often be imported. Above all, what the early English colonists imported was their knowledge of,
familiarity with, and dedication to the traditional types and designs of furniture they knew in
England.
11. The phrase “attachment to” in line 2 is closest in meaning to …………
A. control of B. distance from C. curiosity about D. preference for 12. The
word “protruding” in line 12 is closest in meaning to ……..
A. parallel B. simple C. projecting D. important
13. The relationship of a mortise and a tenon is most similar to that of …….. A.
a lock and a key B. a book and its cover C. a cup and a saucer D. a
hammer and a nail
14. For what purpose did woodworkers use an auger ……….
A. To whittle a peg B. To make a tenon C. To drill a hole D. To measure a panel 15.
Which of the following were NOT used in the construction of colonial furniture? A. Mortises B.
Nails C. Hinges D. Screws

16. The author implies that colonial metalworkers were ……
A. unable to make elaborate parts B. more skilled than woodworkers C. more
conservative than other colonists D. frequently employed by joiners 17. The word
“shield” in line 20 is closest in meaning to ……..
A. decorate B. copy C. shape D. protect
18. The word “they” in line 25 refers to ………….
A. designs B. types C. colonists D. all
19. The author implies that the colonial joiners ……..
A. were highly paid
B. based their furniture on English models
C. used many specialized tools
D. had to adjust to using new kinds of wood in New England
20. Which of the following terms does the author explain in the passage? A. “millennia” B.
“joiners” C. “whittled” D. “blacksmiths”
43
In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous
other benefits for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads and
provided for the protection of daring adventurers and expeditions as well as established settlers.
Forts also served as bases where enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce to the West,
providing supplies and refreshments to soldiers as well as to pioneers. Posts like Fort Laramie
provided supplies for wagon trains traveling the natural highways toward new frontiers. Some
posts became stations for the pony express; still others, such as Fort Davis, were stagecoach stops
for weary travelers. All f these functions, of course, suggest that the contributions of the forts to
the civilization and development of the West extended beyond patrol duty.
Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the
development of western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and some - for
example, Fort Davis- had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious services and
weddings. Throughout the wilderness, post bands provided entertainment and boosted morale.
During the last part of the nineteenth century, to reduce expenses, gardening was encouraged at
the forts, thus making experimental agriculture another activity of the military. The military
stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian life by assisting in maintaining order,
and civilian officials often called on the army for protection.
Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of the
conditions of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and architecture.
From the earliest colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease ranked as the foremost
problem in defense. It slowed construction of forts and inhibited their military functions. Official

documents from many regions contained innumerable reports of sickness that virtually
incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the problems, detailed observations of architecture
and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the occurrence of various diseases were
recorded at various posts across the nation by military surgeons.
21. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. By the nineteenth century, forts were no longer used by the military.
B. Surgeons at forts could not prevent outbreaks of disease.
C. Forts were important to the development of the American West
D. Life in nineteenth-century forts was very rough.
22. The word “daring” in line 3 is closest in meaning to ……
A. lost B. bold C. lively D. foolish
23. Which of the following would a traveler be likely be LEAST likely to obtain at Fort
Laramie? A. Fresh water B. Food C Formal clothing D. Lodging
44
24. The word “others” in line 6 refers to ……
A. posts B. wagon trains C. frontiers D. highways 25. The word “boosted" in
line 12 is closest in meaning to …….
A. influenced B. established C. raised D. maintained
26. Which of the following is the most likely inference about the decision to promote gardening
at forts?
A. It was expensive to import produce from far away.
B. Food brought in from outside was often spoiled
C. Gardening was a way to occupy otherwise idle soldiers.
D. The soil near the forts was very fertile.
27. According to the passage, which of the following posed the biggest obstacle to the
development of military forts?
A. Insufficient shelter B. Shortage of materials
C. Attacks by wild animals D. Illness
28. The word “inhibited” in line 22 is closest in meaning to ………..
A. involved B. exploited C. united D. hindered

29. How did the military assists in the investigation of health problems?
A. By registering annual birth and death rates
B. By experiments with different building materials
C. By maintaining records of diseases and potential causes
D. By monitoring the soldiers’ diets
30. The author organizes the discussion of forts by …………..
A. describing their locations
B. comparing their sizes
C. explaining their damage to the environment
D. listing their contributions to western life
Anyone who has handled a fossilized bone knows that it is usually not exactly like its
modern counterpart, the most obvious difference being that it is often much heavier. Fossils
45
often have the quality of stone rather than of organic materials, and this has led to the use of the
term “ petrifaction” (to bring about rock). The implication is that bone, and other tissues, have
somehow been turned into stone, and this is certainly the explanation given in some texts. But it is
wrong interpretation; fossils are frequently so dense because the pores and other spaces in the
bone have become filled with minerals taken up from the surrounding sediments. Some fossil
bones have all the interstitial spaces filled with foreign minerals, including the marrow cavity, if
there is one, while others have taken up but little from their surroundings. Probably all of the
minerals deposited within the bone have been recrystallized from solution by the action of water
percolating thru them. The degree of mineralization appears to be determined by the nature of the
environment in which the bone was deposited and not by the antiquity of the bone. For example,
the black fossil bones that are so common in many parts of Florida are heavily mineralized, but
they are only about 20,000 years old, whereas many of the dinosaur bones from western Canada,
which are about 75 million years old, are only partially filled in. Under optimum conditions the
process of mineralization probably takes thousands rather than millions of years, perhaps
considerably less.
The amount of change that has occurred in fossil bone, even in bone as old as that of
dinosaurs, is often remarkably small. We are therefore usually able to see the microscopic
structures of the bone, including such fine details as the lacunae where the living bone cells once
resided. The natural bone mineral, the hydroxyapatite, is virtually unaltered too -it has the same
crystal structure as that of modern bone. Although nothing remains of the original collagen, some
of its component amino acids are usually still detectable, together with amino acids of the
noncollagen proteins of bone.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The location of fossils in North America B. The composition of fossils C.
Determining the size and weight of fossils D. Procedures for analyzing fossils 32. The word
“counterpart” in line 2 is closest in meaning to ……..
A. species B. version C. change D. material
33. Why is fossilized bone heavier than ordinary bone?
A. Bone tissue solidifies with age.
B. The marrow cavity gradually fills with water
C. The organic materials turn to stone
D. Spaces within the bone fill with minerals.
34. The word “pores” in line 6 is closest in meaning to…………
A. joints B. tissues C. lines D. holes
46
35. What can be inferred about a fossil with a high degree of mineralization? A. It
was exposed to large amounts of mineral-laden water throughout time. B.
Mineralization was complete within one year of the animal’s death.
C. Many colorful crystals can be found in such a fossil.
D. It was discovered in western Canada.
36. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the extent of mineralization
in fossil bones?
A. The age of fossil
B. Environmental conditions
C. The location ofthe bone in the animal’s body.
D. The type of animal the bone came from
37. Why does the author compare fossils found in western Canada to those found in Florida?
A. To prove that a fossil’s age cannot be determined by the amount of mineralization.
B. To discuss the large quantity of fossils found in both places
C. To suggest that fossils found in both places were the same age.
D. To explain why scientists are especially interested in Canadian fossils
38. The word “it” in line 21 refers to ………

A. hydroxyapatite B. microscopic structure C. crystal structure
D. modern bone
39. The word “detectable” in line 23 is closest in meaning to ………….
A. sizable B. active C. moist D. apparent
40. Which of the following does NOT survive in fossils?
A. Noncollagen proteins B. Hydroxyapatite C. Collagen D. Amino acid
47
C: WRITING
No. of items: 2
TASK 1
Write a letter to one of your friends to tell her/him about the holiday you are having. In
your letter you should say:
• Where you are going
• Why you want to go there
• The people you are going with
TASK 2
You should spend 40 minutes on this task.

Some people like to travel with a companion. Other people prefer to travel alone. Which
do you prefer? Use specific reasons and examples to support your choice.
Write an essay to an educated reader to show your opinion. You should write at least 250
words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary
and Grammar.
48
C: SPEAKING
PART I: SOCIAL INTERACTION
Let’s talk about holiday.
1. What did you do on your last holiday?
2. Who do you prefer spending your holiday with? Relatives or friends?
3. Do you prefer going on holiday abroad?
Now, let’s talk about TV programmes.
1. How many hours a day do you watch television?
2. Which programmes do you like?
3. Do you prefer watching television alone or with other people? Why?
PART II: SOLUTION DISCUSSION
Situation: If you won the lottery of 1 billion VND, what would you do with the
money? There are THREE options for you to choose:
- Buy a new house.
- Start a business.
- Deposit the money in the bank.
Explain the option you have chosen.

PART III: TOPIC DEVELOPMENT
Describe a popular holiday destination in your country.
49
TEST 4
A: LISTENING
PART 1
There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording.
For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You now have 48 seconds to look
through the questions and the options in each question.
1. What is John going to do tonight?
A. swimming B. cycling C. playing football D. running
2. Which bag does the woman buy?
A. square bag B. small and round bag C. a big bag D. an oval bag
3. How much did the woman pay for the apples?
A. 30 pence B. 35 pence C. 40 pence D. 34 pence
4. When must the boys get on the coach?
A. 12:50 B. 01:30 C. 02:30 D. 03:20

5. What fruit do they take?
A. oranges B. bananas C. grapes D. apples
6. Which present has the man bought?
A. book B. bag C. gloves D. flowers
7. Where are the photographs?
A. on the bookshelf B. on the TV
C. on the table with the coffee cups D. in the café shop
8. What did Ben break?
A. vase B. glass C. cup D. dinner bowls
50
PART 2
You will hear three different conversations. In each conversation there are four questions. For
each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversations only
once.
Conversation 1. You will hear a conversation between a boy, Tyrone, and a receptionist.
9. When is the picnic?
A. on Thursday B. on Friday C. on Saturday D. on Sunday 10. Where is the
picnic being held?
A. at a park B. at the beach C. at Dave's house D. by a river 11. How many
packages of hot dogs do they decide to buy?
A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9
12. What does Dave suggest Scott make for the picnic dessert?
A. cherry pie B. chocolate cake. C. oatmeal cookies D. fudge brownies Conversation
2: Listen and answer the following questions
13. What does the boy want to do at the beginning of the conversation? A. go play
outside B. play video games C. watch TV D. play football
14. What does the boy have to do in his bedroom?
A. put away his books B. make his bed

C. pick up his dirty clothes. D. clean the floor.
15. What is the father going to do while the boy is doing his household
chores? A. wash the car B. paint the house.
C. work in the yard D. clean the floor
16. Where will the father and son go after the housework is done?
A. to a movie B. out to eat C. to a ball game
D. to a shopping center.
Conversation 3: Listen and answer the following questions
17. What time does the plane depart?
A. 6:00 AM B. 7:30 AM C. 8:00 AM D. 9:00 AM
18. How will the group get to the hotel from the airport?
51
A. They will take taxis B. They will ride the subway.
C. They will be going by bus. D. They can choose either bus or subway 19. What
is the group planning to do around Times Square for about an hour? A. They're
going to have lunch. B. They will have time to do some shopping. C. They will see a
festival. D. They will be having a tour of the area. 20. What are they going to do after
dinner?
A. The group is going to watch a musical. B. They will catch an exciting movie.
C. They will be attending a Broadway play. D. They will see a football match.
PART 3
only once.
Talk/Lecture 1. You will hear a man called Frank, talking on the radio about looking for
ships that sank at sea long ago.
21. The first old ship which Frank found was ……….
A. covered by rocks B. older than he first thought
C. easy to find D. had a lot of gold

22. Why did Frank find the ships so quickly?
A. reads history books. B. is a professional driver.
C. his friends helped him. D. uses the latest equipment.
23. What does Frank say about the ship called The Seabird?
A. It was so expensive. B. It was built in 1859.
C. It sank in a storm. D. It was badly made.
24. What did Frank say about his wedding ring?
A. was made from gold he found himself. B. it was given by someone
C. is worth 88,000 pounds. D. was found by a friend.
52
25. How did Frank learn to dive?
A. by joining a diving club B. by asking the dive tutor
C. by teaching himself D. by going on a diving holiday
Talk/Lecture 2. You will hear an interview with a woman called Rachel who is taking about
the shows she puts on for children.
26. The Black Rock Caves have been home for….
A .Two million years B. A million year
C. A half a million year D. centuries
27. When can the cave attract the tourists?
A. from April to October B. April C. October D. August 28. Salter house
was built in …………
A.1765s B. 1756s C.1928s D.1982s
29. The things that are worth to visit in Salter house is …………
A. the furniture B. the paintings C. the enormous meals D. the kitchen 30. What
should tourists do as visiting The Old Port?
A. take an old trek to visit the riverside B. buy different traditional costumes C.
try sweets made in the Tea Shop D. visit the village factory

Talk/Lecture 3. Listen to a lecture about culture study.
31. What does the professor say about the elements in the body?
A. Ideally, these should be different amounts of each.
B. The amount of each in the body is not very important.
C. They can be out of balance.
D. Different people have different elements.
32. According to the professor, what are yin and yang?
A. They are opposite forces. B. They are what make a person healthy.
53
C. They are four different elements. D. They are the land and the ocean. 33.
What does the professor say about yin and yang?
A. They are always in balance. B. They are always changing. C. They don’t need to be in
balance. D. They compare with each other. 34. According to the Chinese, five elements
of Yin and Yang are studied for the work of
A. the body and spirit B. body, mind and spirit work C. balance and harmony
35. Why does the professor says “Yin and Yang should be considered as opposite forces
like, uhh, like land and ocean, for example”?
A. To correct something she said earlier
B. To explain a term she just introduced
C. To explain what is wrong with a particular theory
D. To remind the students of something discussed earlier

54
B: READING
_________________________________________________________________________
questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or, to each
the answer sheet.
In the last third of the nineteenth century a new housing form was quietly being developed.
In 1869 the Stuyvesant, considered New York’s first apartment house was built on East Eighteenth
Street. The building was financed by the developer Rutherfurd Stuyvesant and designed by Richard
Morris Hunt, the first American architect to graduate from the Ecole des Beaux Arts in Paris. Each
man had lived in Paris, and each understood the economics and social potential of this Parisian
housing form. But the Stuyvesant was at best a limited success. In spite of Hunt’s inviting fagade,
the living space was awkwardly arranged. Those who could afford them were quite content to
remain in the more sumptuous, single-family homes, leaving the Stuyvesant to young married
couples and bachelors.
The fundamental problem with the Stuyvesant and the other early apartment buildings that
quickly followed, in the 1870’s and early 1880’s was that they were confined to the typical New
York building lot. That lot was a rectangular area 25 feet wide by 100 feet deep - a shape perfectly
suited for a row house. The lot could also accommodate a rectangular tenement, though it could
not yield the square, well-lighted, and logically arranged rooms that great apartment buildings
require. But even with the awkward interior configurations of the early apartment buildings, the
idea caught on. It met the needs of a large and growing population that wanted something better
than tenements but could not afford or did not want row houses.
So while the city’ s newly emerging social leadership commissioned their mansions,
apartment houses and hotels began to sprout in multiple lots, thus breaking the initial space
constraints. In the closing decades of the nineteenth century, large apartment houses began dotting
the developed portions of New York City, and by the opening decades of the twentieth century,
spacious buildings, such as the Dakota and the Ansonia finally transcended the tight confinement
of row house building lots. From there it was only a small step to building luxury apartment houses
on the newly created Park Avenue, right next to the fashionable Fifth Avenue shopping area.
55
1. The new housing form discussed in the passage refers to ………….

A. single-family homes B. apartment buildings
C. row houses D. hotels
2. The word “inviting” in line 6 is closest in meaning to …………..
A. open B. encouraging C. attractive D. asking 3. Why was the Stuyvesant a limited
success?
A. The arrangement of the rooms was not convenient.
B. Most people could not afford to live there.
C. There were no shopping areas nearby.
D. It was in a crowded neighborhood.
4. The word “sumptuous” in line 7 is closest in meaning to ………….
A. luxurious B. unique C. modern D. distant
5. It can be inferred that the majority of people who lived in New York’ s first apartments were
………..
A. highly educated B. unemployed C. wealthy D. young
6. It can be inferred that the typical New York building lot of the 1870’s and 1880’s looked
MOST like which of the following?
A. B. C. D.
7. It can be inferred that a New York apartment building in the 1870’s and 1880’s had all of the
following characteristics EXCEPT ……….
A. Its room arrangement was not logical. B. It was rectangular.
C. It was spacious inside. D. It had limited light.
56
8. The word “yield” in line 12 is closest in meaning to ………
A. harvest B. surrender C. amount D. provide
9. Why did the idea of living in an apartment become popular in the late 1800’s?

A. Large families needed housing with sufficient space.
B. Apartments were preferable to tenements and cheaper than row houses C. The city
officials of New York wanted housing that was centrally located. D. The shape of
early apartments could accommodate a variety of interior designs.
10. The author mentions the Dakota and the Ansonia in line 24 because
………… A. they are examples of large, well designed apartment buildings
B. their design is similar to that of row houses
C. they were built on a single building lot
D. they are famous hotels
A snowfall consists of myriads of minute ice crystals that fall to the ground in the form of
frozen precipitation. The formation of snow begins with these ice crystals in the subfreezing strata
of the middle and upper atmosphere when there is an adequate supply of moisture present. At the
core of every ice crystal is a minuscule nucleus, a solid particle of matter around which moisture
condenses and freezes. Liquid water droplets floating in the supercooled atmosphere and free ice
crystals cannot coexist within the same cloud, since the vapor pressure of ice is less than that of
water. This enables the ice crystals to rob the liquid droplets of their moisture and grow
continuously. The process can be very rapid, quickly creating sizable ice crystals, some of which
adhere to each other to create a cluster of ice crystals or a snowflake. Simple flakes possess a
variety of beautiful forms, usually hexagonal, though the symmetrical shapes reproduced in most
microscope photography of snowflakes are not usually found in actual snowfalls. Typically,
snowflakes in actual snowfall consists of broken fragments and clusters of adhering ice crystals.
For a snowfall to continue once it starts, there must be a constant inflow of moisture to
supply the nuclei. This moisture is supplied by the passage of an airstream over a water surface
and its subsequent lifting to higher regions of the atmosphere. The Pacific Ocean is the source of
moisture for most snowfalls west of the Rocky Mountains, while the Gulf of Mexico and the
Atlantic Ocean feed water vapor into the air currents over the central and eastern sections of the
United States. Other geographical features also can be the source of moisture for some snowstorms.
For example, areas adjacent to the Great Lakes experience their own unique lake effect storms,
employing a variation of the process on a local scale. In addition, mountainous section or rising
terrain can initiate snowfalls by the geographical lifting of a moist airstream.
57
11. Which of the following questions does the author answer in the first paragraph?
A. Why are snowflakes hexagonal?
B. What is the optimum temperature for snow?
C. In which months does most snow fall?

D. How are snowflakes formed?
12. The word “minute” in line 1 is closest in meaning to ………..
A. tiny B. quick C. clear D. sharp
13. What is at the center of an ice crystal?
A. A small snowflake B. A nucleus C. A drop of water D. A hexagon 14. The
word “adhere” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ……………..
A. belong B. relate C. stick D. speed
15. What is the main topic of the second paragraph?
A. How ice crystals form
B. How moisture affects temperature
C. What happens when ice crystals melt
D. Where the moisture to supply the nuclei comes from
16. The word “it” in line 13 refers to …………….
A. snowfall B. snowflake C. cluster D. moisture
17. What is necessary for a snowfall to persist?
A. A decrease in the number of snowflakes B. Lowered vapor pressure in ice crystals C.
A continuous infusion of moisture D. A change in the direction of the airstream 18. How do
lake-effect snowstorms form?
A. Water temperature drop below freezing.
B. Moisture rises from a lake into the airstream.
C. Large quantities of wet air come off a nearby mountain.
D. Millions of ice crystals form on the surface of a large lake.
19. The word “initiate” in line 21 is closest in meaning to …………….
58
A. enhance B. alter C. increase D. begin
20. Which of the following could account for the lack of snowfall in a geographical location
close to mountains and a major water source?
A. Ground temperatures below the freezing point
B. Too much moisture in the air
C. Too much wind off the mountains

D. Atmospheric temperatures above the freezing point.
Social parasitism involves one species relying on another to raise its young. Among
vertebrates, the best known social parasites are such birds as cuckoos and cowbirds; the female
lays an egg in a nest belonging to another species and leaves it for the host to rear.
The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites. Consider, for
example, the unusual behavior of ants belonging to the genus Polyergus. All species of this ant
have lost the ability to care for themselves. The workers do not forage for food. feed their brood
or queen, or even dean their own nest. To compensate for these deficits, Polyergus has become
specialized at obtaining workers from the related genus Formica to do these chores.
In a raid, several thousand Polyergus workers will travel up to 500 feet in search of a
Formica nest, penetrate it, drive off the queen and tier workers, capture the pupal brood, and
transport it back to their nest. The captured brood is then reared by the resident Formica workers
until the developing pupae emerge to add to the Formica population, which maintains the mixed
species nest Th e Formica workers forage for food and give it to colony members of both species.
They also remove wastes and excavate new chambers as the population increases.
The true extent of the Polyergus ants' dependence on the Formica becomes apparent when
the worker population grows too large for the existing nest. Formica scouts locate a new nesting
site, return to the mixed-species colony, and recruit additional Formica nest mates. During a
period that may last seven days, the Formica workers carry to the new nest all the Polyergus eggs,
larvae, and pupae, every Polyergus adult, and even the Polyergus queen.
Of the approximately 8,000 species of ants in the world, all 5 species of Polyergus and
some 200 species in other genera have evolved some degree of parasitic relationship with other
ants.
21. Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the passage? A.
Ants belonging to the genus Formica are incapable of performing certain tasks. B.
The genus Polyergus is quite similar to the genus Formica.
59
C. Ants belonging to the genus Polyergus have an unusual relationship with ants
belonging to the genus Formica.
D. Polyergus ants frequently leave their nests to build new colonies.
22. The word "raise" in line 1 is closest in meaning to…………..
A. rear B. lift C. collect D. increase
23. The author mentions cuckoos and cowbirds in line 2 because they
A. share their nests with each other B. are closely related species C. raise

the young of other birds D. are social parasites
24. The word "it" in line 3 refers to ………
A. species B. nest C. egg D. female
25. What does the author mean by stating that “The dulotic species of lifts... are die supreme
social parasites" (line 4)?
A. The Polyergus are more highly developed than die Formica.
B. The Formica have developed specialized roles.
C. The Polyergus are heavily dependent on the Formica.
D. The Formica do not reproduce rapidly enough to care for themselves
26. Which of the following is a task that an ant of the genus Polyergus might do?
A. Look for food. B. Raid another nest
C. Care for the young. D. Clean its own nest.
27. The word "excavate" in line 14 is closest in meaning to ………….
A. find B. clean C. repair D. dig
28. The word "recruit" in line 18 is closest in meaning………….
A. create B. enlist C. endure D. capture
29. What happens when a mixed colony of Polyergus and Formica ants becomes too large?
A. The Polyergus workers enlarge the existing nest.
B. The captured Formica workers return to their original nest.
C. The Polyergus and the Formica build separate nests.
D. The Polyergus and the Formica move to a new nest.
60
30. According to the information in the passage, all of the following terms refer to ants
belonging to the genus Formica EXCEPT the …………
A. dulotic species of ants B. captured brood
C. developing pupae D. worker population
The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to
the decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection

displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family,
Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive renovations
made to it between 1929 and 1931, the house remained a family residence. This fact is of
importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum. The impression of a lived-in house is
apparent to the visitor; the rooms look as if they were vacated only a short while ago whether by
the original owners of the furniture or the most recent residents of the house can be a matter of
personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in which a collection of furniture and
architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country house, it is an organic
structure; the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to the visitor, has changed
over the years. The changes have coincided with developing concepts of the American arts,
increased knowledge on the part of collectors and students, and a progression toward the
achievement of a historical effect in period-room displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed
this current, yet still retained the character of a private house.
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years
in an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and would
give them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history
museum, the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and
provides an opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture.
31. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned
B. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum
C. How Winterthur compares to English country houses
D. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur
32. The phrase "devoted to" in line 1 is closest in meaning to ……..
A. surrounded by B. specializing in C. successful with D. sentimental about 33. What
happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931?
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A. The owners moved out. B. The house was repaired.
C. The old furniture was replaced. D. The estate became a museum.
34. What does the author mean by stating "The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the
visitor" (line 6)?
A. Winterthur is very old.
B. Few people visit Winterthur.
C. Winterthur does not look like a typical museum.
D. The furniture at Winterthur looks comfortable.

35. The word "assembled" in line 9 is closest in meaning to ………..
A. summoned B. appreciate C. brought together D. fundamentally changed 36. The
word "it" in line 10 refers to …………
A. Winterthur B. collection C. English country house D. visitor 37. The
word "developing" in line 11 is closest in meaning to ………….
A. traditional B. exhibiting C. informative D. evolving
38. According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the following
EXCEPT ………
A. date B. style C. place of manufacture D. past ownership 39. What is die relationship
between the two paragraphs in the passage? A. The second paragraph explains a term that was
mentioned in the first paragraph. B. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the
display of objects in a museum.
C. The second paragraph explains a philosophy of art appreciation that contrasts with the
philosophy explained in me first paragraph.
D. Each paragraph describes a different historical period.
40. Where in the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have changed?
A. lines 1-3 B. lines 5-6 C. lines 7-8 D. lines 10-11
62
C: WRITING
No. of items: 2
TASK 1
You have recently started work in a new company.

Write a letter to an English-speaking friend. In your letter
• explain why you changed jobs
• describe your new job
• tell him/her your other news
TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task
Write about the following topic:
In order to solve traffic problems, government should tax private car owners
heavily and use the money to improve public transportation.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of such a solution?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own experience or
knowledge. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task fulfillment, Organization,
Vocabulary and Grammar.
63
D: SPEAKING
Let’s talk about birthday
1. When is your birthday?
2. What do you usually do on your birthday?
3. What is your favourite family celebration? Why?
Now, let’s talk about public transportation

1. What is the best way to travel in your town/city?
2. What is your favourite mean of transportation?
3. Do you think people should use public transportation more? Why? Why not?
You have just received a sum of money from your father as a birthday present. How
would you use the money?
There are THREE options for you to choose:
- To buy a laptop for your study.
- To buy a fashionable smart phone.
- To save up for future.
Explain the option you have chosen.
PART 3: TOPIC
Describe one of your friends
You should say
1. Who the person is
2. What does she look like?
3. What do you often do together?
64
TEST 5
A: LISTTENING
PART 1
There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording.

For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You now have 48 seconds to look
through the questions and the options in each question.
1. What time is it?
A. 02.10 B. 02.20 C. 02.30 D. 03.20
2. What’s Michelle going to read?
A. book B. letter C. newspaper D. magazine
3. How much did the tickets cost?
A. $19 B. $90 C. $99 D. $9
4. What is the man going to buy?
A. sunglasses B. something to read C. pills D. food
5. Which dress is Kate talking about?
A. a dress with no button B. a dress with many buttons
C. a dress with collar D. a dress with no collar
6. When will Jane meet them?
A. 08:00 B. 08:30 C. 08:45 D. 03:15
7. Which morning activity is for beginners?
A. windsurfing B. swimming C. sailing D. running
8. Which painting does the woman decide to buy?
A. a painting with boats B. a painting with flowers
C. a painting with horses D. a painting with white clouds
65
PART 2
only once.
Conversation 1. You will hear a conversation between Matthew and his
mother 9. Why doesn’t his mother lend him her car?
A. Because her car doesn’t work well today B. Because he can’t drive
C. Because she needs the car D. Because he can walk

10. What will Matthew do after class?
A. move his books B. move his flat C. help his friend D. repair his car 11. When is
his mother’s meeting?
A. Thursday 19th
B. Friday 9th
C. Wednesday 9th
D. Not discussed 12. What is true
about the conversation?
A. Matthew forgot to ask his mother about her car
B. His mother refused to lend him her car.
C. His mother agrees to take him to school by car
D. This problem is due to his mother’s mistake
Conversation 2. Listen to an interview about indoor skydiving
13. Where does he play this sport?
A. in a wind tunnel B. from an aeroplane outdoor C. in a park D. from a high hill 14.
What is the name of the sport center?
A. Vertical Tunnel center B. Extreme sports center
C. Runaway D. Adventure sports center
15. What is it like to be in the wind tunnel?
A. you stand on bars B. you stay afloat
C. your hair is dried D. you fly up high.
16. How dangerous is this sport?
A. Glass might break and hurt you B. You suffer from small injuries
66
C. You might fly off the tunnel D. You can’t stop flying up
Conversation 3. Listen to a conversation between a director of study in an English language
center and a student representative talking about their self-access center.
17. What are the main topic of the conversation?
A. to know how students used the center
B. to know what to do with the center
C. to talk about the effectiveness of the library
D. to learn how to use the library effectively

18. What are the main problem of the center?
A. too many resources B. slow computers
C. lack of valuable resource D. lack of computers
19. The director complains that students are using computer for
A. looking for personal resources B. relocating documents
C. reading their emails D. learning computer skills 20. What are they likely to
do with the center?
A. move it to the library B. purchase more equipment C. ask teacher to
come to the center D. ask students to stop using emails
PART 3
only once.
Talk/Lecture 1. You’ll hear part of a talk about dolls
21. What is the main purpose of the talk?
A. To describe how the man’s favorite dolls look like.
B. To explain how dolls used to look like in the twelfth century.
C. To compare the differences in all doll examples in the museum.
D. To explain how dolls were made differently in times.
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22. The dolls that the man interested in ……….
A. Existed from the twentieth century. B. Existed from the seventeenth century. C.
Existed from the eighteenth century. D. Existed from the nineteenth century. 23. At the
beginning of the twentieth century, dolls were …………….
A. Babies. B. Adults. C. Elderly. D. Males.
24. What makes the dolls in the seventeenth century special?
A. They existed fairly early. B. They were made from solid wood. C. They
are very expensive today. D. Their decorations are original.

25. What can you do with the nineteen- century dolls?
A. Buy them with thousands of pounds. B. Take off their hair.
C. Replace their hair with real hair. D. See the maker’s name on the body.
Talk/Lecture 2. Listen to a man called Stephen Mills talking to a group of people about a
trip to India to see tigers
26. When is the best time to see the tigers?
A. November B. October C. September D. The following day
27. How long will they be in the park?
A. Twenty days. B. Eighteen days. C. Ten days D. No information 28. What
is arranged to make sure the visitors are comfortable?
A. Meals. B. Transportation. C. Accommodation D. Schedule.
29. What is Stephen Mill’s profession?
A. Photographer. B. Tour guide. C. Traveller. D. Artist.
30. What is not included in the program?
A. Going sightseeing in Delhi. B. Going shopping in Delhi.
C. Breakfast on the last day. D. Lunch on the last day.
Talk/Lecture 3. You’ll hear a talk on local radio about a children theme
park. 31. Simon’s idea for a theme park came from ……………
A. his childhood hobby. B. his interest in landscape design.
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C. his visit to another park D. his wife’s idea.
32. When they started, the family decided to open the park only when
………………. A. The weather was expected to be good.
B. There were not many people in the neighborhood.
C. The children weren’t at school.
D. There were fewer farming commitments.
33. Since opening the park has had ………………….
A. 50. 000 visitors. B. 1000. 000 visitors. C. 5000 visitors. D. 1,500,000 visitors. 34.

What did their children love?
A. Trains. B. Theme park. C. Farm work. D. We weather. 35. The park
today is ………………….
A. Closed on holidays. B. Opened all year.
C. Closed every two months. D. Opened on weekdays.
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C: READING
_________________________________________________________________________

the answer sheet.
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is the main political and economic
organization for that area. The leaders summit is their last meeting before the launch of the ASEAN
Economic Community, or AEC, on December 31.
The AEC will be equivalent to the world’s seventh largest economy. It was set up to create a highly
competitive single market and production area. Organizers hope it will ease the movement of
capital, goods, investment,services and skilled labor across ASEAN countries. The goal is to make
the whole area more competitive and economically successful. But, some business leaders have
low expectations for the ASEAN summit. Anthony Nelson is a director at the US – ASEAN
Business Council in Washington. He believes that security will be an important issue at the
meetings, especially after the terrorist attacks in Paris last week.
“The November summit includes the East Asia Summit, which primarily focuses on political and
security issues. So that’s going to be a big part of what is actually going on around the summit. A
lot of the work that business gets really involved in tends to happen around the ASEAN economic
ministers’ meeting in August.” But, the AEC may have only limited influence on business activity
when it comes into being next year. Experts expect little to change at first because there is still
much to be done.
“The ASEAN single window, which is a customs project, is still very much a work in progress.
But beginning next year they will start limited trials with five of the 10 ASEAN countries. And
there have been past mutual recognition agreements for credentials of skilled professionals. But
there’s still a lot of work to be done in terms of actually implementing those agreements.” Some
critics say the AEC will mainly help businesses, not the majority of people in Southeast Asia.
Earlier this year, the ASEAN Civil Society Conference and ASEAN Peoples’ Forum expressed
concern about regional economic integration. In a statement, the group said such a move would
mean unequal and unsustainable economic growth. This, it said, would result “in worsening
poverty and inequalities of wealth.” Jerald Joseph is co – chair of the ASEAN People’s Forum. He
says people crossing borders to find employment need more protections. He said: “Cross –
70
border migrant workers don’t have the same level of protection or interest in the whole negotiation.
So that’s a little bit of a pity, a wasted chance, if it’s not reflected in the coming document.” The
27th
ASEAN Summit includes the organization’s partners. Nations including China, India, Japan
and the United States are to attend.
1. ASEAN is the main political and economic organization in
A. East Asia B. Southeast Asia C. West Asia D. North Asia
2. What does the word “It” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. ASEAN B. Organizer C. AEC D. Business Council

3. According to Anthony Nelson, what is the important issue at the meetings?
A. Security B. Climate change C. Business D. Economy
4. According to the passage, what aspect tends to happen around the ASEAN economic
ministers?
A. Security B. Climate change C. Business D. Economy
5. According to the passage, how many countries in the ASEAN will start limited
trials? A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10
6. The word “credentials” in line 24 can be replaced by
A. letters B. salutations C. invitations D. certificates
7. The word “implementing” in line 25 is closest in meaning to
A. carrying outB. producing C. concentrating D. focusing
8. The word “integration” in line 29 can be replaced by
A. utilization B. contribution C. combination D. separation
9. According to the passage, what would delay the increase of the economy? A. the
recession B. the poverty C. the move D. the employment
10. According to the passage, who require more assurance?
A. travellers B. immigrants C. residents D. tourists
71
In 1969, a key milestone in space travel was reached when Neil Armstrong set foot on the moon.
In 2001, another landmark event took place when the first civilian traveled into space as a paying
tourist.
As a teenager, Dennis Tito dreamed of visiting outer space. As a young man, he aspired to become
an astronaut and earned a bachelor’s and a master’s degree in aerospace engineering. However,
Tito did not have all the qualities necessary to become a professional astronaut; so instead, he went
to work as a space engineer in one of NASA’s laboratories for five years. Later, Tito set up his
own financial investment company and, eventually, he became a multi – millionaire. Later in life,
the ex – rocket engineer, still passionate about space travel, began looking into ways to make a trip
into space.
In the early 1990s, the Soviet Space Agency was offering tickets for a visit to the Mir space station
to anyone who could afford it. Tito jumped at the chance for this once – in – a – lifetime experience.
Due to political and economic changes in the former Soviet Union, however, Tito’s trip was
postponed and later, Mir was decommissioned. In 2001, Tito’s dream was finally came true when

he paid a rumored $20 million and took off aboard a SOYUZ rocket to deliver supplies to the
International Space Station, a joint venture between the space agencies of Japan, Canada, Europe,
Russia, and the U.S.
In preparation for the trip, Tito trained at the Gagarin Cosmonauts Training Center at Star City in
Russia. There, he underwent eight months of physical fitness training, weightless simulations, and
a variety of other exercises to prepare him for space travel. Although the Russians believed that
Tito was adequately prepared for the trip, NASA thought otherwise. Dennis Tito had to sign an
agreement with international space officials taking financial responsibility for any equipment he
damaged or broke on his trip. He was also barred from entering any part of the space station owned
by the U.S. unless escorted.
Although Tito made history and paved the way for the future of space tourism, factors such as cost,
and the amount of training required, stand in the way of space vacations becoming an option for
most people in the near future. In spite of this, Japanese and North American market data shows
that there is definite public interest in space travel. In a 1993 survey of 3,030 Japanese, 80 percent
of those under the age of forty said they would like to visit space at least once. Seventy percent of
this group would pay up to three month’s salary for the trip. In 1995, 1,020 households in North
America were surveyed and of those, 60 percent were interested were under forty years of age.
Just over 45 percent said they would pay three month’s salary, around 18 percent said they would
pay six month’s salary, and nearly 11 percent would pay a year’s salary. Two – thirds of those who
want to visit space would like to do so several times. Since the nature of this type of travel makes
it hazardous to humans, it would have to be restricted to those who are physically fit and able to
take responsibility for the risks involved.
11. According to the passage, what was the main event in 1969?
A. Scientists planned to travel to space.
B. People started to concern space travel.
72
C. The dream of space travel became true.
D. Neil Armstrong was ready for heading to the moon.
12. When did Dennis Tito dream of becoming an astronaut?
A. When he was at kindergarten. B. When he was at primary school.
C. When he was at his teen. D. When he was at university.
13. Dennis Tito made the first trip as a space tourist________
A. in the late ‘60s. B. in the early ‘90s. C. this century. D. in the late ‘50s.
14. Which of the following is NOT true about Dennis Tito?
A. He has an advanced degree in aerospace engineering.
B. He is now an astronaut for NASA.
C. He eventually became a very wealthy man.
D. He used to dream of travelling to outer space.

15. Tito’s first trip into space was with__________ to___________.
A. the Russian/ the International Space Station.
B. the Americans/SOYUZ
C. members of the former Soviet Union/ the Mir space station
D. the Japanese agency
16. Which of the following describes NASA’s feelings about Tito’s trip into space? A.
extremely proud B. somewhat eager C. very concerned D. disappointed
17. According to Japanese survey, which of the following is true?
A. Eighty percent of all those interviewed would be interested in travelling to space.
B. Some people would pay a quarter of their annual salary to visit space.
C. Only people under the age of forty are interested in space travel.
D. Seventy percent of Japanese would pay three quarters of their annual salary to visit
space.
18. According to a North American survey on space travel, which is true?
A. Seventy – five percent of those surveyed would be interested in travelling to space.
B. Most people would pay a year’s salary to visit space as a tourist.
C. Most of the people interested in space travel were under the age of forty. D. Nearly
sixty percent of those surveyed were interested in a vacation in space travel.
19. According to the passage, who did not believe that Tito was trained well enough for the trip
to space?
73
A. Russian Training Center. B. Japanese Training Center.
C. European Training Center. D. NASA
20. Which of the following would probably prevent you from becoming a space tourist in the
near future?
A. health B. wealth C. youth D. age
During the heyday of the railroads, when America’s rail system provided the bulk of the country’s
passenger and freight transportation, various types of railroad cars were in service to accomplish
the varied tasks handled by the railroads. One type of car that was not available for public use prior
to the Civil War, however, was a sleeping car; ideas for sleeping cars abounded at the time, but
these ideas were unworkable. It unfortunately took the death of a president to make the sleeping
car a viable reality.
Cabinet – maker George M. Pullman had recognized the demand for sleeping cars and had worked

on developing experimental models of sleeping cars in the decade leading up to the Civil War.
However, in spite of the fact that he had made successful test runs on the Chicago and Alton
Railroads with his models, he was unable to sell his idea because his models were too wide and
too high for existing train station and bridges. In 1863, after spending time working as a
storekeeper in a Colorado mining town, he invested his savings of twenty thousand dollars, a huge
fortune at that time and all the money that he had in the world, in a luxurious sleeping car that he
named the Pioneer. Pullman and friend Ben Field built the Pioneer on the site of the present – day
Chicago Union Station. For two years, however; the Pioneer sat on a railroad siding, useless
because it could not fit through train stations and over bridges.
Following President Lincoln’s assassination in 1865, the state of Illinois, Lincoln’s birthplace,
wanted to transport the presidential casket in the finest fashion possible. The Pullman Pioneer was
the most elegant car around; in order to make the Pullman part of the presidential funeral train in
its run from Springfield to Chicago, the state cut down station platforms and raised bridges in order
to accommodate the luxurious railway car. The Pullman car greatly impressed the funeral party,
which included Lincoln’s successor as president, General Ulysses S. Grant, and Grant later
requested the Pioneer for a trip from Detroit to Chicago. To satisfy Grant’s request for the Pioneer,
the Michigan Central Railroad made improvements on its line to accommodate the wide car, and
soon other railroads followed. George Pullman founded the Pullman Palace Car Company in
partnership with financier Andrew Carnegie and eventually became a millionaire.
Pullman cars were normally a dark “Pullman green”, although some were painted in the host
railroad’s colors. The cars carried individual names, but usually did not carry visible numbers. In
the 1920s, the Pullman Company went through a series of restructuring steps, which in the end
resulted in a parent company, Pullman incorporated, controlling the Pullman Company (which
owned and operated sleeping cars) and the Pullman – Standard Car Manufacturing Company.
74
21. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
A. America’s railroads used to provide much of the country’s transportation.
B. President Lincoln’s assassination in 1865 shocked the nation.
C. George Pullman was the only one to come up with the idea for a sleeping car.
D. Pullman’s idea for a sleeping car became workable after Lincoln’s death.
22. A “heyday” in line 1 is most probably a ………….
A. time for harvest. B. a period with low prices.
C. a period of great success. D. a type of railroad schedule.
23. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Civil War, sleeping cars
………… A. were used abundantly. B. were thought to be a good idea.
C. were only used privately. D. were used by presidents.
24. What is the main idea of paragraph 2?
A. Pullman had been successful in selling his sleeping cars.
B. Though Pullman had been successful in test runs with his sleeping cars model; it could
not be suitable with the transportation in Chicago.
C. Pullman had recognized the demand for sleeping cars.
D. Pullman had invested much money on developing the sleeping cars.

25. What was the initial problem that made Pullman’s card unusable?
A. They were too large. B. They were too expensive.
C. They were too slow. D. They were too unusual.
26. What is stated in the passage about George Pullman?
A. He once had a job in a store. B. He always lived in Chicago. C. He worked
in a mine. D. He saved money for his project.
27. What is true about the sleeping cars?
A. The experimental models of sleeping cars had not been successful until 1863.
B. The Pioneer did not cost Pullman a fortune.
C. The Pioneer was considered to be the most charming cars in comparison with others.
D. The Pullman car was extremely beneficial because of its fitness through train station
and bridges.
28. Why did the state of Illinois want to use the Pullman in Lincoln’s funeral
train? A. It was superior to other cars.
B. It was the only railroad car that could make it from Springfield to
Chicago. C. Ulysses S. Grant requested it.
D. The Pullman Palace Car Company was a major Illinois business.
29. It can be inferred from the passage that the Michigan Central Railroad
……… A. was owned by George Pullman.
B. controlled the railroad tracks between Detroit and Chicago.
C. was the only railroad company to accommodate wider cars.
D. was the sole manufacturer of the Pioneer.
75
30. This passage would most likely be assigned in which of the following
courses? A. Engineering B. Political science C. Finance D. History
Garbage cans are not magical portals. Trash does not disappear when you toss it in a can. Yet, the
average American throws away an estimated 1,600 pounds of waste each year. If there are no magic
garbage fairies, where does all that trash go? There are four methods to managing waste: recycling,
land-filling, composting, and incinerating. Each method has its strengths and weakness. Let’s take a
quick look at each.
Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be turned
into paperboard, which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution, save
materials, and lower energy use. Yet, some argue that recycling wastes energy. They believe that
collecting, processing, and converting waste uses more energy than it saves. Still, most people agree
that recycling is better for the planet than land-filling.
Land-filling is the oldest method of managing waste. In its simplest form, land-filling is when people
bury garbage in a hole. Over time the practice of land-filling has advanced. Garbage is compacted
before it is thrown into the hole. In this way more garbage can fit in each landfill. Large liners are placed
in the bottom of landfills so that toxic garbage juice doesn’t get into the ground water. Sadly, these

liners don’t always work. Landfills may pollute the local water supply. Not to mention that all of that
garbage stinks. Nobody wants to live next to a landfill. This makes it hard to find new locations for
landfills.
As landfill space increases, interest in composting grows. Composting is when people pile up organic
matter, such as food waste, and allows it to decompose. The product of this decomposition is compost.
Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil richer and better for growing crops. While composting
is easy to do onsite somewhere, like home or school, it’s hard to do after the garbage gets all mixed up.
This is because plastic and other inorganic materials must be removed from the compost pile or they
will pollute the soil. There’s a lot of plastic in garbage, which makes it hard to compost on a large scale.
One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to incinerate waste. The first
is to create or harvest a fuel from the waste, such as methane gas, and burn the fuel. The second is to
burn the waste directly. The heat from the incineration process can boil water, which can power steam
generators. Unfortunately, burning garbage pollutes the air. Also, some critics worry that incinerators
destroy valuable resources that could be recycled.
Usually, the community which you live manages waste. Once you put your garbage in that can, what
happens to it is beyond your control. But you can make choices while it is still in your possession. You
can choose to recycle, you can choose to compost, or you can choose to let someone else deal with it.
The choice is yours.
31. Which best explains why the author begins the text by talking about magical garbage fairies?
A. He is putting a common misconception to rest.
76
B. He is trying to get the reader’s attention.
C. He is addressing his concern in a serious way.
D. He is supporting his argument with evidence.
32. Which best expresses the meaning of the word “compacted” as it is used in the third
paragraph?
A. Garbage is burned before it is thrown in a hole.
B. Garbage is put in trucks before it is thrown in a hole.
C. Garbage is crushed smaller before it is thrown in a hole.
D. Garbage is put in a can before it is thrown in a hole.
33. Which was NOT cited in the third paragraph as an issue with land-filling? A. Landfills are
smelly. B. Usable materials are wasted in landfills. C. Landfills may pollute the water
supply. D. It is difficult to find locations for landfills.
34. Which best expresses the main idea of the fourth paragraph?
A. Landfills take up a lot of space.
B. Composting is good for the soil but it can be.
C. The process of composting is very complicated and scientific.
D. There is a lot of plastic garbage in landfills.
35. Which best defines the meaning of incineration as it is used in the text?

A. To bury waste materials in a large hole
B. To allow waste products to decompose and become fertilizer
C. To burn waste materials and harvest the energy
D. To turn waste materials into products like book covers
36. Which conclusion could be supported with text from the passage?
A. Each method of waste management has its drawbacks.
B. Recycling is without a doubt the best way to handle waste.
C. Incineration is the best way to process waste.
D. All large cities should create massive compost piles.
37. Which best expresses the author’s main purpose in writing this?
A. To convince readers to recycle and compost
B. To persuade readers that recycling is a waste of resources
C. To compare and contrast recycling and land-filling
D. To inform readers of methods of waste management
38. Which is NOT included in this text?
A. A description of how trash is collected
B. A description of the uses of compost
C. A description of the two methods of incinerating trash
D. A description of how landfills have advanced over time
77
39. Which best explains why composting is not feasible on a large scale?
A. People wouldn’t want to touch all of that gross rotting food. B. It
would smell too bad in densely populated cities.
C. It would attract rodents that would spread disease.
D. Plastic would get into the compost and turn it into a pollutant.
40. Which title best expresses the main idea of this text?
A. The Magic of Recycling: Bringing Back What Was Once
Lost B. Methods of Waste Management: Pros and Cons
C. Recycling Land-filling or Composting: Which is Best For You?
D. Do Your Part: How to Save the Earth by Recycling and
Composting

78
C: WRITING
Number of tasks: 2
TASK 1
You recently received an email from your English-speaking friend, Pat, he said that he is
going to have a holiday.
Write a letter to Pat, and invite him to your city and stay with you during his holiday
TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task
Write about the following topic:
Smoking not only harms the smoker, but also those who are nearby.
Therefore, smoking should be banned in public places.
To what extent, do you agree or disagree?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own experience or
knowledge. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task fulfillment, Organization,
Vocabulary and Grammar.

79
D: SPEAKING
PART I: SOCIAL INTERACTION
Let’s talk about music.
1. Do you like music? If yes, what kind of music do you like best? Why? If no, why
not? 2. What is the most popular kind of music in your country?
3. How is music good or not good for people?
Now, let’s talk about English as a school subject.
1. Did you learn English at secondary school?
2. What do you think about how English is taught at school now?
3. In what ways has children’s English much improved nowadays?
If you have money to buy a car and a motorbike, which would you buy? Why?
PART 3: TOPIC
Describe your favourite TV program
You should say
1. What program it is?
2. What is it about?
3. Why do you like this program?

6 VSTEP TEST ...........................

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