APMP More MC Questions

Project Training Solutions Ltd More Multiple Choice Questions v 1.02
Project Training Solutions Ltd, April 2008 1
More Multiple Choice Questions
The questions in this test are multiple-choice with four options for each
question.
There is only one correct (best) answer for each question.
Print a copy of the answer sheet to record you answers and check
against the answers.
You should aim to answer each question within 30 seconds.

1. Which is most important in managing costs?
a. A Work Breakdown structure
b. A computerised cost management system
c. A complete record of cost variances
d. A change control system
2. Business as usual would typically focus on:
a. defining a new service
b. new product development
c. managing an organisation change programme
d. making products to an existing design
3. The Project Leader must:
a. let the team members find their own level within the team
b. provide direction and focus by communicating project objectives
c. delegate all work
d. use democratic management methods throughout team building
and development
4. Which type of project needs to consider environmental
constraints?
a. Construction projects only
b. Construction and petrochemical projects only
c. All but IT projects
d. All projects
5. Who will formally accept the products during handover?
a. The project manager
b. The project sponsor
c. The users
d. Corporate management
6. The purpose of three point estimates is to:
a. provide greater estimating certainty
b. provide greater estimating accuracy
c. provide greater realism
d. reduce uncertainty in estimates
7. The foundation for project quality management may be described
as the:
a. confidence provided to stakeholders that requirements will be
achieved
b. requirements expressed in measurable terms as acceptance
criteria
c. audits to be performed during the project
d. definition of quality roles and responsibilities

8. Requirements definition:
a. should emphasise what is required
b. should emphasise how requirements will be achieved
c. is carried out initially during the definition phase
d. is the responsibility of the project manager
9. Which is the correct statement?
a. Corporate governance and project governance are more or less
the same thing
b. Governance of project management is the function of the quality
department
c. Governance of project management ensures projects are aligned
to the organisation’s strategic objectives
d. Project management governance is the sole responsibility of
corporate management
10. Projects are likely to:
a. be repetitive
b. involve routine operations
c. bring about change
d. be continuous
11. Which is a scheduling tool?
a. Network diagram
b. Responsibility matrix
c. Product breakdown structure
d. Internal rate of return
12. Business benefits are:
a. produced only by projects
b. produced only by programmes and projects
c. produced by BAU
d. produced by BAU, projects and programmes
13. Which of the following best describes a project’s context?
a. The environment in which the business operates
b. The geographic location in which the project is undertaken
c. The external and internal environments including stakeholders’
interests and influences
d. Industry and business sector practices

14. Which are the four components of the governance of projects that
support the monitoring of performance?
a. Portfolio direction, effective communication, project management,
change management
b. Portfolio direction, project sponsorship, project management,
disclosure and reporting
c. Portfolio direction, project management, BAU management,
disclosure and reporting
d. Strategic direction, portfolio direction, project sponsorship, project
management
15. Requirements management is the process of:
a. capturing, documenting and implementing the stakeholder needs
b. capturing the stakeholder needs and defining success criteria
c. defining the project benefits
d. capturing, analysing and testing stakeholder and user wants and
needs
16. Which activity is least likely during quality planning?
a. The trade-off between scope, time, cost, quality and requirements
b. Identification of appropriate standards and methods
c. The timing of audits, reviews, tests and trials
d. Verification to ensure project deliverables conform to specification
17. What is earned value analysis?
a. A component of value management
b. A calculation of potential profits
c. A method for predicting the eventual time and cost at completion
of a project
d. An analysis of the cost of the project to date against each cost
category
18. Project Handover involves:
a. disposal of materials no longer required
b. a review of lessons learnt
c. transfer of project deliverables to the sponsor and users
d. review of the business benefits
19. Which typically causes a team to move from performing into
forming?
a. Change
b. Risk
c. Delegation
d. Monitoring and control

20. The focus for a successful project is best reflected in the:
a. controls to be used
b. defined success criteria
c. benefits and stakeholder needs
d. stakeholder needs, benefits and success criteria
21. Project integration involves:
a. bringing people, activities and resources together to perform
effectively
b. technical aspects of the project
c. effective execution of project activities
d. team working
22. Business change may be introduced through projects:
a. as a normal part of BAU activities
b. to improve BAU capability
c. to enable BAU activities to be consistent and reliable
d. to ensure BAU is using the latest methods
23. Requirements:
a. are a statement of need developed from the business case
b. the result of stakeholder analysis
c. are a statement of the need that the project has to satisfy
d. are defined by the project manager
24. Quality assurance:
a. is achieved through inspections and tests
b. is achieved through inspections, tests and continuous
improvement
c. validates the consistent use of procedures and standards
d. evaluates ideas for improvement

25. Which is the critical path?
a. ADCB
b. ACF
c. ABF
d. ADEF
26. Which of the following is used in earned value management?
a. Criticality index
b. Schedule performance index
c. Three point estimates
d. Free float
27. A project closure report should include:
a. the status of the project against the success criteria
b. a list of snags
c. recommendations on improvements
d. the results from the benefits realisation review
28. The requirements definition should be:
a. comprehensive, clear and structured
b. traceable and testable
c. comprehensive, clear, well structured, traceable and testable
d. comprehensive, clear, traceable and testable
29. Which of the following is true?
a. The critical path is the longest path through the network
b. The critical path is the shortest path through the network
c. The critical path will never include tasks with float
d. The critical path will always include tasks with float
30. A team is best motivated by:
a. satisfactory administrative support
b. sharing accountability
c. being recognised for achievement
d. the direct involvement of the sponsor when things go wrong
A
B
C
D E
F
3
5
15
7 3
10

31. Which of the following are important for effective project
integration?
a. Tight control of the technical parameters of deliverables
b. Clearly defined benefits to be achieved through the project
c. Frequent progress reporting
d. Close monitoring of progress during the integration stage of the
project
32. The project manager’s focus for a successful project is reflected in:
a. the achievement of cost requirements
b. a successful product
c. the achievement of timescales
d. the achievement of success criteria as defined in the project
management plan
33. Which activity is least likely in performing quality control?
a. Inspections, tests and quality measurements
b. Monitoring compliance with standards and identifying ways to
eliminate cause of unsatisfactory performance
c. Validating the consistent use procedures and standards
d. Verification that project deliverables conform to specification
34. Cost performance index (CPI) is calculated by:
a. Earned Value /Actual Cost
b. Earned Value /Planned Cost
c. Planned Value /Earned Value
d. Actual Cost /Planned Cost
35. Which activity would not be performed during Closeout?
a. Performance appraisal of the team
b. Transfer of responsibility for the deliverables
c. Finalise project accounts
d. Closure of contracts and purchase orders
36. The project management plan:
a. shows fully detailed plans for the development and production of
project deliverables
b. defines and documents how the project will be managed
c. provides the justification for the project authorisation
d. is owned by the project sponsor
37. Schedule performance index (SPI) is calculated by:
a. Earned Value/Actual Cost
b. Earned Value/Planned Cost
c. Planned Value/Earned Value
d. Actual Cost/Planned Cost

38. A project would be the best approach for:
a. introducing new procedures
b. maintaining procedures
c. operating procedures
d. minor changes to procedures
39. When managing a project, the project manager:
a. must take into consideration the internal and external
environments
b. need only deal with the internal environment since the sponsor
will deal with the external environment
c. should manage the external stakeholders and external
environment
d. must liaise with regulating bodies to ensure requirements include
the latest legislation
40. Which tool shows activities against a calendar?
a. Gantt chart
b. Precedence network
c. Milestone progress chart
d. Activity on arrow network
41. The post project review:
a. audits the final status of the project
b. evaluates the performance of project deliverables
c. ensure the project deliverables have met their quality criteria
d. evaluates project performance to support continuous improvement
42. Which is likely to lead to a failure in leadership?
a. Initiating
b. Informing
c. Evaluating
d. Arguing
43. Primary factors used to structure the content of requirements are:
a. value, priority, time and process
b. value and process
c. value and priority
d. value, priority and time
44. Success criteria should be developed as part of the:
a. detailed planning
b. work breakdown structure
c. risk management
d. business case

45. A key objective of the post project review is to:
a. define operation criteria for the project’s deliverables
b. capture information to improve future estimating accuracy
c. decide which stakeholders should not be rewarded
d. ensure the project files are archived
46. The current status of a project shows: actual cost = £24K;
planned cost = £40K; earned value = £30K. What is the forecast
duration if the original duration is 18 weeks?
a. Less than 18 weeks
b. 22.5 weeks
c. 24 weeks
d. 30 weeks
47. In developing a network the first task after listing the activities is
to:
a. define the activity durations
b. determine the float
c. determine the logical links between the activities
d. harmonise the activities to a calendar
48. What is true about project sponsorship?
a. There can be several project sponsors as long as responsibilities
are defined
b. The project sponsor is the primary risk taker
c. The project sponsor and steering group share responsibility for
project sponsorship
d. The project sponsor will be assigned once the business case has
been approved
49. A key requirement for effective project leadership is:
a. demonstrating in depth technical knowledge
b. co-ordination and integration skills
c. controlling all aspects of the project within tight limits
d. controlling costs and timescales within the original constraints
50. Project are characterised by:
a. an indefinite timescale
b. a definite timescale
c. unspecified objectives
d. repeated cycles of work

51. Which is true?
a. An example of a project success factor is good communication
throughout the project
b. Success criteria and success factors are the same thing
c. Key performance indicators are used primarily to evaluate success
factors
d. The project manager is responsible for achieving the success
factors
52. Which project process or processes support requirements
management?
a. Configuration management
b. Change management
c. Stakeholder management
d. All three processes
53. The project management plan is:
a. owned by the project manager and sponsor
b. authorised by the steering group
c. authorised by the project manager
d. owned by the project manager
54. Which is not an aim of a post project review?
a. Evaluate the project against the success criteria
b. Determine what went right and what went wrong
c. Recognise team and individual performance
d. Review the benefits achieved
55. Which method is appropriate for managing conflicts involving
important factors?
a. Collaborating
b. Directing
c. Avoiding
d. Smoothing
56. Total float is:
a. the sum of all activity floats
b. the time an activity can be delayed or extended without affecting
predecessors
c. the time an activity can be delayed or extended without affecting
any successor activities
d. the time an activity can be delayed or extended without affecting
the overall project duration

57. The project management plan is:
a. developed by the project manager and team
b. developed by the project manager and sponsor to ensure the plan
provides the most cost effective approach
c. developed by the project sponsor and external stakeholders
d. directed and reviewed by corporate management
58. The key purpose of the business case is to:
a. minimise the project risk
b. ensure that the project stakeholders agree with the baseline plan
c. document the outcomes of the definition phase
d. obtain management commitment and approval for investment in
the project
59. Which would typically be outside the scope of business as usual
activities?
a. Risk management
b. Business continuity management
c. New product development
d. Safety management
planned cost = £40K; earned value = £30K. What is the estimated
cost at completion if the Budget at Completion is £100K?
a. £80K
b. £94K
c. £125K
d. £60K
61. The role of the steering group is to:
a. Audit the performance of the project and in particular the sponsor
b. Take decisions on key aspects of the project
c. Oversee the project and provide strategic guidance
d. Approve the business case
62. Project success criteria are first determined:
a. during the design or development phase
b. when the deliverables are demonstrated
c. when the business case is defined
d. when the contracts are negotiated

63. What is the estimated cost at completion for a project with a BAC
of £150K and a cost variance of -£25K?
a. £125K
b. £150K
c. £175K
d. There is insufficient information to calculate the EAC
64. The project management plan:
a. must be produced before the end of the concept phase
b. is produced after the definition phase
c. confirms the agreements between the sponsor, project manager
and other stakeholders
d. takes the place of the business case after definition
65. The project sponsor must:
a. stop the project when adverse situations arise
b. ensure the project remains viable by controlling the project spend
tightly
c. stop the project whenever any adverse external situations arise
d. stop the project if it is no longer viable
66. The tolerances and balance between success criteria must be
agreed by:
a. project steering group and corporate management
b. sponsor and corporate management
c. project manager and the sponsor
d. project manager and corporate management
67. The status of a project in meeting success criteria can be indicated
by:
a. using a quality management system
b. the number of outstanding change requests
c. the amount of stakeholder attention to the project
d. the key performance indicators
68. The business case:
a. is owned by corporate management
b. is owned by the project sponsor
c. is developed by the project manager and approved by corporate
management
d. is developed by the project manager and approved by the project
sponsor

69. Which is true?
a. A project manager should eliminate conflict through strong
leadership
b. All conflict should be avoided
c. Levels of conflict vary throughout the project life cycle
d. Levels of conflict are constant throughout the project life cycle
70. A post project review should be carried out on:
a. all projects
b. technically complex projects
c. high value projects
d. failed projects
71. Free float is:
a. when an activity is not dependent on predecessors
b. the time by which an activity can be delayed or extended without
affecting any successor activities
c. the time an activity can be delayed or extended without affecting
the overall project duration
d. the time an activity that can be delayed without incurring a cost
penalty
72. Forcing is applicable when:
a. the project team morale is low
b. the conflict is limited to two individuals
c. timely resolution is paramount
d. the conflict affects teams developing sub-projects that need to be
interfaced
planned cost = £42K; earned value = £30K. What is the estimated
cost at completion if the Budget at Completion is £120K and the
CPI for all future work is expected to be 0.9?
a. £105K
b. £100K
c. £135K
d. approximately £139K
74. How many different constraints apply during resource allocation?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

75. Which is unlikely to be included in the project management plan?
a. Why the project is being undertaken
b. The investment appraisal for the project
c. How the project is to be undertaken
d. Who will participate and what roles will be performed
76. Which is not true for the project justification?
a. High risk options should never be considered
b. Justification must articulate the balance between the benefits
sought and the costs and risks of achieving those benefits
c. The benefits should relate to the level of risk and the cost of the
project that the organisation is willing to accept
d. A high risk project is only worth doing if the benefits are high
77. Which is an incorrect description for Key Performance Indices?
a. They provide triggers to enable escalation of problems and issues
to higher authorities
b. They define only the technical specifications of deliverables
c. They are measurable indicators that correspond to the project
success criteria
d. They are agreed by the project sponsor and project manager at
the beginning of each phase and implementation stage
78. As a minimum the project office should provide:
a. administrative support and assistance to the project managers
b. collection, analysis and reporting of project information
c. assurance of project management processes
d. a, b and c
79. Key mechanisms for managing projects include:
a. people, tools, techniques, equipment and organisation
b. corporate governance activities and processes
c. the quality management system including processes
d. computer planning software tools
80. Project Management Processes are not likely to include:
a. initiating processes
b. defining processes
c. business continuity processes
d. learning processes

81. What is the main advantage from drawing together project
management talent into a project office?
a. It allows the organisation to learn, lead, grow and develop its
project management potential
b. It provides a functional home for project staff and enables
information to be filed centrally
c. It provides greater efficiency and better integration
d. It improves communication and integration
82. Which review focuses on the performance of deliverables in
service?
a. Post Project Review
b. Benefits Realisation Review
c. Product Design Review
d. Quality Review
83. When dealing with resource overloads it is essential to:
a. reduce quality constraints
b. review the project success criteria
c. increase resource budgets
d. increase activity timescales
84. Which of the following is a bargaining tactic?
a. Preparation
b. Silence
c. Forming
d. Opening
85. Project close out involves:
a. acceptance of the completed product of the project
b. updating project management processes and procedures
c. validating the original business case
d. disposing of all project documentation
86. Change control should ensure that :
a. anyone outside the project is prevented from requesting changes
b. changes to the project are assessed
c. specification changes are prevented
d. changes that incur cost increases are always rejected
87. The project management plan should address policies and plans.
Which would not normally be included in the PMP?
a. Change control
b. Procurement
c. Benefits management plan
d. Project governance

88. Which is incorrect? The business case:
a. provides a framework for informed decision making
b. supports benefits realisation
c. is supported by evidence-based evaluation of benefits, costs and
risks
d. is authorised by the steering group
89. Which is correct?
a. The project manager is responsible for achieving the defined
benefits
b. The project manager and sponsor are responsible for achieving
the defined benefits
c. The sponsor is accountable for achieving the defined benefits
d. The steering group is responsible for achieving the defined
benefits
90. In the opening stage of a negotiation you should:
a. schedule further negotiations
b. state your objectives
c. present your offer
d. decide what concessions you are willing to make
91. Which is not part of a project control process?
a. Identifying project changes
b. Measuring performance against success criteria
c. Variance analysis
d. Benefits realisation reviews
92. A change to the project is likely to affect:
a. organisational procedures
b. planning software
c. cost, time and quality criteria
d. standard conditions of a contract
93. Which must always be included in the business case?
a. Detailed project plans
b. Details of the project organisation and team
c. Project success criteria
d. Detailed estimates of project costs
94. What is true about the project office role?
a. All organisations and projects must have a project office
b. Project managers must undertake the role of the project office if
one does not exist
c. The project office is purely functional without any strategic role
d. The project office is responsible for keeping records of all project
activities

95. Which is a typical project success factor?
a. Senior management support
b. Project budget
c. Achieving business benefits
d. Producing project deliverables
96. During implementation the project management plan:
a. must remain unchanged to provide the baseline for measuring
overall performance
b. provides a baseline for assessing project changes
c. is updated to cover any adverse situations arising
d. is changed only when authorised by corporate management
97. A risk management plan:
a. defines the risk management process for the project
b. records the project risks and their current status
c. defines contingency and response actions for risks
d. allocates risk action ownership
98. Which is the least important benefit from project management?
a. Greater control and co-ordination of change activities
b. Prevents scope changes after project initiation
c. Facilitates lessons learnt
d. Efficient way to manage change
99. According to APM, the project life cycle covers:
a. Initiating; Planning; Implementation; Closing
b. Concept; Definition; Implementation; Handover and Closeout
c. Initiating; Planning; Controlling; Closing
d. Planning ; Definition; Implementation; Closing
100. Which is incorrect? The benefit from a project or programme is:
a. the monetary value of the project
b. the performance of project deliverables in service
c. the quantified and measurable improvement in business as usual
d. an improvement which is perceived as positive by the
stakeholders
101. Which would be more important to address in the business case?
a. Detailed project plans
b. Details of the project organisation and team
c. Evaluation of different options
d. Detailed estimates of project costs

102. Scope comprises:
a. the project deliverables
b. the work associated with producing the deliverables
c. the project requirements
d. the project deliverables and the work associated with producing
the deliverables
103. An appropriate strategy for dealing with a high level risk is
through:
a. reduction of probability or impact
b. smoothing
c. assessment of the impacts
d. identification of stakeholders
104. Effective change control will require:
a. fully detailed networks
b. frequent project audits and reviews
c. effective quality assurance
d. a formal process
105. Which activities are least likely to be included in a project control
process?
a. Issue management
b. Change control
c. Requirements capture
d. Risk control
106. Which is true?
a. Forcing a result during negotiation should never be used.
b. The project manager should lead all negotiations to ensure a
single point of contact
c. The aim is to win the negotiation argument
d. The key to good negotiation is preparation
107. Which is the most important advantage from running related
projects as a programme?
a. Projects can be covered by one all-embracing programme plan
b. The programme manager can supervise project activities reducing
the need for project management
c. Interdependencies between projects and between projects and
business as usual activities can be managed
d. Grouping projects together under a single programme manager
saves costs

108. The project life cycle is divided into phases and stages in order to:
a. provide high level control
b. ensure project management processes are properly maintained
c. ensure that the work force is certain of their individual roles
d. provide a means of producing overall project cost estimates
109. Which is the APM definition for the business benefit provided by a
project?
a. A measured increase in revenue
b. The quantified and measured improvement resulting from
completion of the project deliverables
c. Improved BAU efficiency
d. The quantified and measured output from the project deliverables
once in operation
110. In preparing a business case:
a. the project manager defines and agrees the benefits with the
project stakeholders
b. the sponsor defines and agrees the benefits with the project team
c. the sponsor defines and agrees the benefits with the project
stakeholders
d. corporate management defines the benefits to be achieved
111. The project scope:
a. is first defined in the definition phase
b. is defined at high level in the business case
c. is defined in detail in the business case
d. is unrelated to requirements management
112. The main purpose of a risk register is to:
a. to satisfy the stakeholders needs for risk reporting
b. to record detailed analysis results from quantitative simulation
models
c. to record risks in sufficient detail to enable them to be understood
d. to record all identified risks in a standard format
113. Change control is needed when:
a. a project has physical deliverables
b. the sequence of work is changed
c. resource allocation is changed
d. the change could significantly affect the benefits

114. An issue is:
a. a problem
b. a problem beyond the control of the sponsor
c. a risk to project objectives
d. a threat to project objectives that cannot be resolved by the
project manager
115. Which of the following areas is likely to involve formal
negotiations?
a. Configuration management
b. Monitoring
c. Procurement and acquisition
d. Scheduling
116. The stages in a risk management process would include
identification, assessment, implementing responses and which
other stage?
a. estimation of the cost of the risk
b. determining the effect on the project
c. planning responses to risks
d. reworking the business case with the Sponsor
a. The requirements for deliverables are defined by the project
technical leader
b. Achievement of project success criteria is the responsibility of the
project sponsor
c. Corporate management must authorise the project management
plan
d. A key component of the business case is a definition of the
benefits
118. Which task should always be carried out in the closing stage of a
negotiation?
a. Take a record of the contact details of all participants
b. Record all agreements achieved and commitments made during
the negotiation
c. Arrange a follow up meeting
d. Review the impact of the negotiations on the project critical
success factors

119. Which is incorrect? A gate review:
a. enables a thorough assessment of costs to justify any overspend
b. allows the team to reflect on performance and consider
improvements
c. enables users and business as usual stakeholders to provide
important inputs
d. provides the sponsor with an apporpriate opportunity to assess
the project in terms of its continuing viability
120. A benefits plan:
a. is the responsibility of the project manager
b. is first produced after handover
c. includes a profile showing when benefits will be realised
d. is defined by corporate management
121. The responsibility for monitoring the status of an issue belongs to:
a. the sponsor
b. quality assurance
c. project office
d. project manager
122. Who is responsible for ensuring effective change management
throughout the project?
a. Project sponsor
b. Change control board
c. Project manager
d. Project support office
123. Which would not typically form part of scope definition?
a. Exclusions and inclusions
b. Methods and procedures
c. Deliverables
d. Risk breakdown structure
124. Programme Management is the:
a. co-ordinated management of unrelated projects which may
include business as usual
b. responsibility of the portfolio manager
c. co-ordination of activities identified in the project plan
d. co-ordinated management of related projects which may include
business as usual

125. Which best describes a risk owner?
a. Project manager
b. Person responsible for dealing with the risk and for identifying
responses
c. Person responsible for carrying out actions in response to a risk
d. Person that identifies the risk
126. At what point in the project life cycle is the business case
produced?
a. During the Concept phase
b. During the Definition phase
c. Once the project team have been assigned to the project
d. After detailed designs have been competed
127. Which is incorrect?
a. Projects typically have a well defined scope of work whereas the
scope of work for programmes may be less clear
b. Programme managers are concerned with achieving business
benefits
c. Programme managers are responsible for defining the work to be
undertaken by each project
d. Programme managers are responsible for defining the
requirements to be met by each project within a programme
128. Health and safety training must always be provided:
a. to anyone joining a project team
b. when any change is made
c. whenever a safety issues arises
d. routinely on a regular and frequent basis
129. The product breakdown structure:
a. defines the work to be undertaken during the project
b. identifies the resource requirements for the project
c. details the order in which the products must be delivered
d. defines all the products of a project
130. Which activity is part of configuration management?
a. Recording the status of a change
b. Recording time and cost overruns
c. Recording the issue status of documents
d. Recording the time spent by staff on the project
131. The prime role of a project management information system is to:
a. provide any information to the Sponsor
b. make decisions on control and co-ordination
c. frequently report on all detailed aspects of the project
d. support the decision making process

132. Programme managers are responsible for:
a. managing resource priorities and conflicts between projects
b. conducting lessons learnt reviews for each project in the
programme
c. defining project organisations and their structure
d. defining the methods appropriate for each project within a
programme
133. Project planning will be necessary?
a. During the Concept phase
b. During the Definition phase
c. During all phases of the project
d. From the Definition up to Handover
134. Which of the following is true?
a. A safety policy is only needed for construction, engineering
companies and industries with a poor safety history
b. Safety management plans are not required for IT projects
c. Sub-contractors safety are not the responsibility of the project
manager
d. Project safety is the responsibility of all team members
135. Investment appraisal is:
a. regular auditing of the project costs
b. the appraisal of the value of the project
c. the review of the organisation’s investment portfolio
d. the evaluation of economic predictions
136. The work breakdown structure:
a. defines the work to be undertaken during the project
b. defines the project milestones
c. details the order in which work must be undertaken
d. defines all the products of a project
137. Which of the following reports would not normally occur during
implementation?
a. project closure report
b. project quality audit report
c. project status report
d. risk status report
138. Which risk assessment technique involves the analysis of both
sensitivity and stability?
a. Decision trees
b. Assumptions analysis
c. Influence diagrams
d. Monte Carlo analysis

139. Configuration management:
a. ensures that materials are available when required
b. supports change control
c. enables accurate estimating
d. provides a method for defining the work breakdown structure
140. Which would be the most important management process for the
programme manager?
a. Schedule planning and control
b. Benefits management
c. Cost control
d. Auditing technical specifications
141. The project management plan must be authorised:
a. by the end of the Concept phase
b. prior to the Implementation phase
c. as part of the business case
d. before the project team is established
142. A Competent person should:
a. submits annual risk assessments to the Health and Safety
Executive
b. knows their own limitations and know where to get help
c. attends health and safety training at least once a year
d. is a qualified first aider
143. Discounted cash flow:
a. adjusts future cash flows over the project life to a current value
b. is the project cash flow after applying supplier discounts
c. only applies to project options with the same duration and cash
flow rates
d. only applies to costs and excludes profit
144. The work breakdown structure:
a. is fixed for the duration of the project
b. is reviewed and updated at the end of phases and stages
c. provides the order in which work must be completed
d. shows the logic dependencies between work
145. The main activities in configuration management are:
a. change control, scope management, handover, quality assurance
b. change control, status reporting, risk identification
c. auditing, control, identification, status accounting
d. identification, scope management, change control, status
accounting

146. Project reporting is for the benefit of:
a. project manager
b. project sponsor
c. project management team
d. project support office
147. Which of the following is a strategy for mitigating risk?
a. Reduction
b. Smoothing
c. Assessment
d. Identification
148. A Work Package:
a. should have a schedule that is integrated with higher level
schedules
b. should always be less than 6 months duration
c. does not require schedule information
d. cannot be broken down into lower level tasks
149. Net Present Value:
a. only applies to project options with the same duration and cash
flow rates
b. excludes variations in the value of money over time
c. enables projects with different returns, durations and cash rates
to be compared
d. enables projects to be compared with bank rates
150. Which is incorrect? A key aim of the Health and Safety at Work
Act, 1974 is to:
a. secure health, safety & welfare of people at work
b. protect the public from risks arising from activities of people at
work
c. prevent the use of all dangerous substances
d. control emissions into the atmosphere of noxious or offensive
substances
151. Early completion of a project phase or stage should trigger:
a. a project audit and end of phase report
b. a review of baseline plans to see if any future work can be brought
forward
c. a review of the project management plan and the next phase
and/or stage plan
d. a review of project procedures

152. Which of the following is a significant barrier to effective
communications?
a. Attitudes, emotions and prejudices
b. Use of body language
c. Use of informal communication channels
d. Formal meetings
153. Which is incorrect? A portfolio manager would typically:
a. co-ordinate common processes across the portfolio to ensure
maximum benefit
b. ensure objectives for projects, programmes and BAU operation
are in line with strategic objectives
c. prioritise allocation of resources to provide maximum benefit for
the portfolio
d. define detailed requirements of each project within a portfolio
154. A phased/staged project life cycle will:
a. enable processes to be audited and improved
b. ensure that the work force is certain of their individual roles
c. provide milestones for reviewing the continuing viability of the
project
d. provide a means of producing overall project estimates
155. Which best describes portfolio management?
a. The management of products and BAU activities
b. The management of groups of projects
c. The selection and management of all an organisation’s projects,
programmes and related business as usual activities
d. Portfolio management is an alternative method to programme
management
156. An organisation must ensure that:
a. actions are carried out to eliminate all health and safety risk
b. health and safety risk is always reduced to a minimum level
c. health and safety risk is reduced as low as reasonably practical
d. health and safety prevents any dangerous activity
157. The project organisational breakdown structure:
a. shows the organisation of products to enable effective decisions
b. shows the organisation of work to enable planning
c. shows the functional interrelationships between the project and
organisation’s operating structure
d. shows the management structure, communication routes and
reporting links

158. Internal rate of return:
a. establishes the cheapest option
b. identifies the most cost effective option
c. identifies the break even point
d. enables the project financial value to be compared with other
forms of financial investment
159. Which one of the following should be included in a procurement
strategy?
a. Project quality plan
b. Product breakdown structure
c. Supplier acquisition plan
d. Milestone schedule or plan
160. When brainstorming to identify risks you must:
a. filter out ridiculous suggestions
b. limit the meeting to technical specialists
c. establish solutions, not just problems
d. establish a list of possible risks
161. Which of the following is not a risk?
a. Resources may not be available as and when required
b. We have no experience in performing this type of project
c. Interest rates may go up
d. Equipment may be late in arriving
162. The responsibility assignment matrix is the combination of the:
a. WBS and CBS
b. WBS and PBS
c. WBS and OBS
d. PBS and CBS
163. A project manager:
a. must ensure that actions are taken to eliminate risk
b. is expected to ensure that the project management plan includes
health and safety management
c. all hazards likely to affect the project are identified before
commencing any work
d. the organisation’s safety expert takes full responsibility for project
safety

164. An advantage of portfolio management is that:
a. it provides the focus for achievement of day to day routine
activities
b. it ensures that any programmes and projects undertaken within
the portfolio do not impact adversely on BAU activities
c. it ensures that BAU stakeholders do not interfere with project
work
d. it prevents changes that may affect BAU activities
165. The steering group will involve:
a. project sponsor, project manager, quality assurance
b. corporate management, project sponsor, quality assurance,
project office
c. sponsor, supplier representative, user representative
d. sponsor, project manager and senior project team members
166. Which best defines investment appraisal:
a. an appraisal of the benefits against the costs and risks in
achieving them
b. an appraisal of the funding required for the project
c. an appraisal of the cash flow of a project
d. an appraisal of funding requirements against project timescales
167. Which one of the following is part of procurement?
a. Benefits management
b. Development and maintenance of contract documentation
c. Material purchase only
d. Milestone planning and material purchase
168. What is a key role of the Project Sponsor?
a. To develop a technical understanding of the project deliverables
b. To carry out the investment appraisals for each of the business
options
c. To maintain a detailed view of the project through daily meetings
with the Project Manager
d. To ensure the business achieves benefits from the project
169. Which is incorrect? Portfolio management:
a. screens, analyses, and carries out financial appraisal of project
and programme characteristics in relation to the organisation’s
strategy
b. prioritises and/or selects projects or programmes within the
organisation’s portfolio given the resources available, likely
returns and risks
c. ensures that BAU activities are given the highest priority when
assigning resources to minimise cash flow problems
d. adjusts the portfolio with regard to the constraints, risks and
returns anticipated

170. The responsibility for staff in a matrix organisation:
a. is the full responsibility of the project manager
b. is shared between the project manager and staff line manager
c. is shared by the project manager and portfolio manager
d. is the full responsibility of the staff line manager
171. Scope creep is the result of:
a. poor schedule performance
b. poor cost control
c. poor change control
d. poor technical performance
a. The project manager need not be involved in the preparation of
the business case but should have an understanding of it
b. The project manager must be involved in the preparation of the
business case to ensure a complete understanding of it
c. It is the project managers job to define the business case on
behalf of the sponsor
d. The sponsor should always seek corporate management direction
before deciding on the alternative options to be included
173. To ensure effective communications, the project manager should:
a. establish and maintain formal communication processes
b. establish and maintain formal and informal communication
processes
c. appoint a communications officer to control communications
d. review communications to avoid misunderstandings
174. Who should take responsibility for implementing agreed risk
responses?
a. The Project Manager
b. The person who identified the risk
c. The risk manager
d. The risk owner
175. Stakeholder management is:
a. the development of the project communication processes
b. the implementation of counter-measures to control stakeholders
c. the systematic identification, analysis and planning of actions to
engage stakeholders in the project
d. carried out by corporate management
176. Project quality management:
a. ensures that all products are of the highest standards
b. only applies to the implementation phase of the project
c. cannot be achieved by control inspections alone
d. will only be achieved through the implementation of ISO 9000

177. Which one of the following is an estimating method?
a. Comparative
b. Discounted cash flow
c. Expected value
d. Earned value management
178. Generally, project team conflicts:
a. are more likely in a functional organisation
b. must be resolved by staff line managers
c. are more likely in a matrix organisation
d. are less likely in a matrix organisation
179. Which is incorrect? To manage interdependencies between
projects and programmes, a portfolio manager would be mainly
concerned with:
a. scarce or limited resources
b. balance between portfolio risks and returns
c. capacity bottlenecks
d. ensuring quality targets are currently being achieved in business
as usual
180. What is a key role of the project manager?
a. To co-ordinate the development of the project management plan
b. To conduct benefits realisation reviews
c. To review progress against success criteria and check that the
planned business benefits will be achieved
d. To authorise any changes to the business case
181. What is a secondary risk?
a. A risk that occurs at a later stage of the project
b. A risk which may occur if a response to another risk is
implemented
c. A risk that is less important than others
d. A risk that can be ignored
182. An advantage of parametric estimating over other methods is:
a. speed
b. accuracy
c. ability to handle detailed information
d. independence from historic data
183. Which pricing terms would be used where technical risks are to be
minimised?
a. Fixed price
b. Cost plus
c. Maximum price
d. Target price

184. Which is an example of a public project management
methodology?
a. BS6079
b. ISO 100006
c. APM BOK
d. PRINCE2
185. Which project would be easiest in a functional organisation?
a. An update to an existing production machine
b. The development of a new product
c. Building a bridge
d. Introducing a new procurement system
186. The cost of quality is made up of:
a. costs for appraisal, failure and prevention activities
b. committed, incorporated and actual costs
c. costs of assurance and control
d. costs of inspections and tests
187. The main criteria used to analyse project stakeholders is:
a. time and cost
b. the amount of funding they can provide
c. their level of interest and influence on the project
d. the degree to which they will be dissatisfied through the project
188. The least accurate estimates are likely during:
a. Definition
b. Handover
c. Implementation
d. Concept
189. Sunk costs are:
a. actual costs incurred to date
b. committed costs and actual costs incurred to date
c. unavoidable costs that will be incurred even if the project is
cancelled
d. cost that cannot be recovered from a client
190. Which method or group of methods is best for analysing the
context?
a. Investment appraisal
b. PESTLE
c. SWOT and PESTLE
d. SWOT, PESTLE, Stakeholder Analysis

191. What are the four groups of project management methods
described in the APM BOK?
a. Starting or initiating, defining and planning, monitoring and
controlling, learning and closing
b. Initiation, planning, control, people
c. Initiation, definition, implementation, closing
d. Starting or initiation, planning and implementing, monitoring and
controlling, learning and improving
192. Which project would be more typical for a project organisation?
a. An update to an existing production machine
b. The development of a new retail product
c. Building a bridge
d. Introducing a new procurement system
193. Stakeholder management is a prerequisite to:
a. communications planning
b. risk management
c. information management
d. risk, communication and information management
194. Quality management is:
a. the discipline applied to ensure that project outputs meet
industrial standards
b. the discipline applied to ensure that project outputs and processes
meet industrial standards
c. the discipline applied to ensure that project outputs and processes
meet the required needs of stakeholders
d. ensuring the products of the project are made to the highest
standards
195. All breaches of contract should be brought to the attention of the:
a. corporate management
b. project manager
c. procurement department
d. project sponsor
196. Which is least likely to drive organisational change?
a. Organisational strategy
b. Competitive positioning
c. New legislation
d. Business processes

197. For which type of project would the matrix be effective?
a. The update of an existing machine
b. The development of a complex new product within an existing
product portfolio
c. The building of a new international airport terminal
d. A software upgrade within an existing IT system
198. Which is incorrect? Quality is:
a. fitness for purpose of the deliverables
b. the degree conformance of the outputs of the process to
requirements
c. achieving the highest standards
d. a product or service free of deficiencies
199. Which is incorrect? A benefit from the use of standards and
methods is:
a. they provide an environment for developing continuous
improvement
b. they ensure that reviews and audits are conducted at the right
time
c. they provide a consistent approach supporting governance of
project management
d. they enable a common understanding of roles within the project
team
200. The primary objective of communication in project management is
to:
a. gain a common understanding
b. share information
c. provide information to stakeholders as quickly as possible
d. prevent informal communications
201. Which is a correct description for a principle for project
governance?
a. The business case is supported by relevant and realistic
information provided by the project office
b. All projects have an approved business case containing
authorisation points at which the business case is reviewed
c. The project sponsor should decided when independent scrutiny of
the project is required
d. Members of delegated authorisation bodies have sufficient
representation, competence, authority and resources to enable
them to make appropriate decisions

202. Configuration management:
a. comprises the administrative activities concerned with the project
configuration
b. comprises the technical activities concerned with the product
c. comprises the technical and administrative activities concerned
with the creation, maintenance and control of the final deliverable
d. concerns the management of all activities and products produced
during the project
203. Who must ensure that issues are resolved?
a. The project sponsor
b. Corporate management
c. The project manager
d. The project steering group
204. Teamwork is:
a. people working together
b. people working collaboratively to achieve a common goal
c. a group of people working in the same department
d. the same as a working group
205. Which is incorrect? Resource management ensures:
a. efficient utilisation of resources
b. confidence that the schedule is realistic in terms of required and
available resources
c. resources are always available on time
d. the early identification of resource capacity bottlenecks and
conflicts
206. Which method is likely to provide the most reliable estimate at the
end of the project definition phase?
a. Comparative
b. Bottom-up
c. Parametric
d. Weighted average
207. Who has the overall responsibility for cost control on the project?
a. The project finance department
b. The project sponsor
c. Everyone
d. The project manager

208. What is a project budget?
a. A schedule of the actual costs as incurred
b. The amount to be spent at stages in the project
c. The cost anticipated at the start of the project excluding any
approved changes
d. The cost anticipated at the start of the project including any
approved changes and approved by the sponsor
209. The estimating funnel is:
a. the effect of increasing uncertainty as the project progresses
b. the increasing cost as the project progresses
c. the effect of reducing uncertainty as the project progresses
d. equivalent to scope creep
210. Who may be given responsibility for development and
maintenance of methods and procedures?
a. The project manager
b. Quality assurance
c. The project office
d. Project team leaders
211. Project Handover involves:
a. project closure report
b. acceptance of deliverables
c. evaluating the business case
d. disposing of all project documentation
212. Teams are different from groups because they:
a. have the same boss
b. carry out similar activities
c. share responsibility for the project outcome
d. can perform more difficult tasks
213. When undertaking projects in a matrix organisation:
a. line managers are responsible for defining the project objectives
for their staff
b. there are likely to be conflicts between projects for critical
resources
c. senior management are always responsible for resolving resource
conflicts
d. project managers take full responsibility for staff career
development

214. Which description fits quality management best? Quality
management is:
a. quality planning, assurance, control and continuous improvement
b. quality planning, assurance and control
c. quality control and assurance
d. quality auditing and continuous improvement
215. Single or deterministic estimates:
a. allow for estimating error
b. allow for data inconsistencies
c. do not account for estimating variations
d. allow for human error
216. Which plan is suggested in the APM BOK as a support tool for
stakeholder management?
a. Information management plan
b. Communication plan
c. Benefits plan
d. Handover plan
217. Which uses float within time contraints to optimise resource
allocations?
a. Resource levelling
b. Resource aggregation
c. Resource limited scheduling
d. Resource smoothing
218. Which is incorrect? Information management:
a. concerns the collection, storage, dissemination, archiving and
appropriate destruction of project information
b. is the management of project communications
c. is needed to ensure that accurate, appropriate and timely
information is available to stakeholders
d. supports project decision making
219. Issue resolution is one of the key responsibilities of:
a. the project manager
b. the project team
c. the project steering group
d. the project office
220. Which planning tool supports configuration management?
a. WBS
b. PBS
c. OBS
d. Ghantt chart

221. Which is incorrect? An unlikely outcome from the lack of methods
or procedures is:
a. project managers will develop and use their own way of working
b. project management will be practised in an unpredictable manner
c. it will lead to inefficiencies
d. the project will be successful
222. Which is incorrect? Effective governance of project management:
a. ensures that projects are closely aligned to business as usual
objectives
b. ensures that the project portfolio is sustainable
c. ensures that the project portfolio is aligned to strategic objectives
d. ensures that the project portfolio is delivered efficiently
223. The purpose of the communication plan is to:
a. prevent adverse publicity
b. ensure stakeholders receive all project correspondence on time
c. to provide guidance on the way communications will carried out
for the project
d. to ensure that communication systems are cost effective
224. Which is incorrect? Leadership is the ability to:
a. establish vision and direction
b. influence and align others towards a common purpose
c. empower and inspire others
d. maintain a strong and directive approach throughout the project
225. Which is incorrect?
a. Conflict in a project can be constructive
b. Unresolved conflict increases uncertainty and damages morale
c. Conflict is always caused through interpersonal problems
d. Conflict arising from feelings needs to be handled sensitively and
with empathy

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