CEHv8 practice Exam with key
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The document is a practice exam for Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH) version 8, consisting of multiple-choice questions covering various topics related to hacking, network security, and cybersecurity. It includes questions on hacking methodologies, vulnerabilities, types of attacks, social engineering, and technical details about protocols and tools. Each question is followed by the correct answer for reference.
CEHv8 practice Exam with key
- 1. CEH (v8) Practice Exam (With Key) 1. A person who uses hacking skills for defensive purposes is called a: A. Hacktivist B. Grey hat hacker C. Black hat hacker D. White hat hacker Answer: D 2. What is the preparatory phase of hacking called? A. Scanning B. Reconnaissance C. Enumeration D. Footprinting Answer: B 3. Which of the following is a weakness in a system, application, network or process? A. Threat B. Exploit C. Vulnerability D. Attack Answer: C 4. Which of the following refers to an attacker exploiting vulnerabilities before the vendor has a patch or mitigation for them? A. Day 1 attack B. Zero-day attack C. Exploit D. Category I attack Answer: B 5. Which of the following refers to an unskilled hacker that uses pre-made scripts and tools to hack into systems? A. Ethical Hacker B. Grey Hat C. Cyber Terrorist D. Script Kiddie Answer: D
- 2. 6. Gathering information about a target without direct contact is called: A. Social engineering B. Passive footprinting C. Active footprinting D. Enumeration Answer: B 7. All of the following information is typically gathered during the footprinting stage of an attack EXCEPT: A. Log files B. IP address range C. Domain names D. Website names Answer: A 8. Determining which hosts on a network are running SMTP services is an example of: A. DNS footprinting B. Email footprinting C. WHOIS footprinting D. Google hacking Answer: B 9. Which of the following Google hacking operators will return search query results that contain ALL of the query terms in the web site title? A. intitle B. site C. allinurl D. allintitle Answer: D 10. All of the following information can be gathered from WHOIS footprinting EXCEPT: A. Web server vulnerabilities B. Domain name C. Registered IP addresses D. DNS server information Answer: A
- 3. 11. A full TCP scan on a host or network involves: A. Setting all TCP flags to “on” B. A complete TCP 3-way handshake C. Setting all TCP flags to “off” D. Scanning all TCP ports Answer: B 12. During a “ping sweep”, an active host returns what type of response? A. ARP REPLY B. ICMP ECHO REQUEST C. ICMP ECHO REPLY D. Nothing Answer: C 13. What type of scan is accomplished by running the command: nmap –sS 192.168.10.13 ? A. An ACK scan B. A SYN scan C. A ping sweep D. An XMAS scan Answer: B 14. Which TCP flag signifies a complete transmission? A. FIN B. SYN C. ACK D. RST Answer: A 15. An XMAS scan consists of which TCP flags set as “on”? A. FIN, URG, PSH B. RST, URG, PSH C. SYN, SYN/ACK, FIN D. SYN, ACK, RST Answer: A
- 4. 16. Which of the following ports is used by the Domain Name Service? A. 135 B. 53 C. 67 D. 25 Answer: B 17. Enumerating TCP port 25 can give you information on which of the following services? A. SNMP B. SMTP C. LDAP D. NTP Answer: B 18. Which of the following built-in commands can enumerate NetBIOS services on a Windows machine? A. nmap.exe B. nc.exe C. netstat.exe D. nbtstat.exe Answer: D 19. What is the default read/write community string for SNMP? A. secret B. public C. private D. password Answer: C 20. Which SMTP enumeration command is used to identify the recipients of a message? A. EXPN B. VRFY C. RCPT TO D. HELO Answer: C
- 5. 21. Which type of password attack makes use of extensive wordlists to hash and run against a captured password hash? A. Character B. Brute Force C. Rainbow tables D. Dictionary Answer: D 22. Where are password hashes stored on a Windows system? A. /etc/shadow B. SAM file C. PASSWORDS file D. C:Windowssystem32shadow Answer: B 23. Which of the following is a popular password cracking tool for Linux-based systems? A. John the Ripper B. Cain and Abel C. KeyPass D. Passcrack Answer: A 24. Which of the following types of rootkits work at the core of the operating system? A. Library rootkits B. Application-level rootkit C. Kernel-level rootkit D. Firmware rootkit Answer: C 25. Which file system supports alternate data streams (ADS)? A. EXT3 B. NTFS C. FAT D. HPFS Answer: B
- 6. 26. What kind of communications channel does a Trojan facilitate? A. Open B. Encrypted C. Overt D. Covert Answer: D 27. All of the following are symptoms of a Trojan attack EXCEPT: A. Abnormal increase of hard disk activity B. Abnormal increase in network traffic from host C. Unexplained pop-up messages D. Computer shutdown due to overheating Answer: D 28. A Trojan is installed on a system by means of a __________: A. Dropper B. Wrapper C. Macro D. Batch file Answer: A 29. Which switch causes the netcat Trojan to listen on a specific inbound port? A. e B. l C. p D. d Answer: B 30. A __________Trojan uses a victim’s host machine to act as an attacker A. Proxy B. Botnet C. Zombie D. Remote access Answer: A
- 7. 31. A virus composed of a series of otherwise legitimate actions in an application such as Microsoft Word is called a __________: A. Boot sector virus B. Multipartite virus C. Macro virus D. File virus Answer: C 32. Viruses that change their characteristics and signatures on infection to avoid antivirus detection are called: A. Encryption viruses B. Polymorphic viruses C. Companion viruses D. Boot sector viruses Answer: B 33. Which of the following files could be considered as a “safe” file, rather than a potential file extension virus? A. work.doc.cmd B. work.exe C. work.txt.vbs D. work.txt Answer: D 34. A piece of malware that is able to spread to a variety of hosts across a network, without human intervention, is called a __________. A. Trojan B. Spreader virus C. Worm D. Bot Answer: C 35. All of the following are characteristics of worms, EXCEPT: A. Corrupts executable programs B. Self-replicating C. Does not modify programs D. Easily removed Answer: A
- 8. 36. Which of the following protocols is most vulnerable to sniffing attacks? A. FTP B. SSH C. SSL D. IPSec Answer: A 37. Which network device mitigates sniffing attacks? A. Repeaters B. Bridges C. Hubs D. Switches Answer: D 38. All of the following are susceptible to sniffing EXCEPT: A. Plaintext passwords B. FTP file transfers C. Encrypted communications sessions D. Telnet sessions Answer: C 39. What mode must a network adapter be placed in to facilitate sniffing attacks? A. Listening mode B. Promiscuous mode C. Non-switched mode D. Active mode Answer: B 40. Which of the following is the most effective way to defend against sniffing attacks? A. Two-factor authentication B. Data compression C. Complex passwords D. Encryption Answer: D
- 9. 41. All of the following human traits contribute to the success of social engineering attacks EXCEPT: A. Suspicion B. Trust C. Social obligation D. Ignorance Answer: A 42. Which of the following social engineering techniques is used to get an individual’s password as it is entered on the keyboard? A. Eavesdropping B. Dumpster diving C. Shoulder surfing D. Tailgating Answer: C 43. Which type of computer-based social- engineering attack attempts to persuade users to click on links in an email? A. Spam B. Phishing C. Pop-ups D. Fake antivirus Answer: B 44. An attack that targets specific individuals in an organization is known as a(n) _________ attack. A. whaling B. spear phishing C. impersonation D. authority Answer: B 45. Which is the best type of defense for social engineering attacks? A. Strong passwords B. Permissions C. Encryption D. Education Answer: D
- 10. 46. What type of DoS attack starts the first part of a TCP three-way handshake using a spoofed source IP address, but does not complete the process? A. ICMP flood B. XMAS attack C. SYN attack D. UDP flood Answer: C 47. Which protocol is used to perpetrate a “Ping of Death” attack? A.UDP B. ICMP C. TCP D. FTP Answer: B 48. A large network of compromised hosts, all remotely controlled to attack a victim host or network, is called a: A. Botnet B. Honeynet C. Malnet D. Trojan Army Answer: A 49. Which of the following tools can be used to conduct a Denial of Service attack on a host? A. HPing3 B. netcat C. Nmap D. Nessus Answer: A 50. All of the following are defenses against DoS attacks EXCEPT: A. Packet filtering B. Dropping HTTP packets at the firewall C. TCP/IP stack hardening D. In-line IDS Answer: B
- 11. 51. All of the following items make session hijacking successful EXCEPT: A. Plaintext passwords B. HTTP referrer C. Session ID D. Public keys Answer: D 52. Which of the following are needed to successfully break into a TCP communications session? A. Port number B. Serial number C. Sequence number D. Protocol number Answer: C 53. What must be done after finding a connection of interest to begin the session hijacking attempt? A. Desynchronizing the connection B. Decrypting the session C. Sniffing the connection D. Flooding the connection Answer: A 54. Which of the following attempts to take over the session a client establishes with a web server? A. TCP hijacking B. Cross-site scripting C. Spoofing D. Flooding Answer: B 55. Which type of session hijacking attack requires that the attacker’s transmission follow a specific network or Internet path? A. Source routing B. Reverse routing C. IP spoofing D. Sequence prediction Answer: A
- 12. 56. All of the following are web server attack vectors EXCEPT: A. Faulty directory permissions B. Plaintext passwords C. Encrypted password hashes D. Unpatched server software Answer: C 57. Which of the following is an example of a web server configuration issue that an attacker may exploit? A. Default user passwords B. Expired SSL certificates C. Use of older, less secure browsers D. Use of non-standard ports Answer: A 58. Which attack allows the attacker to view files outside the web server root directory? A. Session hijacking attack B. Privilege escalation attack C. Default shares attack D. Directory traversal attack Answer: D 59. Which attack allows an attacker to intercept communications between a client and web server? A. TCP/IP hijacking attack B. Man-in-the-middle attack C. Birthday paradox attack D. Sniffing attack Answer: B 60. An attack where malicious HTML tags or scripts are injected into a victim website is called a__________. A. session hijacking attack B. cross-site request forgery attack C. cross-site scripting attack D. SQL injection attack Answer: C 61. An attacker can alter a cookie to thwart: A. Integrity B. Non-repudiation
- 13. C. Encryption D. Authentication Answer: D 62. Entering data into a web form that the form was not designed to handle is an example of: A. Parameter manipulation B. Unvalidated input C. XML injection D. SQL injection Answer: B 63. An attack that allows database commands to be appended to invalid form input is known as: A. Cross-site request forgery B. Parameter tampering C. SQL injection D. XML injection Answer: C 64. Which type of attack takes advantage of a web application not properly programmed to manage memory or data storage? A. XML injection attack B. Buffer overflow attack C. Cross-site scripting attack D. Command injection attack Answer: B 65. All of the following could result from improper error handling in a web application EXCEPT: A. Denial of service B. Command shell C. Memory errors D. Weak passwords Answer: D
- 14. 66. Which SQL command is used to determine which records to retrieve from a database table? A. Update B. Select C. Insert D. Delete Answer: B 67. In which type of SQL injection attack are the results of the command string entered not visible to the attacker? A. Blind SQL injection B. Hidden SQL injection C. False SQL injection D. Simple SQL injection Answer: A 68. Which text can be appended to an SQL command to generate an error or get access to an entire database table? A. #=1 B. ‘ OR 1=1 C. $SHELL D. == Answer: B 69. Which of the following RDBMS applications are vulnerable to SQL injection? A. Oracle B. Microsoft SQL Server C. Postgres D. All of the above Answer: D 70. Which of the following is the best mitigation for SQL injection attacks? A. Input validation B. Encryption C. Complex passwords D. File permissions Answer: A
- 15. 71. WEP is a vulnerable wireless protocol due to all of the following EXCEPT: A. Small IV size B. Use of AES C. Use of RC4 D. Repeating keys Answer: B 72. Which of the following wireless security protocols use AES? A. Open WEP B. WPA C. WPA2 D. Shared WEP Answer: C 73. Which of the following commands will place a wireless network card into monitor mode? A. airodump-ng mon0 B. airmon-ng start wlan0 C. aireplay mon0 D. airmon-ng start mon0 Answer: B 74. What must be captured during a wireless attack on WPA/WPA2? A. 4-way handshake B. 3-way handshake C. 802.1X key D. WEP key Answer: A 75. Which command or program is used to perform a dictionary attack on a WPA/WPA2 capture file to obtain the key? A. aircrack-ng B. aireplay-ng C. Netcat D. Jack the Ripper Answer: A
- 16. 76. Which of the following terms applies to a mobile device that has been rendered inoperable due to attempts to hack it? A. rooting B. bricking C. jailbreaking D. Sandboxing Answer: B 77. A secure environment in which mobile applications run is called a __________. A. Chrooted jail B. Sandbox C. Firewall D. Cleanroom Answer: B 78. The Android mobile operating system is based upon __________. A. BSD B. Mac OS C. Windows D. Linux Answer: D 79. Which of the following are programs designed to root an Android device? A. Cydia B. ZitMo C. SuperOneclick D. Redsn0w Answer: C 80. A(n) __________ can be used by security professionals and hackers to test exploits against mobile devices. A. simulator B. sandbox C. emulator D. virtual device Answer: C
- 17. 81. Which of the following is the most effective scanning technique used to detect firewalls on a network? A. Full TCP connect scan B. SYN scan C. ICMP scan D. ACK scan Answer: D 82. What scanning technique is useful for avoiding IDS detection? A. TCP scan B. Stealth scan C. Ping sweep D. XMAS scan Answer: B 83. Which of the following can make it difficult for an IDS to read the traffic from an attacker? A. Encryption B. Spoofing C. Tunneling D. Flooding Answer: A 84. What type of device emulates other operating systems on a network? A. Scanner B. Sniffer C. Honeypot D. Spammer Answer: C 85. Which common protocol is often used to tunnel malicious traffic through, as it is frequently not blocked through firewalls? A. TELNET B. HTTP C. FTP D. ICMP Answer: B
- 18. 86. Which attack takes advantage of small allocation areas for memory space and strings in a program? A. XML injection B. Command injection C. SQL injection D. Buffer overflow attack Answer: D 87. Which of the following programming languages is popular in developing buffer overflow programs? A. SQL B. Shell scripts C. PERL D. C++ Answer: D 88. A popular compiler on the Linux platform, used to help create buffer overflow programs, is: A. gcc B. gdd C. netcat D. vim Answer: A 89. A buffer set to hold 25 characters will overflow when the number of characters entered into it is: A. Validated B. Exceeded C. Reduced D. Converted Answer: B 90. Which of the following will reduce the number of buffer overflow conditions? A. Bounds checking B. Input validation C. Expanding buffer sizes D. Reducing buffer sizes Answer: A
- 19. 91. Which of the following is generally considered to be public knowledge, instead of confidential? A. Private key B. Password C. Algorithm D. Symmetric key Answer: C 92. Which of the following are hashing algorithms? A. AES B. SHA-256 C. 3DES D. RC4 Answer: B 93. Which of the following algorithms is used to generate a private/public key pair? A. TWOFISH B. AES C. RC4 D. RSA Answer: D 94. If Bobby sends Tim a message encrypted with Tim’s public key, which key is required to decrypt it? A. Bobby’s public key B. Bobby’s private key C. Tim’s private key D. Tim’s public key Answer: C 95. Which cryptography attack requires the attacker to have a confirmed piece of plaintext, and its corresponding ciphertext, in order to derive the key? A. Known plaintext attack B. Chosen plaintext attack C. Known ciphertext attack D. Chosen ciphertext attack Answer: A
- 20. 96. Which type of penetration test is completely blind in terms of organizational and infrastructure knowledge possessed by the tester? A. Black box test B. Grey box test C. External test D. White box test Answer: A 97. Which type of test actually exploits weaknesses found in a system? A. White box test B. Black box test C. Vulnerability assessment D. Penetration test Answer: D 98. What is the most critical element in the planning phase of a penetration test? A. Scope and schedule B. Permission to test from the system owner C. Personnel assignments D. Equipment list Answer: C 99. A penetration test specifically targeted at one part of the infrastructure is considered a: A. White box assessment B. Limited scope assessment C. Vulnerability assessment D. Security audit Answer: B 100. Which of the following should be included in the final penetration testing report? A. Blame B. Offers of additional services C. Criticisms of personnel D. Mitigations Answer: D
- 21. 101. Which of the following ports are used by FTP? A. 21 B. 23 C. 22 D. 53 Answer: A 102. All of the following are considered cleartext protocols EXCEPT: A. Telnet B. FTP C. SSH D. HTTP Answer: C 103. Which port is used when a hacker uses the Telnet protocol to communicate with a mail server to enumerate it? A. 23 B. 25 C. 129 D. 22 Answer: B 104. During a port scan, nmap discovers that port 1433 is open on a host. Which service listens on port 1433? A. SSL B. MS SQL Server C. NTP D. POP3 Answer: B 105. If port 111 is identified on a host during a port scan, which operating system is likely to be running on the host? A. Mac OS B. Windows 7 C. Windows XP D. Unix Answer: D
- 22. 106. Which of the following is a popular web application vulnerability scanner? A. Metasploit B. Nmap C. Acunetix D. NetToolsPro Answer: C 107. Which command can be used to compile a buffer overflow program? A. gcc buffer_overflow.c:buff_ovflw B. gcc buffer_overflow.c –o buff_ovflw C. gcc buffer_overflow.txt –o buff_ovflw.c D. gcc buffer_overflow > buff_ovflw Answer: B 108. Which command in Windows can be used to insert a file into another via NTFS streams? A. type B. cat C. gcc D. start Answer: A 109. Which of the following commands starts a netcat listener? A. nc -lvp 3333 B. nc 192.168.163.129 3333 C. nc -lvp 192.168.163.129 D. nc –e cmd.exe 3333 Answer: A 110. Which of the following programs is used to detect NTFS Alternate Data Streams (ADS)? A. Netcat B. LADS C. StegDetect D. type Answer: B
- 23. 111. Which of the following is a popular password cracking tool for Windows? A. Netcat B. Jack the Ripper C. Cain and Abel D. Nessus Answer: C 112. All of the following are considered to be popular Trojan horse programs EXCEPT: A. Kriptomatic B. Back Oriffice C. Metasploit D. NetBus Answer: C 113. Using which of the following password cracking techniques risks locking an account? A. Online attack B. Offline attack C. Brute force attack D. Rainbow tables attack Answer: A 114. Which switch enables Nmap to perform OS fingerprinting? A. -sP B. -A C. -sT D. -U Answer: B 115. Which tool enables a hacker to actually exploit vulnerabilities found on a host? A. Metasploit B. Nmap C. Nessus D. Netcat Answer: A
- 24. 116. Where are user accounts stored on a Linux host? A. /etc/SAM B. /etc/shadow C. /etc/passwd D. /etc/password Answer: C 117. Which secure protocol uses TCP port 443? A. SSL B. SSH C. IPSec D. SFTP Answer: A 118. Which of the following is true regarding physical system access? A. Most operational procedures prevent physical system access B. Physical access can be used to break encryption keys C. Session encryption may prevent physical access D. Firewalls and other security devices may be bypassed Answer: D 119. Hackers may try to cover tracks by deleting _________. A. user accounts B. audit logs C. encryption keys D. shared data Answer: B 120. How many characters are in a MD5 hash? A. 160 B. 128 C. 32 D. 16 Answer: C 121. Which type of device plugs into a port on a host to capture information? A. IDS B. Keystroke logger C. Sniffer D. Proxy
- 25. Answer: B 122. Which of the following can be used to steal password hashes from a Windows machine? A. Pwdump B. Nmap C. Nessus D. Acunetix Answer: A 123. Which Security Identifier (SID) suffix identifies the true administrator account on a Windows host, even if it has been renamed? A. 1000 B. 500 C. 501 D. 0 Answer: B 124. After obtaining user-level access to a host, what is the next most likely step for a hacker? A. Scanning B. Footprinting C. Covering tracks D. Escalation of privileges Answer: D 125. Which type of configuration issue is most easily exploitable by a hacker? A. Restrictive directory permissions B. Use of AES encryption C. Default passwords D. Disabling file and print sharing Answer: C