Cyber Security MCQ Questions and Answers

Cyber Security
1. What is the full form of LDAP?
A Light Weight Directory Access Provider
B Light Weight Directory Access Protocol
C Light Weight Directory Access Program
D Light Weight Directory Access Protection
Ans. b
2. What is called the collective terms of malicious software, such as viruses, worms and trojans?
A Spam B Phishing C Malware D Harm
Ans. c
3. What is the full form of CIA under information security?
A Confidentiality Integrity Availability B Criminal Investigation Agency
C Cost Information Agency D Credit Integrity Assessment
Ans. a
4. What is called periodic assessment of security vulnerability in computer system?
A Threat B Attack C Hacking D Security audit
Ans. d
5. What is called a single point of access for several networking services?
A Phishing B Web service C Directory service D Worms
Ans. c
6. Which activities endanger the sovereignty and integrity of nation?
A Cyber Terrorism B Cyber vandalism C Cyber squatting D Carding
Ans. a
7. Which crime involves the use of computer networks to create, distribute or access materials tha
sexually expoit underage persons?
A Assault by Threat B Cyber squatting C Cyber vandalism D Child pornography
Ans. d
8. Which method go through all the files or network elements with an intention to detect something
unusual?
A Probing B Phishing C Infecting D Scanning
Ans. d
9. Victims of cyber attack might loose _______.
(a) data (b) money (c) both a & b (d) none of them
Ans. c
10. Under information security, any device having _______is classified as a computing device.
(a) processor (b) memory (c) both a & b (d) neither a nor b
Ans. c
11. Under information security, CIA stands for _______.
(a) Criminal Investigation Agency (b) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
(c) Cost Information Agency (d) Credit Integrity Assessment
Ans. b

12. Script files sent mostly through email attachment to attack host computer are called ______.
(a) Worms
(b) Phishing attacks
(c) Trojans
(d) Computer Viruses
Ans. a
13. Attacking the victims through fake URL resembling that of a valid financial Institution
is called_____ .
(a) Worms
(b) Phishing attack
(c) Trojans
Ans. b
14. Getting the user ID and password from avictim through dubious program is called _____attack.
(a) Worms
(b) Phishing attack
(c) Trojan
Ans. c
15. A malicious program spreading through internet and storage media and attacking the data in
victims computer is called_______.
(a) Worms
(b) Phishing attack
(c) Trojan
(d) Computer Virus
Ans. d
16. Potential weaknesses in IT infrastructure through which a cyber attack might occur is called
__.
(a) strength
(b) antivirus
(c) vulnerability
(d) port
Ans. c
17. Vulnerability for cyber attack may be in______.
(a) operating system
(b) application software
(c) IT infrastructure
(d) all of them
Ans. d
18. To protect the network infrastructure from vulnerability, _____ is setup.
(a) firewall
(b) Internet security software
(c) both a & b
(d) none of them
Ans. c

19. The person using vulnerability in operating system or application software or IT infrastructure
to intrude in to the computer of a victim is called ______ .
(a) hacker
(b) cracker
(c) maker
(d) taker
Ans. a
20. Periodic assessment of security vulnerability in computer systems is called _______audit.
(a) threat
(b) attack
(c) hacking
(d) security
Ans. d
21. The security audit team______ to keep the computers safe from cyber attacks.
(a) assesses vulnerability
(b) decides the safety measures through hardware and software
(c) considers latest threat scenario and implements information safety
(d) all of them
Ans. d
22. To ensure information safety, ________should be implemented.
(a) physical access security (b) password access security
(c) secure IT infrastructure (d) all of them
Ans. d
23. A single point of access for several networking services is called _____.
(a) Directory Service (b) web server
(c) email server (d) none of them
Ans. a
24. Directory service permits security administrators to ______.
(a) concentrate on security of directory service instead of individual machines
(b) create new vulnerabilities
(c) damage the security of computers
(d) create new virus
Ans. a
25. Directory service should be able to _______in the infrastructure.
(a) include new services
(b) esaily search for information in the network
(c) the information stored on the directory server should be accessible from any operating system
(d) all of them
Ans. d
26. LDAP in directory service stands for ______.
(a) Light Weight Director Access Provider
(b) Light Weight Director Access Protocol
(c) Light Weight Director Access Provider
(d) Light Weight Director Access Protection
Ans. b

27. Protecting access to a computer through________ is called access control.
(a) physical restriction of entry
(b) password security for login
(c) both a & b
(d) none of them
Ans. c
28. Security should be implemented at the stage of ______in software.
(a) development stage
(b) entire life cycle
(c) Sofware Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
(d) all of them
Ans. d
29. SDLC in software development stands for _____.
(a) Software Development Life Circus
(b) Software Development Life Cycle
(c) Software Drafting Life Cycle
(d) Software Development Lead Cycle
Ans. b
30. Protection from______ of source code means non-disclosure of the source code to outsiders.
(a) disclosure
(b) alteration
(c) destruction
(d) log of changes (whois making request)
Ans. a
31. Protection from ______of source code means alloting the right to edit the source code to
authorized persons only.
(a) disclosure
(b) alteration
(c) destruction
Ans. b
32. Protection from _______of source code means protection of any individual from destroying the
software source code.
(a) disclosure
(b) alteration
(c) destruction
Ans. c
33. Protection from ________of source code means recording all changes made to the source
code and the person making such changes.
(a) disclosure
(b) alteration
(c) destruction
Ans. d

32. _______of access rights in source code development means verification of role before
permitting access to source code.
(a) verification
(b) maintaining historical records
(c) error handling
Ans. a
33. _____in source code development means verification of role before permitting access to
source code.
(a) verification
(c) error handling
Ans. b
34. _____in source code development means handling of configuration errors, session errors and
exceptions.
(a) verification
(c) error handling
Ans. c
35. Protecting the data divulged by customers from unauthorized access is called____.
(a) privacy protection
(b) audit
(c) antinvirus
(d) vulnerability
Ans a
36. Information on criminal records of individuals, financial data of companies, genetic information,
address, mobile number, email ID, record of web surfing behaviour, record of credit card, record of
debit card, netbanking details, etc. are classified under ______.
(a) privacy protection
(b) audit
(c) antinvirus
(d) vulnerability
Ans. a
37. Information security audit may be conducted with reference to _____ .
(a) vulnerabilities
(b) threats
(c) preventive measures
(d) all of them
Ans. d
38. Information security audit analyses events of past threats to formulate _____.
(a) security measures
(b) safe practices
(c) software protection
(d) all of them
Ans. d

39. Any single employee ______hold all data needed for making a complete financial transaction.
(a) should not
(b) should
(c) may
(d) might
Ans. a
40. IT audit of the firm should be conducted periodically, which may be every______ .
(a) fortnight
(b) month
(c) quarter
(d) all of them
Ans. d
41. IT act aims to_______ .
(a) protect victims of cyber fraud
(b) punish misbehious involving technology
(c) both a & b
(d) none of them
Ans. c
42. Section ______of IT Act imposes fine up to 2Lakh and imprisonment up to 2 years for
tampering with computer source documents.
(a) 65
(b) 66
(c) 66B
(d) 66C
Ans. a
43. Section_____ of IT Act imposes fine up to 5Lakh and imprisonment up to 3 years
for hacking.
(a) 65
(b) 66
(c) 66B
(d) 66C
Ans. b
44. Section_____ of IT Act imposes fine up to 1Lakh and imprisonment up to 3 years for receiving
stolen computer or mobile device.
(a) 65
(b) 66
(c) 66B
(d) 66C
Ans. c
45. Section ______of IT Act imposes fine up to 1Lakh and imprisonment up to 3 years for misuse
of password.
(a) 65
(b) 66
(c) 66B
(d) 66C
Ans. d

46. Section _______of IT Act imposes fine up to 1Lakh and imprisonment up to 3 years for
cheating with computer.
(a) 66D
(b) 66E
(c) 66F
(d) 67
Ans. a
47. Section of IT Act imposes fine up to 2Lakh and imprisonment up to 3 years for publishing
private images of others.
(a) 66D
(b) 66E
(c) 66F
(d) 67
Ans. b
48. Section_____ of IT Act imposes life imprisonment for cyber terrorism.
(a) 66D
(b) 66E
(c) 66F
(d) 67
Ans. c
49. Section______ of IT Act imposes fine up to 1Lakh and imprisonment up to 5 years for
publishing obscene content.
(a) 66D
(b) 66E
(c) 66F
(d) 67
Ans. d
50. Section_____ of IT Act imposes fine up to 1Lakh and imprisonment up to 7 years for
publishing sexual content.
(a) 67A
(b) 67B
(c) 67C
(d) 68
Ans. a
51. Section _____of IT Act imposes fine up to 1Lakh and imprisonment up to 7 years for
publishing child porn.
(a) 67A
(b) 67B
(c) 67C
(d) 68
Ans. b
52. Section _____ of IT Act imposes undefined fine amount and imprisonment up to 3 years for
failure to maintain records by operator.
(a) 67A (b) 67B
(c) 67C (d) 68
Ans. c

53. Section____ of IT Act imposes fine up to 2Lakh and imprisonment up to 3 years for failure to
comply with orders.
(a) 67A
(b) 67B
(c) 67C
(d) 68
Ans. d
54. Section______ of IT Act imposes undefined fine amount and imprisonment up to 7 years for
refusal to decrypt data.
(a) 69
(b) 70
(c) 67C
(d) 68
Ans. a
55. Section____ of IT Act imposes fine up to 1Lakh and imprisonment up to 3 years for disclosure
of wrong information.
(a) 69
(b) 70
(c) 67C
(d) 68
Ans. b
56. Fine up to Rs.______ may be imposed under sections 66B (receiving stolen mobile/
computer), 66C (password misuse), 66D (cheating with computer), 67 (publishing obscene
content), 67A (publishing sexual content), 67B (publishing child porn) & 70 (disclosure of wrong
information) of the IT Act, 2000.
(a) 1Lakh
(b) 2Lakh
(c) 5Lakh
(d) none of them
Ans. a
57. Fine up to Rs._______ may be imposed under sections 65 (tampering with computer), 66E
(publishing private images of others) & 68 (failure to comply with orders) of the IT Act, 2000.
(a) 1Lakh
(b) 2Lakh
(c) 5Lakh
(d) none of them
Ans. b
58. Fine up to Rs.____ may be imposed under section 66 (hacking) of the IT Act, 2000.
(a) 1Lakh
(b) 2Lakh
(c) 5Lakh
(d) none of them
Ans. c
59. Imprisonment up to ______ years may be imposed under section 65 (tampering with computer
documents) of the IT Act, 2000.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Ans. a

60. Imprisonment up to _____ years may be imposed under sections 66 (hacking), 66B (receiving
stolen computer/ mobile), 66C (misuse of password), 66D (cheating with computer), 66E
(publishing private images of others), 67C (failure to maintain records by operator), 68 (failure to
comply with orders) & 70 (disclosure of wrong information) of the IT Act, 2000.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans. b
61. Imprisonment up to______ years may be imposed under section 67 (publishing obscene
content) of the IT Act, 2000.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans. c
62. Imprisonment up to______ years may be imposed under sections 67A (publishing sexual
content) & 69 (refusal to decrypt data) of the IT Act, 2000.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans. d
63. Imprisonment up to____ years may be imposed under section 66F (cyber terrorism) of the IT
Act, 2000.
(a) Life
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans. a
64. _____ can keep unwanted ads to show up?
a) Adware
b) Hardware
c) Malware
d) Spyware
Ans. a
65. There are broadly how many categories of IT risks?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 2
d) 7
66. ______ servers provides a central storeroom for storing and managing information?
a) Clint
b) Directory
c) Post
d) Group
Ans. b

67. ______ generally refers to a system that can control, monitor and restrict the movement of
people, assets or vehicles, in, out and around a building or site?
a) Access control
b) Security Guard
c) Form Denial
d) None
Ans. a
68. Which chapter of the IT awareness Act talks about electronic governance?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Ans. b
69. Chapter 7 of the IT awareness act deals with?
a) E- Commerce
b) Electronic Governance
c) Digital Signature
d) None
Ans. c
70. Which chapter of the IT awareness act talks about penalities and adjudication?
a) 5
b) 7
c) 11
d) 9
Ans. d
71. The IT awareness act addresses which of the following issues?
a) Legal recognition of electronic documents
b) Legal Recognition of digital signatures
c) Offenses and contraventions
d) All of the above
Ans. d
72. Why would a hacker use a proxy server?
a) To create a stronger connection with the target
b) To create a ghost server on the network.
c) To obtain a remote access connection.
d) To hide malicious activity on the network.
Ans. d
73. What type of symmetric key algorithm using a streaming cipher to encrypt information?
a) RC4 b) Blowfish c) SHA d) MD5
Ans. a
74. Which of the following is not a factor in securing the environment against an attack on
security?
a) The education of the attacker b) The system configuration
c) The network architecture d) The business strategy of the company
Ans. d

75. What type of attack uses a fraudulent server with a relay address?
a) NTLM
b) MITM
c) NetBIOS
d) SMB
Ans. b
76. To hide information inside a picture, what technology is used?
a) Rootkits
b) Bitmapping
c) Steganography
d) Image Rendering
Ans. c
77. Which phase of hacking performs actual attack on a network or system?
a) Reconnaissance
b) Maintaining Access
c) Scanning
d) Gaining Access
Ans. d
78. Attempting to gain access to a network using an employee’s credential is called the ______
mode of ethical hacking.
a) Local networking
b) Social engineering
c) Physical entry
d) Remote networking
Ans. a
79. Which federal code applies the consequences of hacking activities that disrupt subway transit
system?
a) Electronic Communications Interception of Oral Communications
b) 18 U.S.C $ 1029
c) Cyber security Enhancement Act 2002
d) 18 U.S.C. $ 1030
Ans. c
80. Which ports should be blocked to prevent null session enumeration?
a) Port 120 and 445 b) Port 135 and 136
c) Port 110 and 137 d) Port 135 and 139
Ans. d
81.The first phase of hacking an IT system is compromise of which foundation of security?
a) Availability b) Confidentiality c) Integrity d) Authentication
Ans. b
82. How is IP address spoofing detected?
a) Installing and configuring a IDS that can read the IP header
b) Comparing the TTL value of the actual and spoofed addresses
c) Implementing a firewall to the network
d) Identify all TCP sessions that are initiated but does not complete successfully
Ans. b

83. Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of an ethical hacker?
a) Excellent knowledge of windows.
b) Understands the process of exploiting network vulnerabilities.
c) patience, persistence and perseverance.
d) Has the highest level of security for the organization.
Ans. d
84. What type of rootkit will patch, hook, or replace the version of system call in order to hide
information?
a) Library level rootkits
b) Kernel level rootkits
c) System level rootkits
d) Application level rootkits
Ans. a
85. What is the purpose of a Denial service attack?
a) Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
b) To execute a Trojan on a system
c) To overload a system so it is no longer operational
d) To shutdown services by turning them off
Ans. c
86. Which of the following will allow footprinting to be conducted without detection?
a) PingSweep b) Traceroute c) War Dialers d) ARIN
Ans. d
87. Performing hacking activities with the intent of gaining visibility for an unfair situation is
called_______.
a) Cracking
b) Analysis
c) Hacktivism
d)Exploitation
Ans. c
88. What is the most important activity in system hacking?
a) Information gathering
b) Cracking passwords
c) Escalating privileges
d) Covering tracks
Ans. b
89. Phishing is a form of _______.
a) Spamming
b) Identify Theft
c) Impersonation
d) Scanning
Ans. c
90. Why would HTTP Tunneling be used?
a) To identify proxy servers b) Web activity is not scanned
c) To bypass a firewall d) HTTP is a easy protocol to work with
Ans. c

91. Keyloggers are a form of _______.
a) Spyware
b) Shoulder surfing
c) Trojan
d) Social engineering
Ans. a
92. What are hybrid attacks?
a) An attempt to crack passwords using words that can be found in dictionary.
b) An attempt to crack passwords by replacing characters of dictionary word with numbers and
symbols.
c) An attempt to crack passwords using a combination of characters, numbers, and symbols.
d) An attempt to crack passwords by replacing characters with numbers and symbols.
Ans. b
93. What is the best statement for taking advantage of a weakness in the security of an IT
system?
a) Threat
b) Attack
c) Exploit
d) Vulnerability
Ans. c
94. Having individuals provide personal information to obtain a free offer provided through the
internet is considered what type of social engineering?
a) Web-based
b) Human-based
c) User-based
d) Computer-based
Ans. d
95. _____framework made cracking of vulnerabilities easy like point and click.
a) .Net
b) Metasploit
c) Zeus
d) Ettercap
Ans. b
96. _____ is a popular tool used for discovering networks as well as in security auditing.
a) Ettercap b) Metasploit c) Nmap d) Burp Suit
Ans. c
97. Which of the below mentioned tool is used for Wi-Fi hacking?
a) Wireshark b) Nessus c) Aircrack-ng d) Snort
Ans. c
98. Aircrac-ngis used for ______
a) Firewall bypassing
b) Wi-Fi attacks
c) Packet filtering
d) System password cracking
Ans. b

99. ______ is a web application assessment security tool.
a) LC4
b) Weblnspect
c) Ettercap
d) QualysGuard
Ans. b
100. _____ is a password recovery and auditing tool.
a) LC3
b) LC4
c) Network Stumbler
d) Maltego
Ans. b
101. All of the following are example of real security and privacy threats except:
a) Hackers
b) Virus
c) Spam
d) Worm
Ans. c
102. Viruses are _______.
a) Man made
b) Naturally occur
c) Machine made
d) All of the above
Ans. a
103. Firewall is a type of ______.
a) Virus
b) Security Threat
c) Worm
d) None of the above
Ans. d
104. Unsolicited commercial email is known as _____.
a) Spam
b) Malware
c) Virus
d) Spyware
Ans. a
105. Which of the following is not an external threat to a compute or a computer network.
a) Ignorance
b) Trojan horses
c) Adware
d) Crackers
Ans. a
106. When a person is harassed repeatedly by being followed, called or be written to he/ she is
target of
a) Bullying b) Stalking c) Identity theft d) Phishing
Ans. B

107. Which of the following is a class of compute threat
a) Phishing
b) Soliciting
c) DoS attacks
d) Stalking
Ans. c
108. A license allow a user to use copyrighted material.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a
109. It allow a visited website to store its own information about a user on the user’s computer.
a) Spam
b) Cookies
c) Malware
d) Adware
Ans. b
110. It is stealing ideas or creations of others.
a) Plagiarism
b) Intellectual Property Rights
c) Piracy
d) All of the above
Ans. d
111. Hacking a computer is always illegal and punishable by law.
a) True
b) False
Ans. a
112. Exploring appropriate and ethical behaviours related to online environments and digital
media.
a) Cyber ethics
b) Cyber security
c) Cyber safety
d) Cyber law
Ans. a
113. Which of the following is a digital certificate standard?
a) X.508
b) X.509
c) D.509
d) None of the Above
Ans. b
114. Which of the following technique is used to verify the integrity of the message?
a) Message digest
b) Digital signature
c) Decryption algorithm
d) Protocol
Ans. a

115. Which of the following principle is violated if computer system is not accessible?
a) Confidentiality
b) Availability
c) Access Control
d) Authentication
Ans. b
116. The certificate Authority signs the digital certificate with
a) User’s public key
b) User’s Private key
c) It’s own public key
d) It’s own private key
Ans. d
117. Unauthorized access is a network ____ issue.
a) Performance
b) Reliability
c) Security
d) none of the above
Ans. c
118. A virus is a network_____ issue.
a) Performance
b) Reliability
c) Security
Ans. c
119. Encryption techniques improve a network’s ______
a) Performance
b) Reliability
c) Security
d) Longevity
Ans. c
120. A _____ is illicitly introduced code that damages a network device.
a) Protocol
b) Virus
c) Catastrophe
d) Medium
Ans. b
121. Unauthorized access and viruses are issues dealing with network______
a) Performance b) Reliability
c) Security d) none of the above
Ans. c
122. Which of the following are network reliability issues?
a) frequency of failure
b) recovery time after a failure
c) catastrophe
d) all of the above
Ans. D

123. When a hacker penetrates a network, this is a network_______ issue
a) Performance
b) Reliability
c) Security
Ans. c
124. A company changes its network configuration so that only one router instead of two can
access the internet. The greatest impact will be on the _____ of the network.
a) a) Performance
b) Reliability
c) Security
Ans. c
125. A company requires its users to change passwords every month. This improves the _____ of
the network.
a) Performance
b) Reliability
c) Security
Ans. c
126. A company requires each employee to power off his computer at the end of the day. This rule
was implanted to make the network _______.
a) Perform better
b) more reliable
c) more secure
d) more error-free
Ans. c
127. For secure EDI (Electronic Data Interchange ) transmission on internet.
a) MIME is used
b) S/MIME is used
c) PGP is used
d) TCP/IP is used
Ans. b
128. A firewall is a
a) Wall build to prevent fires from damaging a corporate intranet
b) security device deployed at the boundary of a company to prevent unauthorized physical
access
c) security device deployed at the boundary of a corporate intranet to protect it from unauthorized
access
d) device to prevent all accesses from the internet to the corporate intranet
Ans. c
129. A firewall may be implemented in
a) routers which connect intranet to internet
b) bridges used in an intranet
c) expensive modern
d) user’s application programs
Ans. A

130. Firewall as part of a router program
a) filters only packets coming from internet
b) filters only packets going to internet
c) filters packets travelling from and to the intranet from the internet
d) ensures rapid traffic of packets for speedy e-Commerce
Ans. c
131. Main function of proxy application gateway firewall is
a) to allow corporate users to use efficiently all internet services
b) to allow intranet users to securely use specified internet services
c) to allow corporate users to use all internet services
d) to prevent corporate users from using internet services
Ans. b
132. Proxy application gateway
(i) acts on behalf of all intranet users wanting to access internet securely
(ii) monitors all accesses to internet and allows access to only specified IP addresses
(iii) disallows use of certain protocols with security problems
(iv) disallow all internet users from accessing intranet
A. i, ii
B. i, ii, iii
C. i, ii, iii, iv
D. ii, iii, iv
Ans. b
133. A hardened firewall host on an intranet
(i) has a proxy application gateway program running on it
(ii) Allow specified internet users to access specified services in the intranet
(iii) Initiates all internet activities requested by client and monitors them
(iv) prevents outsiders from accessing IP addresses within the intranet
A. i, ii
B. i, ii, iii
C. i, ii, iii, iv
D. ii, iii, iv
Ans. c
134. By encryption of a text we mean
A. compressing it
B. expanding it
C. scrambling it to preserve its security
D. hashing it
Ans. c
135. Encryption is required to
(i) protect business information from eavesdropping when it is transmitted on internet
(ii) efficiently use the bandwidth available in PSTN
(iii) to protect information stored in companies’ databases from retrieval
(iv) to preserve secrecy of information stored in databases if an unauthorized person retrieves it
A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. iii and iv
D. i and iv
Ans. D

136. Encryption can be done
a) only on textual data b) only on ASCII coded data
c) on any bit string d) only on mnemonic data
Ans. c
137. By symmetric key encryption we mean
a) one private key is used for both encryption and decryption
b) private and public key used are symmetric
c) only public keys are uses for encryption
d) only symmetric key is used for encryption
Ans. a
138. The Acronym DES stands for
a) Digital Evaluation System b) Digital Encryption Standard
c) Digital Encryption System d) Double Encryption Standard
An. B
139. DES
(i) is a symmetric key encryption method
(ii) guarantees absolute security
(iii) is implemented as hardware VLSI chip
(iv) is a public key encryption method
a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
c) i and iii
d) iii and iv
Ans. c
140. Triple DES
a) is a symmetric key encryption method
b) guarantees excellent security
c) is implementable as a hardware VLSI chip
d) is public key encryption method with three keys.
Ans. b
141. Message can be sent more securely using DES by
a) encryption plain text by a different randomly selected key for each transmission
b) encryption plain text by a different random key for each message transmission and sending the
key to the receiver using a public key system
c) using an algorithm to implemented DES instead of using hardware
d) designing DES with high security and not publicizing algorithm used by it
Ans. b
142. DES and public key algorithm are combined
(i) to speed up encryption message transmission
(ii) to ensure higher security by using different key for each transmission
(iii) as a combination is always better than individual system
(iv) as it is required in e-Commerce
a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
c) iii and iv
d) i and iv
Ans. A

143. A digital signature is
a) a bit string giving identity of a correspondent
b) a unique identification of a sender
c) an authentication of an electronic record by typing it uniquely to a key only a sender knows
d) an encryption signature of a sender
Ans. c
144. A digital signature is required
(i) to tie an electronic message to the sender’s identity
(ii) fornon repudiation of communication by a sender
(iii) to prove that a message was sent by the sender in a court of law
(iv) in all e-mail transactions
a) i and ii
b) i, ii, iii
c) i, ii, iii, iv
d) ii, iii, iv
Ans. b
145. The responsibility of a certification authority for digital signature is to authenticate the
a) hash function used
b) private keys of subscribers
c) public keys of subscribers
d) key used in DES
Ans. c
146. Certification of Digital signature by an independent authority is need because
a) it is safe
b) it gives confidence to a business
c) the authority checks and assures customers that the public key indeed belongs to the business
which claims its ownership
d) private key claimed by a sender may not be actually his
Ans. c
147. The secure Electronic Transaction protocol is used for
a) credit card payment
b) cheque payment
c) electronic cash payment
d) payment of small amounts for internet services
Ans. a
148. In SET protocol a customer encrypts credit card number using
a) his private key
b) bank’s public key
c) bank’s private key
d) merchant’s public key
Ans. b
149. One of the problems with using SET protocol is
a) the merchant’s risk is high as he accepts encrypted credit card
b) the credit card company should check digital signature
c) the bank has to keep a database of the public keys of all customers
d) the bank has to keep a database of digital signature of all customers
Ans. C

150. What happens to your data when it is encrypted?
a) it is transferred to a third party, encoded, then sent back.
b) it is compressed, renamed, and archived.
c) it is sent through a series of supercomputers to be compressed multiple times.
d) it is recorded to retain privacy from third-parties.
Ans. d
151. What is a computer virus?
a) A virus is the same as a cookie in that it is stored on your computer against your permission.
b) A virus is friendly software that is simply mislabeled.
c) malicious software that merely stays dormant or your computer.
d) malicious software that inserts itself into other programs.
Ans. d
152. How to avoid Man-in-the-middle attacks?
a) Accept every SSL certificate, even the broken ones
b) Use connection without SSL
c) Use HTTPS connections and verify the SSL certificate
d) None of the above
Ans. c
153. What happens during the TCP attack, Denial of Service?
a) A virus is sent to disable their dos prompt.
b) Viruses are sent to their ISP to deny them tech support.
c) A worm is loaded onto the victim’s computer to disable their keyboard.
d) information is repeatedly sent to the victim to consume their system resources, causing them to
shut down.
Ans. d
154. What is internet protocol security?
a) Methods to secure internet protocol (IP) communication.
b) Ways to disconnect your router in an emergency
c) Methods to secure to disconnected computer.
d) Methods to secure your documents from physical breaches
Ans. a
155. Which of the following is a valid cyber/internet security requirement?
a) Authentication
b) Integrity
c) Confidentially
d) All of the given option are correct
Ans. d
156. Digital signatures provide which of the following?
a) Authentication b) Non-repudiation
c) Integrity protection d) All of the given option are correct
Ans. d
157. In which of the following protocols does a website (if accessed using the protocol) encrypt the
session with a digital certificate?
a) TCP b) SHTTP
c) HTTPS d) XHTTP
Ans. c

158. Which of the following are possible security threats?
a) illegitimate use
b) Backdoors
c) Masquerading
d) All of the given option are correct
Ans. d
159. Is true that HTTP is an insecure protocol?
a) True
b) False
Ans. a
160. What is another name for an insecure plugin?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Firmware
d) Malware
Ans. d
161. Which of the following refers to programs that surreptitiously monitor activity on a computer
system and report that information to others without the user’s consent?
a) Malware
b) Botnet
c) Trojan horse
d) Spyware
Ans. d
162. What is a computer worm?
a) it is software designed to exploit networks.
b) it is software designed to analyze and search for open ports.
c) it is a software utilized to scan packets on open networks.
d) it is malware designed to infect other computers.
Ans. d
163. Which of the following is a means to access a computer program or entire computer system
bypassing all security mechanisms?
a) Backdoor b) Masquerading
c) Phishing d) Trojan Horse
Ans. a
164. What does cross-site-scripting allow for attackers?
a) Direct introduction of viruses into a victims computer.
b) The introduction of worm viruses into the victims website.
c) A phishing attack that automatically downloads the victims personal information.
d) injection of client-side scripts into web pages.
Ans. d
165. Modern secure password storage should implement:
a) Salted plain-text values of the password.
b) Hashed values of the password
c) Plain-text passwords stored in an encrypted database.
d) Salted and hashed values of the password
Ans. d

166. Which of the following is a general term for malicious software that pretends to be harmless
so that a user willingly allows it to be download onto the computer?
a) Spyware
b) Virus
c) Trojan Horse
d) Botnets
Ans. c
167. Which of the following is the collective name for Trojan horses, spyware, and worms?
a) Spyware
b) Botnets
c) Virus
d) Malware
Ans. d
168. When cookies are used as session identifiers, how are they then used as a potential security
hazard?
a) They emulate user’s by downloading all the victims information onto a virtual machine.
b) User’s cookies are altered to a virus like state.
c) The emulate user’s by stealing their personal identity.
d) Attackers emulate users by stealing their cookies.
Ans. d
169. Which of the following is a valid flaw of SSL 2.0 ?
a) It does not have any protection for the handshake
b) identical cryptographic keys are used for message authentication and encryption
c) it has a weak MAC construction that uses the MD5 hash function with a secret prefix
d) all of the given options are correct
Ans. d
170. Trojan horse programs operate with what intent?
a) To slowly but surely infect and become your operating system until the system crashed.
b) To openly exploit a systems weaknesses until the user discovers it.
c) To masquerade as non-malicious software while exploiting a system’s weaknesses.
d) To do a series of brute force attacks within the system itself and a series of external attacks
from other servers
Ans. c
171. When is encrypted data tha safest?
a) when it is being transferred via USB stick.
b) When it is in transit
c) When it is being written. When it is at rest.
d) when it is being written.
Ans. c
172. Secure cookies have which feature?
a) They are not encrypted, just sent via secure server.
b) They are encrypted.
c) Secure cookies are passed along via encrypted programs.
d) Cookies are always traded between trusted users.
Ans. b

173. Which of the following type of attack can actively modify communications of data?
a) Both Active and Passive attack
b) Neither Active nor Passive attack
c) Active attack
d) Passive attack
Ans. c
174. What is the top method an attacker might infect a target?
a) Social engineering or psychological manipulation.
b) SQL injection.
c) Buffer overflow.
d) Hacking via the internet
Ans. a
175. Secure Socket layer is a predecessor of which cryptographic protocol?
a) IPSec
b) Transport Layer security
c) SSL 3.0
d) HTTPS
Ans. b
176. An SQL injection is often used to attack what?
a) Small scale machines such as diebold ATMs
b) Large scale sequel databases such as those containing credit card information.
c) Servers running SQL databases similar to Hadoop or Hive.
d) Servers built on NoSQL
Ans. b
177. According to OWASP what is the most dangerous web vulnerability?
a) Injections ( SQL, LDAP, etc)
b) Cross-site-scripting (XSS)
c) Security Misconfiguration
d) Sensitive data exposure
Ans. a
178. What is largely considered the most advanced computer virus?
a) Conficker Virus b) Zeus
c) Stuxnet. d) agent.biz
Ans. c
179. Which of the following is a valid authorization key?
a) Public authorization key
b) Public ephemeral key authorization key
c) Asymmetric authorization keys
d) Symmetric authorization keys
Ans. a
180. Which of the following is a valid digital signature key?
a) Public signature authentication key
b) Private signature authentication key
c) Symmetric signature authentication key
d) Private signature key
Ans. D

181. Which of the following is not a valid type of firewall?
a) Application- level gateways
b) Circuit level gateways
c) Proxy server gateway
d) Packet filters
Ans. c
182. What is the less secure AES encryption mode?
a) CFB
b) OCB
c) ECB
d) CBC
Ans. d
183. Which of the following HTTP method is considered insecure?
a) POST
b) DELETE
c) TRACE
d) GET
Ans. c
184. What is the difference between a worm and virus?
a) A worm does not replicate itself like a virus does, but rather moves from computer to computer
b) A virus infects files, while a worm eats them
c) A worm is a virus created for a very specific purpose
d) Unlike a virus, a worm does not need to attach itself to a program to spread.
Ans. d
185. Which of the following enables secure and private data exchange/ transfer on an unsecure
public network?
a) Public key infrastructure
b) Virtual key infrastructure
c) Private key infrastructure
d) All of these
Ans. a
186. Which of the following is a standalone computer program that pretends to be a well-known
program in order to steal confidential data?
a) virus
b) Spyware
c) Fraudtool
d) Malware
Ans. c
187. Which of the following files are mostly infected?
1 .DOT
2 .EXE
3. .COM
4. .TXT
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 3, 4
c) 2, 3 d) 4
Ans. a

188. What is DHA?
a) Directory Harvest Attack
b) DNS Harvest Attack
c) Direct Harvest Attack
d) Dictionary Harvest Attack
Ans. a
189. Which of the following anti-spam measures are taken to reduce spam?
a) Legislative measures
b) Organizational measures
c) Behavioral measures
d) All of these
Ans. d
190. Which of the following are famous worm attacks?
a) MyDoom Worm
b) Bagle Worm
c) Netsky Worm
d) All of the above
Ans. d
191. Which of the following techniques are used by spammers to find valid/existent email
addresses?
a) SMTP spoofing
b) SMTP poisioning
c) DNS poisioning
d) Directory Harvest Attack
Ans. d
192. Which of the following techniques helps in cases of address forgery?
a) SMTP extensions
b) Cryptographic authentication
c) Path authentication
d) Hybrid authentication
Ans. c
193. Which of the following types of virus lives in the boot sector ?
a) Sector virus
b) Parasitic virus
c) Boot sector virus
d) Bootable virus
Ans. c
194. Suppose you got a mail from someone saying that you gave won a Rs. 100000/- and asking
you to give him/her Rs. 5000/- to claim your prize. Under Which category does this type of spam
mail file?
a) Phishing and Fraud
b) Spoofing mails
c) Hoaxes
d) Chain mails
Ans. a

195. What is botnet?
a) A software that runs automatically and authonomously.
b) A software used for antispam
c) A software used to manage MTA
d) A software used to manage MDA
Ans. a
196.What are the measures to be Adobt for Best virus Protection?
a) Use of Antivirus.
b) Use of Firewall
c) Keeping software updated
d) All of these
Ans. d
197. Which of the following are the ways through which virus spreads?
a) Floppy Disk
b) CD
c) Email Attachment
d) All of the above
Ans. d
198. Which of the following are categorized of spam mails?
a) Phishing and Fraud
b) Spoofing mails
c) Hoaxes
d) All of the above
Ans. d
199. Which of the following are preventive antivirus measures?
a) Do not open attachments from suspicious sources.
b) Delete chain and junk mails.
c) Backup your files
d) All of the above
Ans. d
200. Suppose you got a mail from the HDFC bank asking you to give your online bank account
details. Under which of the spam mail categories does this mail?
a) Phishing and fraud b) Chain mails
c) Hoaxes d) Brand spoofing
Ans. a
201. What is Phishing?
a) Fraudulently acquiring sensitive information
b) An encryption technique
c) An anti-spam technique
d) A password building technique
Ans. a
202. Which of the following are direct harms caused by spam?
a) Loss of productivity b) Increased staff costs
c) Increased infrastructure costs d) All of the above
Ans. d

203. Which of the following are Email Security Protocols?
a) S/MIME
b) PEM
c) STE
d) PME
Ans. a
204. Which of the following measures should be taken to tackle spam mails?
a) Blocking and accepting on the basis of MTA IP address
b) Limiting the number of outgoing e-mails per account
c) Authentication mechanisms
d) All of the above
Ans. d
205. Which of the following are different categories of viruses?
a) Parasitic
b) Bootstrap sector
c) Companion
d) All of the above
Ans. d
206. What is the function of the Reverse DNS look up Technique in identifying spam mails?
a) To check the sender’s email server attempting for spoofing
b) To check the receiver’s email server attempting for spoofing
c) To check the DNS server validity
d) None of these
Ans. c
207. Which of the following are threats to Email Security?
a) Viruses
b) Trojans
c) Spams
d) All of the above
Ans. d
208. Which of the following are the disadvantages of verification?
a) More complication?
b) Increased internet traffic
c) Problems in sending valid bulk mails
d) All of the above
Ans. d
209. How many antivirus programs should be installed on a single system?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Ans. a
210. Which of the following are indirect harms caused by spam?
a) Malicious payload
b) Fraud
c) Loss of reputation
d) All of the above
Ans. c

211. Which of the following are the benefits reaped from spam by those associated with antispam
measures?
a) Antispam software sales
b) Antivirus software sales
c) Bandwidth sales
d) All of these
Ans. b
212. What does “RBL” stands for in Email Security?
a) Realtime Blacking list
b) Realtime Blocking list
c) RealtimeBlockhole list
d) RealtimeBlackhole list
Ans. c
213. Which of the following are different types of spam filtering methods?
a) Blacklisting
b) Rule based filtering
c) Signature based filtering
d) All of these
Ans. d
214. Which of the following is used in a Directory Harvest Attack?
a) Worms
b) Brute Force
c) Trojans
d) Viruses
Ans. b
215. Which of the following is used to entangle spammers?
a) MDA
b) Spam mails
c) Trojans
d) Honey pots
Ans. d
216. Which of the following techniques are used to identify spam mails?
a) Blacklist/ Whitelists
b) Integrity Check
c) Heuristics
d) All of these
Ans. d
217. Which of the following actions can be taken while filtering POP3 spam traffic?
a) Delete the spam mail
b) Redirect it to the spam mail box
c) Return it to the sender
d) Tag the spam mail
Ans. b
218. Which of the following is used to control zombies?
a) Viruses b) Worms c) Trojan horses d) Spam mails
Ans. C

219. Which of the following are malicious code attacks?
a) Brute force
b) Trojan horses
c) Viruses
d) Malware
Ans. d
220. Which of the following spam filtering techniques has the highest potential for generating false
positives?
a) Community Filtering
b) Bayesian Filtering
c) Challenge-Response Filtering
d) Keyword Filtering
Ans. d
221. Why shouldn’t a user click unsubscribe links from spam messages?
a) clicking the link will prevent
b) unsubscribing makes finding the sender difficult
c) the click may validate the email address
d) None of these
Ans. c
222. What is an example of a phishing scam?
a) An application that looks useful, but actually contains spyware to slow down your comuter
b) An email that appears to be legitimate, but is really being used to obtain personal or important
information
c) Hacking into a computer and leaving false trails on who did it
d) Installing a virus and then asking you to pay to remove it
Ans. b
223. Malware is short for
a) Malicious Software
b) Malicious System
c) Maliant Software
d) Maliant Systems
Ans. a
224. What is a good method for a website owner to confirm a user is not using an account for a
spamming purpose?
a) Users must associate a phone to their account and confirm a number sent to them via text
b) Requiring users provide valid personal information during sign up
c) Users that register must click on a confirmation link to the email they specify in their profile
d) All of these
Ans. d
225. A virus is a program that attached itself to (or replace the content of) which of the following
file types?
a) Text files
b) Executables
c) Header files
d) Source files
Ans. b

226. In order for antivirus programs to be most effective, it is necessary to keep which of the
following up to date?
a) Web browsers
b) File hashes
c) Antivirus encryption keys
d) Virus definition files
Ans. d
227. Which of the following is not a well known anti-virus program?
a) AVAST
b) SMAG
c) AVG
d) McAFee
Ans. b
228. What is a captha?
a) A spam email that attempts to “capture” information to cause damage; the second phase is
often referred to as the “gotcha” phase.
b) An SPAM email written in all caps
c) it is a tool websites often use to prevent automated spammer bots from posting or registering on
a website by forcing the user to do a task, often entering in letters or numbers based on a picture
or audio, which verifies that they are human.
d) A group of characters hidden in an email that often includes code used in malware
Ans. c
229. What are types of malware?
a) Viruses
b) Spyware
c) Worms
d) All of these
Ans. d
230. What could be a good indicator of a spam email?
a) Something that sounds too good to be true
b) An email that contain plenty of grammar mistakes
c) An email sent to a bunch of random people
d) All of these
Ans. d
231. In order to infect a system, clicking an email attachment must cause which of the following
conditions to occur?
a) The attachment is saved to the disk
b) the attachment is decompressed
c) the attachment opens in a preview editor
d) the attachment executes
Ans. d
232. If you cannot delete malware infected file, what is good method to try first?
a) Reformat then attempt to delete the file
b) Run windows Repair
c) Run windows Restore
d) Boot in Windows safe mode and attempt to delete the file
Ans. D

233. Which of these is an example of a possible victim in a phishing attack?
a) The website that was hacked
b) The person who had their identity stolen
c) The bank of the victim
d) All of these
Ans. d
234. Automated spamming tools subscribe to mail lists in order to complete which of the following
tasks?
a) collect email addresses
b) deny services to mail list recipients
c) introduce security holes into the list
d) none of these
Ans. a
235. Which of these techniques would be effective in helping to prevent phishing attacks by
scammers?
a) Use IFRAM’s
b) Allow XSS
c) Scan for and fix XSS issues
d) Use pop-ups
Ans. c
236. A client asks you to fix his computer because it has ransomware on it. He says he sees a
message as soon as he loads windows, and cannot do anything else. What is the best way to fix
this computer without losing any of his data?
a) Reinstall windows
b) Reformat the computer
c) Boot from a USB drive and run a program to remove the malware
d) Use windows restore
Ans. c
237. What is a botnet?
a) Software that automates networks
b) A program that sends emails repeatedly infecting other computers who open it
c) A collection of malware stored in a network
d) A collection of computers working together to perform a single task. These computers are often
penetrated by software containing malware.
Ans. d
238. What is rogue security software?
a) Security software that has been compromised to not pick up certain threats
b) Security software that is no longer being used for the purpose that was intended due to an
exploit or hacker.
c) A fraudulent security program that appears to be helpful, but is actually not. It may deceive or
mislead users into paying money to remove fake viruses or introduce malware after it is installed
d) Security software that considers data files or programs as viruses, when they are not.
Ans. c

239. What is an example of a “419” Scam
a) someone who uses social engineering to gain access to your computer or personal information
b) Someone who sends you an email in hopes you open an attachmet which contains a virus
c) When you download a program that appears harmless, but it actually installs spyware on your
computer
d) A con in which someone asks you for assistance in retrieving a vast sum of money. Often it
involves you helping him or her pay off certain fees and in return they promise to share the money
with you
Ans. d
240. What is a backdoor?
a) A vulnerability in software that allows someone to bypass the normal authentication process
b) It is a known bug or exploit hackers use to cause software to behave in a way that was not
intended by the manufacturer
c) it is where viruses store their source code and begin to replicate
d) it is a way for spyware to leave a system without any trace of it being there.
Ans. a
241. Virus infection via email attachment can be minimized using which of the following?
a) Opening attachment from external hard drives
b) Copying attachments to special directories before opening them
c) Right clicking attachments
d) Deleting mail containing attachments from unknown senders
Ans. d
242. In order to help prevent spam, a tarpit performs which of the following functions?
a) traps suspected spam messages
b) routes suspected spam to special enclaves in the system
c) acts as a desirable mail server in order to lure spammers
d) delivers suspected spam messages more slowly
Ans. d
243. What is ransomeware?
a) A nickname for types of spyware that require a password on boot
b) software that steals files from your computer and is used by blackmailers
c) A software that hijacks your computer and asks you to pay in order for it to be removed
d) Viruses that infect files and won’t let you open them unless you know a certain pass code
Ans. c
244. When a spammer forges the sender’s address and enters and invalid receiver, which of the
following settings will cause the receiving mail server to create backscatter?
a) Reject messages
b) Drop messages
c) Bounce messages
d) none of these
Ans. c
245. In order to help prevent spam, a honeypot performs which of the following functions?
a) acts as a desirable mail server in order to lure spammers
b) delivers suspects spam messages more slowly
c) traps suspected spam messages
d) routes suspected spam to special enclaves in the system
Ans. A

246. What is an example of a captcha?
a) An interactive program which have instructions that read: “Move the triangle into the circle”
b) 1 + 1 = ?
c) What are the characters in this picture?
d) All of these
Ans. d
247. You have been told by several of your friends you have recently sent SPAM emails to them,
what could be the cause of this and what should you do?
a) A spammer may have infiltrated your email provider’s host and compromised your account. You
should notify your email provider.
b) A spammer or bot may have gained access to your email account and sent out SPAM to all of
your contacts. You should change your password immediately.
c) A spammer has gained access to your email. Unfortunately, the only thing you can do to
prevent further SPAM is to close your account and create a new email address.
d) A spammer is spoofing your email address. You should tell your friends to block the email
address.
Ans. b
248. Which is not an example of an anti-spyware tool?
a) Ad-Aware
b) Windows Defender
c) Spybot
d) kazaa
Ans. d
249. Which of the following spam filtering issues stops valid messages from being delivered?
a) false positives
b) false negatives
Ans. a
250. Which of the following techniques requires posting an email address where only spammers
would find it ?
a) Tarpits
b) Spam Traps
c) Blacklists
d) None of these
Ans. b
251. Antivirus programs hash files on a computer in order to detect which of the following
activities?
a) File size changes
b) File permission changes
c) File content changes
d) All of these
Ans. c
252. Performing outbound spam filtering does which of the following for an organization?
a) helps prevent whitelisting
b) helps prevent blacklisting
c) helps prevent spam trapping
d) all of these
Ans. B

253. What is a Cryptolocker?
a) A module of the windows Bitlocker encryption system
b) A type of encrypted Linux file system
c) A type of ransomware which encrypts user files and demands payment for the decrypted key.
d) A malware class which is known for encrypting itself to avoid detection.
Ans. c
254. Which of the following tools would NOT be useful in figuring out what spyware or viruses
could be installed on a client’s computer?
a) WireShark
b) Malware Bytes
c) Highjack This
d) HitmanPro
Ans. a
255. How can delivering mail as text instead of html help prevent spam?
a) text mail prevents web bugs from altering spammers that the message was opened
b) mail servers won’t accept html messages if they are in text mode
c) text is easier to analyze for spammer information
d) All of these
Ans. a
256. What is email spoofing?
a) Copying or forwarding emails and then editing theirTo and Form to make it appear that the
email was originally sent to or from someone else
b) When someone forges or makes it appear that a email being sent is from a particular sender
when it really is being sent by someone else
c) When someone sends an email that appears to look like a legitimate, but it is actually not and is
being used to obtain personal or important information.
d) Sending an email through multiple accounts in order to make it difficult to trace back the
original email’s sender address or origin
Ans. b
257. Which of the following reduces spam by rejecting mail from a specific IP addresses?
a) URL Blacklisting
b) DNS Blacklisting
c) IMAP Blacklisting
d) POP3 Blacklisting
Ans. b
258. Antivirus signatures are constructed using which of the following?
a) Encryption Algorithms
b) Random Number Generators
c) Hashes
d) Cyclic Redundancy Checks
Ans. c
259. How can you help stop spam?
a) Block certain email addresses known for sending spam
b) Setup email filters based on keywords known to be in spam
c) Unsubscribe from listservs
d) All of these
Ans. D

260. Which of the following characteristics classify a mail message as spam?
a) it is solicited and indiscriminately addressed
b) it is unsolicited and indiscriminately addressed
c) it is solicited and contains advertising
d) it is unsolicited and contains advertising
Ans. b
261. Which of the following is true of macro viruses?
a) They depend on the operating system to propagate
b) They are larger than traditional viruses
c) They depend on applications to propagate
d) They are written in low-level language to avoid detection
Ans. c
262. Which of the following can prevent virus infections?
a) implementing a firewall
b) implementing an intrusion detection system
c) Patching programs and the operating system
d) All of these
Ans. c
263. In a compromised system, which of the following provides the safest way to analyze it?
a) Live CD/DVD
b) Resident Antivirus Program
c) Live USB
d) All of these
Ans. a
264. Is commercial SPAM legal in the United States?
a) Yes because it is protected under the first amendment
b) Yes, but only if it is an advertisement
c) Yes, but only if it follows the standards listed in the CAN-SPAM Act of 2003
d) No
Ans. c
265. Which of the following differentiates a virus from a worm?
a) a worm requires user interaction to infect a machine
b) a worm can infect multiple machines
c) a virus requires user interaction to infect a machine
d) a virus can only infect a single machine
Ans. a
266. Which of the following spam filtering techniques statistically analyzes mail?
a) keyword filtering
b) challenge-Response Filtering
c) Community Filtering
d) Bayesian Filtering
Ans. d
267. Firewalls help to prevent which of the following malware from propagating?
a) Encrypted viruses b) Worms
c) Polymorphic viruses d) Trojan viruses
Ans. b

268. On a wordpress site, which is the default service/tool to prevent spammers from posting
comments?
a) Website Inspector
b) Akismet
c) MailWasher Pro
d) SpamAssassin
Ans. b
269. What is a computer virus?
a) Software that steals files from your computer and is used by blackmailers
b) Spyware that slows down a computer by sending statistics to an unknown source
c) A type of malware that replicates itself and spreads to other files and/ or computers.
d) A software that hijacks your computer and asks you to pay in order for it to be removed
Ans. c
270. Which of the following is valid difference between a virus and a spyware?
a) Spyware damages data and also steals sensitive private information
b) Virus damaged data, spyware steals sensitive private information
c) Spyware damages data, virus steals sensitive private information
d) Virus damages data and also steals sensitive private information
Ans. b
271. What is called the protection of information and data from unauthorized Access?
A Physical security
B Link security
C Risk management
D Information security
Ans. d
272. Which of the following shows need for cyber security?
a) Protection from hackers
b) Internet scams
c) Viruses
d) All of the above
Ans. d
273. The first computer virus is_____
a) Creeper
b) Rat virus
c) Worm
d) Blaster
Ans. a
274. Trojan horses are very similar to virus in the programs that replicate copies of themselves
a) True b) False
Ans. b
275. Maintaining computers free from cyber attack is called ______ .
(a) cyber attack
(b) risk management
(c) online fraud
(d) phishing
Ans. b

1. When the Indian parliament passed the IT Act?
A) 1990 B) 1992 C) 2000 D) 2005
2. What is called protecting data from online attacks, deletions, malwares?
A) Physical security B) Cyber security
C) Cyber attack D) Virus
3. What is called the unauthorized control/acess over the computer system and destroys the
data?
A) Defamation B) Carding
C) Hacking D) Cyber - stalking
4. Cyber security is also called as _______ security?
a) Criminal b) Information Technology
c) National d) International
5. Which of the following is an anti-virus program?
a) Nortron b) K7 c) Quick heal d) All of these
6. ______ monitors user activity on internet and transmit that information in the background to
someone else.
a) Malware b) Spyware c) Adware d) None of these
7. It is a program or hardware device that filters the information coming through an internet
connection to a network or computer system.
a) Anti virus b) Cookies c) Firewall d) Cyber Safety
8. Passwords are used to improve the _______ of a network.
a) Performance b) Reliability c) Security d) Longevity
9. Where might a spammer get your personal information from?
a) Facebook b) MySpace c) Linkedin d) All of these
10. A virus can spread to another computer by
a) Sharing an infected file with another computer
b) Through touch
c) Pinging other computers from the infected computer
d) Being on the same network as the computer
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