ISTQB Technical Test Analyst Answers to Sample Question Paper

Technical Test Analyst, Advanced Level
Exam ID: A
Sample Exam – Answers
International
Software Testing
Qualifications Board
Sample Exam:
Answers
ISTQB®
Technical Test Analyst Syllabus
Advanced Level
Exam ID: A
Version 2019 1.0
International Software Testing Qualifications Board
Copyright Notice
This document may be copied in its entirety, or extracts made, if the source is acknowledged.

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Version 2019 V1.0 Page 2 of 27 December 19, 2019
© International Software Testing Qualifications Board
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Copyright © 2019 International Software Testing Qualifications Board (hereinafter called ISTQB®). All
rights reserved.
The authors transfer the copyright to the International Software Testing Qualifications Board (hereinafter
called ISTQB®). The authors (as current copyright holders) and ISTQB® (as the future copyright holder)
have agreed to the following condition of use:
Any ISTQB® Member Board may translate this document.
Exam Working Group 2019
Document Responsibility
The ISTQB® Examination Working Group is responsible for this document.
Acknowledgements
This document was produced by a core team from the International Software Testing
Qualifications Board Examination Working Group:
Minna Aalto Debra Friedenberg Ingvar Nordström
Rex Black Brian Hambling Stuart Reid
Jean-Baptiste Crouigneau Inga Hansen Marco Sogliani
Mette Bruhn-Pedersen Kari Kakkonen Mario Winter
and the Advanced Level Working Group:
Graham Bath Judy McKay Mike Smith
The core team thanks the Examination Working Group review team, the Syllabus Working
Group and the National Boards of the following review participants for their suggestions and
input:
Laura Albert Dietrich Leimsner Lucjan Stapp
Markus Beck Rik Marselis Benjamin Timmermans
Jean-Baptiste Crouigneau Blair Mo Jan Versmissen
Wim Decoutere Gary Mogyorodi Robert Werkhoven
Ágota Horváth Michael Stahl Paul Weymouth

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Revision History
Version Date Remarks
2.0 October 5th , 2019 EWG - Complete Exam Set document.
V2019 1.0 December, 2019 Revisions made by AELWG to enable launch
Added appendix to include LOs not covered in the sample
exam.

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Table of Contents
Legal.........................................................................................................................................................2
Document Responsibility ..........................................................................................................................2
Acknowledgements..................................................................................................................................2
Revision History .......................................................................................................................................3
Introduction...............................................................................................................................................6
Answer Key ..............................................................................................................................................7
Answer 1...............................................................................................................................................8
Answer 2...............................................................................................................................................8
Answer 3...............................................................................................................................................8
Answer 4...............................................................................................................................................9
Answer 5...............................................................................................................................................9
Answer 6...............................................................................................................................................9
Answer 7...............................................................................................................................................9
Answer 8.............................................................................................................................................10
Answer 9.............................................................................................................................................10
Answer 10...........................................................................................................................................11
Answer 11...........................................................................................................................................11
Answer 12...........................................................................................................................................11
Answer 13...........................................................................................................................................12
Answer 14...........................................................................................................................................12
Answer 15...........................................................................................................................................13
Answer 16...........................................................................................................................................13
Answer 17...........................................................................................................................................14
Answer 18...........................................................................................................................................14
Answer 19...........................................................................................................................................15
Answer 20...........................................................................................................................................15
Answer 21...........................................................................................................................................15
Answer 22...........................................................................................................................................16
Answer 23...........................................................................................................................................16
Answer 24...........................................................................................................................................16
Answer 25...........................................................................................................................................17
Answer 26...........................................................................................................................................18
Answer 27...........................................................................................................................................18
Answer 28...........................................................................................................................................18
Answer 29...........................................................................................................................................19
Answer 30...........................................................................................................................................19
Answer 31...........................................................................................................................................19
Answer 32...........................................................................................................................................20
Answer 33...........................................................................................................................................20
Answer 34...........................................................................................................................................20
Answer 35...........................................................................................................................................21
Answer 36...........................................................................................................................................21
Answer 37...........................................................................................................................................21
Answer 38...........................................................................................................................................21
Answer 39...........................................................................................................................................22
Answer 40...........................................................................................................................................22
Answer 41...........................................................................................................................................22
Answer 42...........................................................................................................................................23
Answer 43...........................................................................................................................................23
Answer 44...........................................................................................................................................24
Answer 45...........................................................................................................................................24
Answers to Alternative Questions ..........................................................................................................26
Alternative Question 26 ......................................................................................................................26

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Alternative Question 29/30 .................................................................................................................27

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Introduction
The sample exam answers and associated justifications in this document have been created by a team of
subject matter experts of Exam Working Group with the aim of assisting ISTQB® Member Boards and
Exam Boards in their question writing activities.
The questions and their associated answers cannot be used as-is in any official examination, but they
should serve as guidance for question writers. Given the wide variety of formats and subjects, they should
offer many ideas for the individual Member Boards on how to create appropriate answer sets for their
examinations. Please refer to the separate sample questions document for the questions that correspond
to the answers.
The answers are organized in the following way:
• Question number
• Correct answer
• Justification / Rationale
• Learning Objective number
• K-level
• Number of points
An answer key is provided to give an overview of all the above information with the exception of the
justification / rationale.

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer Key
Question Number Correct Answer LO K-Level Points Question Number Correct Answer LO K-Level Points
1 a,b TTA-1.2.1 K2 1 24 c TTA-4.2.4 K3 2
2 d TTA-1.2.2 K2 1 25 b TTA-4.2.4 K3 2
3 a TTA-2.2.1 K3 2 26 b,e TTA-4.3.1 K2 1
4 c TTA-2.3.1 K3 2 27 a TTA-4.4.1 K2 1
5 c TTA-2.4.1 K3 2 28 a,d TTA-4.5.1 K2 1
6 a TTA-2.5.1 K3 2 29 d TTA-4.6.1 K2 1
7 b TTA-2.6.1 K3 2 30 b TTA-4.7.1 K2 1
8 a, c TTA-2.7.1 K2 1 31 c TTA-5.1.1 K2 1
9 d TTA-2.8.1 K4 3 32 c TTA-5.2.1 K4 3
10 c TTA-2.8.1 K4 3 33 a TTA-5.2.1 K4 3
11 b TTA-3.2.1 K3 2 34 c TTA-5.2.2 K4 3
12 d TTA-3.2.1 K3 2 35 b TTA-5.2.2 K4 3
13 a TTA-3.2.2 K2 1 36 b, e TTA-6.1.1 K2 1
14 c TTA-3.2.3 K3 2 37 a TTA-6.1.2 K2 1
15 b,d TTA-3.2.3 K3 2 38 d TTA-6.1.3 K2 1
16 b TTA-3.2.4 K2 1 39 c, d TTA-6.1.4 K3 2
17 c TTA-3.3.1 K3 2 40 c TTA-6.2.1 K2 1
18 c TTA-4.2.1 K4 3 41 b TTA-6.2.2 K2 1
19 a,d TTA-4.2.1 K4 3 42 d, e TTA-6.2.3 K2 1
20 a TTA-4.2.2 K3 2 43 a TTA-6.2.4 K2 1
21 b TTA-4.2.2 K3 2 44 a TTA-6.2.5 K2 1
22 c TTA-4.2.3 K2 1 45 d TTA-6.2.6 K2 1
23 a TTA-4.2.3 K2 1

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Question Correct
Answer
Explanation / Rationale Learning
Objective
(LO)
K-level Number
of
Points
Answer 1 a, b a) Correct: see syllabus section 1.2.
b) Correct: see syllabus section 1.2.
c) Incorrect: accuracy of the computations is a concern for
the TA, not the TTA.
d) Incorrect: budgetary issues should be handled by the TM,
not the TTA.
e) Incorrect: high change rates in business use cases affect
the functionality testing.
TTA-1.2.1 K2 1
Answer 2 d a) Incorrect: the TA would be expected to work with this
group of people.
b) Incorrect: the TA would be expected to work with this
group of people.
c) Incorrect: the TA would be expected to work with this
group of people.
d) Correct: per the syllabus. The TTA is expected to work
with the technical people on the project, including
developers.
TTA-1.2.2 K2 1
Answer 3 a a) Correct. The three test cases are defined by the following
inputs:
• Sufficient water, milk, low fat, sugar
• Sufficient water, milk, not low fat, sugar or not
sugar
• Insufficient water
b) Incorrect
c) Incorrect
d) Incorrect
TTA-2.2.1 K3 2

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer 4 c a) Incorrect
b) Incorrect
c) Correct: the following conditions ensure that all decision
outcomes are tested: 1) A, B 2) A, not B 3) not A,
C 4) not A, not C.
d) Incorrect
TTA-2.3.1 K3 2
Answer 5 c a) Incorrect: covers the outcomes but not the atomic
conditions that affect the decision outcome.
b) Incorrect: does not sufficiently cover the atomic conditions
affecting the decision outcome.
c) Correct: this answer provides the following:
(T or F) + T
(T or F) + F
(F or T) + T
(F or F) + T
This tests all values for the atomic conditions as well as
all outcomes with the minimum number of tests.
d) Incorrect: does not sufficiently cover the atomic conditions
affecting the decision outcome.
TTA-2.4.1 K3 2
Answer 6 a a) Correct: multiple condition testing requires testing the
entire truth table (all combinations of true and false
possible). This requires all conditions provided above to
be tested.
b) Incorrect
c) Incorrect
d) Incorrect
TTA-2.5.1 K3 2
Answer 7 b a) Incorrect: 3 and 5 results in the same path.
b) Correct: path coverage requires that the statement
evaluates to true and to false. 2 will give you False and 3
will give you True.
c) Incorrect: 1 and 3 results in the same path.
d) Incorrect: only tests the TRUE, not the FALSE
TTA-2.6.1 K3 2

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer 8 a, c a) Correct: this is listed under types of defects found in the
syllabus section 2.7.
b) Incorrect: this is targeted by maintainability testing.
c) Correct: this is listed under types of defects found in the
syllabus section 2.7.
d) Incorrect: this is not listed in the targeted types of defects
in the syllabus section 2.7.
e) Incorrect: this is not listed in the targeted types of defects
in the syllabus section 2.7.
TTA-2.7.1 K2 1
Answer 9 d a) Incorrect: this is the same as simple MC/DC as decision
coverage is subsumed by MC/DC.
b) Incorrect: this is the same as decision coverage as
statement coverage is subsumed by decision coverage.
Decision coverage, however, provides a lower level of
rigor than MC/DC or multiple condition coverage.
c) Incorrect: MC/DC is required for the highest-level
criticality software, but this scenario requires this level of
testing to exceed this, so this is not a correct option.
d) Correct: MC/DC is required for the highest-level criticality
software, which this presumably is since several thousand
spectators could be killed/injured. Multiple condition
coverage provides a higher level of coverage than MC/DC
and as this ‘exceeds’ that provided by MC/DC this is the
correct option given the scenario.
TTA-2.8.1 K4 3

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
10
c a) Incorrect: this is the same as simple MC/DC as decision
coverage is subsumed by MC/DC. See answer d below.
b) Correct: Statement coverage with decision coverage is
appropriate for the sequential actions and simple error
handling routines.
c) Incorrect: MC/DC is for the highest-level criticality
software. The user stories are business critical but only
have sequential code and the simple error handling
routines do not have the level of complexity to justify
MC/DC coverage.
d) Incorrect: MC coverage is not appropriate where simple
error handling routines are to be tested.
TTA-2.8.1 K4 3
Answer
11
b a) Incorrect
b) Correct: the decision at line 10 will always be true as var1
will always be 5 at line 10, thus line 13 is unreachable.
The loop at line 5 can only be left if var2 is 10 or more,
but each time through the loop var2 is reset at line 7 back
to 4 and only incremented by 1 in the loop at line 15, so it
only ever reaches 5.
c) Incorrect
d) Incorrect
TTA-3.2.1 K3 2
Answer
12
d a) Incorrect
b) Incorrect
c) Incorrect
d) Correct: Cyclomatic complexity refers to the number of
independent paths through a program. In the Easy
program there are three independent paths.
Path 1: (easy = false)
Path 2: (easy = true, var1 = 5)
Path 3: (easy = true, var1 not = 5)
TTA-3.2.1 K3 2

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
13
a a) Correct:
Anomalies:
total: used at line 6 before it is defined.
commission_lo: defined at line 12 & no subsequent use
b) Incorrect
c) Incorrect
d) Incorrect
TTA-3.2.2 K2 1
Answer
14
c a) Incorrect
b) Incorrect
c) Correct:
CC of 10 or over suggests this is worth addressing.
CH of Low suggests this is worth addressing.
CP of High suggests this is worth addressing.
CO of l0% or less suggests this is worth addressing.
RE of 9 or more suggests this is worth addressing.
d) Incorrect
TTA-3.2.3 K3 2

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
15
b, d a) Incorrect: The code is clearly structured with control
elements (e.g. loop, if-then-else). Static analysis is
unlikely to identify any improvements to the control
structure.
b) Correct: Variable naming used in the program does not
clearly indicate what the variable represents. Static
analysis can apply naming convention rules which would
identify these maintenance issues in the program and
recommend that the variables be given names that are
readable and conform to any applicable naming rules.
c) Incorrect: There are no global variables defined and no
other programs called. Coupling is not an improvement
area.
d) Correct: Static analysis identifies code which has a low
amount of commenting compared to executable code.
Since the program has no comments at all, this would be
highlighted as an area for improving code maintainability.
e) Incorrect: Static analysis can apply indentation rules but
in the case of the TRICKY program there is adequate
indentation.
TTA-3.2.3 K3 2
Answer
16
b a) Incorrect: this is a use of call graphs, but is used for unit
testing, not integration testing per the syllabus.
b) Correct: see syllabus section 3.2.4
c) Incorrect: determining conditional and unconditional calls
can be used for integration but using them for
performance analysis has nothing to do with integration.
d) Incorrect: call graphs don’t detect memory leaks or
possible areas for memory leaks.
TTA-3.2.4 K2 1

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
17
c a) Incorrect: dynamic analysis is not typically used for
measuring response times (it requires instrumentation
and so makes response time measurement impractical),
but instead provides lower level performance metrics -
these can be used for performance tuning.
b) Incorrect: call graphs are generated by static analysis.
c) Correct: dynamic analysis can identify memory access
violations caused by a wild pointer and these could be
causing the ‘occasional’ crashes.
d) Incorrect: the scenario tells us that automated garbage
collection was used, so it is unlikely programmers will
need to release memory. May also be since memory
leaks usually cause performance degradation and
ultimately out-of-resource errors from the OS side.
TTA-3.3.1 K3 2
Answer
18
c a) Incorrect: while subsequent releases of this system may
be tested with real customer data, this is a new system
and existing customer data is not available.
b) Incorrect: there’s no indication this is a distributed system.
c) Correct: the bank is likely required by regulation to
encrypt the customer financial data, which has testing
implications.
d) Incorrect: it’s not clear whether this system will be used
in-house (thus a production environment might be
available) or sold to customers (thus production
environments would likely not be available).
TTA-4.2.1 K4 3

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
19
a, d a) Correct: The requirements stated by the customer for
performance efficiency are vague and must be made more
precise before the specialist tools team can implement the
tests.
b) Incorrect: A specialist tools team can be assumed to have
issues of tool acquisition and training under control.
c) Incorrect: A fully representative test environment has been
made available.
d) Correct: If components are distributed across different sites
and organizations, the effort required to plan and co-
ordinate the system integration tests may be significant
and must be addressed in the test planning.
e) Incorrect: Data security considerations are not mentioned
in the scenario.
TTA-4.2.1 K4 3
Answer
20
a a) Correct: fault-tolerance testing is part of reliability.
b) Incorrect: we are not worried about response time,
throughput, or resource utilization here.
c) Incorrect: this risk does not relate to usability.
d) Incorrect: a change of the type of network is not in
question here.
TTA-4.2.2 K3 2
Answer
21
b a) Incorrect: Adaptability testing checks whether a given
application can function correctly in all intended target
environments.
b) Correct: Replaceability testing focuses on the ability of
software components (such as databases) to be
exchanged for others.
c) Incorrect: Capacity testing relates to a performance
efficiency characteristic.
d) Incorrect: Co-existence testing considers the degree to
which a test item can function satisfactorily alongside other
independent products in a shared environment.
TTA-4.2.2 K3 2

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
22
c a) Incorrect (is true): see syllabus section 4.5.4
b) Incorrect (is true): see syllabus section 4.4.5
c) Correct (is false) security testing may be scheduled for
the unit, integration and system testing levels (see
syllabus section 4.3.2)
d) Incorrect (is true) Since maintainability is built into the
code and the documentation for each individual code
component, maintainability can be evaluated early in the
lifecycle without having to wait for a completed and
running system. (see syllabus section 4.6)
TTA-4.2.3 K2 1
Answer
23
a a) Correct: Because reliability tests often require use of the
entire system, reliability testing is most commonly done
as part of system testing
b) Incorrect: Co-existence issues should be analyzed when
planning the targeted production environment but the
actual tests are normally performed after system and user
acceptance testing have been successfully completed.
c) Incorrect: Adaptability tests may be performed in
conjunction with installability tests and are typically
followed by functional tests to detect any faults which may
have been introduced in adapting the software to a
different environment.
d) Incorrect: Replaceability may also be evaluated by
technical review or inspection at the architecture and
design levels, where the emphasis is placed on the clear
definition of interfaces to potential replaceable
components.
TTA-4.2.3 K2 1
Answer
24
c a) Incorrect: this is a usability failure, not a security defect.
b) Incorrect: this is a security feature, not a security defect.
c) Correct: a typical security defect.
d) Incorrect: if it is a defect at all, is a portability defect.
TTA-4.2.4 K3 2

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
25
b a) Incorrect: The test environment is fully representative and
the data volume for a transaction is low. It can be
assumed that the increase in the data volumes from the
increased number of virtual users will not prevent realistic
loads from being generated for the scalability testing.
b) Correct: Scalability testing focuses on the ability of a
system to meet future efficiency requirements, which may
be beyond those currently required. The scenario states
that the current system’s response to user inputs is just
below the maximum specified time, but that the number of
users is expected to double over the next 12 months.
There is a high risk that the planned scalability tests will
show that the system fails to meet future requirements for
expected numbers of users.
c) Incorrect: There is no indication in the scenario that the
system uses disk capacity resources. Compared to option
b this is less likely to be a source of defects.
d) Incorrect: During the scalability tests there is a possibility
that the system actually fails. However, the system has so
far run reliably and the expected increases in user
numbers is less likely to a cause system failure to occur
than the reduced response time problem described in
option b.
TTA-4.2.4 K3 2

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
26
b, e a) Incorrect: This relates to modifiability (see syllabus
section 4.6.1)
b) Correct: see syllabus section 4.3.1
c) Incorrect: This relates to installability (see syllabus section
4.7.2)
d) Incorrect: This relates to functionality
e) Correct: see syllabus section 4.3.1
TTA-4.3.1 K2 1
Answer
27
a a) Correct: Testing fault-tolerance is part of reliability testing,
but it may be hard or even impossible to force faults to
occur in hardware or in the OS.
b) Incorrect: This relates to performance efficiency testing.
c) Incorrect: “Vulnerabilities” are associated with security
testing, not reliability testing.
d) Incorrect: This relates to performance efficiency testing.
TTA-4.4.1 K2 1
Answer
28
a, d a) Correct: If the web servers are only dimensioned for a
normal number of transactions, they will not scale to the
maximum.
b) Incorrect: Availability of people to simulate a load is not a
valid reason.
c) Incorrect: Re-using functional tests is not a reason to
conduct performance tests
d) Correct: People may abandon the site if their enquiry
responses take too long. This will damage business at the
peak booking season.
e) Incorrect: Having skills in performance testing tools is
good, but it is not a reason to conduct performance tests.
TTA-4.5.1 K2 1

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
29
d a) Incorrect: may be worthy of consideration but does not
have higher priority over reusability.
b) Incorrect: see answer a
c) Incorrect: see answer a
d) Correct: Reusability addresses the degree to which an
asset can be used in more than one system, or in building
other assets. This directly applies to the situation
described.
TTA-4.6.1 K2 1
Answer
30
b a) Incorrect: This is another aspect of portability which does
not have a higher priority over adaptability.
b) Correct: Adaptability may relate to the ability of the
software to be ported to various specified environments
by performing a predefined procedure. This directly
applies to the situation described
c) Incorrect: This is another aspect of portability which does
not have a higher priority over adaptability
d) Incorrect: Co-existence focusses on different applications
running on the same environment
TTA-4.7.1 K2 1
Answer
31
c a) Incorrect: this response indicates a willingness to co-
operate in getting the review done but the analyst will be
unable to make a full contribution without preparation and
the review would therefore be less effective than it should
be.
b) Incorrect: this response flags up the lack of preparation
time but does not insist on allowing time for adequate
preparation.
c) Correct.
d) Incorrect: this response is accurate, but preparation would
remove the obstacle. This is therefore not the best
response when declining to attend a review.
TTA-5.1.1 K2 1

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
32
c a) Incorrect: data caching helps performance, not memory
use.
b) Incorrect: transaction concurrency uses more memory.
c) Correct: this would reduce unnecessary memory use but
does have the possible problem of the delayed
performance when the class is needed.
d) Incorrect: connection pooling can help memory and
performance, but the possible problem is in running out of
connections, not in losing a process.
TTA-5.2.1 K4 3
Answer
33
a a) Correct: Load balancing: will ensure that peak volumes
can be handled by spreading the load to additional
servers.
b) Incorrect: Caching data may not guarantee that the
rapidly changing currency rates are accurately shown in
real-time.
c) Incorrect: Object orientation practice does not target
performance efficiency.
d) Incorrect: Data replication may not guarantee that the
constantly changing currency rates are accurately shown
in real-time.
TTA-5.2.1 K4 3
Answer
34
c a) Incorrect: the comment is correct.
b) Incorrect: we have no way of knowing if there is an
external library available.
c) Correct: it is most likely the card will be Visa or MC so
that check should be exercised first.
d) Incorrect: the else handles all conditions not met by the if.
TTA-5.2.2 K4 3

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
35
b a) Incorrect: The variable “fileID” is checked before
attempting to access the sales file (see lines 6,7 and 8)
b) Correct: On line 21 the divisor “number_of_months” is not
checked for 0. This should have been checked before line
21 is executed.
c) Incorrect: comments and code are consistent
d) Incorrect: all declared variables (lines 1 and 2) are used in
the code
TTA-5.2.2 K4 3
Answer
36
b, e a) Incorrect: test data is normally the responsibility of the
test analysts or business analysts.
b) Correct: see syllabus section 6.1.
c) Incorrect: tools read test cases.written with keywords and
call the appropriate test functions or scripts which
implement them. They do not create the scripts.
d) Incorrect: who performs test analysis and design (even of
automated test cases) is not decided by the TTA.
e) Correct: see syllabus section 6.1.
TTA-6.1.1 K2 1
Answer
37
a a) Correct: keyword-driven tests are data-driven, too, but
also have process-based keywords.
b) Incorrect: because it’s backwards.
c) Incorrect: keyword-driven tests are easier to maintain
(due to the separation of roles).
d) Incorrect: due to the difficult in defining the correct
architecture for the keyword-driven framework.
TTA-6.1.2 K2 1
Answer
38
d a) Incorrect: elimination of duplication is a positive for a
toolset.
b) Incorrect: ideally data should be exchanged with no
manual intervention.
c) Incorrect: using an IDE is often worthwhile as long as
tools ‘fit’ the IDE.
d) Correct: in syllabus section 6.1.1.
TTA-6.1.3 K2 1

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
39
c, d a) Incorrect: the keywords are supposed to be about the
business process supported by the application, not the
test process.
b) Incorrect: the keywords are supposed to be about the
business process supported by the application, not the
test process.
c) Correct: it is explicitly mentioned in the scenario as being
capabilities of the application.
d) Correct: it is explicitly mentioned in the scenario as being
capabilities of the application.
e) Incorrect: might be a capability of the application, but it’s
not mentioned in the scenario, so it’s not the most likely
keyword on the list, and also since there was no mention
that the product charges its customers.
TTA-6.1.4 K3 2
Answer
40
c a) Incorrect: Input checking can be done by mutating test
inputs, but to test input checking the inputs would need to
be mutated.
b) Incorrect: According to syllabus 6.2.1, 2nd paragraph, this
is the task of the fault injection tools.
c) Correct: According to syllabus 6.2.1, 1st paragraph, this is
the task of the fault seeding tools.
d) Incorrect: According to syllabus 6.2.1, 3rd paragraph,
these tools are generally used by the technical test
analyst.
TTA-6.2.1 K2 1
Answer
41
b a) Incorrect: this is not an issue of more accurately
measuring response times.
b) Correct: in syllabus section 6.2.2.
c) Incorrect: the script needs to be changed to take account
of variability of different users and their transactions.
d) Incorrect: measurements need to be taken during
execution.
TTA-6.2.2 K2 1

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
42
d, e a) Incorrect: describes an MBT tool.
b) Incorrect: describes a debugger.
c) Incorrect: describes a fault seeding tool.
d) Correct: in syllabus section 6.2.3.
e) Correct: in syllabus section 6.2.3.
TTA-6.2.3 K2 1
Answer
43
a a) Correct.
b) Incorrect: MBT tools actually decrease the possible paths.
c) Incorrect: MBT tools provide a different view to
supplement functional testing.
d) Incorrect: the MBT tool ‘engine’ does enable some
execution threads to be saved (typically those related to
failed test cases).
TTA-6.2.4 K2 1

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answer
44
a a) Correct: (is false) The statement about the xUnit
framework is incorrect, it only supports the programmer
when automating: „Such a framework generates test
objects for each class that is created, thus simplifying the
tasks that the programmer needs to do when automating
the component testing." (Syllabus 6.2.5, second
paragraph, last sentence).
b) Incorrect: (is true) The statement about component test
tools is true - as in a), especially with Java (6.2.5, second
paragraph). The statement about build automation tools is
correct cf. Syllabus 6.2.5, 4th paragraph: „Build
automation tools often allow a new build to be
automatically triggered any time a component is
changed."
c) Incorrect: (is true) Syllabus 6.2.5, 2nd paragraph:
"…special test tools; these are collectively called xUnit
frameworks. Such a framework generates test objects for
each class that is created, thus simplifying the tasks that
the programmer needs to do when automating the
component testing. 4th paragraph: "Build automation tools
often allow a new build to be automatically triggered any
time a component is changed."
d) Incorrect: (is true) The statement about component test
tools is correct (see a) and b)). The statement about build
automation tools is also correct (see justification for b)).
TTA-6.2.5 K2 1
Answer
45
d a) Incorrect: A mobile simulator models the mobile
platform’s runtime environment.
b) Incorrect: Applications compiled to be deployed and
tested on an emulator are compiled into the actual byte-
code that could be also used by the real device.
c) Incorrect: Both simulators and emulators are useful in the
early stage of development
TTA-6.2.6 K2 1

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
d) Correct: Applications tested on a simulator are compiled
into a dedicated version, which works in the simulator but
not on a real device

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Answers to Alternative Questions
In the exam, certain questions may relate to different optional learning objectives. To ensure coverage of all learning objectives, the alternatives
not considered in the sample exam are added below.
Question Correct
Answer
Explanation / Rationale Learning
Objective
K-Level Number
of
Points
Alternative
Question 26
c a) Correct: Static analysis may be used to identify security
threats
b) Correct: Involvement of developers may be useful for
implementing particular security attacks
c) Incorrect: Operational profiles are generally considered for
performance efficiency testing
d) Correct: Approvals for simulating a security attack must
always be obtained
TTA-4.3.2 K2 1
Alternative
Question 27
c,e a) Incorrect: Maturity is a reliability sub-characteristic, but is not
as relevant as C and E for the given reliability requirement.
b) Incorrect: Fault tolerance is a reliability sub-characteristic,
but is not as relevant as C and E for the given reliability
requirement.
c) Correct: Testing this reliability sub-characteristic will focus on
the availability of specified interfaces from other systems.
d) Incorrect: Capacity testing is a performance efficiency sub-
characteristic. It is not relevant for covering the reliability
requirement.
e) Correct: Recoverability: Testing this reliability sub-
characteristic will focus on the architecture’s ability to recover
from a failure.
TTA-4.4.2 K2 1

Exam ID: A
International
Software Testing
Alternative
Question 28
a,c a) Correct: Required hardware and network bandwidth needed
to generate the maximum expected loads are critical planning
considerations for estimating costs and enabling the
maximum load to be simulated.
b) Incorrect: Estimating the income expected from ticket sales is
a marketing/sales activity.
c) Correct: Acquiring representative user behavior patterns will
enable representative loads to be simulated.
d) Incorrect: Considering the modularity of the system under test
is not relevant.
e) Incorrect: Reviewing the system architecture may be a
valuable task, but the question does not indicate that a web
server replacement is planned. If this were the case,
replaceability tests would be planned, not performance tests
TTA-4.5.2 K2 1
Alternative
Question 29/30
c a) Incorrect: this relates to adaptability
b) Incorrect: this relates to modularity
c) Correct
d) Incorrect: this relates to resource utilization
TTA-4.8.1 K2 1

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