Into Europe Reading and use_of_english

INTO EUROPE
Prepare for Modern English Exams
Reading and Use of English

INTO EUROPE
Series editor: J. Charles Alderson
Other volumes in this series:
The Speaking Handbook
The Writing Handbook
Listening

Into Europe
Prepare for Modern English Exams
J. Charles Alderson
Mária Cseresznyés

CONTENTS
Acknowledgements 7
PART ONE Introduction 11
Chapter 1 To the Teacher 13
Chapter 2 Reading and Use of English 19
PART TWO Reading 29
Chapter 3 Short-answer questions 31
Chapter 4 Matching headings and questions to text 45
Chapter 5 Matching sentences to gaps in text 77
Chapter 6 Matching clauses to gaps in text 101
Chapter 7 Putting parts of a text in the correct order 135
PART THREE Use of English 153
Chapter 8 Open gap-filling 155
Chapter 9 Banked gap-filling 191
Chapter 10 Multiple choice 229
Chapter 11 Spot the error 249
Chapter 12 Word formation 263
PART FOUR Answer Keys 279
APPENDIX Guidelines for Writers of Reading
and Use of English Tests 297

Acknowledgements
First and foremost, our heartfelt thanks must go to the inspiration behind this
book, and the Project itself, Edit Nagy. Edit is the Project Manager, working in
the British Council, but she is also the originator of the British Council's
support to Examination Reform in Hungary, its most ardent advocate, its most
tireless supporter, its most passionate believer in the importance of quality,
quality, quality, and its least recognised architect. Without Edit the Project
would never have started, would never have achieved what it has, and without
her, this book would not have been conceived, let alone produced. Without Edit,
and her devotion to examination reform, from her days in OKSZI and OKI, her
contribution to the Hungarian - Dutch exam project and her management of
the British Council Project, nothing, but nothing, would have been achieved.
Thank you, Edit.
Of course, a Project Manager needs a team to manage, and without numerous
– almost countless – dedicated individual team members, there could have been
no project, no tests, no training courses, no books. Below we list all those
individuals who have written items, attended training courses, taken part in
Editing Committee meetings, designed teacher-support materials and courses,
benchmarked and standard set, and all the other multifarious tasks in
examination construction. To you all, we owe a great debt of thanks, and
especially to your families and loved ones who have put up with absences on
training events when you could have been on holiday, late-night working and
accumulated stress for years: thank you all.
We are very happy to acknowledge the support of KÁOKSZI, currently
responsible for exam reform and its implementation, its former Director,
Sarolta Igaz and most especially of Krisztina Szollás, who promoted the cause
of quality exam reform when we seemed to have more opponents than friends.
We are also extremely grateful to the British Council for its unfaltering support
over the years, especially the support of Directors Paul Dick and John
Richards, and their able Assistant Directors Ian Marvin, Peter Brown and Nigel
Bellingham. We have counted on and benefitted enormously from your support
in good times and in bad.
We also acknowledge gratefully the support of our consultants, listed below,
without whose enormous expertise, experience and encouragement, we would
not have got as far as we have.

Without the enthusiastic participation of countless secondary school teachers
and their principals and students, we would not have been able to pilot and
improve these test tasks: to you, we owe a great deal.
And finally to our layout editor Rita Révész, our editors Béla Antal and Gábor
Hingyi, and our publishers, thank you for your input, support and
encouragement. Without a committed publisher, a book cannot appear. We are
privileged to have had the support of the Teleki Foundation, its manager Béla
Barabás, and his assistant Viktória Csóra. We hope you are happy with the
results.
And to you, the reader, thank you for using this book and we hope you enjoy
and benefit from the results.
PPEOPLE AND INSTITUTIONS
British Council Project Manager
Nagy Edit
KÁOKSZI Project Manager
Szollás Krisztina
Editing and layout
Révész Rita
Item writers (whose tasks are in this volume)
Gróf Szilvia, Grezsu Katalin, Schultheisz Olga, Cseresznyés Mária, Sándor
Ernőné,
Dr Fehérváryné Horváth Katalin, Bukta Katalin, Weltler Csilla, Csolákné
Bognár Judit, Csépes Ildikó, Hegyközi Zsuzsanna, Nikolov Marianne, Hardiené
Molnár Erika, Horváth József, Nyirő Zsuzsanna, Gál Ildikó, Szabó Gábor,
Magyar Miklósné, Margittay Lívia, Pércsich Richárd, Ábrahám Károlyné, Dr
Kiss Istvánné
8 INTO EUROPE Reading and Use of English

Other item writers, who took part in the item production, standard
setting or made invaluable comments
Együd J. Györgyi, Sulyok Andrea, Szabó Kinga, Martsa Sándorné, Lomniczi
Ágnes, Barta Éva, Tankó Gyula, Dóczi Brigitta, Nábrádi Katalin, Némethné
Hock Ildikó, Lusztig Ágnes, Himmer Éva, Weisz György, Cser Roxane, Tóth
Ildikó, Sándor Éva, Berke Ildikó, Czeglédi Csaba, Bojana Petric, Torda Márta,
Böhm József, Blasszauer János
Editing Committee
Philip Glover, Kissné Gulyás Judit, Szollás Krisztina, Cseresznyés Mária, Gróf
Szilvia, Nikolov Marianne, Csépes Ildikó, Nyirő Zsuzsanna, Dávid Gergely,
Fekete Hajnal
OKI English Team leaders
Vándor Judit, 1996-1999
Öveges Enikő, 1999-2000
Project consultants
Richard West (University of Manchester)
Jane Andrews (University of Manchester)
John McGovern (Lancaster University)
Dianne Wall (Lancaster University)
Jayanti Banerjee (Lancaster University)
Caroline Clapham (Lancaster University)
Nick Saville (Cambridge ESOL)
Nick Kenny (Cambridge ESOL)
Lucrecia Luque (Cambridge ESOL)
Annette Capel (Cambridge ESOL)
Hugh Gordon (The Scottish Qualifications Authority)
John Francis (The Associated Examining Board)
Vita Kalnberzina (Latvia)
Ülle Türk (Estonia)
Zita Mazuoliene (Lithuania)
Stase Skapiene (Lithuania)
SCHOOLS TAKING PART IN THE PILOTING OF TASKS
Ady Endre Gimnázium, Debrecen; Apáczai Csere János Gimnázium és
Szakközépiskola, Pécs; Babits Mihály Gimnázium, Budapest; Batthyányi Lajos
Gimnázium, Nagykanizsa; Bencés Gimnázium, Pannonhalma; Berze Nagy
János Gimnázium, Gyöngyös; Berzsenyi Dániel Gimnázium, Budapest; Bethlen
9

Gábor Református Gimnázium, Hódmezővásárhely; Bocskai István Gimnázium
és Közgazdasági Szakközépiskola, Szerencs; Boronkay György Műszaki Szakis-
kola és Gimnázium, Vác; Bolyai János Gimnázium, Salgótarján; Ciszterci Rend
Nagy Lajos Gimnáziuma, Pécs; Deák Ferenc Kéttannyelvű Gimnázium, Szeged;
Debreceni Egyetem Kossuth Lajos Gyakorló Gimnáziuma, Debrecen; Dobó
István Gimnázium, Eger; Dobó Katalin Gimnázium, Esztergom; ELTE Radnóti
Miklós Gyakorló Gimnáziuma, Budapest; ELTE Trefort Ágoston Gyakorló Gim-
náziuma, Budapest; Eötvös József Gimnázium, Tata; Fazekas Mihály Fővárosi
Gyakorló Gimnázium, Budapest; Gábor Áron Gimnázium, Karcag; Gábor Dénes
Gimnázium, Műszaki Szakközépiskola és Kollégium, Szeged; Gárdonyi Géza
Gimnázium, Eger; Herman Ottó Gimnázium, Miskolc; Hunfalvy János Gyakorló
Kéttannyelvű Közgazdasági és Külkereskedelmi Szakközépiskola, Budapest; I.
István Kereskedelmi és Közgazdasági Szakközépiskola, Székesfehérvár; Janus
Pannonius Gimnázium, Pécs; JATE Ságvári Endre Gyakorló Gimnázium,
Szeged; Karinthy Frigyes Kéttannyelvű Gimnázium, Budapest; Kazinczy Ferenc
Gimnázium, Győr; Kereskedelmi és Vendéglátóipari Szakközépiskola, Eger;
Kölcsey Ferenc Gimnázium, Zalaegerszeg; Kossuth Lajos Gimnázium,
Budapest; Krúdy Gyula Gimnázium, Győr; Krúdy Gyula Gimnázium,
Nyíregyháza; Krúdy Gyula Kereskedelmi, Vendéglátóipari Szakközépiskola és
Szakiskola, Szeged; Lauder Javne Zsidó Közösségi Iskola, Budapest; Lengyel
Gyula Kereskedelmi Szakközépiskola, Budapest; Leőwey Klára Gimnázium,
Pécs; Madách Imre Gimnázium, Vác; Mecsekaljai Oktatási és Sportközpont,
Pécs; Mikszáth Kálmán Gimnázium, Pásztó; Móricz Zsigmond Gimnázium,
Budapest; Németh László Gimnázium, Budapest; Neumann János Közgazda-
sági Szakközépiskola és Gimnázium, Eger; Neumann János Informatikai Szak-
középiskola, Budapest; Óbudai Gimnázium, Budapest; Pásztorvölgyi Gimnázi-
um, Eger; Pesti Barnabás Élelmiszeripari Szakközépiskola, Szakmunkásképző
és Gimnázium, Budapest; Petrik Lajos Vegyipari Szakközépiskola, Budapest;
Pécsi Művészeti Szakközépiskola, Pécs; Premontrei Szent Norbert Gimnázium,
Gödöllő; PTE Babits Mihály Gyakorló Gimnázium, Pécs; Radnóti Miklós
Kísérleti Gimázium, Szeged; Révai Miklós Gimnázium, Győr; Sancta Maria
Leánygimnázium, Eger; Sipkay Barna Kereskedelmi és Vendéglátóipari Szakkö-
zépiskola, Nyíregyháza; Sport és Angoltagozatos Gimnázium, Budapest; Szent
István Gimnázium, Budapest; Szilády Áron Gimnázium, Kiskunhalas; Szilágyi
Erzsébet Gimnázium, Eger; Talentum Gimnázium, Tata; Táncsics Mihály Gim-
názium, Kaposvár; Táncsics Mihály Közgazdasági Szakközépiskola,
Salgótarján; Teleki Blanka Gimnázium, Székesfehérvár; Terézvárosi Kereske-
delmi Szakközépiskola, Budapest; Toldy Ferenc Gimnázium, Nyíregyháza;
Városmajori Gimnázium, Budapest; Vásárhelyi Pál Kereskedelmi Szakközép-
iskola, Budapest; Veres Péter Gimnázium, Budapest; Vörösmarty Mihály Gim-
názium, Érd; 408.sz. Szakmunkásképző, Zalaszentgrót; Wigner Jenő Műszaki
Szakközépiskola, Eger

PPAARRTT OONNEE
Introduction
Modern Europe encourages mobility of labour and of students across the
frontiers of the European Union and beyond. In order to be able to take up
study places or work opportunities, knowledge of a foreign language is
essential. In the modern Europe, it is increasingly important not only to be able
to use a foreign language, especially a widespread and widely learned language
like English, but also to be able to prove that one can use the language at the
level required by employers, schools, universities or other agencies. And that
means passing a recognised, valid examination which offers certificates in a
foreign language.
This book is the first in a series of books aimed at teachers and students who
plan to take an examination in English. That examination may be a school-
leaving examination, some other type of national or regional examination, or an
international examination. It will hopefully be a recognised examination which
is based upon international standards of quality, and which relates to common
European levels – those of the Council of Europe. If your students are planning
to take such an examination, then this book is for you.
“Into Europe” is the result of a British Council-funded project spanning some
six years, which initially developed test tasks in Reading, Listening, Writing and
Speaking, as well as Use of English, for the reform of the Hungarian School-
leaving Examinations in English. The Project was conducted under an
agreement with the Hungarian Ministry of Education, through its agency OKI
(the National Institute of Education), and the task of the Project was to produce
test specifications, guidelines for test writers, and test tasks or 'items'. The test
tasks produced were tested on large samples of students similar to those who
would take school-leaving examinations in the future. The Project also trained
test writers in modern testing techniques, raters of spoken and written
performance, and developed procedures for test development and test
administration. As a result, not only were testing procedures developed
according to modern European standards, but also a large number of tasks
were piloted and calibrated over four years. In addition, the Project developed
in-service training courses for teachers of English, to help them become aware
of the demands of modern European examinations, and how best to prepare
their students for such examinations.
In order to help teachers and students understand the levels and demands of
modern European examinations, the British Council has decided to make these
calibrated tasks available to a wider public, as it believes that such tasks are
valuable for those who wish to take any of a number of modern English
examinations, not only the Hungarian School-Leaving Examination.

Chapter 1
To the Teacher
This book is intended to help you and your students to prepare to take any of
a range of modern European English examinations by developing the skills
needed not only to pass examinations, but also to use English in the real world.
Modern European English examinations focus upon assessing a learner's ability
to use the language, and do not concentrate on testing whether learners can
recite the rules of the language, or how many words they have learned, or
whether they sound like a perfect English gentleman or lady. Modern
examinations are more concerned to present learners with tasks that involve
them in reading, listening to, speaking or writing in the target language, and
evaluating how well they can do this. Of course, an important component in
assessing how well somebody can use the language is how accurately they can
produce or understand texts written or spoken in the language, but the key to
this assessment is to present learners with tasks that resemble in some way
the sort of things they may have to do with the language in real life. After all,
what matters to users of examination results – employers, universities, foreign
institutions – is not whether the student knows the third conditional or the
irregular forms of obscure verbs, or can understand Shakespeare in the original
English, but how well they can get their meaning across or understand others'
meanings in relevant situations in real life.
Thus modern examinations are not interested in whether students can
transform isolated sentences into paraphrased versions, or whether they can
give a definition of a word out of – or even within – context. Modern examinations
are rarely interested in whether a student can translate sentences in their first
language into the target language, whether they can translate sentences from
the target language into the mother tongue or, indeed, whether they can give
the mother tongue equivalent of an underlined word in an English passage.
What matters in modern English examinations is whether learners can
communicate in the target language in order to achieve their aims, in order to
understand and be understood, in order to get their message across and
achieve everyday needs in that target language, even if, at the lower levels,
students may do this without 100% accuracy or fluency. What is important in
modern English examinations is not whether students are 100% perfect, but
whether they can meet their own needs to communicate and be understood in
both written and spoken modes.

European Standards
The Common European Framework of Reference for Languages, devised by the
Council of Europe, and increasingly becoming the standard for language
curricula, textbooks and other teaching materials, language examinations and
assessment procedures, has similar aims. The Common European Framework,
or CEF for short, seeks to encourage the use of the target language for
communication purposes in real-life contexts. In so doing, it presents a
framework of the sorts of texts learners may have to read, listen to, or produce
in writing or in speech, the sorts of things they may have to do with those texts,
the sorts of topics they may have to deal with, the way in which they may have
to use the language to achieve their ends, and the sorts of goals they may have
in using the language. Modern European examinations are increasingly linked
to the CEF, and employers and others who require evidence of proficiency in a
foreign language – especially but, of course, not only English – will wish to know
what level in terms of the Framework a learner has achieved.
The Framework has six major levels, which go from what is often called
“beginner” or “false beginner” to “highly advanced”, but since what is considered
a beginner in one context may be considered an intermediate in another
context, the CEF does not use such labels – because their meaning is relative.
Rather they label their levels with letters and numbers. A1 is the lowest level,
and for Reading is described as follows:
“I can understand familiar names, words and very simple sentences, for example
on notices and posters or in catalogues.” (Council of Europe, 2001: Table 2, 26)
C2 is the highest level, and for Reading is described as below:
“I can read with ease virtually all forms of the written language, including
abstract, structurally or linguistically complex texts such as manuals,
specialised articles and literary works.”
In between there are four levels labelled A2, B1, B2 and C1. The Council of
Europe describes these levels as follows:

A2
I can read very short, simple texts. I can find specific, predictable
information in simple everyday material such as advertisements,
prospectuses, menus and timetables and I can understand short
simple personal letters.
B1
I can understand texts that consist mainly of high frequency
everyday or job-related language. I can understand the
description of events, feelings and wishes in personal letters.
B2
I can read articles and reports concerned with contemporary
problems in which the writers adopt particular attitudes or
viewpoints. I can understand contemporary prose.
C1
I can understand long and complex factual and literary texts
appreciating distinctions of style. I can understand specialised
articles and longer technical instructions even when they relate to
my field.
(Council of Europe, 2001: Table 2, pages 26/7)
Many international examinations are now defined according to the CEF levels,
and increasingly universities and other educational institutions and employers
and government agencies require those who they admit or employ to have a
defined level, whether that be A2 or C1. Different levels will be required for
different purposes. For instance, the planned Hungarian school-leaving
examination is, in current documents, said to be at levels A2 or B1 for the so-
called Intermediate level, and at B2 for the so-called Advanced level. Cambridge's
Preliminary English Test (PET) is at level B1 and the First Certificate in English
(FCE) is at B2. Both Trinity House and Pitman Qualifications also offer
examinations at different CEF levels.
Modern European examinations are linked to these levels, and this book will
help you to prepare your learners for exams at different levels.
However, it is not enough simply to say that an exam is at a particular CEF
level. Examination bodies are expected to be able to prove that their exams are
at the level they claim, and the same is true for textbooks that prepare students
for exams. But sadly, all too often both examination bodies and textbook
publishers do not know what the level of their exams or exercises is, because
they have not checked this: they often simply do not know how difficult their
exercises or test questions are for real students.
In order to know whether an exercise or test question is at a given difficulty
level, it is essential that examination bodies and textbook publishers have tested
their exercises or questions on real students, in real schools or colleges, and
they need to have examined how well those learners performed on the exams.
15Chapter 1 To the Teacher

All the tasks presented in this textbook have been tried out on many learners
in secondary schools in Hungary. Not only that, they have all been carefully
written according to detailed guidelines (see the Appendix to this book)
produced by the English School-leaving Examinations Reform Project,
supported by the British Council, in accordance with modern European testing
practice and testing textbooks. They have been written by examiners who have
many years experience teaching English in schools and universities, and who
have also been professionally trained over a number of years in how to write
good test questions. The tasks have been inspected by committees of experts,
who have not hesitated to reject questions they did not consider good enough
to meet their standards, or the committees have required modifications in the
questions or items before they could be accepted. All the tasks and questions
in this book have been revised and re-revised several times.
Once accepted, however, the questions, texts, tasks and answer keys had to be
tested themselves, by being piloted - tried out - on large numbers of learners
similar in nature (level, sex, age, geographical location, etc) to the learners who
would take modern European examinations at any given level.
But not only were they tried out on such learners: the results of the learners'
performances were carefully studied to see if the students had problems with
any of the questions or texts, whether the instructions to the tasks were clear,
whether students gave the expected answers, or whether there were unexpected
difficulties that led students to misunderstand the tasks or to give answers that
were not expected.
If there were such problems, either the questions would be revised, or they
would be removed completely.
For all the tasks / questions / exercises in this book, we KNOW how difficult
they are, how well they worked, how well students responded to them, whether
they needed changing. And if they did, the changes were made and then
inspected by experts to ensure that they measured what was intended.
In short, all the tasks in this book have been subjected to a rigorous
programme of quality control to ensure that they reach the highest possible
(European) standards. All tasks have been analysed statistically, which is
essential to know their difficulty, but not sufficient to establish what CEF level
the task is at. This requires the application of a complex procedure called
“standard setting”, in order to relate each task to the Common European
Framework. The Hungarian British Council English School-leaving Examination
Reform Project has carried out such a procedure, so we can be confident about
the CEF levels of the tasks in this book.
Tasks in this book range in difficulty from A2 on the Common European
Framework to C1, and even a little above in a few cases. However, it is not
enough simply to state that a question or task is at a given level. This cannot

be done by mere inspection – what we call “eyeballing” – of the task. It is
inadequate simply to declare that a test “is” at a given level of the CEF. It is
essential to examine carefully and rigorously the relationship between the test
and the Common European Framework.
We know the levels of the tasks in this book because once they had been tried
out on students, and revised where necessary, our standard setting procedures
were applied, where large groups of experts familiar with the Common
European Framework and with the levels of Hungarian learners of English,
examined each task and each question within each task carefully, and judged
the level of difficulty of each and every question. Each task and question has
therefore been tried out empirically, and then judged by experts for their
correspondence to the CEF, taking the statistical results of the pilots into
account.
As a result, we can claim that the tasks presented in this book are of high
quality, and they are appropriate for students of the levels intended.
For full details of this rigorous testing, see ‘English Language Education in
Hungary Part II (2000): Examining Hungarian Learners’ Achievements in
English’, available for free from the British Council in Budapest.
Organisation of this book
The tasks in this book are arranged into ten chapters, five in Part 2 on Reading,
and five in Part 3 presenting the Use of English tasks. The next chapter
(Chapter 2) describes in more detail what we mean by the terms “Reading” and
“Use of English”, and what the tasks are intended to test. In both Part 2 on
Reading and Part 3 on Use of English the tasks are arranged according to the
test method used. In other words, tasks which require students to read the text
and answer questions in a particular way are grouped together. Questions that
require learners to select the right answer from a bank of possible answers are
all together, those which require a student to fill a gap with a word which is not
given are grouped together separately, and so on. It is very important that a
student knows what is expected of him or her – they need to understand how
to answer questions of particular types, hence this grouping.
At the beginning of each test method chapter, we give a brief introduction to the
test method, and advice on how best to approach the particular type of question.
We often give ideas as to what examiners are trying to assess learners on in the
task, what it is important to pay attention to, and how to respond appropriately.
The tasks within each chapter of each test method are arranged in ascending
order of KNOWN difficulty. Thus the first tasks in a chapter are relatively easy,
and later ones are more difficult. It makes sense to start with the first tasks and
then to work your way with your students through the tasks until you reach a
17Chapter 1 To the Teacher

level at which students are finding tasks too difficult. It makes no sense to
oblige students to tackle tasks that are far too difficult for them, and so once
you have reached a level at which students regularly have difficulty, we suggest
you switch to another test method, starting again at the easiest levels and
working your way gradually through the tasks.
Each task has the expected answers provided in a separate chapter towards the
end of the book, and the page number of the answer key is given after each task.
You are strongly advised to encourage your students to do the exercises / tasks
first before they look at the correct or acceptable answers in the Answer Key
chapter!
An important feature of this book is that in each chapter we give explanations
for the right answers to a sample task. By providing, at the beginning of the
chapter, a sample task with explanations of the answers (and the skills tested
by the tasks in that chapter) we help you (and the students) to understand why
the expected answers are the way they are. We believe that it is crucial to
successful exam performance that both students and teachers should
understand what is being tested, why it is being tested that way, and why the
right answer is the right answer.
In the Appendix, you will find the detailed Guidelines, produced by the
Hungarian British Council’s English School-leaving Examination Reform
Project. These guidelines were developed, revised and refined over a number of
years, in order to help test writers to produce suitable Reading and Use of
English tasks, of the sort that you will find in this book. We believe that these
Guidelines will be useful for you, the teacher, too, because they will both help
you to understand why the tasks are written the way they are, and they will
also help you to write your own tests of Reading and Use of English, if you
should wish to, as part of your regular classroom assessment.
As part of the aim of helping you to understand the nature of modern European
English examinations, in the next chapter we describe what modern European
examinations try to test in terms of the ability to read texts written in English
and the ability to use English meaningfully, appropriately and accurately.

Chapter 2
This book is intended to help you develop the skills needed to use English in
the real world, as well as to prepare for modern European English exams that
test your ability to read texts in English, and your ability to use English
accurately. These two skills are related but in this chapter we will describe how
modern English examinations test both these skills, in separate sections.
It is important when preparing for exams that you understand what is being
tested – what abilities the examiners are looking for and what skills they think
are important. If you understand what is being tested, you will be able to
prepare for the exams better, or to help students prepare for exams. Clearly, if
you have an imperfect understanding of what is being tested, then you are less
likely to do well on the exam or to prepare students appropriately for the exam.
In the rest of this book, we will show you how modern European exams test
these two skills, and help you to understand the techniques they use. But first,
in this chapter, we concentrate on explaining what it means to be able to read
and use English.
Reading
Reading used to be thought of as a passive activity, as a receptive skill: readers
were believed to absorb – take in – information from a text without any active
involvement on the part of the reader. Indeed, some traditional views held that
reading was simply reading aloud or being able to reproduce a text verbatim –
word for word, or in a literal summary. Furthermore, it used to be believed that
readers had to process – see and recognise – every letter and every word in
every sentence, that reading involved understanding every word, every sentence
and every paragraph, and total comprehension meant being able to reproduce
every idea that a text contained.
Nowadays it is recognised that when reading, any reader is very active, that
readers are thinking all the time as they read – about the meaning of the text,
about what they know about the topic of the text, about whether the text is
sensible or silly, whether it is entertaining or boring, whether it agrees with
what they know about the topic. Maybe they are thinking about similar texts
they have read, or about the author, or about things they might have to do with
the information in the text when they have finished reading it (maybe to write

a summary, or to note down facts for an assignment, or to retell the story to their
friends later, and so on).
In other words, readers are not passive or receptive: they are very active, they
are thinking all the time, and they are selecting and interpreting information
according to the reasons they have for reading the text in the first place.
Purposes
Therefore, modern reading tests try to simulate purposes that readers might
have when reading real texts in the real world. Moreover, the sorts of texts that
students have to read on modern tests are very similar to real-life texts – we say
they are more or less “authentic”. Thus modern exams test whether you can
read the sort of text you might have to read in the real world, and they try to
see if you can understand the text in the way you might have to in the real world.
For example, people read TV schedules in order to discover when a particular
programme is being shown, or to decide which programme to watch tomorrow
evening. They might read an advert in order to find the phone number or website
of the advertiser, or they might compare two different film reviews in order to
see what the reviewers think of a film they are thinking of going to see.
Because readers are active and selective, they do not usually read every word
in a text, nor do they normally try to understand every word, but they simply
understand enough to suit their purposes. Similarly, when taking a reading
test, students are not expected to understand every word or, indeed, to read
every sentence: they are expected only to read enough to suit their purpose –
which, of course, is usually to answer the question! Thus it makes sense, when
taking a reading test, only to read enough of the text to answer the question.
You should normally read the instructions to the task, and look at the
questions before starting to read the text. Besides, it is often sensible to get a
very quick idea of the topic of the text before you read – by reading the title or
skimming very rapidly through the text – usually in less than two minutes, in
order to think about what you know about the topic, and what the text might
be about, and then to read and tackle each question or task one by one.
And because you are likely to know at least something about the topic of the
text you are reading, you need to actively ask yourself whether the text makes
sense in terms of what you know, or whether your answer makes sense in
terms of what you know about the topic, or about the world. Thus even when
taking a reading test, you are expected to be active and selective in the way you
read.
And being selective means not only making decisions about what to read or
how much to read, it also means deciding how fast or slow, how carefully to

read, or whether to read quickly and selectively in order to get a general idea of
what the text says.
Texts
There are many different sorts of text which we might read in the real world:
adverts, posters, schedules, tickets, newspapers, magazines, novels, warning
signs, public notices, health warnings, instruction manuals, recipes, brochures
and many, many more. And so modern exams will also usually contain a range
of different texts, to see how wide a range of texts you are able to read.
Examiners are not interested in only knowing whether you can read novels or
stories. They want to know if you can read a range of different real world texts,
on a range of different topics. For example, the Hungarian school-leaving exams
may include timetables, menus, notices, warnings, advertisements, radio and
TV guides, recipes, newspaper and magazine articles and other text types. One
international exam – the Cambridge FCE – selects texts from advertisements,
correspondence, fiction, brochures, guides, manuals, messages, newspaper
and magazine articles and reports.
Therefore when preparing for a test, you should try to read a wide variety of
different texts, on a wide variety of different topics, and this book will help you
to do so.
And since people read different texts for different purposes – you don't read a
novel for the same reason as you read an advert or a TV schedule – you should
try to think about why you would read, what kind of information you would
want to obtain from particular texts, and how you would read those texts, and
then practise reading them for different purposes. You can be sure that the
makers of modern European exams will have tried to reflect real-life purposes
for reading different texts in the questions they ask or the tasks they set.
Reading skills
We have already said that people read texts selectively and flexibly. Thus not
only do they NOT read texts to understand every word. They may even skip or
ignore words they do not understand or which they do not think they need. This
is a good technique to practise when preparing for an exam if only because you
will usually not have enough time to read and understand every word in every
text in an exam. You should also get into the habit of deciding whether you
need to know the meaning of certain words – if you do not, then ignore them.
If you do, and you do not know the word, then you need to use strategies to
guess the meaning of the words you do not know, from the context they are in.
For example, read the following sentence:
“John was invited to dinner at his friends’ house and so on the way he bought a
beautiful bunch of flowers: roses, chrysanthemums, pansies and pantheas.
21Chapter 2 Reading and Use of English

You probably do not know the word “pantheas”, and you may not know what
“chrysanthemums” or “pansies” are, although you may know the word “roses”.
You probably know the word “flowers” and so you can guess that
chrysanthemums and pansies are sorts of flowers – it probably does not matter
what sort they are. In fact, the word “pantheas” does not exist – we made it up.
But in this context, it takes on the meaning of a sort of flower!
When reading, people often understand things that are not directly stated in
the text. We say that they “read between the lines” – they infer what the author
is trying to say, even if it is not expressly stated. To give an example, read the
following two sentences:
1) “The floor was dirty so Sally used the mop”.
2) “The floor was dirty because Sally used the mop”.
Most readers will understand sentence 2 to mean that the mop was dirty, even
though the text does not say so directly (even if you do not know what the word
“mop” means). Whereas in sentence 1, they will not usually say that the mop
was dirty (since they know that usually people do not use dirty mops to clean
floors). Thus we use our knowledge of the world and the meaning of words like
“so” and “because” in order to infer causes and effects, and other, often
unstated, relationships. Often examiners will ask questions about information
that is not directly stated in the text, but which can be inferred from the text.
Therefore, you will need to learn how to make appropriate inferences from a
text, and how to check whether the inference you are making is plausible –
likely – or not.
When they are reading texts, readers often consider what is the main idea in
that text, and what is an unimportant detail, in order to decide what to pay
attention to, and what to ignore. Similarly, examiners often test whether a
student can distinguish between a main idea and unimportant detail, and this
is a skill you should develop through the tasks and exercises in the next
chapters.
In addition, just as readers often have to decide whether an idea is irrelevant
to a purpose, examiners often test whether a reader can identify relevant parts
of texts, or relevant details, and you need to practise making the distinction
between relevant and irrelevant details or ideas. And since readers often have
to judge whether an idea is a matter of fact, according to the text, or a matter
of opinion, and what the author's opinion might be about a topic, examiners
often test to see whether readers can distinguish facts from opinions or
whether they can identify an author's opinion.
The Hungarian school-leaving examination specifications say that readers
should be able to understand gist and the overall message of a text, find specific
information by scanning, separate relevant from irrelevant information,
distinguish fact from opinion and infer meaning from context. Similarly,

Cambridge's FCE examinations test readers' ability to understand gist, main
points, detail, specific information, opinions and attitudes, text structure, and
whether they can deduce meaning not directly stated in the text. All these skills
are important in real-life reading, and you will practise them by completing the
tasks and answering the questions in this book.
Levels
In Chapter One, we described the Council of Europe Framework, and the notion
of levels of difficulty and ability. Below we present a series of descriptions of
what learners at particular levels of the Framework can do, when reading in a
foreign language – in this case in English. (The original Council of Europe
descriptions were somewhat simplified by the DIALANG Project, and are
contained in Appendix C1 to the Council of Europe Common European
Framework, 2001, page 231)
CEF
What the learner can do
Level
• I can understand the general idea of simple informational texts
and short simple descriptions, especially if they contain pictures
which help to explain the text.
A1
• I can understand very short, simple texts, putting together
familiar names, words and basic phrases, by for example
rereading parts of the text.
• I can follow short, simple written instructions, especially if they
contain pictures.
• I can recognise familiar names, words and very simple phrases on
simple notices in the most common everyday situations.
• I can understand short, simple messages e.g. on postcards.
• I can understand simple texts containing the most common words,
including some shared international words.
• I can understand short, simple texts written in common everyday
language.
• I can understand short, simple texts related to my job.
• I can find specific information in simple everyday material such as
advertisements, broshures, menus and timetables.
A2 • I can identify specific information in simple written material such as
letters, brochures and short newspaper articles describing events.
• I can understand short simple personal letters.
• I can understand routine letters and faxes on familiar topics.
• I can understand simple instructions on equipment encountered
in everyday life – such as a public telephone.
• I can understand everyday signs and notices in public places,
such as streets, restaurants, railway stations and workplaces.

• I can understand straightforward texts on subjects related to my
fields of interest.
• I can find and understand general information I need in everyday
material, such as letters, brochures and short official documents.
• I can search one long or several short texts to locate specific
information I need to help me complete a task.
• I can recognise significant points in straightforward newspaper
articles on familiar subjects.
• I can identify the main conclusions in clearly written argumentative
texts.
B1
• I can recognise the general line of argument in a text but not
necessarily in detail.
• I can understand the description of events, feelings and wishes in
personal letters well enough to correspond with a friend or
acquaintance.
• I can understand clearly written straightforward instructions for a
piece of equipment.
• I can read correspondence relating to my fields of interest and
easily understand the essential meaning.
• I can understand specialised articles outside my field, provided I
can use a dictionary to confirm terminology.
• I can read many kinds of texts quite easiliy at different speeds and
in different ways according to my purpose in reading and the type
of text.
• I have a broad reading vocabulary, but I sometimes experence
difficulty whit less common words and phrases.
B2 • I can go quickly through long and complex texts, locating relevant
details.
• I can obtain information, ideas and opinions from highly specialised
sources within my field.
• I can quickly identify the content and relevance of news items,
articles and reports on a wide range of professional topics, deciding
whether closer study is worthwhile.
• I can understand articles and reports concerned with contemporary
problems in which the writers adopt particular stances or viewpoints.
• I can understand any correspondence with an occasional use of
dictionary.
C1 • I can understand in detail long, complex instructions on a new
machine or produre even outside my own area of speciality if I can
reread difficult sections.
C2
• I can understand and interpret practically all forms of written
language including abstract, structurally complex, or highly
colloquial literary and non- literary writings.

Testing techniques
Finally, since we read different texts for different purposes, and since examiners
do not simply want to measure whether you can answer multiple-choice
questions, or fill in blanks, modern exams usually contain a variety of different
testing techniques. And so it is very important that you are familiar with a
range of different testing techniques, so that you will know how to answer the
test questions or complete the task. The next chapters are, therefore, organised
according to the test methods that are used, to help you to become familiar with
a range of testing techniques, at a range of levels of difficulty, so that you are
not disadvantaged by not knowing how to respond to different types of tasks.
Each chapter is preceded by advice on how the testing method included in the
chapter works, and how to respond to that test type.
Use of English
Modern European examinations are rather more interested in how well you can
use the language than in what you know about the language. Since language
is used in context, for various purposes, it is nowadays common to test
language use in context, not in isolation. Modern European English
examinations do not ask you to transform verbs, or to form a sentence from a
list of words given, because such techniques are decontextualised, and do not
require readers to process text and attend to textual meaning.
Traditional tests of language knowledge used to see whether students could
manipulate language form without reference to meaning. Such tests often only
have the context of a single sentence to help the test takers, and usually the
test taker does not have to pay attention to the meaning of the sentence.
For example, a student might be asked:
Put the verb in brackets into the past tense:
Simon ……… (eat) his dinner. (Correct answer: “ate”)
where the only thing you have to understand is the instructions! And all you
have to know, apart from how to answer questions like this, is what the past
tense of the verb “eat” is.
Compare that item with the following:
Put the verb in brackets into the past tense:
Simon ……… (eat) worsome cordwangles.
The meaning of the two words after the brackets is irrelevant.

This is in contrast with modern approaches to testing the use of the language,
where it is intended that students should have to understand the meaning of
the context - the surrounding words or sentences - in order to decide on an
appropriate as well as an accurate answer.
For example:
“If you _______ been using a computer application, such _______ a word
processing program, it is ………”
Here you have to understand the context of the gaps in order to complete them
appropriately (with “have” in the first gap, rather than “had”, and “as” in the
second gap, rather than “that”)
Testing language in use means assessing whether a student can identify or
choose which forms to use in order to convey particular meanings.
Thus modern European examinations usually test language use in texts, not in
isolated sentences, as in the example below.
“Chocolate has changed a great deal _______ the days of the Aztecs. For a start,
Europeans found _________ preferred the taste if they didn't include chilli pepper
_________ its production.”
Modern European Use of English examinations certainly assess whether
students are familiar with a range of language structures and a variety of words
and word forms. But they always try to do this in context, so that students have
to show how they can “use” the structures or words, not simply that they
"know" the correct form. Indeed, at lower levels of proficiency, by testing the
four skills you can at the same time reliably assess a learner's language
knowledge and there is usually no need for a separate Use of English paper. At
more advanced levels, not only can vocabulary and common structures be
tested, but also style, formal and informal registers, more complex structures
and so on.
This focus on understanding the text surrounding the item inevitably means
that students will have to read and understand the context. You may ask
yourself therefore, whether Use of English tests do not also test Reading. And
the answer is: Yes, they do. But this is inevitable if we want to know whether
somebody can use the language to express or to conform to meaningful
contexts.
However, in a Use of English test, the focus of the item or task is on the
meaningful use of the structure or word, and not on whether the student can
read the text selectively, or quickly, or can distinguish the main idea from the
minor detail. A Use of English item or task will not focus on reading skills or
strategies, and will therefore normally put the task or item in a context that is

relatively easy to understand, that will normally not contain unknown words,
apart from those being tested, and will not have complex structures, other than
those that might be being tested. A Use of English test, in other words, will
require students to read and understand the context, but that context should
be considerably easier than the texts in a reading test, because the text is not
the focus – the item (structure, word formation, vocabulary item) is the focus.
You will see many examples of this in the five chapters of Part Three.

PPAARRTT TTWWOO
Reading
Introduction
In this part of the book (Chapters 3-7), you will see a number of different sorts
of test tasks or questions. Modern European examinations usually include a
variety of different types of tasks, because they do not wish to rely on only one
type of task. If they only ask, for example, multiple-choice questions, then the
test may be biased against those students who find multiple-choice questions
confusing. On the other hand, the test may be biased in favour of those who
have developed test-taking skills which are not relevant to the ability they wish
to test. For example, learners might believe that the best way to answer multiple-
choice questions whose answer they are not sure of is to select the longest
option, or to choose option B every time. (These are NOT good techniques, by
the way!)
Therefore, good examinations contain a variety of different ways to test
language proficiency, depending upon what they want to test. In the chapters
that follow (Chapters 3-7), you will find five different types of reading task, and
gain experience in responding to them. The five task types are:
• Short-answer questions
• Matching headings and questions to texts
• Matching sentences to gaps in text
• Matching clauses to gaps in text
• Putting parts of a text in the correct order
All texts used in the reading tasks come from authentic sources you may read
in real life, including books, newspapers, magazines, journals, holiday
brochures, instruction manuals, TV, theatre and other programme guides, and
the internet. They cover a wide range of topics, from cooking, shopping,
travelling, money, and life-styles through art galleries, exhibitions, films, books,
music, language learning to protecting animals, national parks, health and
body-care. Within the constraints of the task type, the reading texts are
presented on the page with a layout that resembles their original format as
closely as possible.
Note that each task begins with an example written in italics and marked with
(0). The questions/items in the tasks are always numbered and, where relevant
(like, for example, in matching tasks), the options from which to choose the
correct or acceptable answers to the questions are marked with letters.

In each chapter, you will first read a general description and explanation of the
task type. Then you will see a sample task, which you should respond to. This
task is then followed by the correct or acceptable answers to the task, and a
detailed explanation of each answer. By reading these explanations carefully,
we believe that you will learn how best to answer each type of task, and will
understand better what the test is trying to test.

Chapter 3
Short–answer questions
This type of test is what is called a Short-Answer Test, or short-answer
questions or, sometimes, open-ended questions, where you are expected to
write only a few words in your answer, in English.
Depending on the nature of the actual questions set in a task, these tasks may
test your ability to scan a text quickly for some specific information, like, for
example, the question “On which days is the exhibition closed?” in Task 3 [the
Oxford Story Exhibition task], as well as your ability to understand a text, or
relevant parts of it, in detail (see, for example, Question 7 of the Sample task
[California condors] below, where, as you will see when doing the task, you need
to read rather carefully to be sure you need to read rather carefully to be sure
you have the correctr answer to the question).
Notice that the questions in these tasks concentrate on the sort of information
that somebody reading the texts might be interested in. Note also that in tests
like this, it is normal to ask the questions in the order in which the information
appears in the text, to save you from having to hunt for the relevant paragraph.
Because this question type is relatively open, it is usually the case that a variety
of different, but correct, answers are allowed, as you will see in the answer
keys.
It is very important to pay attention to the number of words that you are
required to write in your answers. This information is always given in the
instructions. If you give too many words, your answer will usually be marked
as incorrect.
You will not normally be penalised for spelling mistakes or even for any
grammatical mistakes in your answer, since the examiners are interested in
whether you have understood the texts, and not, in this part of the test at least,
in whether you can spell and use correct grammar. However, if the examiners
cannot understand or read your answer, your answer will be marked as
incorrect.
Now you should start practising this task type, doing first the Sample task on the
next two pages.

SSaammppllee TTaasskk
You are going to read a text about a rare bird, the California condor. Answer
questions 1-8 below in maximum three words. Write your answers on the lines
after the questions. There is one example at the beginning (0).
0 Where do condors live? In North America
1 How heavy are they at the most?
2 What colour is the spot under their wings?
3 What is the difference between males and females?
4 What do they eat?
5 How far can they fly in a day?
6 What do they do after bathing?
7 Where do they lay their eggs?
8 Which parent feeds the young?
Score: 8 points

33Chapter 3 Short-answer questions
WHAT IS A CALIFORNIA CONDOR?
California condors are the largest land birds
in North America. With a wingspan of
nearly 10 feet, they can weigh up to 22
pounds. Adults are primarily grayish-black
except for triangle-shaped patches of white
underneath their wings. These patches are
visible when condors are flying overhead
and offer a key identification characteristic.
The bare heads and necks of adults are
usually dull orange but become bright pink
during breeding season. Males and females
are identical in size and plumage
characteristics. The heads and wing linings
of juveniles are grayish and it isn’t until they
are 5 to 6 years of age that they become
indistinguishable from adults.
California condors are members of
the vulture family. They are opportunistic
scavengers, feeding exclusively on dead
animals such as deer, cattle, rabbits, and
large rodents. They often forage for food in
social groups, soaring and gliding at up to
50 miles per hour and travelling 100 miles
or more per day. After eating, they typically
clean their heads and necks by rubbing on
rocks, branches or grass. They frequently
bathe and spread their wings to dry their
feathers in the sun.
When not foraging for food,
condors spend most of their time perched
at a roost. Cliffs, tall conifers, and snags
serve as roost sites. Typical behavior is for
birds to remain at roost until mid-morning
and return in mid-to late afternoon. While
at a roost, condors preen, sleep, and
socialize.
Condors become sexually mature at
about 5 or 6 years of age and mate for life.
Most nest sites have been found in caves
and rock crevices. Condors do not build
nests. Instead, an egg about 5 inches in
length and weighing around 10 ounces is
deposited on bare ground. Condors lay a
single egg normally every other year. The
egg hatches after 56 days of incubation and
both parents share responsibilities for
feeding the nestling. Fledglings leave the
nest when they are 5 to 6 months old.
Leaflet issued by The Arizona Game and Fish Department
Answer Key: Page 0003344

Answer Key: California condor
0 in North America
1 22 pounds
2 white
3 nothing / they are identical
4 dead animals / deer, cattle, rabbits
5 100 miles
6 spread their wings /dry their feathers
7 on bare ground / caves / (and) (rock) crevices
8 both parents
Item 1: the words “at the most” in the question imply that you need to give an
exact figure in response, and the word “heavy” indicates that you need to look
for words like “weight” or “weigh” in the text
Item 2: Notice that the examiners have used “spot” in the question as a synonym
for “patches” in the text. Obviously you need to look, above all, for colour words
in the text. Once you have found “orange”, “pink” and “white”, all in the first pa-
ragraph, you need to read more carefully to decide which of these colours refers
to the patches under the birds' wings. Pink and orange are mentioned in the text
in connection with the heads and necks of the birds, and not with their wings.
Item 3: This is a slightly tricky question (see also item 8), because there is no
difference between the males and females. The question suggests that there is
a difference, but you do not have to believe this!
Item 4: Obviously you need to look in the text, first of all, for a word (or words)
that expresses “eating” in the question (and that word is “feeding” in the text),
and for words that indicate “food” for these birds. But remember that only three
words are allowed, so either you simply list the three types of food, or you
summarise them using the words “dead animals”.
Item 5: This question requires you to look for indicators of distances, but be care-
ful: “50 miles” in the text is associated with speed – 50 miles per hour – not dis-
tance!
Item 6: There are two possible answers to this question, but you can only answer
in maximum three words, so either response given in the Answer Key is acceptable.
Item 7: Common sense might suggest that birds lay their eggs in a nest, but the
text explicitly contradicts this, so you need to read rather carefully the last
paragraph of the text to be sure you have the correct answer. The answers in
the Key separated by a slash ( / ) are all acceptable alternatives.
Item 8: Again, be careful. The question suggests that one or the other of the
parents feeds the young, but this is not the case.

NNooww ccoonnttiinnuuee wwiitthh mmoorree sshhoorrtt--aannsswweerr qquueessttiioonnss
iinn tthhee rreesstt ooff tthhiiss cchhaapptteerr..

TTaasskk 11
You are going to read a magazine article about the Eurostar train between
London and Paris. Write the missing information (1-8) in the table. Write only
words, not sentences. There is one example (0) at the beginning.
Travelling on the Eurostar
train
Travelling by air
Total journey time
between the centre of
Paris and central London
(0) three hours (1) _____________________
Check-in place (2) _____________________ Heathrow Airport
Check-in time before
departure (3) _____________________ (4) _____________________
Speed (5) _____________________
Food service
(6) _____________________
(7) _____________________
Place of passport control (8) _____________________
Score: 8 points

PARIS in spring
For a trip to Paris – our most popular
short-break choice – the train beats the plane
The Eurostar train got me from
London to Paris non-stop via the
Channel Tunnel in three hours; the
journey from Paris city centre to central
London by air took four and a half.
Apart from the time and novelty
value, the train wins on ease and
comfort. Travel by air from London
and you spend an hour on the
Underground to Heathrow, check in
75 minutes before departure, hang
around at the other end for luggage
and then endure an hour’s drive into
Paris.
Choose the train and you check in at
Waterloo station’s specially built
Eurostar terminal 20 minutes before
departure and jump on. The seats are
big and comfortable and there’s
nothing more than the occasional sway
to show you’re going at 300 km – about
186 miles – an hour.
We spent 35 minutes in the tunnel,
and, as it was after dark, there was
nothing to show we were in it: no extra
noise, no ear-popping discomfort.
It seems they’ve thought of
everything – at the end of each
standard coach is a bay of four seats,
two of which fold to make space for
children to play or to park a buggy.
And in first class, two seats can be re-
moved to make room for a wheelchair.
The standard accommodation has a
trolley service for refreshments as well
as two buffet cars.
There’s no queuing for immigration
controls either. Passports are inspected
on the train and at the end you simply
grab your bags and step out into the
heart of Paris.
Once there, make use of the trains to
see the sights. Don’t worry if you don’t
speak the language – all mainline
stations have ticket machines.
Bella

TTaasskk 22
You are going to read an interview from a magazine. Answer the questions (1-6)
in no more than three words. Write your answers on the lines. There is one
example (0) at the beginning.
TRAVELLER’S TRUTHS
Name: Christina Noble
Age: 53
Occupation: Founder and active
Fieldworker of the Christina Noble
Children’s Foundation and author of
Mama Tina (John Murray, £15.99 pb).
Where was the first overseas place
you visited?
It was England when I was 17 and a
half. I had come over from Ireland on a
cattle boat, in search of my brother
who I hadn’t seen since I was 10 years
old. I was determined that I was going
to leave the nightmare of the old me
behind and create a new person. I
entered a whole new, strange world.
Everything was so fast and I saw
things, such as sweet shops and tinned
tomatoes, which I had never come
across before.
Where is your idea of heaven on
Earth?
There isn’t one single place that I could
call heaven on Earth. But if it did exist,
it would be a place where there was
unconditional love, fewer cars and
people talked to each other. Most of
all, it would be where children could
sleep easy at night, have equality and
their basic human rights. I would love
to buy a big ship and take as many
neglected children as it would fit to a
far-off island, perhaps in the
Seychelles, where we could start again.
And hell?
To me hell is on Earth, it is everywhere
where I see. All over the world there
are children with broken wings who
have seen no love and no childhood.
However, there is always hope.
What do you always take with you
when you travel?
Two sets of clothes – one for tropical
climates, such as light cotton, and one
for sub-zero temperatures, such as a
Genghis Khan-style coat.
Home comforts?
A jar of Astral moisturiser cream. For a
special treat, a jar of Clarins.
Best holiday read?
I enjoy writing down dreams for
children. When I’m not doing that, I
love reading poetry, especially by WB
Yeats.
Geographical

0. How old is Christina?
53
1. What is the title of her book?
2. Which country did she leave when she was seventeen?
3. Where did she see sweet shops for the first time in her life?
4. What is her ideal place where she would love to live?
5. What does she wear when it’s cold?
6. What two things does she like doing in her free time?
Score: 6 points

TTaasskk 33
Read the information leaflet about The Oxford Story Exhibition. Answer the
questions (1-6) in maximum 3 words. Write your answers on the lines. There is
one example at the beginning (0).
0. Where is the Oxford Story exhibition?
in the centre
1. What helps you find the exhibition?
2. What do you get with the Oxford College Guest Pass as well as admission to colleges?
3. How many people can see the exhibition with a family ticket?
4. How often do express buses go to Oxford?
5. On which days is the exhibition closed?
6. How long does it take to see the exhibition?
Score: 6 points

The Oxford Story Exhibition
GENERAL INFORMATION
x The Oxford Story is in the centre of the city, easily reached on foot from the rail
and coach stations. Look for ‘Broad Street’ or ‘Oxford Story’ signposts.
x For most of the spring/summer, The Oxford College Guest Pass offers
admission to The Oxford Story, Magdalen College and New College and includes
a souvenir guide.
x Our ‘Information for Group Organisers’ leaflet is available on request. There are
price reductions for groups, children, senior citizens, students and holders of
Guide Friday and Oxford Classic bus tour tickets. A family ticket (2 adults/2
children) is available.
x The exhibition is suitable for visits by most disabled visitors, although there are
restrictions imposed by the layout of the building. We suggest a call in advance.
x The exhibition is often used by conference organisers for private evening views.
Please call for details.
x Rail services are frequent. Holders of current rail tickets to Oxford are entitled to
special reduced rate entrance fees to The Oxford Story all the year round.
x There are fast bus and coach services from London Victoria every 20 minutes, run
by the Oxford Bus Company or Oxford Tube. The Oxford Tube offer a combined
return travel/Oxford Story ticket, available from the London Victoria Tourist
Information Centre.
x The Oxford Story Exhibition is open: April – October 9.30 – 5pm, July and August
9am – 6.00pm, November – March 10am – 4.30pm. Closing times are for last
admission. Open every day of the year except Christmas Day. Allow one hour for
your visit.
The Oxford Story 6 Broad Street Oxford OX1 3AJ
Tel: 01865 790055 Fax: 01865 791716
The Daily Telegraph

TTaasskk 44
You are going to read the first part of an article about a rock star who plays in a
TV series. Answer the questions (1-8) after the text in no more than 3 words.
Write your answers on the lines. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Bon Jovi joins Fox’s ‘Ally McBeal’
for one wild ride
If fans of rock star Jon Bon Jovi are expecting him to sing during his multiple-episode
stint on Fox’s ‘Ally McBeal,’ they will be sorely disappointed.
In the role of construction worker Victor Morrison, a potential love interest for Ally
(Calista Flockhart) on the Monday-night series, his performing a number at the bar is more
than unlikely, he says, “It’s a fact.”
The photogenic frontman of a band that has sold 80 million albums in nearly 20 years,
Bon Jovi wants to keep music and acting separate. Since his acting debut in 1995’s
‘Moonlight and Valentino’, he has made nine more films, including ‘Pay It Forward’ and ‘U-
571’. He is not surprised to hear that many people are unaware that there have been that
many, because a few have gone straight to video.
“Yeah!” he says, with a laugh. “But that’s the big difference between music and
movies. You are just part of the machine instead of running the machine.”
With movies and music taking up so much of his time, Bon Jovi says TV wasn’t
anything he’d wanted prior to ‘Ally’. In fact, it was creator David E. Kelley who pursued him
for about six months. “It was incredibly flattering,” he says. “You know, I had no desire to do
television, but if you’re going to do television, you work for David Kelley.”
While concert-goers are easily seduced by his sexy voice and skintight leather pants,
Bon Jovi reports that the relationship between Victor and Ally stays platonic for the first few
episodes in which he appears. “No love yet,” he says. “It probably won’t come to fruition for
a while, and so, when the audience is going to get frustrated, let them know that the actors
have been frustrated with it as well... David is keeping us all on the edge of our seats.”
Bon Jovi admits he didn’t watch ‘Ally’ prior to being hired. Now that he has seen
several episodes, he says, while his music is not as quirky as the show, “I guess the basic
values that it holds are similar to the optimism that I’ve tried to write in my music.”
The Atlanta Journal-Constitution, TV Week

Write your answers here:
0 How many episodes of the TV series will Bon Jovi sing in? none
1 What is the job of the character he plays in the series?
2 When is ‘Ally McBeal’ on?
3 How long has Bon Jovi’s rock band been playing?
4 What was his first film?
5 How many films has he played in?
6 Who asked him to play in ‘Ally McBeal’?
7 What does he wear on stage?
8 How many episodes of ‘Ally McBeal’ had Bon Jovi seen
before he got a role in it?
Score: 8 points

Chapter 4
Matching headings and questions to text
In this chapter, you will find different sorts of multiple matching. Sometimes
you will be asked to match headings, sometimes questions, or topic sentences
or, in one task, pictures, to paragraphs or sections of a text. In tasks of this type,
you are provided with a list of several options (possible answers) from which to
choose the correct or the most suitable answer to each question in the task,
hence the name multiple matching. The list of options may be presented either
before or after the text to be read. Be careful, however, because there are always
more choices than matches! Different types of multiple matching are commonly
used in modern language examinations, and so it is important for you to be fa-
miliar with various forms of this testing technique. (You will see some other
types of multiple matching in other chapters of this book.)
The tasks in this chapter are intended to test the ability to find specific infor-
mation in a text by scanning, and to follow and understand the main points in
a text by skimming. Accordingly, some tasks like, for example, the sample task
(“Shopping in the Old Town”) or Tasks 5 and 6, are based on advertisements.
In real life, we usually read adverts to look for things we might want to buy, or
to find out about programmes, dates, venues, services, opening times, and other
things we happen to need information about. Thus, in these tasks, the purpose
for reading matches the text you are asked to read. The best approach to these
task types is to scan the text for words in the text which match words in the
question – looking for specific information. Remember that, to answer these
questions, you do not need to, and should not, read every word of every adver-
tisement. You should read selectively, ignoring information in the text that is not
relevant to your purpose in reading (to answer the questions!). After all, we do
not usually read every word of adverts in the real world.
Other tasks in this chapter will provide the opportunity for you to read various
other types of text like, for example, newspaper and magazine interviews (Tasks
9, 10 and 11), film reviews (Task 13), a newspaper article describing the life of go-
rillas in Uganda (Task 8), an article giving advice on how to keep cats (Task 12),
and others. These tasks focus on your ability to read for main ideas in individual
paragraphs or sections of a text. Here, again, you are advised to skim through
the text relatively quickly to identify the main ideas suggested in the questions,
headings, topic sentences, or other prompts given in the task, rather than spend
an unnecessarily long time reading the whole text in detail. Note, however, that
some questions may require more careful reading of certain sections of the text.
Therefore, it is advisable for you to look through the questions, headings or topic

sentences (especially if they are put before the text) before you start reading the
text and doing the task.
Always remember to read the title of the text, as well as the example given in
the task to help you. It is also important to read the instructions, because they
will tell you 1) what exactly you are required to do in the task, 2) the number
of extra prompts (headings, etc.) that will not be the answer to any of the
questions and which you do not need to use, and 3) information about either
the text type, or the topic of the text, or both.
Now you should try to do the Sample task on the next two pages.

You are going to read six advertisements (A-F) for shops in Edinburgh. Answer
the questions (1-6). Write the best letter in the boxes. You can use a letter more
than once. There is one example at the beginning (0).
0. Which shop sells raincoats?
1. Where can you buy pills?
2. From which shop is it possible to buy things from home?
3. Which shop is open on Sunday, too?
4. Which shop sells and buys things, too?
5. Where can you buy shampoo?
6. Which shop sells something to eat?
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
E
Score: 7 points

49Chapter 4 Matching headings and questions to text
Shopping in the Old Town of Edinburgh
A B C
Designs on Cashmere Royal Mile Pharmacy Rock Sensations
Come and visit the cashmere
specialists. See the usual and
the unusual in cashmere. Shop
in a friendly, relaxed
atmosphere - no pressure to
buy. Custom-made sweater
service available.
Mail order catalogue too.
28 High Street, Royal Mile,
Edinburgh
Tel: 031 556 6394
Just up from John Knox's
house in the High Street is the
Royal Mile Pharmacy.
We specialise in Films;
Toiletries; Medicine; Herbal
Remedies; One Hour Film
Processing
67 High Street,
Edinburgh, EH1 1SR.
Tel: 031 556 1971
A rock shop of a different kind
on the Grassmarket. Rock
Sensations specialises in
rock'n'roll memorabilia and
novelties, recapturing the
spirit of the 50s and 60s. The
shop’s centrepiece is a fully
operational antique Seeburg
jukebox, stocked with old
Beatles and Elvis 45s.
Open Mon – Sat
9.30am - 5.30pm
& 11.30am – 4.30pm Sun
108 West Bow, Edinburgh.
Tel: 031 225 7710
D E F
The Castle Books Scottish Countrywear Edinburgh Woollen
Mill
This family business
established in 1980 has a large
selection of Scottish art,
children’s, travel, natural
history, literature and many
other subjects. Rare and
second-hand books bought
and sold.
Member of P.B. F.A.
Open Mon – Sat
12 noon - 5 pm.
204 Canongate,
The Royal Mile, Edinburgh,
EH8 8 DQ.
Tel: 031 556 0624
Scottish Countrywear (just a
stone’s throw from the Castle).
For a superb range of top
quality Scottish and Celtic
design in Shetland, Lambs
Wool and Cashmere.
Representing Belinda
Robertson, Smith & Telford
and Johnstons of Elgin. We
also stock a huge range of
outdoor wear.
514 Castlehill, Edinburgh.
Tel: 031 226 5323.
Just below the famous
Edinburgh Castle, the
Edinburgh Woollen Mill offers
traditional Scottish knitwear
and garments of high quality
direct from our own mills.
Also a large selection of
Scottish food, and gifts in a
range of tartans.
Natural value guaranteed!
453-455 Lawnmarket,
Edinburgh,
EH1 2NT.
Tel: 031 225 1525
A turist guide
Answer Key: Page

Answer Key to Sample Task: Shopping in the Old Town
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
E B A C D B F
First you need to be sure that you understand what information the question
requires. Then you should think of possible synonyms for the word in the
question, or words related in meaning. Thus for item 1), “pills” is in the
question, and pills can be a form of medicine sold in a chemist's shop or a
pharmacy, so searching rapidly for words like those underlined would be a
sensible strategy. It is highly unlikely that the examiners will use the same
word in the question as appears in the texts of the advertisement.
Item 1: The words “pharmacy” and “medicine” appear in B
Item 2: “mail order catalogues”, appearing in A, are used to buy things from
home, instead of visiting the shops themselves.
Item 3: Only one other ad includes any details of opening times, so there is no
need to look in any detail at the other ads. “Sun” in C is an abbreviation for
Sunday.
Item 4: “bought and sold” in D are forms of the verbs “sells and buys” in the
question
Item 5: “shampoo” is one of many “toiletries” available in B. Note that the
answer to Item 1) was also B, but the instructions to this task tell you that you
can use a letter more than once. Pay careful attention to the instructions,
otherwise you might think that any of the six ads in the task is only used once.
Item 6: “food” in F is another word for “something to eat”. Do not be fooled by
the reference to “lamb” in E – the reference is to “wool”, not to “meat”!!

NNooww ggoo oonn aanndd ddoo tthhee pprraaccttiiccee tteessttss iinn tthhee rreesstt ooff
tthhiiss cchhaapptteerr..

TTaasskk 55
You are going to read advertisements. Parts of the advertisements are missing.
Match the missing parts (1-7) below with the gaps (A-I) in the advertisements on
the opposite page. There is an extra advertisement that you do not need to use.
Write your answers in the boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
0 Au Pair Bureau
1 Settee and Bed Concepts
2 Head Chef
3 London Tourist Flats
4 County Self Drive
5 Intelligent English
6 Cycling for Softies
7 London School of Journalism
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
G
Score: 7 points

You are going to read advertisements. Parts of the advertisements are missing.
Match the missing parts (1-7) below with the gaps (A-I) in the advertisements on
the opposite page. There is an extra advertisement that you do not need to use.
Write your answers in the boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
0 Au Pair Bureau
1 Settee and Bed Concepts
2 Head Chef
3 London Tourist Flats
4 County Self Drive
5 Intelligent English
6 Cycling for Softies
7 London School of Journalism
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
G
Score: 7 points

TTaasskk 66
You are going to read some advertisements. Match the advertisements (A-P) with
the numbered sentences (1-10). There are five advertisements that you do not
need to use. Write your answers in the boxes. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
Write your answers here
0 Julie wants to publish her book. 0 H
1 Jack wants something old and valuable. 1
2 Jill wants a new pair of sandals. 2
3 Angela wants to eat out with her boyfriend. 3
4 Charles wants to go on an exotic trip. 4
5 Cathy has a toothache and wants a doctor. 5
6 Richard wants a band for his party. 6
7 Jane wants a new hairdo. 7
8 Peter wants home entertainment. 8
9 Jessica wants new glasses. 9
10 Roger wants pictures for his business. 10
Score: 10 points

A EXPERIENCE the coast of Turkey on our super equipped 50ft Hinckley yacht up to 6 persons
bareboat charter Tel. Finesse 01625 500241
B DINNER JAZZ by the Bob Moffatt Jazz Quartet. Live music for your wedding or social event.
Tel 01524 66062 or 65720
C CHESTERGATE COUNTRY INTERIORS 88-90 Chestergate, Macclesfield. Tel 01625 430879 For
quality hand waxed furniture traditionally constructed in antique style, from new wood.
D LA TAMA Small and select—intimate and inviting. The perfect place for a romantic meal and
that special occasion. 23 Church Street, Ainsworth Village Tel. 01204 384020
E BRIAN LOOMES Specialist dealer with large stock of antique clocks. Longcase clocks a
speciality. Calf Haugh Farmhouse, Pateley, North Yorks. Tel. 01423 711163
F THE ANSWER TO PROBLEM FEET. Hand crafted, made to measure shoes at affordable
prices. Quality materials and finish. The Cordwainer Tel. 01942 609792
G REEVES DENTAL PRACTICE. The only BUPA accredited dentist in the Chorley area. 38,
Park Road, Chorley. Tel. 01257 262152
H NEW AUTHORS publish your work. All subjects considered. Fiction, Non-Fiction, Biography,
Religious, Poetry, Children’s. Write or send your manuscript to MINERVA PRESS 2 Brompton
Road, London SW7 3DQ
I COUNTY WATERWELLS LTD. Designers and installers of water wells and water systems.
Bore hole drilling, water purification and filter systems. Tel. 01942 795137
J PENCIL PORTRAITS Unique gifts from 35. People, children, pets, houses and cars. Brian
Phillips, The Studio, 14 Wellington Road, Bury, Lancashire, BL9 9BG.
K BANGS PREMIER SALON. Professional consultants in precision cutting, long hair, gents
barbering, colour & perm. 149 Roe Lane, Southport. Tel. 01704 506966
L OUTDOOR GARDEN LIGHTING. Reproduction Victorian style lamp posts and tops, 3 sizes.
Tops fit original posts. Catteral & Wood Ltd Tel. 01257 272192
M MARTIN HOBSON, advertising and commercial photography. For the best in the North
West. Tel. Rochdale 01706 648737
N JOHN HAWORTH TELEVISION specialist dealers in quality television-video equipment.
Competitive rates, free delivery-installation. 14abc Knowle Avenue, Blackpool Tel. 0800 0255445
O ABBEY EYEWEAR Designer spectacles with huge savings. Within grounds of Whalley
Abbey, Whalley Tel. 01254 822062
P MALCOLM ECKTON Wedding and portrait photography. Treat someone special to a
Hollywood make-over and portrait session. Ideal Christmas present. Malcolm Eckton,
Studio, 18 Berry Lane, Longridge. Tel. 01772 786688

TTaasskk 77
You are going to read a text taken from an instruction manual. Parts of the text
are mixed. Match the instructions (A-H) with the pictures (1-6). There is one extra
part that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the boxes after the text.
There is an example at the beginning (0).
PHILIPS Sandwich Maker
A Open the sandwich maker after 2-3 minutes and check whether the toasted sandwich is
sufficiently “brown”. The cooking time required to obtain crisp brown sandwiches depends on
the type of bread, fillings and your personal taste. Use a non-metallic utensil (e.g. wooden
spatula) to remove the toasted sandwich from the sandwich maker. Do not use sharp or
abrasive kitchen utensils.
B Unplug the sandwich maker and let it cool down before cleaning. Clean the baking plates
with a damp cloth or sponge. Avoid water running into the appliance. Never immerse the
appliance into water.
C Prepare the ingredients for your toasted sandwich. For each sandwich you need two slices
of bread and a suitable filling. You can refer to the suggested recipes. To obtain an even
golden brown result, you can slightly butter the side of the bread in contact with the plate.
Lay the slices of bread with the buttered side on the lower cooking plate, place your filling
and cover with the second slices of bread with buttered sides up. You can toast only one
sandwich if you wish. For optimal result, fillings should be placed well within the sandwich
slices.
D The sandwich maker has a cord storage feature on the base of the appliance.
E The appliance can be stored in a vertical position.
F Remove the wooden spatula from its protective covering. Heat up the hotplates slightly.
Rub the stick into the dirty areas.
G Plug in the sandwich maker and heat up the plates until the green Ready To Cook pilot
light goes off. The sandwich maker is ready for use.
H Lower the upper cooking plate carefully onto the bread until the sandwich maker is tightly
clamped.
Manual for a PHILIPS sandwichmaker

0 1 2 3 4 5 6
G
0 1 2
3 4 5
6
Score: 6 points

TTaasskk 88
You are going to read the first part of a newspaper article about gorillas in
Uganda. Choose the most suitable heading from the list A - H for each part (1 - 6)
of the article. There is one extra heading that you do not need to use. There is one
example at the beginning (0). Write your answers in the boxes after the text.
Gorillas in Uganda’s mist
(0)
BLACK furry face stared out
through the branches. Wide-
eyed innocence tinged with
mischief. After an hour and a half of
hacking through forest, I was face to face
with the mountain gorillas of Uganda.
For 25 minutes I gazed, transfixed, hardly
daring to breathe as two youngsters
played out their daily lives, seemingly
oblivious to the wonder-struck intruder.
(1)
Bwindi Impenetrable Forest, in the
south-west, hides a remarkable secret.
Designated a National Park in 1991, this
magical, mist-shrouded area is home to
roughly 300 mountain gorillas – half the
world’s population.
(2)
They are split into 23 groups, two of
which are now habituated to human
presence. The Mbare troop consists of 13
animals. The group was named after the
hill – the word means rock in the local
dialect – on which they were first
spotted.
(3)
Six females and six young are led by
the silverback male Ruhondezh – literally
one who sleeps a lot. Ruhondezh, his
back seemingly as wide as a bus, was
magnificent. And it was clear that food,
rather than sleep, was on his mind as we
watched.
(4)
One minute, he munched contentedly
on the vegetation while members of his
family played in the branches above. The
next, displaying his 8ft reach, he brought
a huge branch crashing down to provide
more sustenance.
(5)
Being so close to such impressive wild
animals brings all your senses to life. In
our passive, modern world, it is all too
easy to lose touch with these primeval
feelings. But in the heart of Africa,
crouching just 15ft away, basic instincts
rule. I felt a tremendous privilege at being
allowed to share, even for a brief time, the
lives of these gentle animals, which are on
the edge of extinction.
(6)
To ensure their survival, the local
people must feel there is some worth in
keeping the gorillas. To such an end, the
park authorities are currently engaged in
revenue sharing. A percentage of the
money raised from allowing tourists to
view the gorillas is ploughed back into
the community. In this way, it is hoped
the gorillas will be seen as a source of
income to be protected. But even so, the
long-term survival of one of man’s closest
relatives hangs by a thread. Poaching is
still one of the biggest dangers.
Daily Express
A

A How the gorilla population is organised
B Meeting the gorillas
C The leader of the group
D The location
E Appreciation of a unique experience
F The gorillas’ reaction to seeing the author
G What is done to protect the gorillas
H What the leader of the group did
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
B
Score: 6 points
Answer Key: Page 000Answer Key: Page 280

TTaasskk 99
You are going to read an interview with an actor, J. Northam. The interviewer’s
questions have been mixed up. Match the questions (A-H) below to the answers
(1-6) on the opposite page. There is one extra question which you do not need to
use. Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
1minute in the mind of Jeremy Northam
The interviewer’s questions
A How do you relax?
B You’ve been mentioned as a possible James Bond. Are you tempted?
C What have you been up to lately?
D Are you single?
E Your favourite food?
F Ever been tempted to move to LA?
G Come on now, you are a sex symbol, aren’t you?
H Know any good party tricks?

0
Well, I’m not married so I’d have to say
nil out of 10 so far, although ironically, a
lot of my characters recently have been a
good husband material – Mr. Knightly in
Emma, Sir Robert Chiltern in An Ideal
Husband. But my latest character, Prince
Amerigo isn’t – he marries for money
and has an affair, but he tries to do the
right thing by learning to love his wife.
1
Unpacking boxes. I’ve just moved from
Finsbury to Marylebone, so I’ve been
rediscovering all my books and old plays
as I fill up my shelves. I’m very fond of
the area. It has an ironmonger’s that’s
been there since 1874 and a wet fish shop,
quaint little places that give Marylebone
a real village atmosphere.
2
Never. I’ve enjoyed working in
Hollywood, but I always feel a long way
from home when I’m there. I don’t mean
that in a homesick sense, I just wouldn’t
like to live somewhere where the
industry is so central to people’s lives.
The movies are all about fiction – I like to
have some ordinary reality around me.
3
No. But when I was a drama student in
Bristol I used to sing upstairs at a
Renato’s. It’s a late-night bar near the
docks where all the actors hang out. I
used to be foolish enough to think I could
carry a tune. The management didn't
mind – they’d always ask me for a song
when they wanted to clear everyone out.
4
I’ve got a little place in Norfolk so I tend
to head up there. I like ordinary things
like going to the cinema, cooking and
entertaining. I go to a gym in Belsize Park
to keep fit and I enjoy jogging in Regent’s
Park when I have free time.
5
I don’t know where these rumours come
from, but I find them terribly amusing.
I’m very flattered by the fact that people
usually equate me with that role, but it’s
a fantastical idea that I can never imagine
happening.
6
When I hear that, I look into the mirror
and laugh hysterically. It makes me feel
like a complete impostor.
The Independent on Sunday
00 11 22 33 44 55 66
D
SSccoorree:: 66 ppooiinnttss

TTaasskk 1100
You are going to read a magazine interview about sharks. The questions are
missing from the interview and are given before the text. Choose the best question
from the list (A-H) for each part (1-6) of the interview. There is one extra question
that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the boxes. There is an example
at the beginning (0).
A Have you ever gone down to watch sharks without a cage?
B Do sharks need to be protected?
C Why do sharks sometimes attempt to hurt people? Are they looking for food?
D Do you ever get nervous?
E You’ve spent a lot of time with sharks. What has been your favourite experience?
F Do you always watch sharks alone?
G What have scientists learned about sharks?
H Do you use a shark cage for protection when you’re in the water with the sharks?
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
G

Swimming With SHARKS
(0)
We’ve learned that sharks aren’t dumb
eating machines. They have good
memories, they learn very quickly and
they can make associations. If they
associate an object with food, they’ll
come towards it and test it in their
mouths.
(1)
A shark attack is a sign that something
unusual has happened. It’s like going
into the backyard of a big dog. If the dog
comes over and grabs your leg and bites
you, he is not trying to eat you. He is
trying to tell you something – maybe
‘Get out of the yard’ or ‘You are
bothering me.’ That’s true for sharks too.
In most cases when they attack, they
take a bite and let go.
(2)
When I was in Australia studying white
sharks, we set out food because
otherwise we’d be there for months
without seeing a single shark. When it
was time to get up close to the sharks, I
used a cage – so that they didn’t mistake
me for food!
(3)
I’ve looked at hammerheads and many
other sharks without being in a shark
cage and they don’t bother me. I don’t
do anything that might attract a large
shark – like spearing a fish. If you know
how to act in the water, you’re usually
safe.
(4)
No. When you spend a lot of time with
sharks you find out that the hardest thing
is stopping them from swimming away
from you! Even big sharks will
disappear. When people ask me, ‘What
should I do when I see a shark
underwater?’, I tell them, ‘Relax – just
enjoy the view.’
(5)
More people are eating sharks and they
are doing terrible things to get them. To
get shark fins for shark soup, sharks are
hunted down. Their fins are cut off and
they are put back in the water. That’s a
terrible way to leave an animal to die.
(6)
It was the first time I rode a full-grown
whale shark. They’re very docile – and
very fast! I hung on to its dorsal fin and
had a ride around the sea that I’ll never
forget.
OWL Magazine
Score: 6 points

TTaasskk 1111
You are going to read an interview with the principal of a Canadian secondary
school. The interviewer’s questions have been mixed up. Match the questions
(A-K) below to the answers (1-9) on the opposite page. There is one extra question
which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the boxes after the questions.
TALKING HEADS
The interwiever's questions:
A How would you like to be remembered?
B Who or what most influenced your approach?
C If you were Minister of Education ...?
D Did you always want to be a head?
E How would you describe your style of headship?
F What do you enjoy about your job?
G What keeps you sane?
H What do you not enjoy?
I How effective or useful is your school board?
J What differed from your expectations?
K What are the most important aspects of a head’s job?
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
E
Score: 9 points

Talking Heads
0
Collaborative, a good listener, but also firm.
Some decisions I make myself but I explain
why. I tell staff everything through our weekly
staff bulletin. Staff meetings are for
professional development not admin.
I allow teachers a lot of independence but
have clear expectations. I involve kids a lot in
what I do and believe in organising the
curriculum around them.
1
Being honest, fair and firm. If you do not
have that integrity teachers will not respect
you and be willing to change. It is important
to have good relations with the unions. A lot
of staff use that as a touchstone.
2
The contact with people and the ability to
make my own decisions. I enjoy the
interaction with kids and the variety.
3
The amount of criticism and misinformation
about education. Schools are blamed for
every ill of society. Plus the paperwork, lack
of funding and political interference.
4
Being at Countersthrope with Michael
Armstrong, who was my head of
department. Ken Leithwood’s work on
planned changed. The principal’s course I
did and my work on effective leadership.
Andy Hargreaves, who moved here from
the UK. He is refreshing and non-aligned.
Plus working with others and seeing the
way to and not to do things.
5
I work for the Peel Board, the largest public
school board in Canada. It is excellent. The
board has instigated a process called School
Success Planning, which is teacher / parent /
student data based in a collaborative context.
Each school has a plan.
6
I could not believe the deference and how
important people thought you were just
because you were principal. It astounded me.
I am protected by secretarial staff and people
do things for me. As a principal you must
never underestimate the impact you have.
People watch your every move.
7
I have an active young family and a partner
who understands my job. Humour, good
people to work and laugh with.
Remembering that there is another world out
there and getting away from it all, especially
in summer.
8
I would listen to teachers, be consultative and
collaborative, and reinstate kindergartens.
9
For kids to think that I was someone that had
made a difference for them.
The Times Educational Supplement

TTaasskk 1122
You are going to read part of a magazine article about how to keep cats. The first
sentence of each paragraph is missing. Match the missing sentences (A-J) with the
paragraphs (1-7). There are two extra sentences that you do not need to use.
Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There is one example (0) at the
beginning.
8 WAYS TO KEEP KITTY CONTENT
OU pamper your precious kitty
with the best food, drink and
healthcare, so why not also cater
to the complex feline’s mind?
Take a meow-ment to consider your
furball’s emotional well-being and check
out these tips for a happy cat:
x (0) ___ Rotate toys every few weeks to
keep your fluffy friend’s interest.
Remember, kitties’ favorites are
freebies – an empty carton, empty
brown paper bag or a tinfoil ball, all top
most tabbies’ hit parade.
x (1) ___ Yes, there’s nothing more
huggable than a kitty napping, which
they do 16 hours a day, but resist the
urge to fondle your snoozing feline.
x (2) ___ Cats know when they’re being
sung to, and they often “meow” in
appreciation. Or, maybe they just want
to join in!
x (3) ___ Place the litter box in a quiet
area of your home, off the beaten path.
x (4) ___ If you’ll be gone a day or
longer, call in and have someone put the
receiver to kitty’s ear. Guaranteed, the
puss’s eyes will light up! No one home?
Turn up the volume on the answering
machine so you can call in and talk your
heart out.
x (5) ___ Toys that involve both you and
your pet are best. Try this: Glue feathers
at the end of a long stick or pole and
wave it at kitty, teasing the furball to
bob, weave and leap.
x (6) ___ Show kitty the world safely –
and get great exercise for the two of you
– by walking her in a cat-designed
harness or leash. Believe it or not, cats
can be trained to do this and often enjoy
it!
x (7) ___ New pet in the household?
Lavish as much attention as you can on
kitty to assure your love for others does
not come at her expense.
National Examiner
Y

A Phone home.
B Let sleeping cats sleep.
C Go interactive.
D Walk on the wild side.
E Banish boredom.
F Feed your kitty well.
G Serenade your sweetie.
H Show she’ll always be your baby!
I Turn on the tube.
J Give privacy, please!
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
E
Score: 7 points

TTaasskk 1133
You are going to read film and theatrical reviews. Match the summary sentences
(A-I) with the reviews (1-7) below. There is one extra summary sentence which
you do not need to use. Write your answers in the boxes. There is an example at
the beginning (0).
Film and theatre
(0) The story of the vampire Baron Meinster,
who is kept chained by his mother to
prevent him terrorising local villagers. All
hell breaks loose when he is unwittingly
freed.
(1) Laurence is an overworked estate agent
under pressure from both his job and his
wife, Beverly. They are holding a small
drinks party at their plush home, for
neighbour Sue and newcomers Tony and
Angela. At first, goodwill, clichés and small
talk abound, but as the drinks flow freely,
we begin to see the conflicts and hatred
that lie just beneath the surface.
(2) Alan Strang loves horses — so why has he
been convicted of mutilating six horses at
the local stables? ‘He has the strangest
stare I ever met ... It’s exactly like being
accused. Violently accused. But what of? ...
Treating him is going to be unsettling.’ Dr
Dysart unravels the mysteries that shroud
Alan’s behaviour, he is forced to examine
his own beliefs and the intense bond that
connects him to his disturbed young
patient.
(3) When a gang robbery doesn’t meet
expectations, violence breaks out in the
struggle for the spoils. A traitor is
exposed in their ranks and it becomes a
race against time and the law for the
villains to find out who he is and recover
their money.
(4) Meet Generation X heroes, Holden and
Banky. When Holden meets Alyssa at a
comic book convention, it’s love at first
sight. A setback comes when he discovers
that she is gay and, as his love grows,
desperation takes over.
(5) Will poor Cinderella ever meet the man
of her dreams? Will her evil step mother,
and her two ugly daughters stop Cinders
going to the ball? ... This is a new upbeat,
updated Cinderella, combining the magic
and slapstick of traditional panto with
furious comedy and classic songs.
(6) As the skies ignite on the 4th July with
never-before-seen phenomena, thirty
spaceships menacingly hover over the
world’s largest capital cities, and the
countdown to destruction begins.
(7) A stylish, disturbing story about the
emotional devastation caused to a young
woman, newcomer Samantha Morton, by
her mother’s sudden death.
Theatr Clwyd — A Programme guide

A New romantic comedy from young director Kevin Smith.
B A thrilling summer movie with terrifying aliens, awe-inspiring action and spectacular
suspense and special effects.
C Gothic horror at its best, with a fast-moving script and stunning camerawork.
D Music, magic and mayhem in a high octane pantomime for all the family to enjoy.
E ‘The best British crime movie since The Long Good Friday ...’
F A psychological thriller – visually stunning and compelling.
G The story of a city that refused to give in through the experience of a tough-skinned
reporter.
H Mesmerising drama that delves into the turbulent depths of female experience.
I A glittering black comedy about the stresses of suburban life. A biting social satire on the
aspirational values which have come to replace compassion and truth in our lives.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
C
Score: 7 points

TTaasskk 1144
You are going to read a newspaper article about an unusual trip. Choose the best
heading from the list (A-J) for each part (1-7) of the text and write its letter in the
box. There are two extra headings that you do not need to use. There is one
example (0) at the beginning.
A Hoping to be famous
B Reasons for the journey
C Brave decision
D Unexpected accident
E The last stop
F Making the trip cheaper
G Means of transport
H Choosing the time
I A wonder of nature
J Places to see
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
C
Score: 8 points

110,000 km of open road ahead
(0)
UNDAUNTED by the sizeable gaps
between the earth’s continents, a
Hungarian couple is planning an
around-the-world trip in a Toyota truck.
(1)
Eszter and János Handó, both
managers at multinational companies,
set out for the big trip on May 20th from
H sök tere, but the real adventure will
start in Iceland, the official starting point
for the journey.
‘We picked Iceland because it is such
an unreal place with its volcanic
activities. I just had to see it and show it
to my wife,’ János said.
(2)
‘We want to travel and see the world,
and meet other cultures, people and
languages,’ he said.
They are not attempting to break
records, though the trip is certainly an
unusual one.
(3)
From Iceland, the journey will
continue in north America and then lead
south all the way to Chile.
The Handós will take a ship to New
Zealand and from there explore
Australia, Southeast Asia, China and
Japan.
The trip will take in India, Tibet and
Nepal as well.
After motoring around the Saudi
peninsula, they will go to Egypt.
(4)
The final destination for the journey
will be Cyprus, which the Handós hope
to reach by the end of June next year. The
journey will cover approximately 110,000
kilometres.
(5)
The car, which will also serve as their
bed and pantry, is a Toyota Hilux 2.4TD
four-wheel-drive jeep.
Although there is a bed on top of the
car, János said he did not intend to spend
all nights up there.
(6)
‘One of the reasons why the planning
of the trip took so long was that we had
to find acquaintances all over the world
who would accommodate us for a night
or two,’ he said.
‘This made the expenses a lot lower,’
he added, saying that they are funding
the journey out of their own pockets.
(7)
The year-and-a-half trip has been
scheduled for now because Eszter, 28, and
János, 29, plan a big family with three
children.
‘This is our last chance to do this
journey with just the two of us,’ János said.
The Budapest Sun

TTaasskk 1155
You are going to read a magazine article about famous people’s weddings. Choose
the best heading from the list (A-L) for each paragraph (1-9) in the text and write
its letter in the box. There are two extra headings that you do not need to use.
There is one example (0) at the beginning.
A Short marriage
B Decision takes time
C Worth getting married in hard times
D Impatient couple
E Surprise underneath
F Unexpected ‘No’
G Disastrous start
H Unprepared
I No extravagance
J A little cheating
K A busy day
L Impatient relative
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
D
Score: 9 points

THE WAY THEY WED
The clothes they wore, the words they said – for these
celebrity matchups, love was in the details
(0)
So eager were Mia Farrow and Frank
Sinatra to tie the knot in ‘66, they raced
through their vows in four minutes flat.
(1)
Napoleon would always be shorter than
Josephine. But in 1796 the pair lied about
their ages on wedding documents,
adding two years to his and subtracting
four from hers to even them up at 28.
(2)
Michelle Phillips and Dennis Hopper
quickly recognized the error of their
pledge: They split eight days after their
1970 ceremony.
(3)
When Groucho Marx wed Eden
Hartford, 40 years his junior, the 1954 ce-
remony was so impromptu, the couple
didn’t even have a witness in tow. They
quickly recruited Marx’s 7-year-old
daughter, Melinda.
(4)
Excited to see mom Melanie Griffith
wed Antonio Banderas, 10-year-old
Alexander Bauer (from Griffith’s marri-
age to actor Steven Bauer) yelled, “You
may now kiss the bride!” before they
reached the end of the 1996 ceremony.
(5)
When a waiter told Lisa Rinna and
Harry Hamlin on their first date, “You’re
soul mates – you belong together!” they
were so unnerved, they didn’t go out
again for four months. More than four
years passed before they made it official
in 1997.
(6)
Though fast on the track, Florence
Griffith was in no rush to spend money.
To wed Al Joyner in 1987, she wore her
costume from the previous Halloween –
a $29 gown and a veil from Goodwill.
(7)
Everything came up rose at Marlee
Matlin’s 1993 nuptials when, to her
astonishment, husband Kevin Grundalski
and his groomsmen flashed the hot-pink
socks hidden beneath their black tuxedos.
(8)
How do you pick a present for a
princess? When Elizabeth wed Prince
Philip in 1947, well-wishers came up
with 1,500 gifts, including a pair of
nylons – scarce after the war – and a live
turkey.
(9)
It was water, water everywhere at
designer Anne Lowe’s Manhattan
workshop when a flood destroyed Jackie
Bouvier’s gown and some of her
bridesmaids’ dresses days before her
1953 marriage to Sen. John F. Kennedy.
The harried dressmaker worked till the
morning of the wedding to re-create the
frocks, but Jackie might have happily
chosen another: While she wanted a
modern look, JFK had pressed for a
traditional design.
People

TTaasskk 1166
You are going to read a newspaper article about an unpleasant experience.
Choose the most suitable heading from the list A-H for each part (1-6) of the
article. There is an extra heading that you do not need to use. There is an example
at the beginning (0). Write your answers in the boxes.
A A trick - will it fail ?
B An unexpected narrow escape
C Two approaches to public use of office buildings
D The best way to find shelter from the rain
E An Englishman’s home is his castle
F A sudden obstacle
G Possible short-cut ?
H One problem made worse by another
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
H
Score: 6 points

Caught out in the rain
(0)
I was caught out the other day in a
Manchester downpour (a much rarer
event than is generally supposed, as the
Met Office figures will readily confirm).
Troubles never coming singly, the street
down which I was hurrying to my
appointment turned out to be blocked by
some vast sewer reconstruction scheme. It
looked as though I had no alternative but
to retrace my steps and make a long
detour. And I was getting wetter by the
minute.
(1)
But suddenly salvation seemed at hand in
the shape of a large office building that
loomed up on my right hand side.
Glancing through what was clearly a rear
entrance, I could see across a wide lobby
and the front entrance to the street on the
far side – the very street I was trying to get
to. There was something to be said for
these new “prestige” office developments
after all.
(2)
But not much. Completely blocking my
path as I stepped through the swing doors
into the lobby was a wide desk and behind
it a middle-aged woman with a steely
expression. “Can I help you, sir?” she said
in a voice which suggested that that was
the very last thing on her mind and that
she knew very well what I was up to
because I was the fiftieth person to use her
lobby as a rat run that morning.
(3)
Now I may have been completely wrong
in crediting her with such prescience but
what followed suggests otherwise. “I have
an appointment with Mr Henderson”, I
lied. “I think he’s on the first floor.” I
waved my hand in the direction of the
staircase and started off towards it. “Just a
minute. I don’t think we have a Mr
Henderson.” Without removing her eyes
from my face for a second she picked up a
house phone. “I’ll ask Personnel,” she said.
(4)
I was saved by the bell – the one on the
phone on an adjoining desk. Putting down
her own, she leaned over to answer it. Her
eagle eye was off me and I was off
towards the stairs and then to the door
beyond and out into the street and the
Manchester rain.
(5)
Let me be the first to say that that was a
pretty silly way for a grown-up man to
behave and it reflects no credit on me at
all. But neither does it reflect any credit on
those who administer ordinary commer-
cial office buildings as though they housed
both MI5 and 6 with the crown jewels
lodged temporarily in the basement. In
America such places are generally
regarded as being in the public domain,
with newspaper stands and snack bars. It
may be hard on the flooring but most
owners consider this easily outweighed by
the good that accrues to the corporate
image.
(6)
Here in Britain, I suppose, it’s just the “Get
off my land” attitude transferred from a
rural to an urban setting. But it’s sad to see
this atavistic approach surviving even
against its practitioner’s own interests.
The Guardian Weekly

Chapter 5
Matching sentences to gaps in text
In this test method, you have to read a text from which sentences or, sometimes,
short paragraphs, have been removed. The missing sentences are arranged in a
jumbled order after the text, and your task is to reconstruct the text by selecting
from a list of several options the right sentence to fill each gap in the text. The
gaps in the text are numbered, while the choices given after the text are marked
with letters. Note that, among the choices, there is always one extra sentence,
which does not fit in any of the gaps.
This method tests your ability to see how a text is structured, and how it
makes sense through its references backwards and forwards, as you will see
in the explanations below.
In order to complete the task successfully, you will first need to have a
general idea of what the passage is about, so a quick reading of the gapped
text, without worrying about unknown words, is the first thing to do. While
skimming through the text, try to note what information is given about the
topic in each paragraph of the text, how the main ideas develop from
paragraph to paragraph, and what you expect to come in the gaps. Then,
you should look at each of the sentences in turn, and begin to match
information in the sentences to information in different sections of the
text, thinking about which sentence might come where.
However, you need now to read the text very carefully, because there are
clues in the passage both before and after each gap. The development of
ideas can be seen in different lexical and grammatical relations between
sentences and paragraphs of the text and, therefore, you should pay
careful attention to both lexical words and phrases, and grammatical
structures that may indicate such relations in the text. Thus, for example,
the repetition of certain nouns or adjectives, the use of synonym words
and phrases, the use of one verb tense rather than another, the use of
reference words, like personal pronouns (referring to either people or
things), demonstratives (this, those) possessives (its, their), relative
pronouns (who, that, which) temporal markers (when or while), adverbs of
frequency (often, never), of place (here, there), logical connectors (besides,
however), or other linking words indicating contrasts (but, while), or
reasons (because, since) – all might help you to see how information in the
text is organized, and decide which sentence fits where in the text.

As with other task types, you are strongly advised to read the example (0), along
with the title of the text.
Now you should try to do the Sample Task the Founding of Philadelphia.

79Chapter 5 Matching sentences to gaps in text

You are going to read a text about the founding of a city. Some sentences are
missing from the text. Choose from the list (A-G) the most appropriate sentence
for each gap (1-5) in the text. There is one extra sentence that you do not need to
beginning (0).
THE FOUNDING OF PHILADELPHIA
The woodlands were alive with color when William Penn arrived for the first time, in
1682. It was late October, still the best time of the year in the Northeast. But he wasn’t there to
admire the countryside. (0) ______ He had already given it a name, of course. It was the same
name as that of one of the early Christian cities in Asia Minor which, when translated, means
“City of Brotherly Love”. (1) ______ Penn borrowed the name from them because it suited
perfectly the ideal community he had in mind.
The spot he picked, on the banks of the Delaware River, had a small harbor and a beach.
(2) ______ What he wanted, he said, was a “green country town”.
In his travels he had seen the great cities of Europe and hadn’t always liked what he saw.
(3) ______ His new city would have a plan for growth and that, he was convinced, would make
it one of the great cities of the world.
For openers, he ordered that Philadelphia would have no crooked streets. (4) ______ He
told his surveyors that he also wanted the roads to lead out of the city, so that it would be
convenient to reach other cities yet unbuilt. (5) ______ He specified that no houses could be
built within 200 paces of the harbor so there would be plenty of room for a future commercial
center, and he asked that home builders center their structures on building lots “…so there may
be ground on each side for gardens, orchards or field, that it may be a green country town which
will never be burnt and will always be wholesome.”
Harris: Pennsylvania

A They would all be straight and wide, and they would all lead to the river.
B It had been taken by a religious group in England, whose beliefs were similar to those of
the Quakers, for an ideal community they had hoped to establish.
C He pointed out that new streets would eventually have to be added and ordered that space
be left for them before any land was sold for building.
D Before arriving in America, Penn sent a letter to the Indians which he ended “I am your
loving friend.”
E The land around it was high enough to provide a perfect place for a city and William Penn
had a perfect city in mind.
F There was work to be done; not least finding the right spot for the city that would be the
centerpiece of his new colony.
G He was also well aware of the cities that had already been established in the New World
and knew they were growing without a plan.
0 1 2 3 4 5
F
Score: 5 points

Answer Key to Sample Task: The founding of Philadelphia
0 1 2 3 4 5
F B E G A C
The example here is useful, because it begins to show you how the passage is
being structured. The third sentence in the passage tells you what William Penn
was not going to do, and so you can expect that the next sentence (F) will be
about what he WAS there to do, and sure enough, the example tells us that
there was work to be done, not simply admiring the countryside. The example
also sets the theme for the passage: building a new city.
Item 1: The sentence before item 1 is about the origin of the name of the city,
and the sentence following the gap is also about the name, so the sentence to
be fitted in must refer to a name. Sentence B begins with a pronoun “it” which
could refer to “the name” (Notice that Sentence A begins with a plural pronoun
“they” and so that could not fit in.) Also, Sentence B refers to a religious group
– which links with the phrase before the gap “early Christian cities”, and the
sentence after the gap refers to “them”, which could be the same people as the
“they” in Sentence B. Sentence B thus fits perfectly into this gap.
Item 2: The sentence before item 2 is about ”the spot he picked”, and a “harbor”
and “beach” are mentioned. In Sentence E, there is mention of an “it”, which
could refer to “the spot” or even to “the beach”. Also the use of the word “land”
in Sentence E is linked to the words “spot”, “harbour” and “beach” – all aspects
of “land”. The sentence after the gap refers to “a green country town”, which is
linked to Penn's idea, mentioned in Sentence E, of “a perfect city”.
Item 3: The sentence before item 3 refers to cities which Penn did not like, and
the sentence after the gap refers to a “plan for growth”. Thus Sentence G looks
like a good candidate for this gap, because it mentions the word “plan” and,
implicitly, the need for planned growth.
Item 4: The sentence before item 4 ends with mention of “streets”, and Sentence
A begins with a plural pronoun, which could refer to streets. Sentence A also
mentions the need for “straight and wide” somethings – an obvious contrast to
the “crooked streets” of the sentence before gap 4 .
Item 5: The sentence after item 5 talks about the need for space around the
harbour (“no houses could be built within 200 paces of the harbor”), which
links to the second half of Sentence C, which talks about space having to be
left. Thus the idea of Sentence C fits into the meaning of the sentences that
follow gap 5.

TTaasskk 1177
You are going to read a magazine article about pandas. Some sentences are
missing from the text. Choose the best sentence (A-G) for each gap (1-5) in the
article and write its letter in the box. There is one extra sentence that you do not
need to use. There is one example (0) at the beginning.
GIANT PANDA FACTS
Giant pandas are chubby mammals that
live in a few remote mountainous
regions in China. They have thick fur
with bright black-and-white markings.
(0) ____ The fur is water-repellent and
helps keep a panda warm and dry in
cold, wet weather.
(1) ____ Sometimes pandas eat other
types of plants and occasionally they eat
small mammals. But pandas usually eat
only the stems, twigs, leaves, and fresh
young shoots of the different types of
bamboo. They especially like the tender
shoots of young bamboo plants.
(2) ____ Full-grown pandas are close to
1.5 m tall when standing up and some
grow as tall as 1.7 m. Males and females
look alike, but females are a bit smaller
than the males.
Pandas usually live alone. Each panda
lives in an area that’s about one or two
miles (1.5 to 3 km) in diameter. (3) ____
In the spring, pandas search for a mate.
They mark their territories with special
scent glands to let other pandas know
they are ready to mate. Once pandas
mate, they separate and the females
raise the young alone.
A new-born panda is only about the
size of a hamster and weighs about 100
grams. (4) ____ And they have only a
thin covering of hair. It takes a few
weeks for the typical black-and-white
markings to appear.
(5) ____ They learn how to find food,
climb trees, and stay away from
enemies.
Ranger Rick’s Nature Scope

A Some pandas live as long as 30 years and weigh as much as 117 kg.
B Pandas are plant eaters and they feed mainly on a plant called bamboo.
C In stormy weather, they sometimes try to find a cave or some other type of shelter.
D Pandas are born without teeth and with their eyes closed.
E Young pandas stay with their mothers for about a year and a half.
F A panda’s coat acts like a thick winter raincoat.
G Although pandas will share part of their territory with other pandas, they don’t usually get
too close to each other.
0 1 2 3 4 5
F
Score: 5 points

TTaasskk 1188
You are going to read a magazine article about London. Some sentences have
been removed from the text. Choose the most suitable sentence from the list (A-I)
for each gap (1-7) in the text. There is one extra sentence which you do not need
to use. Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
LONDON ON A ROLL
London manages to preserve the past
while reinventing itself for the future
THE WHOLE WORLD lives in London. Walk down Oxford Street and you will see
Indians and Colombians, Bangladeshis and Ethiopians, Pakistanis and Russians, Melanesians and
Malaysians. (0) .......... . It is estimated that by 2010 the population will be almost 30 percent
ethnic minorities, the majority born in the U.K. (1) .......... .
Annas Ali, a 17-year-old Londoner of Bangladeshi descent, feels deeply rooted in the
British society. (2) .......... . The neighborhood is called Bangla Town. Union Jacks fluttered next
to the green-and-red flag of Bangladesh. Indian music echoed off Victorian brick houses. “I was
born at Mile End hospital a half mile away and grew up in Hunton Street. My father had a
restaurant there.”
(3) .......... . In the 1600s French Huguenots built a church on the corner of Fournier Street
and Brick Lane. Later it became a Methodist chapel. In the 1890s it was converted into a
synagogue. (4) .......... . Bangla Town has also had a recent influx from the world of fashion, art,
and pop culture. Jarvis Cocker, the lead singer of Pulp, lives nearby. So does Chris Ofili, the
young artist of Nigerian descent whose painting “The Holy Virgin Mary,” depicting a black
Madonna embellished with elephant dung, caused a firestorm of controversy at the Brooklin
Museum of Art last year. (5) .......... . The result is a fusion of cultures unique in London.
Annas himself is eclectic. With his dark skin, raven black hair, and lustrous brown eyes,
he reminded me of Mowgli in the Jungle Book. (6) .......... . He is a devout Muslim, an Asian
Londoner who talks Cockney English. The gold rings on his fingers were from India, his stylish,
midnight blue cardigan – “pure wool,” he told me proudly – from Prohibito, a clothes shop on
Oxford Street popular among teenagers. (7) .......... . “I want to go to the London School of
Fashion.”
National Geographic Magazine

A Today it is used by Annas and other Bangladeshis as a mosque.
B “I have been here all my life,” he told me, as we dodged our way through the festive
crowds filling Brick Lane in the East End for Baishaki Mela, the Bangladeshi New Year.
C Most of these Londoners are the children and in some cases the grandchildren of the
many thousands who came here from the Caribbean and the Indian subcontinent during
the fifties and sixties, after the British Empire imploded.
D “I want to go into fashion,” he said.
E As if clocking the minutes of a new age, the world’s largest observation wheel now spins
on the wrist of the Thames.
F But his hair was cut in the latest London style: short in back, long and slicked back with
gel at the front.
G Bangla Town has seen centuries of immigration.
H Fifty nationalities with communities of more than 5,000 make their home in the city, and
on any given day 300 languages are spoken.
I Alexander McQueen, the fashion designer, has his workshop on Rivington Street.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
H
Score: 7 points

TTaasskk 1199
You are going to read a story about four friends. Eight sentences have been
removed from the text. Choose from the sentences (A—I) the one which fits each
gap (1-7). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. Write your
answers in the boxes after the text. There is one example at the beginning (0).
‘Being wet got us a train ban’
Jo Talbot and her three friends, all 13,
expected the summer holiday to end with a
bang — not a ban ...
‘My three friends Jo Cole, Sara, Nicola and
I all live in a small village outside
Southampton. Last August we took the train
into the city to go shopping for clothes one
last time before starting the new term.
We got into Southampton at about 10 am.
(0) _____ No-one wanted the summer
holidays to end, but it was as good a way as
any to give them a send-off.
(1) _____ We weren’t far from the station
when the sky went black and there was a huge
clap of thunder. We all shrieked and ran for
cover, but the rain came down so hard it was
like standing in a power shower. (2) _____
When we got to the station a train was
waiting to leave, so I asked a guard if it was
the one going to our local station. He looked
at us and said, ‘It is — but you’re too wet to
get on.’ (3) _____
We were really fed up as we watched all the
other passengers pull away, warm and dry. I
couldn’t believe they’d all avoided the rain, and
got the feeling we were being picked on
because we were kids. (4) _____
We sat around freezing cold, until the next
train came along but strangely, we had no
problem getting on that one. (5) _____
When I told my mum what had happened
she was storming mad, and rang up South
West Trains to ask them if they’d have treated
an adult the same way. (6) _____ Customer
services rang back later to say that the guard
had been taken off duty while the company
held an investigation.
It may not sound that bad, but the whole
thing really spoiled our day. (7) _____’
Just Seventeen

A We’d have been happy to stand if they were worried we’d wreck the seats, but now we
had to wait half an hour without even enough money for a cup of tea.
B All my mates’ mums wrote to the train company, asking if the same thing would have
happened late at night, when we might have been put in real danger.
C We were only caught in it for a minute but we were drenched – and were only wearing
flimsy T-shirts and sweatshirts.
D My friends and I were too shocked to argue, so we just let the train leave the station.
E One thing is for sure, though, we’re all taking umbrellas next time we go shopping.
F Eventually we wandered back to catch the 2 pm train home.
G We’d just got on the motorway when the car began to make a loud cracking noise.
H On the journey back, I could hardly stop shaking with cold, and when I got back home I
got straight into the bath to warm up.
I We tramped around the shops buying loads of stuff and then went for a burger.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
I
Score: 7 points

TTaasskk 2200
You are going to read a text from The Guide to the Grand Canyon National Park.
The first sentence of each paragraph is missing. Match the missing sentences (A-J)
with the paragraphs (1-8). Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There is
one extra sentence that you do not need to use. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
Tips for a Safe Visit
To help make your visit to Grand Canyon safe and
enjoyable, here are a few tips from the National Park
Service.
(0) _____ Your hand and voice may be too far away
once your child has climbed over a barrier or wall.
(1) _____ Do not feed, touch, or disturb animals in the
park. Rodents may bite and large animals have been
known to kick when startled.
(2) _____ Use caution when walking near the canyon
rim and driving in the Park, especially in rainy or
snowy conditions.
(3) _____ Elevation on the South Rim is 7,000 feet
(2,134 meters) above sea level. People with heart and
respiratory problems should be especially cautious
about over exertion.
(4) _____ Remove all valuables from your car and
truck. Immediately report any suspicious activity to a
ranger. Thieves work quickly.
(5) _____ They are allowed on paved rim trails but not
below the rim. The only exception is guide dogs for
people who are blind or deaf.
(6) _____ Helmets are strongly recommended, and
headlights and reflectors are required at night.
(7) _____ Violators will be cited and fined, and their
bicycles confiscated.
(8) _____ Grand Canyon National Park is fully
protected by federal law to preserve it for future
generations. Do not disturb or remove any natural or
cultural feature, including fossils, rocks, plants,
animals, and artifacts.
The Guide To The Grand Canyon National Park

A They would all be straight and wide, and they would all lead to the river.
B It had been taken by a religious group in England, whose beliefs were similar to those of
the Quakers, for an ideal community they had hoped to establish.
C He pointed out that new streets would eventually have to be added and ordered that space
be left for them before any land was sold for building.
D Before arriving in America, Penn sent a letter to the Indians which he ended “I am your
loving friend.”
E The land around it was high enough to provide a perfect place for a city and William Penn
had a perfect city in mind.
F There was work to be done; not least finding the right spot for the city that would be the
centerpiece of his new colony.
G He was also well aware of the cities that had already been established in the New World
and knew they were growing without a plan.
0 1 2 3 4 5
F
Score: 5 points

TTaasskk 2211
You are going to read the first part of a newspaper article about the Finnish
custom of taking a sauna. Some sentences have been removed from the text.
Choose from the list (A-K) the most appropriate sentence to fill each gap (1-9) in
the text. There is one extra sentence that you do not need to use. Write your
answers in the boxes after the text. There is an example at the beginning (0).
The naked and the red
Every Finnish household owns a
sauna. Simon Kuper thought he’d
be left cold, but he was wrong
Soon after I arrived in Helsinki, my friend
Mika invited me to a sauna at his parents’
house just outside town. (0) ........ It being a
social event in Finland, we drank beer.
‘I’m sorry that our beach is so small,’
said Mrs Lipponen, who must have been
about 60, but looked much younger. (1)
........ Mr Lipponen, Mika and I stripped
naked and walked across the garden to their
150-year-old sauna, where we sat side by
side on a wooden ledge. Occasionally we
talked. Sometimes we just sat. (2) ........
After eight minutes, feeling like a lobster, I
asked Mr Lipponen how long one should
stay in the sauna.
‘As long as you want,’ he said. Becoming
quite garrulous, he added: ‘(3) ........’
I explained that I was feeling quite warm.
‘Britons’, he nodded, ‘are the worst sauna-
takers.’
But being a kind man and I being his
son’s business partner, he suggested that we
jump into the sea to cool down. (4) ........
Jumping into the sea in Finland in
autumn is a counterintuitive act, even if your
body has just been heated to record
temperatures. (5) ........
‘A bit of a shock,’ I said. ‘In winter,’ said
Mika, ‘we cut a hole in the ice and jump in.
That is more of a shock. But when you come
out your body tingles. It is addictive.’
(6) ........ Warm, even. But then we trudged
back to the porch to drink beer.
When friends came round, Mr Lipponen
explained, it was customary to invite them
to share a sauna. With close friends, the
sauna would be mixed-sex. However, he
had noticed that nudity embarrassed
foreigners. (7) ........
I thought the sauna was over, and was
gearing up to return to the office. Then,
however, we went back into the sauna.
(8) ........ The Finnish sauna, he explained, is
like a smorgasbord: you choose whatever
combination you want.
The beers, the swimming, the sauna went
on for what was probably two hours. It was
hard to tell. (9) ........ After our last spell in
the sauna, we washed with soap: the heat
opens your sweat pores so wide that you can
clean yourself thoroughly.
The Observer

A After 10 days in Helsinki, I felt as you do after a good sauna: it was the effect of being
surrounded by polite, calm people.
B Whatever is comfortable; it’s not about setting records.
C And indeed, seconds later I began to feel good.
D An African collegue of his had refused the offer of a sauna on the grounds that not even
his wife had ever seen him unclothed.
E As luck would have it, the large garden of their wooden, yellow house backed on to the
sea, so we sat on their beach in deckchairs eating rye bread with fresh salmon.
F The Finns believe in a right to remain silent: there is no compulsion to babble.
G We chilled for half an hour and then she left to cook an enormous meal of healthy food.
H Then we jumped into the sea again, except Mika, who chose to have another beer on the
porch instead.
I So we trooped down the back garden and plunged nude into the sea, watched incuriously
by the neighbours drinking beer on their porch.
J As I swam frantically in circles to avoid freezing to death, Mika asked how it felt.
K The repetitions meant I lost track of time, which is very relaxing.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
E
Score: 9 points

TTaasskk 2222
You are going to read a newspaper article about education. Some parts of the text
are missing. Choose the most appropriate part from the list (A-J) for each gap (1-
8) in the text. There is one extra part which you do not need to use. Write your
First lessons in verbal abuse
FAMILY LIFE Laurie Graham
I DON’T often get asked to
help with the homework
these days. My son can now
read Günter Grass in the
original, and he understands
M0, so he’s well out of my
class. Even my youngest
daughter’s maths means very
little to me.
I know the principles
haven’t changed, but the
names of things have.
(0) ........ . I don’t mind not
being asked. By evening, my
intellectual wick isn’t always
reaching the oil, and anyway
I have my own educational
agenda to pursue.
Last weekend, though, I
was called in for an emer-
gency: an acute case of
French incomprehension. It
will give you some measure
of the Junior Daughter’s des-
peration if I tell you she
delayed asking me until nine
o'clock at night. (1) ........ .
The homework was one of
those word puzzles: answers
to simple clues concealed
within a grid of letters. My
daughter’s problem was that
she couldn’t understand the
clues. Mine was that the
letters wouldn’t stand still.
We made a great team.
Once I was in focus I
could see what had to be
done. I soon became aware
that her difficulties were
more fundamental than a bit
of new vocabulary. (2) ........ .
My daughter is 13. She’s
in year nine, which used to be
called the third year. Oh do
try to keep up. She’s a bright,
hard-working girl and is con-
sidered by her school be a
competent enough linguist to
be learning French, German
and Latin.
I couldn’t take in what
was staring me in the face. I
tried approaching it from
different angles, but it was
too late. She’d recognised the
edge in my voice. (3) .......... .
I screeched: “What is
wrong with this country?
We’re raising a generation of
ignoramuses.” All around the
house there came the sound
of doors being closed in a
hurry. (4) ........ .
After a while I cooled
down, and my offspring
emerged cautiously from
their rooms. No sense, I
reasoned, in browbeating the
girl because teaching meth-
ods have changed. I apolo-
gised. But the worst was yet
to come. (5) ........ .
My son fetched me a glass
of water and a cold flannel
for my forehead, but I strode
up and down, hyperventilat-
ing while he tried to put
things in perspective. “They
do know what a verb is”, he
offered. “They just don’t
realise what it’s called. They
haven’t learnt the jargon.”
(6) .......... .
Now, I am no stranger to
educational whimsy. Some
strange things went on in
Leicestershire schools in the
late-Fifties, and I was one of
the first new-fangled crop. We
were not drilled in the
widespread use of grammar,
and I still have to concentrate
hard when using the
apostrophe. (7) ........ . I knew
what a verb was long before
secondary education loomed.
And now my daughters know,
too.
A verb is the part of a sen-
tence that expresses action.
(8) ........ .
The Sunday Telegraph

A
But from a tender age, I
knew the basic shorthand of
grammar.
B
When I asked her to break
down the clue in a sentence
“On 1’achète à la
boulangerie? ”and tell me
first the meaning of the verb,
she didn’t know what I
meant by the word ‘verb’.
C
Her elder sister, only six
months off sitting her exam
in French, didn’t know what
a verb was, either.
D
Or it is something that
makes your mum very
angry on a Sunday evening.
E
Even the hamster crept to
its bed.
F
If I were to say the words
long division to my two
children they wouldn’t have
the faintest idea what I
meant.
G
“So they do teach gram-
mar?” I said clutching at
straws. All he could answer
was: “Well, sort of.”
H
The report said that only
occasionally were topics
poorly focused.
I
She knew I had seen a red
mist. Then I blew it.
J
Not that my French deserts
me after dinner, but I had
drunk half a bottle of
Lebanese red, and I was
reading the Sunday papers
with my eyes closed. I pulled
myself together.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
F
Score: 8 points

TTaasskk 2233
You are going to read a magazine article about going into business. Some parts of
the text are missing. Choose the most appropriate part from the list (A-J) for each
gap (1-8) in the text. There is one extra part which you do not need to use. Write
your answers in the boxes after the text. There is an example at the beginning (0).
The Trader
From the age of six I had a deep desire to be
successful financially. I was always
collecting things such as model cars that I
wanted to sell to my schoolmates. (0) .........
My mum ran a small dress shop off
London’s Marylebone Street, which
supported us when my dad stopped work
to study law. But when at 13 I went as a
boarder to Clifton College, Bristol, my
parents could barely afford the school fees,
even with a bequest my grandfather had
left for my education. (1) ........
Since I was interested in hi-fi, I spent
£10 on an old Bang & Olufsen turntable
that I’d seen advertised in the local
newspaper. I cleaned it up, advertised it in
Exchange & Mart and sold it for £22. The
ad cost £2, so the profit was £10 - a term’s
pocket money in 1973. (2) ........
I used to buy stuff advertised in
newsagents’ windows, or sneak off from
games and go round Bristol’s hi-fi shops,
buying equipment that people brought in as
part-exchange. Hi-fi was the “in” thing in
the early Seventies, so people were
constantly upgrading. (3) ........
It built into quite a business. I opened a
bank account and had my first cheque
guarantee card at 14.
I was too young to drive but I needed
transport to collect the stock and take it
back to school. (4) ........ At the end of
term, Dad would come from London in his
battered old Renault. I’d ask him to park it
round the back, because I was
embarrassed. Most of my classmates’
parents had Rolls-Royces and Bentleys. He
would take my unsold stock back to
London and I would sell it through
Exchange & Mart in the holidays.
In the sixth form my study looked like a
hi-fi stockroom, with boxes piled to the
ceiling. (5) ........
I felt great about doing well in business
because it took pressure off mum and dad
for the cost of holidays, school uniform
and pocket money. (6) ........
Today I help Business Wise, a charity
that educates schoolkids about going into
business, because I know first-hand how a
good commercial training while you’re
young can help.
My economics teacher told me, “You’ll
never be a businessman, Richer.” (7) ........
By studying the trade papers to find the
going rates for second-hand equipment, I
learned about value for money. By the time
I was 17 I had three people working
informally for me on commission. (8) .......
Early on, I decided I would reinvest
half the money I made, and spend the rest.
In four years, I had turned my original £10
investment into about £4,000.
Reader’s Digest

A
So I had to learn to get on with my
customers, my suppliers and my colleagues
- skills vital to anyone’s success.
B
I was doing so well, parents would ring my
house-master to complain that little Jimmy
was spending his entire term’s pocket
money in the first week by buying a cassette
deck off me.
C
So one day my dad said, “Why don’t you do
a little buying and selling to supplement
your pocket money?”
D
After that you couldn’t hold me back.
E
But my parents only allowed me to swap.
F
I’d also buy pottery “seconds” from Bristol
market, jump in a taxi and sell them to a gift
shop in Clifton, just a mile away. I bought
candles, cigarette lighters, anything I
thought would sell.
G
Of course, you will not reduce the price
unless you feel certain that more will be sold
at the lower price.
H
It also gave me a lot of independence.
I
But I learned an awful lot more through my
wheeling and dealing than from my O and
A levels.
J
So I used to hire a big white Mercedes
limousine, which was normally rented out
for weddings — not because it was flash, but
because it was practical.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
E
Score: 8 points

TTaasskk 2244
You are going to read an article about a tapestry. Some parts of the text are
missing. Choose the most appropriate part from the list (A-H) for each gap (1-6) in
the text. There is one extra part which you do not need to use. Write your
Life’s Rich Tapestry
Val Jeans-Jakobsson tells of the painstaking creation of a family heirloom
It was when her daughter and son-in-law
moved into a beautiful old house that had
once belonged to Catherine Parr that
Wendy Potter felt inspired to create a
unique wall-hanging – one that would not
only reflect the history of the house, but
that would also be a fitting wedding present
for the young couple.
(0) ________
She bought a colour post-card and had
an enlarged photo-copy made in London. In
it Catherine is dressed in typical Tudor style
with a deep red silk dress. Her head-dress is
decorated with pearls and ostrich feathers.
At her throat is a heavy ruby and pearl
necklace and the small amount of her hair
that is visible appears to be dark.
(1) ________
From her research, Wendy discovered that
Catherine was a strong, intelligent and well-
educated woman who had considerable
influence over her stepdaughters, Mary and
Elizabeth. When Henry died she became one
of the wealthiest women in England.
(2) ________
They sent her a two-inch photocopy of
Catherine’s seal and, using this, Wendy
began to search through books on heraldry
to discover the meaning of the various
symbols. She uses the rampant lion and
curious striped panther symbols taken from
the seal to flank the rectangular form of the
seal which she created in order to balance
the portrait. The Tudor crown is above the
portrait. The whole tapestry measures three
feet long by two feet wide.
(3) ________
This area of the tapestry is finely detailed,
forming a muted background. Red and white
Tudor roses link the coat-of-arms to the
portrait and the whole background is black,
framed in rust and gold.
Research was also needed for the
lettering of the name Katherine Parr and her
dates, 1512 – 1548.
(4) ________
“An unexpected bonus,” she tells me,
“was the knowledge and interest I acquired
in different subjects, such as heraldry and
some history of the 16th
century.”
For the next few months the dining-table
was out of action until the completed plan
was done.
The hardest part, Wendy says, was
probably Catherine’s face, which she had to
unpick several times, until she was satisfied
with the expression.
(5) ________
Wendy Potter took the finished tapestry
to be stretched, which gave a professional
finish to her work.
(6) ________
It is certainly going to be a much treasured
family heirloom.
The Lady

A The ornate lettering of the period seemed to fit in well. With months of research behind
her and sheets of sketches and notes Wendy began to draw up her plans.
B Finally, and in many ways perhaps the most enjoyable part of the research, was the
planning of the plants and animals, appropriate to the century, which fill the spaces at the
sides of the portrait. These are worked in a diamond pattern echoing the Tudor ceiling of
the room in which the tapestry hangs.
C Wendy made extensive notes on Catherine’s life partly for her own interest, but also to
help her to create a meaningful design for the wall hanging. The next step was to find
Catherine’s coat-of-arms which Wendy planned to place below the portrait, so she wrote
to the College of Arms in Queen Victoria Street in east London.
D Her expression is serious — small wonder when we realise that she became Henry VIII’s
sixth wife when he was ageing and ill.
E So now it hangs on a wall in the hall of her daughter’s house where the rose-coloured
Tudor ceiling and a fine, heavy, dark oak staircase provided a perfect setting.
F It is unlikely that the original tapestry was taken out of the country at the time of the
Napoleonic Wars.
G The first step was to find a likeness of Catherine Parr. Eventually Wendy tracked down
the only known portrait of the young queen, which hangs in the National Portrait Gallery.
H Another area of difficulty was the dark red silk. The flowing folds of deeper colour
presented problems, as she was anxious to create the natural look of the portrait. The end
result is remarkably lifelike and a tribute to her patience and perseverance.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
G
Score: 6 points

Chapter 6
Matching clauses to gaps in text
This test method is similar to the Matching sentences technique we explained
in Chapter 5 in that you have to put bits of sentences into gaps. In order to do
this, you need to think about the meaning of the bits – the clauses – and of the
text surrounding the gap. You also need to pay attention to the syntax of the
clauses and the words around the gaps, because some clauses will not fit
grammatically into some gaps. On the other hand, some are likely to fit into
more than one gap, but (ideally, at least) only grammatically. So you need to be
careful when you are finalising your decision about the matches you have
found – there is always only one correct answer to each question in such tests,
that is, one correct bit of sentence for each gap in the text.
A good way to approach this sort of test is first to consider which clauses can
or cannot fit in grammatically and, then, to think about the meaning of the
clauses that could possibly fit in. When there are more clauses among the
choices which grammatically fit into a particular gap, you may need to read
carefully not only the sentence right before and after the gap, but very often
also a larger section of the text surrounding the gap. It could easily happen that
filling a gap in the first half of the text requires you to consider information in
the last, or last but one section.
As in most reading tasks, it is a good idea first to read quickly through the
passage to get a general idea first of what the passage is about, and then to look
at the clauses to get an idea of the sort of meaning they convey. Then you are
ready to complete the puzzle, paying attention to grammar and meaning at the
same time. Pay careful attention to the first gap in the text marked with (0) (that
is, the example), because it will help you to start doing the task.
Once you think you have found the correct bit of sentence for each gap, it is
useful to read through the text one last time to check whether it makes sense
with your answers. Remember that there should remain one extra clause (or
two, depending what the instructions say about this) that you have not used in
your answers.
Now you should start practising this task type, doing first the Sample Task on
the next two pages.

You are going to read a newspaper article. Parts of some sentences have been
removed from the text. Choose the most suitable part from the list (A-K) for each
gap (1-9) in the text. There is one extra part that you do not need to use. Write
21st
Century Pet Gadgets
From Japan, the latest in telephone gadgets
for the high tech pooch.
n Tokyo we meet Mint, a black
Labrador puppy, and her owner Yoko
Sakohata, to try out some of the latest
Japanese gadgets designed to make a
dog’s life that bit easier – (0) ........ .
In a country where working late and
getting stuck in traffic jams are part of
normal daily life, it can be a problem
getting home (1) ........ . A timer-controlled
feeder is one answer, but it doesn’t give
much personal contact with the lonely pet,
(2) ........ . Yoko tries out a telephone-
controlled feeder which enables you to call
home from anywhere, at any time, (3) ........
, then at the press of the button deliver a
meal. Mint finds the whole thing a little
puzzling at first, but has no qualms about
tucking in (4) ........ .
Practically everyone has a mobile
phone in Japan, and now they’ve even
started making ones for your pet. At the
moment they’re not designed to allow you
to talk with your pet, (5) ........ . Because
Japan’s PHS network (Personal
Handyphone System) has thousands of
antennae, (6) ........ , it is possible to tell
almost exactly where any handset is by
measuring the strength of its signal at
several adjacent antennae. With one of the
mobile handsets fitted to her collar, Mint is
taken to a secret location (7) ........ . Logged
on to the internet, Yoko enters Mint’s
mobile number onto the website (8) ........
showing where Mint is – in a local
playground.
The tracker device can also be used
to keep tabs on wandering children and
property such as motorcycles. Sadly
(9) ........ where the number of antennae
make it accurate to within 50 metres –
Britain’s cellphone networks can’t give
anything like that degree of accuracy as
each cell is much larger.
I
Taken from the Internet

103Chapter 6 Matching clauses to gaps in text
A have a quick dinner-time chat with your pet
B to have much narrower coverage
C leaving Yoko at home
D but rather to keep track of where it is
E to feed the pet dog at its routine time
F it only works with Japan’s PHS network
G when the biscuits arrive
H to receive an instant map
I and it can end up missing out on some of the fun of dinner-time
J spaced about 200 metres apart in cities like Tokyo
K and to help owners keep in touch with them
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
K
Score: 9 points

Answer Key to Sample Task: 21st Century Pet
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
K E I A G D J C H F
Item 1: The missing clause probably needs to begin with a word like “to” or “in
order to”. Clause B does not make sense in the gap, nor does Clause H, but
Clause E might fit in. If you read the sentence after the gap, you see that
mention is made of “feeding” the pet, and so Clause E looks like a good choice.
Item 2: The missing clause is probably syntactically complete, but probably
needs to have some sort of connecting word like “and” or “but” or “so that”.
Clause D does not make sense, nor does Clause G (since no mention has been
made of “biscuits”), but Clause I fits in nicely and makes sense.
Item 3: Since the sentence before the gap talks about a telephone call, a clause
that talks about “talking” or “chatting” might fit in. In addition, a series of
events is mentioned in the sentence in which the gap is placed – first a call,
then something, then pressing a button to deliver a meal. Clause A makes
sense and fits in grammatically.
Item 4: The text before the gap refers to eating – “tucking in” – and seems to
require a complete clause. Clause G, “when the biscuits arrive”, also refers to
the delivery of the meal and so fits in perfectly.
Item 5: The text before item 5 leads you to expect some sort of contrast with
“talk to your pet”, and so is likely to begin with a word like “but”. Since Clause
D also makes sense in the context, it is the correct answer.
Item 6: The meaning of the sentence in which gap 6 is placed is about a dense
network of antennae used for mobile phones. The structure of the preceding
clause leads one to expect some sort of relative clause in the gap, and,
therefore, Option J, “spaced about 200 metres apart…” fits both the meaning
and the structure of the sentence.
Item 7: The clause before the gap leads one to expect either something about
the location, or, reading beyond the gap, something about Yoko, who is on the
Internet. She is likely to be logged onto the Internet at home, rather than in the
street, and so Clause C fits in terms of meaning, and it is also suitable
grammatically.
Item 8: The text after the gap indicates that the missing words are likely to say
something about a device or object that could indicate location – “showing

where Mint is” after the gap suggests a picture or a map. Clause H, therefore,
fits into the gap semantically, and it also fits in terms of grammar.
Item 9: The last sentence of the passage, where item 9 is located, seems not to
have a main clause. The missing clause is therefore likely to have a subject and
a main verb. The sentence also implies a contrast between Britain and
somewhere else, and it is likely to be Japan. It also implies that unlike in
Britain, this network will work, presumably in Japan. Therefore Clause F is the
most suitable.

TTaasskk 2255
You are going to read a book review of a biography of Laurie Lee, a famous
writer. Some parts of the text are missing. Choose from the list (A - K) the most
appropriate part for each gap (1-9) in the article. There is an extra part that you
do not need to use. Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There is an
example at the beginning (0).
LAURIE LEE: THE WELL-LOVED STRANGER
‘Grove chronicles Lee's chaotic but happy family life’
Having written so extensively of his own life
in such classic books as Cider With Rosie and
As I Walked Out One Midsummer Morning, you
might be forgiven for thinking there would be
little left for Laurie Lee's biographer to
uncover. But Valerie Grove, (0) ........ since the
author's death in 1997 at the age of 83, has
produced a fascinating account and one which
should serve to introduce many future
generations of readers to a man (1) ........ .
Laurie Lee was born in 1914 in Stroud,
Gloucestershire, (2) ........ which he
immortalised in Cider With Rosie. Grove
chronicles Lee’s crowded, chaotic but
essentially happy family life, in particular his
relationship with his mother, Annie, (3) ........
to bring up her brood of children, with
reference to diaries and letters, as she does
with his early love affairs and his famous
travels.
Laurie set off for Spain in 1935
(4) ........, and returned again in 1937 to enlist
for the International Brigade to fight against
Franco, (5) ........, in spite of the persistent
epileptic fits that debilitated him and hindered
his involvement.
Some of the best anecdotes (6) ...........,
however, when his literary reputation was
well-established. At the age of 73, (7) ........ ,
and wrote the following letter to the editor:
‘This is an outrage. You have ruined my love
life. Everyone knows (8) ........ . Kindly print
an apology or send me four bottles of best
malt whisky in lieu.’ (He was duly sent the
bottles, (9) ........ .)
Grove’s affectionate and elegant portrait
is rich in such detail, and reveals Lee as a
likeable, complex and intriguing figure of
enduring appeal.
The Observer

A with only a violin to pay his way
B belong to Lee’s later years
C and moved at the age of three to the village of Slad
D to reconstruct the complex life
E in this first authorised biography
F one labelled “Old Grandad”
G where his conduct was described by his officer as “excellent”
H Lee found himself described by a newspaper as being 80
I whose life and work reflect an age now entirely vanished
J who was all but abandoned by her husband
K I'm only 59
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
E
Score: 9 points

TTaasskk 2266
You are going to read an article taken from The Economist, a British magazine.
Some parts are missing from the text. Choose the appropriate part from the list
(A-L) for each gap (1-10) in the text. There is one extra part which you do not
need to use. Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There is an example
at the beginning (0).
The Hermitage
Up the Neva
ST PETERSBURG
RUSSIA’S finest art gallery is in
as much trouble as the country’s
economy. The Winter Palace
(0) ______ that house the
Hermitage look as opulent as
ever, but appearances are
misleading. The buildings are
decaying (1) _____ that the
Hermitage cannot afford. Its
budget is not large enough even
to meet its running costs.
With over 3m artefacts, the
Hermitage has one of the richest
collections in the world. It
contains (2) ______ . French
paintings from the 19th and 20th
centuries fill one floor; Dutch
and Italian Old Masters fill
another. Its Post-Impressionists
are the envy even of Paris.
Display cabinets (3) ______ and
English silver. As Mikhail
Petrovski, its director, puts it:
“We are part of the mafia of the
world’s great museums.”
The collection is made up of the
Imperial collection amassed by
the tsars from
Peter the Great onwards
(4) ______ expropriated from
private collectors by the Bol-
sheviks after the 1917 revolu-
tion. During the communist era
the gallery’s directors were
Communist party leaders. May
Day celebrations always in-
cluded a party in the Winter
Palace, at which communist
leaders (5) ______ Catherine the
Great.
Since the closure of the Soviet
Ministry of Culture at the end of
1991, the Hermitage has been
through turbulent times. It had to
wait nearly a year before the
Russian parliament (6) ______ .
In the interim, its finances were
in a chaotic state (7) _______
state pensioners.
Although it now at least has a
budget, the Hermitage’s finan-
cial troubles remain acute. This
year it will get 500m roubles
($870,000) from central gov-
ernment for its running costs,
which Mr Petrovski reckons
(8) _____ . The state has pro-
vided a further 350m roubles for
repairs, which he says is also
inadequate.
The security system at the
Hermitage is antiquated and
requires upgrading. The
museum’s two Leonardos
stand, next to the window, in a
room (9) _____ – an easy target
for any half-way competent art
thief; fortunately, the fame of
these pictures makes them
unsellable. There (10) _______
of pilferage and vandalism. At
the end of last year a pair of
18th
-century Dutch porcelain
falcons was stolen. How long
will it be before a more
spectacular theft occurs?
The Economist
The Economist

A agreed to designate it a state institution
B and all the best works of art
C and in urgent need of repair
D and its curators lived off less than
E and other tsarist palaces on the river Neva
F are stuffed with Meissen porcelain
G dined off plates once used by
H have already been instances
I is about half of what it needs
J is more than enough
K more than a score of Rembrandts
L guarded by an elderly woman
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
E
Score: 10 points

TTaasskk 2277
You are going to read the first part of a story taken from a magazine. Parts of
some sentences have been removed from the text. Choose the most suitable part
from the list (A - J) for each gap (1 - 8) in the text. There is one extra part that you
do not need to use. There is an example at the beginning (0). Write your answers
in the boxes after the text.
SECOND TIME AROUND
HER FIRST DRIVING TEST HAD BEEN A DISASTER, BUT THIS TIME SHE
REFUSED TO BE DISTRACTED. THE TROUBLE WAS, CONCENTRATION WASN’T
EXACTLY SOPHIE’S MIDDLE NAME!
ophie strapped herself into the
driver’s seat and performed a
series of elaborate manoeuvres
with her head in the hope of convincing
the examiner she was checking her rear-
view mirror thoroughly, then carefully
she eased the car out into the traffic.
She remembered David’s words,
“Don’t forget, (0)___. No one’s going to
fail you in the first two minutes.”
That was just as well, she thought,
glancing at the pained expression on Mr
Wilton’s face (1)___.
This was Sophie’s second test. She
knew she’d blown the first one when the
examiner had shouted at her furiously
(2)___. Now she was trying again.
“Turn right here, please.”
A-ha, thought Sophie, as she followed
the instruction. David had warned her
about this spot. The road climbed uphill
for about a quarter of a mile before
veering sharply left towards a parade of
shops, (3)___. Mr Wilton looked pleased
as she handled the car efficiently, (4)___.
Out of the corner of her eye she spotted
Pringle’s Pet Emporium and
momentarily lost concentration as she
wondered if Mimosa had presented her
second litter yet.
Mimosa was the family’s pet rabbit
(5)___. She’d refused to feed her babies
and three had died. After that she’d
repented and fed the surviving one,
(6)___.
“Left at that corner...”
There was the gardening shop, spilling
its lush display of green spring bedding
plants over the pavement. It was time to
start thinking about the herbaceous
border again. Judy would help. She had
inherited David’s green-fingered touch
when it came to planting things (7)___.
Her mind hadn’t yet been taken over
completely by Wet Wet Wet lookalikes.
“Concentrate!” Sophie could feel David
willing her to keep her mind on what she
was doing as she turned left as instructed
into Bourne Road, (8)___. She desperately
wanted to pass her driving test. David
had promised her a little car of her own if
she succeeded. It would give her a feeling
of independence, of being in charge of her
own life. She’d be able to pop into town
whenever she felt like it and not have to
wait for a lift.
Woman’s Weekly
S

A but it had been a harrowing experience
B as the car lurched out of the driving centre forecourt and on to the main road
C and at twelve she was still young enough to be enthusiastic
D which was almost empty of traffic
E and had proved to be a very cruel mother first time round
F although it gave the illusion of stretching straight ahead
G that she’d been told to park by the kerb, not halfway up a tree
H as David pulled into their driveway, tooting the horn triumphantly
I smoothly changing through the gears as she turned towards the shopping precinct
J just stay calm and grit your teeth
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
J
Score: 8 points

TTaasskk 2288
You are going to read a text from a holiday guide. Some parts of the text are
missing. Choose the most appropriate part from the list (A-K) for each gap (1-8) in
the text. There are two extra parts that you do not need to use. Write your
BARNSTAPLE
RESORT AND ACCOMMODATION DETAILS
Nestling beside the River Taw, Barnstaple is the most attractive, and one of the
oldest market towns in Devon, unique for its blend of ancient history, distinctive
shopping hotels, leisure and tourist opportunities. Barnstaple is the regional retail
and (0) _____ of North Devon. It is renowned for its National, European and
International awards for “Nations in Bloom,” as well as the “Prettiest Floral Town
in Europe”.
Sights to see:
View (Barum) from 930 AD to Barnstaple at the millenium. Take a guided tour with
entertainer and professional town guide Tom Evans or pick up (1) _____ from either
the Museum or the Heritage Centre. Discover for yourself the Longbridge over the
River Taw’s Atlantic estuary, St Mary’s Church with its crooked spire and many
other (2) _____ into the history of this Saxon town.
Places to go:
Victorian Pannier Market six days a week offers (3) _____ , crafts, bric-a-brac
fashion and antiques. Butchers Row, a 150-year tradition of (4) _____ is matched
by freshly caught fish, home-made breads and cakes, with first class delicatessens.
Savour the town’s international cuisine through its pubs and (5) _____ of
restaurants.
Things to do:
North Devon Leisure Centre provides a full range of sporting activities, (6) _____ .
Experience the thrill of go-karting, ten-pin bowling and cycle or walk the riverside
Tarka Trails. For (7) _____ , watch widely acclaimed dance, drama and music at
the Queen’s Theatre or visit the royally-appointed Brannam’s Pottery.
Transport:
Extensive road, rail and bus links make Barnstaple easily accessible. There is
plenty of town-centre car parking for both (8) _____ with facilities for the
disabled.
Come for a holiday - or just for a day - enjoy the best that’s Barnstaple.
North Devon Holiday and Accommodation Guide

A an excellent leaflet
B coastal walks
C commercial centre
D shoppers and visitors
E exciting range
F local produce
G meat preparation
H more gentle pursuits
I romantic location
J fascinating glimpses
K gym and pool
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
C
Score: 8 points

TTaasskk 2299
You are going to read the first part of a magazine article about the European
peasant. Parts of some sentences have been removed from the text. Choose the
most suitable part from the list (A-K) for each gap (1-8) in the text. There are two
extra parts that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the boxes after the
text. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Flocking to the future
The European peasant is becoming as rare as the wolf, says
Tim Salmon
wenty years ago it was a six- hour
walk from the village of Tidhendro
to the nearest point accessible to a
vehicle. Its only “road” was the
mule trail. Up in the heart of the Pindos
mountains in Greece (0) ____ , water had
to be fetched from an ice-cold spring, and
the family slept on the floor, (1) ____ that
the women had woven.
One winter morning I woke there to a
clear-blue sky. The mountains shone with
snow. Sweet-smelling wood smoke rose
from the chimneys. There was no sound
but the occasional voice or the ring of an
axe. I thought it was idyllic.
But the reality was (2) ____ , not a
level patch of ground on which to grow a
worthwhile crop, and no doctor or
secondary school closer than a day’s
journey. The much-depleted population was
elderly or infirm. Those with get-up-and-go
had done just that – to the cities or abroad.
With them had gone the will (3) ____ that
for centuries had made life bearable in such
harsh places.
All over the Alps, Pyrenees, Alpujarras
and Abruzzi you see that valley after
precipitous valley, (4) ____ , has been
abandoned. Even in the heyday of these
communities, poverty drove people to
emigration or seasonal work as pedlars or
stonemasons in the lowlands. As early as
1814 men were leaving the valley of the
Ubaye in the French Alps (5) ____ .
People exclaim at the beauty of the
valley, Émilie Carles observes in her book,
A Wild Herb Soup. But, she says: “Before
the 1914-18 war, nobody cared about
beauty. It was (6) ____ . Life for the
peasants was extremely difficult .. For six
months the cold and the snow paralysed
everything.”
The traditional rural economy has been
superseded by the skiing industry, often to
the detriment of the landscape. There have
been demographic changes, too. Outsiders
have bought much of the housing stock for
holiday homes, (7) ____ . Another “new”
population, especially in the attractive
southern mountains, are the néo-ruraux –
the new peasantry, the post-1968 drop-outs
and refuseniks from urban consumer life,
(8) ____ , in conflict with the locals, who
favour “progress”. And there are people
who “come home” after one or two
generations in the city to run a hotel or set
up as tele-workers in their native village.
T
Taken from the Internet

A who are often militant supporters of "traditional ways"
B where the soil has been laboriously husbanded into tiny terraces by generations of
peasant farmers
C wrapped in shaggy wool blankets
D to maintain the community life
E that there was no work
F peasants always found time to admire their land
G to seek their fortunes in Mexico
H there was no electricity
I the harshest country in the world
J what they had always hoped for
K which they occupy for a fraction of the year
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
H
Score: 8 points

TTaasskk 3300
You are going to read the first part of a magazine article about animals. Some
parts of the text are missing. Choose the best part from the list (A-J) for each gap
(1-8) in the article and write its letter in the box. There is one extra part that you
do not need to use. There is one example (0) at the beginning.
Animals under threat
– why should we worry about them?
or generations of children lear-
ning to read, their books have
been filled with animals, from
Babar the elephant to the Jungle Stories
of Rudyard Kipling. But such creatures
could become figures of nostalgia
within a few years (0)___. The future is
gloomy, according to Will Travers,
director of Zoocheck, chairman of the
protection group Elefriends and son of
the campaigning conservationist Bill
Travers. “Unless we act now, (1)___,”
Will warns.
His view is not exaggerated or alar-
mist: the fact is that (2)___. Sophisticated
techniques, from test tube fertilisation to
embryo freezing, can help to artificially
‘save’ endangered species, but what is
the real point? Do we want to preserve
tigers, for example, (3)___ pacing up
and down in a zoo? In a world (4)___,
zoos are losing their popularity anyway.
So wouldn’t it be better (5)___? Or
should we simply do nothing and accept
extinction as Nature’s way of ensuring
‘the survival of the fittest’?
In 1839, the naturalist Charles
Darwin first described evolution in his
book The Origin of Species by Means of
Natural Selection. David Attenborough
explains Darwin’s theory this way: “All
individuals of the same species are not
identical. In one clutch of eggs from a
giant tortoise, for example, there will
be some hatchlings which, (6)___, will
develop longer necks than others. In
times of drought, they will be able to
reach the higher leaves (7)___, and so
survive. Their brothers and sisters with
shorter necks will starve and die. So
those best suited to their surroundings
will be ‘selected’ and able to transmit
their characteristics to their offspring.”
Evolution is a continual process –
failure to adapt leads to extinction. In
fact, of all the animals which have lived
on earth, (8)___. “No species – and that
includes the human race – has a lifespan
of more than a few million years, which
in geological terms is short,” says
zoologist Mark Carwardine.
Best Magazine
F

A where the wonders of wildlife are available at the flick of a television switch
B because of their genetic make-up
C around 1,000 of our bird and animal species become extinct every year
D which haven’t yet been eaten
E in 50 years’ time elephants and rhino will inhabit only the echoing corridors of museums
or the territory of a zoo
F if there are practical reasons
G as they rapidly die out
H to pour the time and money into preserving these animals in their natural habitats
I just so that our grandchildren can gape at them
J 95% have either evolved into something else or have become extinct
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
G
Score: 8 points

TTaasskk 3311
You are going to read a newspaper article about a pianist and comedian. Some
parts of the text are missing. Choose from the list (A-K) the most appropriate part
for each gap (1-8) in the article. There are two extra parts that you do not need to
use. There is one example at the beginning (0).
Pianist who made an art of self-parody
Victor Borge
Victor Borge, who has died aged 91, was
not the first comedian to have contrived his
act from sending up or mutilating serious
music. But he did it with more style than
anyone else, in a way (0) ........ . He
continued to play his piano, or hilariously
failed to play his piano, on tours of the
United States, where he mainly lived, and
Europe, from where he originated, well
into his 80s.
Born in Copenhagen, Borge was the
son of a violinist with the Royal Danish
Philharmonic. His mother introduced him to
the piano from the age of three, (1) ......... .
There was one great problem that he had to
face in his early career – the quality of the
on-site pianos he had to play. Some were
dreadful, (2) ........ . Out of that situation
came his humorous movements and asides,
always in a distinctive, unctuous,
throwaway voice.
By the outbreak of the second
world war Borge was a reasonably
successful pianist and musical satirist in
Denmark, (3) ........ . When the Germans
invaded Denmark newspapers reported that
his name was at the head of those destined
for extermination. Fortunately for Borge,
two Russian diplomats smuggled him
aboard an American ship bound for
Finland, (4) ........ .
Once in New York, however, Borge
was handicapped by not knowing a word of
English. He studied it in cinemas, watching
the same films round and round (5) ........ .
Being asked to read lines for the warm-up
of a radio show led to him being invited to
do the same job for the Bing Crosby Kraft
Music Hall. He understood hardly anything
of what he was reading, (6) ........ .
Out of this grew his mature act, in
which language and logic tortured one
another to a breaking point. He made music
and comedy records for the US war effort,
and afterwards developed a repertoire of
15,000 jokes or routines, (7) ........ .
In the 1970s, when more boisterous
sorts of comedy became fashionable, he
seemed to falter, (8) ........ . By the 1980s
Borge had got his second wind and looked
like going on for ever as an international
touring artist. By the 1990s his initial
suspicion of television had disappeared.
Bringing laughter pleased him even
more than honours. “The shortest distance
between two people is a smile,” was one of
his favourite sayings, and there was always
something life-affirming about his studied,
quiet, devious humour.
The Guardian Weekly

A from where he caught the last boat out to the free part of Europe
B so he developed tricks for playing them not taught by conventional teachers
C from which he could make a selection to suit any audience
D and invited him to record a solo single
E well known for his mocking of Hitler and other Nazis
F until he made some sort of sense of what was said
G and he made his stage debut at the age of eight
H because of his fondness of live performance
I complaining that the tabloids called him a has-been
J which had more widespread and long-lived appeal
K but his ruptured English made him a success with listeners
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
J
Score: 8 points

TTaasskk 3322
You are going to read a newspaper article about weight loss. Some parts of the text
are missing. Choose the most suitable part from the list (A-L) for each gap (1-10) in
the text. There is one extra part that you do not need to use. There is an example at
the beginning (0).
Less calories + more exercise + behavioural
changes = a trimmer you
Approximately 25 to 45 percent of people who join
a weight-loss program are binge eaters – this problem really needs to be
attended to before other weight-loss efforts.
There are an array of books designed to help us succeed in our weight-loss efforts. One of the
latest such books is entitled The New Maximise your Body Potential: Lifetime Skills for
Successful Weight Management, (0) _______ .
Dr. Nash presents some interesting statistics which demonstrate that, (1) ______ , at
any given time, tens of millions of Americans are dieting. It’s estimated that a quarter of all
adult men and nearly half of all adult women are actively trying to lose weight.
She categorises the different phases that (2) ______ . “Those who aren’t actively
dieting and are just talking about it, are stuck in either (3) ______ or the preparation stage.
The contemplation stage is the one (4) ______ , but you are not quite ready; you can think of
both the pros and cons of changing, (5) ______ . In the preparation stage, you know you want
to take action, you realise the pros of weight loss outweigh the cons, (6) ______ .”
Believe it or not, Dr. Nash even says (7) ______ . “If you jump into the action phase
before you’ve given enough just due to the preparation stage – deciding when to do this, how
to do this, and what the potential barriers are – (8) ______ . That’s when people who start a
diet fall off it, and pretty soon arrive at the notion, ‘I can’t do this. I’m a failure. I’ll never be
able to do this.”
Surprisingly, Dr. Nash says that about one-third of all the people who come to see a
psychologist such as herself, (9) ______ , are binge eaters, and they are usually overweight.
She says that while binge eating, in and of itself, is nothing new, (10) ______ . Exactly what
is binge eating? Dr. Nash says that the technical definition is “Eating an amount of food or
calories that is larger than most people would eat under similar circumstances, and an
experience of not being able to stop it or control it.”
Better Nutrition

A what’s called the contemplation stage
B but they balance each other out
C despite the fact that as a country we are growing fatter
D that now is not always the right time to begin a weight-loss program
E generally precede the decision to try to lose weight
F it is just now being recognised as a disorder
G then you can actually set yourself up for failure
H for help with an eating disorder
I and is written by clinical psychologist Joyce Nash, Ph.D
J that keeps overweight people upset
K but you aren’t sure how to begin
L in which you want to change
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
I
Score: 10 points

TTaasskk 3333
You are going to read a text about a boat journey. The second halves of some
sentences are missing. Choose from list A-K the most suitable ending to fill each
gap (1-8) in the text. There are two extra endings that you do not need to use.
Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
East of the Sun
Siberia
A RIVER VOYAGE THROUGH
SIBERIA FROM BEYOND THE
ARCTIC CIRCLE TO KRASNOYARSK
ABOARD THE MS ANTON TCHECHOV
The vast untouched regions of Siberia offer
a unique travel experience for the genuine
traveller. Nowhere is this more true than in
the far north of the region, an area of wild
and wonderful stark beauty, which defies
description. The scarcity of roads and
railways means that the most common
method of transportation is by river and
(0) _____ .
After a winter of hibernation, the months
of June, July and August burst with life
(1) _____ .
Our navigation of the mighty Yenisey
River begins in Dudinka, the last town of
any size on the northern reaches of the
river. From here we will begin our ten-day
navigation to the central Siberian city of
Krasnoyarsk. Strategically placed on the
Trans-Siberian Line, (2) _____ .
Tourism reached the area in the early
1990’s with the introduction of the MS
Anton Tchechov. Prior to this, the region
was closed to visitors, (3) _____ .
The 2500 mile long Yenisey flows from
the mountains of Central Asia , through the
vast forests of Siberia and on to the Tundra
and finally the Arctic Ocean. On our journey
we will encounter an abundant and diverse
wildlife and (4) _____ . One of the most
fascinating aspects of the trip will be the
opportunity to visit the people in the riverside
settlements along the way. Their culture,
lifestyle and language will be a constant
source of wonder, (5) _____ . We will meet
people from many ethnic backgrounds, some
who were forcibly placed here and pioneers to
Yakutsk (6) _____ .
In addition to the expedition leader
there will be knowledgeable local guides
travelling with us, who will add (7) _____ .
MS ANTON TCHECHOV
Designed and built in Austria, the 200
passenger Anton Tchechov is a modern
comfortable vessel offering all outside
cabins with private facilities. Air-
conditioned throughout, the vessel is ideal
for the Yenisey.
In addition to its numerous public
rooms (8) _____ . An unusual feature is an
indoor swimming pool and sauna and other
facilities include a hairdresser and shop.
The Observer

A as man, animal and vegetation make the most of the warm summer weather and the
almost permanent daylight
B during the brief summer rivers such as the Yenisey become the main highways linking the
north to the south
C the birdwatchers in the party will enjoy an interesting time in an area which has seen little
in the way of fieldwork
D however, the placing of the vessel on the Yenisey has opened up a vast tract of land which
would be otherwise impossible to explore
E this regional capital was founded in the 17th
century and rose to prominence in the 19th
century when gold was discovered locally
F the rail line intensified the migration and spawned a chain of cities
G who have made their own way across this vast land which covers one-third of the land
mass of Asia
H especially their ability to thrive in the most hostile of climates
I much to our understanding of this little-known and once forbidden land
J the Russians were spurred on by stories of a region rich in furs and silver mines
K there are large open deck areas which are ideal for relaxing and observing life along this
mighty river
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
B
Score: 8 points

TTaasskk 3344
You are going to read a newspaper article about explorers. Some parts of the text
are missing. Choose the most appropriate part from the list (A-J) for each gap (1-8)
in the text. There is one extra part that you do not need to use. Write your answers
in the boxes after the text. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Explorers follow in Pole footsteps
Brave trio retrace historic Antarctic journey in authentic clothing
It was the most heroic bid for survival
ever chronicled. Three men, dressed in
gabardine wool suits, with a box of matches,
an axe, a rope, a portable stove and no tent,
(0) ........ .
All they knew for sure was that,
(1) ........, their own lives and the lives of 28
of their fellow explorers would be lost.
Now, 84 years on, three British men
are once more preparing to make that terrible
journey.
Next week Jonathan Chastney, Jock
Wishart and Duncan Nicoll will set out
together for the island of South Georgia to
retrace the steps of their hero, Sir Ernest
Shackleton. They will risk death from
exposure and icy winds of up to 100mph,
but plan to wear authentic Burberry clothing
(2) ......... . They will have no back-up if
anything goes wrong.
Chastney, a 35-year-old property
developer from Tamworth and member of
the 1995 team who made the first ascent of
Mount Katherine-Jane on Smith Island,
Antarctica, is making the trip in tribute to
Shackleton.
The crucial overland section is
expected (3) ......... .
‘Shackleton did it in 36 hours,’ said
Chastney, ‘but then he knew that might well
be all the time they had’.
‘We will be wearing the original
Burberry gear, although the undergarments,
(4) ........ , are proving a little more difficult.
We will be “mix and match”.’
Shackleton’s original desperate
journey came at the end of an 18-month
attempt to cross Antarctica. On 23 October,
1915, he wrote: ‘After long months of
ceaseless anxiety and strain, after times
when hope beat high and times when the
outlook was black indeed, (5) ........ , which
is crushed beyond all hope of ever being
righted…it is hard to write what I feel’.
His ship, Endurance, had been
smashed by icebergs. For six months
Shackleton and his 17-man crew camped on
ice-floes, dragging their lifeboats across the
snow (6) ........ . As ice thawed, they
eventually made it to the remote Elephant
Island.
There Shackleton chose five of the
fittest men to set off in a 20ft open boat
across 800 miles of ocean to reach South
Georgia.
Although they survived the voyage,
(7) ......... . Shackleton and two of his men
set off again, leaving the three others to eke
out an existence inside a cave. Against the
odds, they reached the whaling station at
Stromness (8) ......... .
Shackleton returned to Britain a hero,
but until recently his name has been
overshadowed by that of Captain Robert
Falcon Scott.
The Observer

A and organised the safe rescue of all the marooned men
B to take the three men up to four days
C and shooting their dogs for food
D set out on a hazardous journey across uncharted glaciers
E they landed on the wrong side of the island
F as they recreate history for a television documentary
G and was determined to take it out of the country
H which were probably individually made by the wives of the crew
I we have been compelled to abandon the ship
J if they failed to make it to safety
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
D
Score: 8 points

TTaasskk 3355
You are going to read a newspaper article about a Sri Lankan teacher of English.
Parts of some sentences have been removed from the text. Choose from the list (A-H)
the most appropriate part for each gap (1-6) in the text. There is one extra part
which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There
is an example at the beginning (0).
Breaking the rules with a class of 600
Any Thursday morning, if you happen to be
in Sri Lanka, go to Kegalle, a small town
halfway between Colombo and Kandy, the
centre of the country’s tea industry. As you
walk past pepper vines and coconut trees
you will hear Susil Nanayakkara’s English
class. You can’t help but hear the class
(0) .......... . On the morning I visited they
were all saying: “I’ll come if I have time,”
in response to Nanayakkara’s question:
“Can you come to see me this evening?”
Crammed into the cement block and
corrugated iron auditorium the young men
and women in the class have worked
through five of the levels in Nanayakkara’s
10-level course. They are a small part of
Nanayakkara’s “tutory” network. Over the
past 20 years he has built up a committed
following of satisfied customers, (1) ........ .
For 10 months of the year, seven
days a week, Nanayakkara tours improvised
teaching centres providing English lessons
for a student body (2) ........ . The students
pay about $2 a month for their classes, and
the majority are studying to improve their
job prospects in a cruelly competitive job
market.
Nanayakkara only had a brief period
of part time training as a teacher (3) ........ .
He moved into the private sector in 1976 and
since then he has written a series of 10 course
books (4) ........ - and it is a programme
which seems to work in the context.
Nanayakkara accounts for his success by
saying that he “focuses on vocabulary,
grammar and sentence patterns, and uses a
simple repetition and drill methodology that
meets student expectations”. He gets round
the problem of super-large classes by
“putting students into groups of 20 for parts
of the lesson (5) ........”. But this does not
explain the success of his operation.
Watching him teach, and talking to
the students afterwards, it became clear
(6) ........ . His secret lies in his personal
commitment and enthusiasm that can hold
his students’ attention and motivate them to
come back for more, week after week.
The Guardian Weekly

A before starting work at a secondary school
B and asking better students to lead dialogue practice
C that his success has little to do with a theory of grammar or a patent methodology
D and at present he teaches around 5,000 students a week
E that take students from zero to Sri Lankan “O Level” standard
F that continues to grow
G because there are 600 students in it
H that would cost much more
Write your answer in here:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
G
Score: 6 points

TTaasskk 3366
You are going to read the first part of a newspaper article about giraffes. Some
parts of the text are missing. Choose the best part from the list (A-K) for each gap
(1-9) in the article. There is one extra part that you do not need to use. Write your
Four London Zoo giraffes
under death sentence
HE FOUR giraffes at London
Zoo will be killed at Christmas
if the Zoo closes in September
and nobody offers to take them.
They are Hilary, the male, and
Dawn, Crackers and Virginia, the
three females. They are all “old” – the
youngest is 10, (0) _____. They range
from 13ft to 18ft tall.
The giraffes are the biggest problem
for keepers (1) _____ and, so far, no
one has come forward. If they do,
transporting the four from Regent’s
Park would be possible, (2) _____.
Circuses and safari parks move
giraffes routinely – (3) _____. The
stress on animals used only to life in a
zoo might be too great for them to
survive.
It is best to transport giraffes at less
than 18 months old, (4) _____. Adult
giraffes are much taller, wobbly and
prone to stress (5) _____. Victor, the 15-
year old giraffe who did the splits
when he slipped and fell at Marwell
Zoo in 1977 died of stress.
Giraffes are naturally nervous. The
keepers’ biggest worry would be
(6) _____. Victor’s ordeal brought home
the difficulties giraffes have in standing
up once grounded.
“Giraffes are not terribly bright”,
said Doug Richardson, collection
manager at the zoo and chairman of
the recently formed London Zoo
Survival Group. “They start flailing
about and can damage their legs or
necks easily. If they go down inside a
box, (7) _____. Having spent the last 15
to 20 years in the same location, the
stress will be that much greater.”
“I have seen one go down with a
heart attack when it had an abcess
lanced.”
The animals could be sedated,
(8) _____ – the weight of their bodies
would soon crush their lungs. The
keepers would also want the animals
kept alert enough (9) _____.
Giraffes sleep in a half squat with
their heads to one side... “Nobody has
tried hypnotising one yet,” Mr
Richardson said.
The Independent
T

A it can be next to impossible to get them back up again
B but these are seasoned travellers
C if their environment changes suddenly
D but that would risk suffocation
E but fraught with difficulties
F but giraffes breed well in captivity
G when they are around 8ft or 9ft
H that the animals might panic and fall
I seeking new homes for their animals
J to balance themselves
K the eldest, Virginia, named after Virginia Wade, the tennis player, is 23
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
K
Score: 9 points

TTaasskk 3377
You are going to read the first part of a book review. Some parts of the text are
missing. Choose the most suitable part from the list (A-J) for each gap (1-8) in the
text. There is one extra part that you do not need to use. Write your answers in
the boxes after the text. There is an example at the beginning (0).
The man who made history
Troublemaker: The Life and
History of A J P Taylor
On Monday 12 August 1957, a small man in
a three-piece suit and a bow tie walked on to
the bare stage of what once had been a
cinema, faced a TV camera and began
talking. He talked continuously (as well as
informatively and amusingly) for 30 minutes,
(0) ........ . He then walked off, having made
television history – and, one might say,
having made history good television.
A J P Taylor was the best-known
British historian of the 20th
century, (1) ........ .
He published 23 books, a large number of
essays, and the almost unbelievable number
of 1,600 book reviews. Along the way he
wrote about history and politics in the
Manchester Guardian, about politics and
history in the New Statesman, and about
anything he fancied in the Sunday Express.
In fact, from being an academic who
did some reviewing and broadcasting on the
side, (2) ........ who still continued to do a spot
of teaching. Already by 1950 (when he was
44) his freelance income exceeded his
university salary: (3) ........ . He effectively
gave up his teaching post at Oxford in 1963
when he was elected to a “Special
Fellowship” at Magdalen.
Given this extraordinary torrent of
writing and speaking, (4) ........ . His own
answer was dispiriting: “As I once wrote
about Bernard Shaw, I had a great gift of
expression and nothing to say.” It’s a
characteristically Taylorian remark in some
ways. It contains some truth; (5) ........ , since
he is also citing his own writing; and it
sacrifices measured judgement (about himself
and Shaw) to the pleasures of epigrammatic
exaggeration.
Politically, his sympathies were
with “the people”, (6) ........ . Even in his
own day, his taste for narrative diplomatic
and political history came to seem old-
fashioned, and there was certainly a danger
that in Taylor’s hands (7) ........ . The
writing was attractive on the surface, all
paradox and anecdote, yet in the end it
could come to seem intellectually dull and
even to convey a somewhat philistine view
of the world. Ideas don’t matter, culture
doesn’t matter much, even most people
don’t matter that much. Things happen;
politicians respond; (8) ........ . A mild geo-
political determinism played some part;
cock-up and coincidence were allowed to
account for the rest.
Actually, it was never clear how
seriously he took his own provocative
views even in private matters.
The Guardian Weekly

A it soon became more than three times greater
B outcomes are unpredictable
C but he mostly wrote about the rulers
D notoriously he wrote in very short sentences
E history did tend to become just one damned thing after another
F and his television performances were what he was most widely known for
G ending on the stroke of the half hour
H Taylor really became, by mid-career, a professional writer and a “media personality”
I it is doubly self-referential
J we have to ask ourselves what it was that he had to say
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
G
Score: 8 points

TTaasskk 3388
You are going to read a magazine article about protecting whales. Some parts of the
text are missing. Choose from the list (A-L) the appropriate part for each gap (1-9) in
the article. There are two extra parts that you do not need to use. Write your
CRUISE CONTROL
Ships off the US eastern seaboard, including the QE2,
will have to give way to whales. By Arabella Daniell
RANSATLANTIC SHIPS, including
cruise liners such as the QE2, will co-
ordinate with the US Coast Guard
this year in an effort to save the
northern right whale. The whales live along
the east coast of the USA, (0) ........ , off
Massachusetts – an area with some of the
busiest US shipping lanes.
Thousands of right whales used to
inhabit the North Atlantic, (1) ........ . They
were easy prey: their name is derived from
the fact that, (2) ........ , migrate close to the
shore and stay afloat after being killed,
they were the ‘right’ whale to hunt. Today,
(3) ........ , right whales have not fully
recovered. ‘There are fewer than 350
northern right whales left in the world,’
says Siân Pullen, head of the marine
conservation programme at the World
Wide Fund for Nature, ‘(4) ........ .’
The whales, which measure 50ft-
60ft, tend to swim just below the surface of
the water, making them vulnerable to ship
strikes. They become an even greater
hazard when feeding, as they tend to
ignore oncoming vessels, (5) ........ .
Unfortunately, their feeding area is
busy with shipping. Traffic along the coast
includes military vessels as well as
commercial ships. Because of the number of
whale deaths – (6) ........ – the United Nations
International Maritime Organization (IMO)
has agreed to proposals from the US
government to protect the species.
In December last year, the IMO
Maritime Safety Committee voted
unanimously for a mandatory ship-reporting
system to be implemented from 1 July off
the north-eastern coast of the USA – and the
coasts of Georgia and Florida, (7) ........ . All
ships weighing more than 300 tons will have
to notify the US Coast Guard of their course,
speed and route (8) ........ .
The north-eastern zone will operate
all year round, while that in the south-east
will only be operational during the calving
season, November to April. Navigators will
automatically be notified of the last known
locations of right whales, (9) ........ . The
data will be updated regularly by the Coast
Guard and private spotters scouting by
aircraft.
So if you’re on the QE2 and a
sudden change of course spills your G&T,
don’t worry: it’s just the captain doing his
bit to save the whale.
Conde Nast Traveller
T

A and 50 per cent of the losses every year are due to ship strikes
B and advised on how to avoid hitting them
C where the whales go to calve
D congregating to feed in the Gulf of Maine
E since they are threatened by extinction
F because they move slowly
G but years of commercial hunting at the turn of the century reduced their numbers
dramatically
H despite more than 60 years of protection
I making little effort to get out of the way
J when they enter the designated areas
K because it is the world’s second largest living animal
L an average of three a year from ship strikes since 1991
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
D
Score: 9 points

Chapter 7
Putting parts of a text in the correct order
This test method is called “sequencing” or “ordering”. In a test paper, you may
be asked to do two different types of ordering: 1) ordering parts (paragraphs or
sections) of a text and 2) ordering summary sentences. In this chapter, you will
find tasks which will help you to practise both types.
Both tasks are usually based on some type of narrative, and focus on the ability
to understand text structure, how different ideas are organized and develop
from section to section in such texts. It is relatively easy to understand how to
do the first task. You are given a text whose paragraphs are mixed up, and the
task is to reconstruct the text by putting the paragraphs in the correct order.
Notice that the example provided with this type of task indicates the first part
of the text even though it is marked with a (0). This is important to remember
also because the first paragraph of a narrative typically contains information
(about characters, their roles, attitudes, as well as time, and place) that may be
essential for you to be able to follow and understand the events coming in later
sections of the text.
The second task is a little more complicated to understand, as you will see from
the explanations below. In this task you are given a text, and some sentences,
printed after the text, which summarise the events of the narrative. What you
have to do is to put the summary sentences in the order in which the events
they describe occurred. To do this, you need first to quickly read the sentences
themselves, so that you have an idea which events are being referred to. Since
the sentences are summaries of events mentioned in the passage, reading them
first will help you to get an overall idea of what the passage is about. And of
course, you will also get an idea of which events you will have to identify in the
passage.
Then it is a good idea to read through the passage fairly carefully, although
without worrying about words you do not understand. As you are reading, you
may notice an event that is contained in one of the sentences, and it might be
useful to note whether you think this is an earlier event, or a later event. You
could either write this against the sentences, or underline the event in the
passage, and even mark it with the number of the sentence.
If the passage is taken from a newspaper article, you need to be aware that
newspaper articles often begin with a striking event, to capture the readers'
attention. But it may not be the first event in the sequence: it may be the last
one, or it may be something that happened in the middle of the story.

Once you have read the passage carefully, you are then ready to start putting
the events in the order in which they occurred – NOT in the order in which they
are presented in the passage! You may change your mind a few times as you
notice an event should come between two events you have put together, so it is
a good idea to only fill the boxes with your answers once you have decided on
the final order – use the bottom of the page to write down the order you think
the sentences are in, so that you can change your mind at any point.
Notice that in the sample task on the next page, you are helped by being given
the first event in the story, but notice also that this event actually appears
almost at the end of the passage. So you can see that the events in the passage
are not necessarily given in the order in which they occurred.
136 INTO EUROPE Reading and the Use of English

137Chapter 7 Putting parts of a text in the correct order

You are going to read a newspaper article about a hijack. After the text there are
8 sentences which summarise what happened. The summary sentences are mixed
up. Put them in the chronological order of events. Write your answers in the boxes
after the text. The first sentence is given as an example (0).
Captives trek out of jungle to freedom
Two British orchid hunters kidnapped by
guerrillas nine months ago in the Colombian
jungle have walked to freedom unharmed
after they were released by their captors.
Tom Hart Dyke, 24, a horticulturalist
from Eynsford, Kent, and Paul Winder, 29, a
merchant banker from Chelmsford, Essex,
trekked through wilderness for eight days.
After getting lost in the dense jungle, they
were forced to return to the guerrillas to ask
for a map, set off again, and finally stumbled
across a park ranger.
When they arrived back in Britain, Mr
Hart Dyke said they had shared an
extraordinary camaraderie with the guerrillas
– even stopping for a drink and a cigarette
when they returned to ask for a map – but had
been terrified when they were first captured.
“Initially they used their guns to get us on to
the ground, they tied us up for half an hour
and said, ‘Are you going to run?’ After that it
never happened again,” he said.
Their captors treated them well, built
them a bed and gave Mr Winder antibiotics
for a foot infection. They showed Mr Hart
Dyke the rare orchids he had been looking
for, and he joked that he had put on weight
thanks to the diet of beef and bananas.
But Mr Winder said: “We’re not
used to living in that environment. They [the
guerrillas] are very strong people, and we
couldn’t always keep up with them, but we
always did our best. It was a team effort.”
“We tried to live off each other.
There were low times, high times, terrifying
times and fantastic times. It was a huge
rollercoaster of emotion. We always had
confidence that we would get back to
England and see our families.”
The two men set out from Yaviza in
Panama to the Darien Gap, a roadless region
on the border with Colombia. It is a lawless
no man’s land where leftist rebels and
rightwing paramilitaries battle to dominate
key drug- and arms-smuggling routes. The
guerrillas did not identify themselves or
explain the purpose of the kidnapping.
Although they said they would demand a
ransom of $5m for each man, they never did.
The Guardian Weekly

A The two men got lost in the jungle.
B The guerrillas and the two men helped each other.
C The guerrillas gave a map to the two men.
D The two men set out from Yaviza in Panama to look for orchids.
E The guerrillas treated the two men as prisoners.
F The two men were captured by the guerrillas.
G The two men met a park ranger.
H The two men were allowed to leave.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
D
Score: 7 points

Answer Key to Sample Task: Captives
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
D F E B H A C G
Item 1: The first event mentioned in the summary sentences (Sentence F) is
given in the first paragraph of the passage, but alongside later events. The first
paragraph tells you about the first and the last events and so is a useful
overview of the passage.
Items 2 and 3: The passage tells us that although the men were first treated as
prisoners, that changed very quickly, and the guerrillas treated the captives
well. So Sentence E comes before Sentence B.
Item 4: The passage makes it clear that after a while, the men were allowed to
leave (Sentence H). In fact the passage contains a lot of information, especially
in the second part, that is not summarised in any of the sentences, so that
information can be ignored.
Item 5: Because Sentence A comes first in the list of sentences, you might have
been tempted to think that the men got lost in the jungle before they were
captured. But the text does not say anything about this. The only time it is
mentioned that the men got lost is after they left the guerrillas.
Item 6: The text says that the men had to return to the guerrillas after getting
lost, and only then were they given a map. Thus Sentence C comes after
Sentence A.
Item 7: At the end of the second paragraph in the passage, we are told that the
men met a park ranger. Notice that this information is presented before the
information about how they were treated by the guerrillas, even though it is the
last event in the story.

TTaasskk 3399
You are going to read a newspaper article. A summary of the article is provided
after the text. Sentences of the summary are mixed up. Put sentences (A-J) of the
summary in the chronological order of events (1-9). There is an example at the
beginning (0).
Queen Meets Gardener Who Found Baby
The Queen expressed concern yesterday
about an abandoned baby found by a
gardener who had been preparing the
grounds of a hospital for her visit.
The baby, named Christine by nurses,
was found abandoned two weeks ago in a
carrier bag beside rubbish bins outside
Kincardine Community Hospital in
Stonehaven, Aberdeenshire.
During a visit to the hospital yesterday, the
Queen met the gardener, Chris Robertson,
after whom the baby was named.
Mr Robertson, 39, who found the baby
as he was mowing the lawn said: ‘You get
attached when you find them in a bag.
There is a wee bond between us now.’
When Christine was brought into the
hospital on July 21, she was blue in the
face and had symptoms of hypothermia.
Her mother has not been traced.
The Queen also met Alice Bartlett, 56,
the staff nurse who initially cared for
Christine. ‘We were able to tell her that
Christine is thriving,’ she said.
The Daily Telegraph

A Yesterday the Queen paid a visit to Kincardine Hospital.
B The Queen also met Ms A. Bartlett, the staff nurse.
C The gardener found a baby in a bag outside Kincardine Hospital.
D A gardener began mowing the lawn.
E The baby was named Christine after Chris, the gardener.
F The first person to look after the baby was the staff nurse.
G Alice was pleased to tell the Queen that the baby was getting well.
H She met Mr Robertson, the gardener.
I The baby was brought into the hospital with blue face on July 21.
J A baby was abandoned beside a rubbish bin.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
J
Score: 9 points

TTaasskk 4400
You are going to read a story about the famous Portland Vase, taken from The
World’s Greatest Trials. Paragraphs of the text are mixed up. Put the paragraphs
(A-G) into the correct order. Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There
A smashing case
A It happened at 3.45 pm on 7 February 1845. A number of visitors wandering around the
Hamiltonian Room at the museum suddenly heard an ear-shattering crash. Everyone
rushed to the ante-room where the vase normally stood in a display case mounted on an
octagonal table. But the case was not there – it was scattered in a hundred fragments on
the floor. Whodunit?
B As it happened, Lloyd only had ninepence on him at the time, and so was hauled off to
gaol. But he had served less than a week of his two-month sentence before an anonymous
donor sent £ 5 to pay the fine. The vandal was freed, and having made his brief,
ignominious bow in the spotlight of history, vanished backstage forever.
C The world’s most valuable item of glassware, everyone agrees, is the famous Portland
Vase, made in Italy at around the time of Christ, and on display at the British Museum.
D The vase, however, was painstakingly restored in the months that followed, and it was not
long before Parliament passed a special Act to protect works of art from similar outrages.
E The existing Wilful Damage Act only provided for deliberate damage done to property
worth up to £5; the penalties were a £5 fine or 2 months’ imprisonment. Now, however
hard it was to gauge the price of the Portland Vase, it was certainly worth more than £5.
But the defect in the law was such that Lloyd could not be directed to pay anything for
shattering the Portland Vase; instead, he was ordered to pay £5 for the glass case in
which it had stood!
F Barely 10 inches high, the piece is, quite literally, priceless; so completely unique that no
sum can be quoted in valuation. And looking at this most delicate of the world’s art
treasures, it is hard to believe that, more than a hundred years ago, it was smashed to
smithereens.
G The doors were immediately closed and a Mr Hawkins, the Superintendent, questioned
the horrified visitors. Eventually he got round to one William Lloyd, theatrical scene
painter from Dublin. ‘Alone I did it!’ the miscreant proudly roared. He had taken aim with
a small item of sculpture picked up nearby, and when taken to Bow Street Police Station
excused himself on the grounds of ‘delirium, arising from habitual intemperance’. That is
to say, he was drunk as usual. The amazing feature of the incident, though, was that the
law was almost powerless against the vandal.
Tim Healey: The World’s Greatest Trials

0 1 2 3 4 5 6
C
Score: 6 points

TTaasskk 4411
You are going to read a journal article about the life of Lord John Hunt. Parts of
the article are mixed. Put them into the correct order. Write the appropriate letter
(A - G) in the boxes after the text. There is an example at the beginning (0).
COLONEL JOHN HUNT (1910-1998)
A
He was a sensitive and intensely human
person. With his engaging blue eyes and
confident handshake, he immediately put
one at ease and his warmth and deter-
mination moulded a group of
individualists into a happy and united
team. We remained friends ever since.
Everest changed all our lives.
B
After heart surgery in May 1995, he
reduced his public engagements, but it
gave him enormous pleasure last May to
preside for the last time over the extended
“Everest Family” at our 45th anniversary
reunion in Snowdonia. He died on 7
November 1998 and is survived by his
wife Joy and their four daughters.
C
Four days earlier Hillary and Tenzing had
reached the highest point on Earth for the
first time – 29,028 feet (8,848 metres).
However it was the leader of this British
expedition, Colonel John Hunt, who
deserved the highest accolade of
knighthood.
D
Then came a peace-keeping role between
dissident groups in Greece following
liberation from the Germans, for which he
was appointed CBE.
So when I first met him at the Royal
Geographical Society to be interviewed for
a possible place in his 1953 Everest team, I
might have expected a brusque and con-
ventional military man. I was wrong.
E
Hunt gave up a promising army career to
be the first director of the Duke of
Edinburgh’s Award, becoming a role
model and inspiration to youth,
influencing them to take up challenging
outdoor pursuits. Created a life peer in
1966 and Knight of the Garter in 1979, his
record of public service was exceptional;
advising on relief after the Nigerian civil
war, on police in Northern Ireland; first
chairman of the Parole Board; president of
the Council for National Parks; the list
was endless. He was elected president of
both the Alpine Club and the RGS; wrote
the best-selling The Ascent of Everest in an
astonishing 30 days and a volume of his
autobiography, Life is Meeting.
F
He had climbed to 27,350 feet in support
of the assault, but it was his battle with
proven powers of leadership and
meticulous planning that were the
hallmarks of success.
Following his father into the army, he was
commissioned in the King’s Royal Rifle
Corps, serving in India in the 1930s and
earning a Distinguished Service Order in
theatre-fighting of the Italian campaign of
World War II.
G
“Everest – The Crowning Glory” was the
headline greeeting the crowds outside
Buckingham Palace on 2 June 1953.
Geographical

0 1 2 3 4 5 6
G
Score: 6 points

TTaasskk 4422
You are going to read a magazine article about a TV star’s home. The beginning
and the end of the article are given, but the middle part is missing. The paragraphs
of the missing part are given after the text but they are mixed. Put the paragraphs
(A-G) in the correct order and write their letters next to the numbers (1-6). The
first sentence of the missing part is given as an example (0).
Celebrity homes
JANE GURNETT
The Casualty star’s house came complete with a new man!
When Casualty star Jane Gurnett took the keys to her dream cottage, she had no idea
she’d also be unlocking the door to her heart.
For weeks Jane had been planning how to turn the two-bedroom shell with a
leaking roof and outside loo into her ideal home.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
C
“She was touched I’d retained the original features and kept it looking like a
cottage. I hadn’t wanted to destroy the atmosphere.”
Bella

A “John felt so sorry for me — and a bit guilty because he’d recommended the builders — that
he spent every spare minute helping me do up the house.”
B Of the house that brought them together, Jane says: “I knew I wanted to live in a nice
street in West London, but if I’d bought a place that was already renovated, there’s no way
I would have been able to afford it.”
C Her actor friend John Wheatley — better known as Sally Webster’s admirer Joe
Broughton in Coronation Street — put Jane in touch with some builders he knew and she
waited to see her house transformed.
D “My friend went to investigate and the woman said that the house had been in her family
from 1880 until it was sold to me.”
E John and Jane were in each other’s company so much that their labours blossomed into
love. They’ve now been living together for four years.
F “Eight weeks later, nothing had been done,” says Jane, who plays the nurse Rachel
Longworth in the medical series. “In the end, I couldn’t wait and started gutting the place
myself.”
G “I think all the hard work was worth it,” she says. “I was away working recently and a
friend spotted a woman standing outside my house.”
Score: 6 points

TTaasskk 4433
You are going to read the first part of a magazine article about an arranged
marriage. After the text there are 9 sentences which summarise what happened
but they are mixed. Put the sentences (A-I) in the correct order. Write your
answers in the boxes. The first sentence is given as an example (0).
ARRANGED MARRIAGES
ROBINA AND IMRAN SAEED
mran and Robina Saeed were
married in January last year – they
fell in love several months later. The
young Muslim couple married at a
traditional ceremony in Pakistan, their
country of origin, while Imran was there
on a holiday. Two days later, he returned
to Australia. It took six months before
Robina received her visa and could
follow her new husband to their home in
Queensland.
During those months apart, the pair
realised how much they liked, and
maybe even loved each other.
“We learnt to appreciate each other,”
explains Imran. “We liked each other
quite a bit before, but I think the
relationship really matured when we
were apart. Technically we were
married, but traditionally her hand was
not given to me, in the sense we were not
living together. The first time we were on
our own together was when she came to
Australia.”
Imran collected his wife from the
airport on a chilly Monday morning in
July last year. He admits he was a little
nervous about the reunion, but he says,
smiling, “I had time to look over all the
photographs of the wedding, so I knew
what she looked like.”
Today they live in an unassuming
house in Queensland and Imran, 31,
works as a structural engineer. Robina –
who will admit only to being in her early
20s – is studying for her Masters of
International Business at the Queensland
University of Technology.
They are very much in love and often
gaze into each other’s eyes as they speak
and giggle about the attention their
relationship has attracted.
Three years ago, Imran became a
naturalised Australian, but he still held
firmly to his traditional Pakistani Muslim
values and let his parents arrange his
marriage. He was on six weeks’ holiday
in Pakistan, over Christmas 1992, when
his mother saw Robina at a social
function.
After some casual conversation, she
thought that Robina would be a good
wife for her son.
Robina and Imran are cousins – his
father and her mother are first cousins
– so it was easy to arrange for them to
meet at an upcoming family gathering
a few days later.
The Australian Women’s Weekly
I

A Imran went back to Australia.
B Imran and Robina got married in Pakistan.
C Imran became an Australian citizen.
D Imran’s mother met Robina.
E The married couple lived apart.
F Imran and Robina’s families met.
G Imran met Robina at the airport.
H They moved to their present home.
I Robina received her visa.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
C
Score: 8 points

PPAARRTT TTHHRREEEE
Use of English
Introduction
In this part of the book (Chapters 8–12), you will see a number of different task
types, just as you did in Part 2 on Reading. Getting used to taking a variety of
different tests is good preparation for modern European examinations, which
normally use a range of different question or task types, as explained in Part
Two.
In Use of English examinations, the focus is usually on the language which is
being used to express ideas in texts. Sometimes the questions may seem very
similar to Reading tests, and, indeed, at times it is hard to tell the difference,
because modern Use of English tests want to see, not if you can recite the
grammatical rules of English, but whether you can express the meaning
required by the text and its context in suitable form. You may be expected to
use lexical words (verbs, nouns, adjectives, adverbs) appropriately, including set
phrases, collocations, idioms or colloquial expressions (like “for example”, “such
as”, “sort of”, “at first”, “in fact”, “for this reason”, “let alone”, “as soon as”, “more
or less”, “plenty of”, “to be honest”, “rumour has it”, “out of sight”, “have a row”,
“pay attention to”, “attract somebody’s attention”, “it takes time to do something”,
“end up with something”, “offer somebody a hand”) – showing how good your
vocabulary is – or you may have to understand the meaning of the sentence or
passage in order to use the correct grammatical form (forms of verb tenses,
modal and auxiliary verbs, short answers, articles, pronouns, prepositional
phrases, comparative phrases, quantifiers, linking words) – the grammar in use.
In this part of the book, you will find five different task or question types:
• open gap-filling
• banked gap-filling
• multiple choice
• spot the error
• word formation
There are over 600 items in the five chapters that follow, and, as you will see,
the number of items in a task is usually between 8–15. The highest number of
items is included in spot-the-error tasks, where the number of items per task
ranges between 14 and 19.
The texts, similarly to those in Part 2, come from a variety of authentic sources,
covering a wide range of topics you might be interested in (for example, using
computers, the internet, rare birds in Australia, nature reserves, sports,

tourism, travelling, Egyptian archaeology, cuisine, education, books, language,
and others). In each task, the texts are presented together with their title, which
is intended to help you get some idea of what the text is about even before you
start reading it.
Similarly to the tasks in Part 2, each task begins with an example item written
in italics and marked with (0). The items in the tasks are always numbered and,
where relevant, the options from which to choose the correct or acceptable
answers to the questions are marked with letters.
In each chapter, you will first read a general description and explanation of the
task type. Then you will see a Sample Task, which you should respond to. This
task is then followed by the correct or acceptable answers to the task, and a
detailed explanation of each answer. By reading these explanations carefully,
we believe that you will learn how best to answer each type of task, and will
understand better what the test is trying to test.

Chapter 8
Open gap-filling
This test method is called open gap-filling or, sometimes, modified cloze.
Depending on the actual items included in a task, any gap-filling task in a Use
of English paper may test either grammatical structure or vocabulary or both.
In an open gap-filling task, you are given a text, usually with around 10-15
gaps in it, and your task is to fill each gap with a suitable word. Note that you
can only use one word in each gap: if you put more than one word, your answer
is incorrect and will be penalized.
Most of the tasks you will find in this chapter focus on grammatical structure,
but as you will notice, some include a mixture of grammatical and vocabulary
items.
Because the items for these tasks are always embedded in a text, and the
meaning of the text should help you complete the gaps, it is advisable for you
to read very carefully through the whole text from beginning to end before you
start completing the gaps.
You have to pay attention to the meaning of the text, especially the links be-
tween sentences, in order to get some items correct. In addition, you will notice
that for some items more than one answer is possible - although, once more,
you must be careful only to use one word, otherwise you will be penalised.
You will notice that, in gap-filling tasks, the first sentence of the text is never
gapped (there is no item in it), and the example item is usually provided in the
second or, in some cases, the third sentence. The reason for this is that the first
sentences of texts typically contain information that might be crucial to under-
standing the rest of the text. These ‘lead-in’ sentences are, therefore, intended
by the test developers to help you understand as clearly as possible what is said
at the beginning of the text and predict with some confidence what may come
in the rest of the text, both in terms of information and the language used in
the text. Thus, in such tasks, it is essential to read the example.
When you have completed a gap, remember to reread the sentence and, if ne-
cessary, a larger section of the text, before and, very importantly, also AFTER
the gap, in order to check whether it makes sense with the word that you think
is suitable. In other words, once you have identified the type of word that you
think should fit the gap (be that a verb, an adverb, a quantifier, a preposition,
or any other type), make sure that the actual grammatical or lexical word you

intend to use in the gap fits in with the meaning of the sentence and the text
as well. The missing word for each gap must be appropriate both syntactically
and in terms of meaning.
Now you should start practising this task type, doing first the Sample Task, “The
very sweetest Swiss temptation”.

You are going to read the first part of a magazine article about chocolate. Some
words are missing from the text. Write the missing words on the lines (1-13) on
the opposite page. Use only one word in each gap. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
THE VERY
SWEETEST
SWISS TEMPTATION
hocolate has an intriguing history that goes way back in time to the Mayas of
Central America, who first discovered the secret of the cocoa tree. The Mayas
educated the Aztecs, who (0) _____ turn revealed all to the Europeans
(thanks to Christopher Columbus, who ‘discovered’ chocolate and Cortes, who
transported cocoa beans and chocolate making equipment to Spain in 1528).
The Aztecs called the drink they made from crushed cocoa beans (1) _____ with
vanilla and sugar ‘The Food of the Gods’, a term (2) _____ changed to ‘The Food for
Love’ in Europe. Many do swear that chocolate is an aphrodisiac and even recent
research (3) _____ proved that chocolate does help us to relax and feel more sensual
(Casanova swore by it).
Chocolate has changed a great deal (4) _____ the days of the Aztecs. For a start,
Europeans found (5) ______ preferred the taste if they didn’t include chilli pepper
(6) _____ its production! Spain held a monopoly on chocolate (7) _____ 1615, when
the daughter of Phillip II of Spain married King Louis XIII of France and took the
secret of chocolate with her. But (8) _____ so, chocolate recipes were a closely
guarded secret for hundreds of years.
Although in great demand, the quality of chocolate at (9) _____ time was very
changeable (not very good, to be (10) _____). It all changed in the early nineteenth
century, (11) _____, when the first Swiss chocolate factory was founded near Vevey,
(12) _____ the shadow of beautiful Lake Geneva. The founder and the father of Swiss
chocolate was François-Louis Cailler. You can still buy Cailler chocolate today; in
(13) _____ , most of the original chocolate ‘names’ are still in existence centuries on.
Other confectionery businesses soon began, including that of Philippe Suchard in
Neuçhatel in 1825 and Rudolph Sprüngli in 1845.
C

159Chapter 8 Open gap-filling
0 in
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
Score: 13 points

Answer Key to Sample Task: The very sweetest
0 in
1 flavoured / mixed
2 which / that / they
3 has / results / figures
4 since
5 they / people
6 in / during
7 until / till
8 even
9 that /the
10 honest / frank / sure
11 however / though
12 in
13 fact / Switzerland
Item 1: Several different words can fit into this gap, provided that they are past
participles, and modify the phrase “cocoa beans”, and, of course, make sense.
“mixed” and “flavoured” are both possible, although they make different
meanings.
Item 2: Again, several options are possible whilst preserving the syntax of the
sentence. All three words given in the Answer Key are equally correct.
Item 3: “has” is a part of speech very different from “results” or “figures”, both
of which are nouns, whereas “has” is an auxiliary verb completing the present
perfect phrase “has proved”. Nevertheless, all three answers are possible and
fit in terms of meaning, although they result in rather different meanings.
Item 4: The author is comparing chocolate in the old days of the Aztecs with
more recent times (“chocolate has changed”). Thus “since” is the appropriate
preposition. Words like “in” or “for” have very different meanings from what is
required in the gap to complete the meaning of the sentence.
Item 5: The author has already mentioned Europeans, so what is needed is a
word, either a noun or a pronoun, that can refer back to them: so “they” or
“people” are both possible.
Item 6: The word “include” usually needs the preposition “in” to complete the
sense, although it is not essential, which is why “during”, referring to the
process of production, is also possible.
Item 7: The rest of the sentence beyond this gap makes it clear that the
monopoly stopped once the secret of chocolate had gone to France. So 1615 is
the last date when a monopoly existed, hence “until” or the alternative form “till".

Item 8: This sentence is qualifying the previous one, and so the phrase “even
so” is appropriate.
Item 9: A determiner/part of a time phrase is missing, and since the times are
remote, the best fit is the demonstrative pronoun “that”, although the definite
article “the” is also possible.
Item 10: A set phrase is required here, and “to be certain”, “to be frank” and “to
be sure” all have more or less the same meaning.
Item 11: Since the meaning of this sentence in relation to the previous one is
one of contrast, either word given in the Answer Key is possible. Both “however”
and “though” are usually surrounded by commas, thus the two commas before
and after the gap confirm that either word is appropriate for the gap.
Item 12: Since the author is writing about places, a locational preposition is
needed, and a common phrase with the word “shadow” is “in the shadow of”.
Item 13: The missing word can be either a place name which makes sense, like
“Switzerland”, or it can be part of a set phrase qualifying the previous clause,
hence “in fact”.

TTaasskk 4444
You are going to read a case study of a teenage girl. The text is part of a
newspaper article which reports on results of a survey. Some words are missing
from the text. Write the missing words on the lines (1-12) after the text. Write
only one word on each line. There is an example at the beginning (0).
I enjoy helping people
SENAB Adekunie is 17. For the whole of her teenage years she has successfully shared a
bedroom with her big sister in Islington, north London.
She says: “We have identical taste (0) ..... music - maybe because we’ve shared a
room for so long, I don’t know. Our tastes are so similar the only thing we ever argue (1) .....
is when I want to play it louder. But even then we sort (2) ..... out.”
She is surprised to find she conforms so closely to the survey’s stereotype of (3) .....
room-sharer. She said: “When I’m in a group of friends, I’m more motherly than the (4) ..... in
the group. I only had one friend who shared a room, but she’s moved out into (5) ..... own
room so I guess I’m the only one now.”
“I’ve never had a fight at school,” she insists. “I can’t avoid trying to (6) ..... anybody.
If I see them struggling in the street with their shopping, I offer (7) ..... a hand. I offer my seat
on buses, trains, everywhere. When the room gets messy, I don’t (8) ..... clearing it up. I know
it sounds soppy, but she does (9) ..... same sometimes. We’re very close.”
She doesn’t really regard the bedroom as her personal space. “Apart from sleeping I
only go in there (10) ..... do my hair or use my sister’s computer,” she says.
Senab recommends having a big sister in the bedroom to every teenage girl: “When I was
an adolescent, (11) ..... were things I wouldn’t want to approach my Mum with. But I (12) ..... say
everything to my sister.”
“We do have arguments, about stupid things, little things. But my mum has worked
out that you can just leave us, and half an hour later we’ll have made it up and be best friends
again.”

0 in
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
Score: 12 points

TTaasskk 4455
You are going to read a text from a handbook on using computers. Some words
are missing from the text. Write the missing words on the lines (1-13) after the
text. Write only one word on each line. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Shutting down your computer
WHEN YOU HAVE FINISHED WORKING on your computer for the day, it is best to
switch off your PC rather than leaving it on all night. But (0) ...... weary you might feel, don’t
be tempted to just switch (1) ...... off. A quick flick of the switch is fine to shut down a
television – (2) ...... with a PC you must follow a short sequence (3) ...... steps to ensure your
work is safe and to prevent damage to your hardware.
When to power off
Switching your computer on and off several times a day (4) ...... not a good idea.
Every time you turn on a computer, internal components (5) ...... heated, and these cool when
you switch the unit off. The change in temperature causes circuit boards to expand and
contract, (6) ...... increases wear and tear on solder joints.
For this (7) ...... , some people advocate leaving the system unit on all the time (8) ......
you are a regular PC user. (Although many maintain that you (9) ...... turn your monitor off at
night.) Generally, however, it is probably best to shut down the system unit (10) ...... the end
of each day’s work. Leaving your computer on all the time means that motors in (11) ......
hard disk drive and fan housing are working non-stop, and this increases the strain on the
bearings. If you (12) ...... been using a computer application, such (13) ...... a word processing
program, it is very important that you save your work before turning off your computer.

0 however
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
Score: 13 points

TTaasskk 4466
You are going to read a text about two unusual animals. Some words are missing
from it. Write the missing words on the lines (1—14) after the text. Write only one
word on each line. There is an example at the beginning (0).
KOALAS AND KIWIS
Most of Oceania’s people live on the
continental islands of Australia and New
Zealand. Geographically, New Zealand
(0) ...... part of Polynesia. Unlike most other
islands of Oceania, New Zealand and
Australia are populated mostly (1) ......
Europeans. The recent histories of these
nations are similar, as are their economies.
English is the official (2) ...... in each nation.
One of the similarities (3) ......
Australia and New Zealand is the
importance of sheep to the economies of
both nations. In addition to its domestic
animals, Australia and New Zealand (4) ......
also home to many forms of wildlife found
nowhere (5) ...... in the world.
One animal found only in Australia is
the koala. The koala (6) ..... often referred to
as a bear.
However, it is not a bear at all but a
marsupial, an animal with a pouch. Unlike
bears, koalas (7) ...... not eat meat. They eat
only (8) ...... leaves of the eucalyptus tree.
(9) ...... a koala is born, it is about as
thick as a pencil and only one-inch long.
This tiny creature crawls into (10) ......
mother’s pouch, where it stays for about six
months.
New Zealand (11) ...... has unusual
forms of wildlife. The kiwi, for example, is a
bird (12) ...... cannot fly. Instead it runs very
fast. The kiwi has whiskers (13) ...... a cat
and a long, straight bill (14) ...... digging up
worms and insects. The kiwi is the national
symbol of New Zealand, and its picture
appears on stamps, coins, and the national
seal.

0 is
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
Score: 14 points

TTaasskk 4477
You are going to read a text that gives some advice on sunbathing. Some words
are missing from the text. Write the missing words (1-10) on the lines after the
Protect Yourself
Limit time in the sun. Avoid the hours between 10 a.m. and 4 p.m., (0) ...... the sun’s rays
are strongest.
Use a sunscreen of SPF 15 or higher, with ingredients (1) ...... block both UVB and UVA
rays. Reapply (2) ...... two hours, more often when you swim, sweat or towel yourself dry.
Remember, you can get ultraviolet radiation (3) ...... cloudy, hazy days too.
Cover up. Wear a long-sleeved shirt, pants and (4) ...... broad-brimmed hat. Baseball caps
leave neck, ears and other parts of (5) ...... face unprotected.
Seek the shade. Sand, concrete and snow are reflective surfaces that bounce damaging rays
to you (6) ...... if you’re beneath an umbrella (7) ...... a tree.
Avoid artificial “sun”. Ultraviolet light (tanning booths and sunlamps) causes sunburn and
premature aging and increases the risk (8) ...... skin cancer.
Protect your children. Keep babies under six months (9) ...... of the sun entirely. Protect
children over six months (10) ...... clothing, hats and sunscreen, and limit their time in the sun.

0 when
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Score: 10 points

TTaasskk 4488
You are going to read part of an information leaflet about the Royal Society for
the Protection of Birds. Some words are missing from the text. Write the missing
words on the lines (1-12) after the text. Write only one word on each line. There is
an example at the beginning (0).
RSPB
FACT file
The Royal Society for the Protection of Birds (RSPB) is the charity that takes action for wild
birds and the environment.
We are (0) ..... largest wildlife conservation organisation in Europe (1) ..... over one million
members. We depend (2) ..... support from our members and the public (3) ..... achieve a
healthy environment, rich in birds and other wildlife. The RSPB is part of the global
partnership (4) ..... bird and habitat conservation organisations called BirdLife International.
Informing and educating
Birds, our members’ magazine, has (5) ..... readership of 1.9 million and Bird Life, the junior
magazine, (6) ..... read by over 250,000 children. We handle more than 250,000 letters and
telephone calls (7) ..... members and the general public each year. Volunteers assist in running
a varied programme of over 12,000 activities (8) ..... children. More than 50,000 school
children visit our nature reserves each year for a day of environmental education. We run
specific community programmes linked (9) ..... important habitats such as reedbeds, and
species such as cirl buntings.
Managing places for nature
We protect the particular kinds of countryside (10) ..... threatened birds live - their habitats.
We manage more than 140 nature reserves throughout the UK, covering more than 100,000
hectares. We safeguard sites of conservation importance. For (11) ..... , intense lobbying from
conservationists, including the RSPB, helped to prevent the removal of legal protection from
parts of Hatfield Moors. This is England’s largest lowland peatland and (12) ..... of the UK’s
most important wildlife sites. Each year RSPB nature reserves receive over one million visits.

0 the
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
Score: 12 points

TTaasskk 4499
You are going to read the first part of a short story. Some words are missing from
the text. Write the missing words on the lines (1-14) after the text. Write only one
word on each line. There is one example at the beginning (0).
I NEVER FORGET A FACE
I’ll tell you a strange thing about me – I never forget a face. The only trouble (0) ____ that
usually I’m quite unable to tell you the name of the person. I know what you are going to say –
you suffer (1) ____ the same thing yourself. Lots of people do, to some extent, (2) ____ people
than not, perhaps. But I’m not (3) ____ that. When I say I never forget a face, I mean it. I can
pass a fellow in the street one day and recognize (4) ____ again months after, though we’ve
never (5) _____ to each other. My wife says sometimes that I ought to (6) ____ a reporter for
the newspapers and wait about at first nights at cinemas, looking for all the famous people
(7) ____ go to see the films. But, as I tell her, I would not be able to do very (8) ____ at that. I
would see the famous man or woman, but I would not be able to say (9) ____ one it was. That’s
my trouble, as I say – names.
Of (10) ____ , this trouble with names has put me in difficulties from time to time. But
with a little skill one can usually (11) ____ out of the difficulty in one way or another. In my
work, moving round the city doing bits of business, I have (12) ____ be very clever not to let
a man see that I can’t remember (13) ____ his name is Smith or Moses. I (14) ____ annoyed
people in that way and lost good business more than once. But, on the whole, I think I gain
more than I lose by this strange memory of mine.

0 is
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
Score: 14 points

TTaasskk 5500
You are going to read the first part of a magazine article about two police officers.
Some words are missing from the text. Write the missing words on the lines (1-12)
after the text. Write only one word on each line. There is one example at the
beginning (0).
Partners on patrol
ike most married couples, Andy and
Helen Butler are used to taking the
rough with the smooth. But at least by
working together they never have to argue
about (0) ____ turn it is to drive.
Because Andy and Helen are the
first police husband and wife team on
Britain’s roads. They live, sleep and work
together, 24 hours (1) ____ day, every day
of their lives.
“It probably wouldn’t work for
every couple,” admits Helen. “But it’s been
great for us. We’ve never (2) ____ a row in
the patrol car and working the (3) ____
shifts means we get time off together.”
The couple, who serve in the Avon
and Somerset traffic department in
Taunton, even (4) ____ last Christmas Day
patrolling the M5 motorway together.
“It (5) ____ some time to get used
to having my wife in the same car,” says
Andy, 31, who joined the force as a cadet
15 years (6) ____ . “But in fact it’s all
worked out very well.
“And (7) ____ our colleagues
thought it was funny at first, they’ve given
us a tremendous amount of support.”
Helen, who’s also 31, says: “When
we’re (8) ____ work, Andy and I try to
treat each other just (9) ____ we would any
colleague. We’ve both worked with other
officers but it’s much nicer to (10) ____
able to work with the person you love.”
The couple, who’ve been married
(11) ____ two and a half years, believe
they are the first – and only – British
couple to serve in the same police car.
“And we’ve done everything we can
to make it work. Right from day one we
tried to make a clear distinction (12) ____
our private life and our professional life out
on patrol,” says Helen. “We wouldn’t
dream of talking about anything other than
work while we’re on duty.”
L

0 whose
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8
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12
Score: 12 points

TTaasskk 5511
You are going to read a text about birds. Some words are missing from it. Write
the missing words on the lines (1-14) after the text. Write only one word on each
line. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Where do birds come from ?
How did birds develop in the first place? How did an animal without a beak, feathers or flight
muscles become a bird? Palaeontologists, the scientists who study fossils, have gathered
much evidence over the years but (0) ..... are still large gaps. Bird skeletons are fragile, so
they rarely survive as fossils. We end (1) ..... with a dot to dot puzzle – with a difference. All
the dots are jumbled up and most of them are missing! This leaves room for different theories
– and the scientists still argue (2) ..... them.
Bird number one
A fossil discovered in 1861 is widely agreed (3) ..... be the first bird. It is called
Archaeopteryx and it lived in the Jurassic period 195 million years ago – at the same time
(4) ..... the big dinosaurs like Tyrannosaurus rex. Although it had feathers and (5) ..... like a
bird in many ways, it also resembled a reptile. Like reptiles, it had (6) ..... long tail bone and
teeth (which birds don’t have), and its bones were not hollow like those (7) ..... a bird. Some
scientists believe that birds and dinosaurs evolved from reptiles separately, but others insist
that birds descended (8) ..... two-legged dinosaurs called theropods.
All change
Evolution carries (9) ..... today. Some birds were hunted to extinction – like the dodo and the
great auk – (10) ..... others have adapted to live alongside us. For instance, some birds
(11) ..... originally nested on wild cliffs – (12) ..... as peregrines – now often nest on tall
buildings in cities. Others regularly feed on the rubbish left (13) ..... people. What will happen
next? Will town pigeons turn into different species? Could there (14) ..... a Burger King
pigeon, feeding on fast food and skilled at unwrapping the packing? That’s unlikely, but even
so birds will continue to change to survive.

0 there
1
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5
6
7
8
9
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14
Score: 14 points

TTaasskk 5522
You are going to read the first part of a magazine article about an unusual child. Some
words are missing from the text. Write the missing words on the lines (1-14) after the
Uncommon Talents:
Gifted Children, Prodigies and Savants
Possessing abilities well beyond their years, gifted children inspire admiration, but they also
suffer ridicule, neglect and misunderstanding
One evening a few years ago, while I was attending a concert, a young boy in the audience
caught my attention. As the orchestra played a Mozart concerto, (0) ...... nine-year-old child
sat with a thick, well-thumbed orchestral score opened (1) ...... his lap. As he read, he
hummed the music (2) ...... loud, in perfect tune. During intermission, I cornered the boy’s
father. Yes, he told me, Stephen was really reading the music, not just looking (3) ...... it. And
reading musical scores was one of (4) ...... preferred activities, vying only with reading
college-level computer programming manuals. At an age (5) ...... most children concentrate
on fourth-grade arithmetic and the nuances (6) ...... playground etiquette, Stephen had already
earned (7) ...... prize in music theory that is coveted by adults.
Gifted children (8) ...... Stephen are fascinating but also intimidating. They have been
feared as “possessed”, they have been derided as oddballs, they have been ridiculed as nerds.
(9) ...... parents of such young people are often criticized (10) ...... pushing their children rather
than allowing them a normal, well-balanced childhood. These children are (11) ...... different
from others that schools usually do not know (12) ...... to educate them. Meanwhile society
expects gifted children to become creative intellectuals and artists as adults and views them as
failures (13) ...... they do not.
Psychologists have always (14) ...... interested in those who deviate from the norm, but
just as they know more about psychopathology than about leadership and courage, researchers
also know far more about retardation than about giftedness.

0 this
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7
8
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Score: 14 points

TTaasskk 5533
You are going to read the first part of a newspaper article about sport. Some
words are missing from the text. Write the missing words on the lines (1-12) on
the opposite page. Use only one word in each gap. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
Sport is back – and this time it’s personal
I NEVER THOUGHT it might include me. On the last Sunday of each April, (0) _____
500 men and women run 10 kilometres around London’s Alexandra Palace in the
Crouch End Fun Run. This year 485 entrants completed the race, and the race sheet
reports that one W. Hutton (1) _____ an hour and 12 minutes to run in 481st.
Remarkably four others finished the race more slowly.
But I was alive, (2) _____ my family’s foreboding – indeed prediction – of
death from heart attack. As the runners jostled amiably together afterwards, now
competing (3) _____ a free doughnut and orange juice and waiting for the various
children’s events to begin, I (4) _____ struck by the enthusiasm and the sheer
numbers of people who had turned (5) _____ . If they themselves weren’t running,
then they were making sure their children (6) _____ .
We were all, of course, part of the booming interest in personal fitness. The
market research organisation Mintel reports that over two million people are full
(7) _____ of private health and personal fitness clubs – up by a third in just six years.
The Sports Council’s most recent (8) _____ shows 12 per cent of the population are
now participating in some form of keep fit or yoga. Regular walking, the most
prosaic and cheapest of sports, (9) _____ enjoyed by nearly half of us – up by a
quarter over the past 10 years.
But (10) _____ boom in individual sporting is not matched by participation in
team games. The numbers playing rugby, hockey, and cricket are gently (11) _____,
with football being the only exception. There are over 100,000 football clubs in
Britain: it remains (12) _____ far Britain’s most popular team game, and there are
signs that women are beginning to join men in their interest – even so, its growth
does not match that of sports for individuals.

0 some
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4
5
6
7
8
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12
Score: 12 points

TTaasskk 5544
You are going to read a text about Elsa, the lioness and Nuru, an African man.
Some words are missing from the text. Write the missing words on the lines (1-12)
after the text. Write only one word on each line. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
Elsa and Nuru
When she was not with us, Nuru was still always in charge of Elsa; one day we
wanted to film him with her and told him that he should (0) ____ something rather smarter
than his usual tattered shirt and trousers. In a few minutes he reappeared in (1) ____ startling,
close-fitting cream-coloured jacket, with braid and frogging down the front, (2) ____ he had
bought for his wedding. We thought that he (3) ____ just like a professional lion tamer in it.
Elsa took one look at him and made at once for the bush; from there she peeped (4) ____ from
behind a shrub until she had established his identity. Then she came up to him and (5) ____
him a smack as though to say “What the devil do you mean by giving me (6) ____ a fright?”
Nuru and Elsa had many adventures together; (7) ____ instance, one day Nuru told us
that (8) ____ they were resting under a bush a leopard approached them down wind. Elsa
watched eagerly and, (9) ____ tense with excitement, kept still and controlled herself, except
(10) ____ her tail, until the leopard was nearly on top of her. Then (11) ____ the animal
noticed the switching tail and bolted like lightning, nearly overrunning Nuru in its flight.
Elsa was now twenty-three months old and her (12) ____ broke to a deep growl. A
month later she seemed to be in season again and placed her jets on many bushes, no doubt as
an invitation to a mate.

0 wear
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4
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7
8
9
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Score: 12 points

TTaasskk 5555
You are going to read the first part of a text about Elsa, the lioness. Some words
are missing from the text. Write the missing words on the lines (1-13) after the
Elsa and wild lions
Elsa has charming manners; no matter for how short a time we have been separated, she will
greet us ceremoniously, walking from one to the other, rubbing her head against us while
miaowing in a low moan. Invariably, I come first, then George, followed by Nuru, and
whoever (0) ..... to be near is afterwards greeted in the same way. She knows (1) ..... once who
likes her and reacts affectionately. She tolerates justifiably nervous guests, but those (2) .....
are really scared have a hard time. Not that she has ever done them (3) ..... harm but she
delights in thoroughly terrifying them.
Since she was a tiny cub she has known just (4) ..... to use her weight. By now it had
become (5) ..... more effective. Whenever she wanted to stop us, she flung herself with all her
force at our feet, pressing her body (6) ..... our shins and thus knocking us over.
Soon after our return from Lake Rudolf when we (7) ..... her out for her evening walks
she began to display a growing restlessness. Sometimes she refused to return with us and she
(8) ..... the night out in the bush. Usually we (9) ..... in getting her back by going to fetch her
in the Landrover. In fact, she soon decided that (10) ..... was a waste of energy to walk home
when a car had (11) ..... specially brought to fetch her. So she would jump on to the canvas
roof and loll at her ease, and from this vantage point she could watch out for game (12) .....
we drove along. This was a very satisfactory arrangement from her (13) ..... of view but,
unfortunately, the manufacturers had not designed the roof as a couch for a lioness. As a
result the supports began to give way under the strain and we found Elsa gradually subsiding
on top of us.

0 wear
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Score: 12 points

TTaasskk 5566
You are going to read the first part of a magazine article about letter-writing.
Some words are missing from the text. Write the missing words (1-14) on the
lines after the text. Write only one word on each line. There is one example at the
beginning (0).
Consuming passions
Actress Abigail McKern - daughter of actor Leo – talks about
her consuming passion: writing letters
Every morning, I sit at my desk in my pyjamas and have an hour-long letter-writing
session. It saddens me that it seems to (0) ____ a dying practice.
I began writing letters (1) ____ a child, when I’d draw pictures and flowers round the
borders of my epistles. In those days, I didn’t write fan letters to celebrities, but today I tend
(2) ____ send lots of them to actors whose performances I’ve really enjoyed.
Important letters are those that you know will cheer someone (3) ____ . I correspond
with an elderly man who (4) ____ to live down the road from me in north-west London. He
seemed to be lonely, and (5) ____ I passed his gate I’d stop for a chat. Now that he’s living in
Ireland we write regularly.
I’m diligent about thank-you notes, too. I think it’s bad manners not to write and show
appreciation if someone has (6) ____ the trouble to cook you a meal or give you a present.
My letter-writing doesn’t mean I neglect the phone – I’m a great chatterbox. But it can
end (7) ____ costing a fortune, so whether my parents are in their native Australia, (8) ____ at
home in Bath, I write individually to them. My father, who’s 73, (9) ____ a bit deaf now and
so isn’t fond of (10) ____ on the phone.
My sister, Harriet, a film-maker in Australia, is also high on my list. I was 40 in
February and she’s 10 years (11) ____ . After seeing her new-born baby son, Max, (12) ____
the first time, it seemed a good (13) ____ to write him a letter recalling my impressions of
him – something he can read when he’s older.
I also write to friends I’ve made through the years. Using a ballpoint pen and recycled
paper, I let the words pour (14) ____ . A lot of it is career news, because at present I have no
romantic news to tell.

0 be
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Score: 14 points

TTaasskk 5577
You are going to read a text on cooking. Some words are missing from the text.
Write the missing words on the lines (1-11) after the text. Write only one word on
each line. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Cooking
Cooking in the British Isles has changed greatly under the influence of other countries.
Immigrants (0) ..... such countries as China, India, Pakistan, and Turkey have helped to make
spiced foods much more popular in Britain. European dishes have long (1) ..... accepted by
British people, mainly (2) ..... a result of increased foreign travel and tourism.
Traditional British and Irish cooking is mainly simple. Fish and meat are roasted or
grilled plain, and without the spices used in (3) ..... other countries. Boiling and stewing are
used extensively for cooking meat, fish, and vegetables. Many dishes that were invented or
developed in the British Isles have (4) ..... famous in most parts of the world. Examples are
roast beef and Yorkshire pudding, kippers, porridge, marmalade, fish and chips, and Irish
stew.
The way of life in Britain and Ireland is constantly (5) ..... , and new cooking ideas are
introduced. Convenience foods - frozen, dried, or specially packaged foods that are (6) ..... to
prepare – have become popular in a busy world. Many diet-conscious people eat salads,
yoghurts, and (7) ..... health foods. Other changes include the fact (8) ..... more people now
own freezers. But many traditions in cooking are still maintained in the British Isles. The
British breakfast of bacon and eggs is still common. Many people (9) ..... retain the habit of
having their main meal at midday, calling (10) ..... meal dinner. In England’s Midlands and
Industrial North, a traditional cooked meal, (11) ..... in the late afternoon, is called high tea. In
other areas, afternoon tea is often followed later by a cooked meal called dinner or supper.

0 from
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Score: 11 points

Chapter 9
Banked gap-filling
This testing technique is known as “banked gap-filling”, because you have to
choose the appropriate word from a bank of alternatives. In a banked gap-
filling task, similarly to the open gap-filling tasks we explained in the previous
chapter, you are asked to read a text from which some words are missing.
However, while in an open gap task you are not given any words to choose from,
in this type of test, the words that were taken out from the text are printed after
the text, and you 'only' need to decide which word in the list of words after the
text is suitable for which gap in the text.
It may be helpful for you to note that the possible answers are listed in alpha-
betical order. You should also remember that this list of choices always includes
at least one, but more typically, two extra words that will not be suitable for any
of the gaps, and which you will not need to use in your answers.
Since you may only use each word once, it is a good idea to put a line through
a word in the bank, once you have decided where it fits in the text, so that you
do not use it again. This will also make it easier to search through the remaining
words in the bank for other items. Also, at the end, you can check to see whether
one or two words have not been crossed out since, depending on what the
instructions say, there will always be one or two words you do not need.
The tasks in this chapter were designed to test your ability to use vocabulary
rather more than grammatical structure, which, however, does not mean that
none of them contain any items requiring grammar words.
As with other gap-filling tasks which are based on texts, in order to do this type
of test successfully, it is a good idea to read through the whole text before even
attempting to fill in any gaps in the text. You can then go back to the beginning
and try to select the correct option to fit in the first space. Remember that you
need not only to pay attention to the meaning, but you also need to be aware
of the part of speech that appears to be missing from the text, and then identify
an appropriate part of speech from the bank. The example (0) in the Sample
Task (“Far from shore”) (with which you are advised to start practising this task
type) is a good instance of this: an adjective is required to fill the gap between
a possessive noun (“ocean’s”) and the head noun (“layer”), and the meaning of
the adjective must relate to the meaning of the text: the sunlight layer must be
higher than the other two, darker, layers, and so “top” is the best choice.

As with open gap-filling, it is essential to read the text after the gap as well as
before it, to be sure that the word you choose fits completely into the context.
A very common mistake is to find a word that fits the text before the gap but
not after the gap. Always look beyond the gap.
Now you should attempt to do the Sample Task for this task type ("Far from
shore").

193Chapter 9 Banked gap-filling

You are going to read a text about the ocean. Some words are missing from it.
Choose the most appropriate word from the list (A-P) for each gap (1-13) in the
text. There are two extra words that you do not need to use. Write your answers
in the boxes after the text. There is one example at the beginning (0).
Far from Shore
Scientists divide the open ocean far from land into three layers according to how much
sunlight the water gets: the sunlight zone, the twilight zone, and the midnight zone.
Sunlight Zone
The sunlight zone is the ocean’s (0) _____ layer. It goes down about 300 feet, and the
temperature is a pleasant 70°F. Even (1) _____ it is the smallest zone, it has about 90
(2) _____ of ocean life. Sunlight brightens the water near the surface (3) _____ plankton
float. Bigger creatures also live in the sunny water. Some swimming animals cruise (4) _____
below the surface. Some dive deep. Others break the water’s surface (5) _____ reach the air
above.
Twilight Zone
The twilight zone (6) _____ from the bottom of the sunlight zone down about 3,000 feet. The
water (7) _____ darker and colder – about 50°F. The fish that live here can’t see very well,
and there isn’t enough light for plant plankton or seaweed to stay (8) _____. Most food comes
from dead plankton and animals that drift down from the surface waters.
Midnight Zone
The midnight zone goes from the bottom of the twilight zone to the floor of the ocean. This
zone is dark and (9) _____. The temperature is really cold – about 43°F. The weight of the
water from above presses very hard on the small, (10) _____ blind animals that live here.
Many deep-ocean fish have parts that glow from chemicals in (11) _____ bodies. Their
lights confuse enemies, lure prey, and (12) _____ mates.
At some places on the ocean floor, water (13) _____ hot as 750°F shoots out of openings, or
vents. Minerals collect around the vents to form underwater chimneys. The hot water rising
from the chimneys looks like black smoke.

A alive G nearly M to
B attract H percent N top
C as I still O where
D extends J swim P which
E gets K their
F just L though
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
N
Score: 13 points

Answer Key to Sample Task: Far from shore
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
N L H O F M D E A I G K B C
Item 1: A conjunction is needed in the gap to connect the meaning of the two
clauses of the sentence. The word “even” in the sentence is the first part of a
two-word conjunction which could do this, but the second part of this conjuction
is missing. The word “though” given among the choices is suitable.
Item 2: The author is contrasting a small area with a large quantity of ocean
life. “percent” would complete the meaning.
Item 3: Since the two words after the gap are a noun (“plankton”) and a verb
(“float”), what is needed here is a subordinating conjunction of location: “where”
is ideal.
Item 4: Since, at first sight, the sentence containing this item seems complete
both in terms of meaning and syntax, there are not many types of words one
can think of when trying to fill the gap. However, the short sentence right after
the gap, “Some [animals] dive deep [in the water.]”, suggests that other animals
must cruise “very near” the surface (not simply “below the surface”). So the
missing word must be an intensifier/qualifier of some sort. The word “just”fits
the meaning.
Item 5: The words surrounding the gap suggest that the meaning of the
sentence requires an infinitive of purpose. The missing word can only be the
infinitive particle “to”.
Item 6: There is a main verb missing in this sentence, and the meaning has to
do with a range, hence “extends”.
Item 7: A verb is needed, and the adjectives after the gap are comparatives, so
something that indicates a change of state would make sense, hence “gets” or
“becomes” – but “becomes” is not in the bank.
Item 8: The meaning of the sentence is that the plankton and seaweed will die
because of the lack of light, hence stay “alive” is appropriate.
Item 9: What is needed here is another adjective that indicates what deep water
will be like. “still” is the only suitable choice given in the bank.

Item 10: Again, what is missing is either an adjective or an adverb qualifying
the adjective “blind”. As there are no other adjectives left in the bank, the adverb
“nearly” is the best choice.
Item 11: Either an adjective or a determiner is needed, but the possessive
adjective “their”, referring back to the “fish”, is the best.
Item 12: The three clauses of the gapped sentence are parallel: a verb followed
by a noun, so the missing word must be a verb. What one often does with
“mates” is to “attract” them.
Item 13: If you read beyond the gap you will see that there is a comparison (“hot
as 750 F”), so the first part of the comparison is what is missing: “as”.

INTO EUROPE Reading and the Use of English198
TTaasskk 5588
You are going to read a magazine article about pets. Some words are missing from
the text. Choose the most suitable word from the list (A-P) for each gap (1-13) in the
text. There are two extra words that you do not need to use. Write your answers in
the boxes after the text. There is an example at the beginning (0).
YOU ASKED ABOUT Pets
Do fish get dirty?
Fish never have to think about taking a bath.
But just because they are always in (0) ____
doesn’t mean they’re clean. Fish are covered
with a protective coating of slime that
(1) ____ out most harmful bacteria. But if
the water is dirty, parasites may attach
themselves to the fish. They can eat all the
way through its coating to the skin, causing
the fish to become (2) ____ . To keep your
fish clean and healthy, follow a (3) ____
cleaning routine.
Is a guinea pig a kind of pig?
When is a pig not a pig? When it’s a guinea
pig! Guinea pigs, along with hamsters and
gerbils, belong to the rodent (4) ____. Pigs,
on the hand, are part of the swine family.
No one knows for sure (5) ____ this tiny
rodent from South America got its name. It
probably has to do with the squeals and
grunts that a guinea pig (6) ____ –
especially when eating.
Can turtles jump?
Turtles aren’t always as pokey as you might
think. It’s true that sliders, most often kept
as pets, seem (7) ____ to laze about.
However, many sea turtles can swim at a
good (8) ____ . Some land turtles can
manage a short (9) ____ . But jumping?
That’s another matter! Because of the
weight of their shells and their stubby legs,
even the most (10) ____ turtles cannot
jump. They are able to lift their front legs –
but not leap over hurdles!
Does a ride in the elevator make my dog’s
ears pop?
You may be surprised to hear that you and
your dog have similar kinds of ears. So if
your ears are popping as the air pressure
(11) ____ in a moving elevator, your dog’s
ears are probably popping, too. When that
happens, your dog may (12) ____ and close
its mouth several times to gulp air. Or it may
even yawn. But your pet’s not (13) ____ or
tired. Just like you, it’s trying to avoid that
uncomfortable earpopping!
OWL Magazine

A active I makes
B bored J open
C changes K regular
D family L run
E finds M sick
F happy N sleep
G how O speed
H keeps P water
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
P
Score: 13 points

TTaasskk 5599
You are going to read a magazine article about London. Some words are missing
from the text. Choose the most appropriate word from the list (A-O) for each gap
(1-13) in the text. There is one extra word which you do not need to use. Write
LONDON ON A ROLL
London manages to preserve the past while reinventing itself for the future
THE WHOLE WORLD lives in London. Walk down Oxford Street and you will see Indians
and Colombians, Bangladeshis and Ethiopians, Pakistanis and Russians, Melanesians and
Malaysians. Fifty (0) ..... with communities of more than 5,000 make their home in the city,
and on any given day 300 languages are spoken. It is estimated that by 2010 the population
will be almost 30 percent ethnic minorities, the (1) ..... born in the U.K. Most of these
Londoners are the children and in some cases the grandchildren of the many (2) ..... who came
here from the Caribbean and the Indian subcontinent during the fifties and sixties, after the
British Empire imploded.
Annas Ali, a 17-year-old Londoner of Bangladeshi descent, feels deeply (3) ..... in the
British society. “I have been here all my life,” he told me, as we dodged our way through the
festive (4) ..... filling Brick Lane in the East End for Baishaki Mela, the Bangladeshi New
Year. The neighborhood is called Bangla Town. Union Jacks fluttered next to the green-and-
red flag of Bangladesh. Indian music (5) ..... off Victorian brick houses. “I was born at Mile
End hospital a half mile away and grew up in Hunton Street. My father had a restaurant
there.”
Bangla Town has seen centuries of (6) ..... . In the 1600s French Huguenots built a church
on the corner of Fournier Street and Brick Lane. Later it became a Methodist chapel. In the 1890s
it was (7) ..... into a synagogue. Today it is used by Annas and other Bangladeshis as a mosque.
Bangla Town has also had a (8) ..... influx from the world of fashion, art, and pop culture. Jarvis
Cocker, the lead singer of Pulp, lives nearby. So does Chris Ofili, the young artist of Nigerian
descent whose painting “The Holy Virgin Mary,” depicting a black Madonna embellished with
elephant dung, (9) ..... a firestorm of controversy at the Brooklin Museum of Art last year.
Alexander McQueen, the fashion designer, has his workshop on Rivington Street. The result is a
fusion of (10) ..... unique in London.
Annas himself is eclectic. With his dark skin, raven black hair, and lustrous brown
eyes, he (11) ..... me of Mowgli in the Jungle Book. But his hair was cut in the latest London
style: short in back, long and (12) ..... back with gel at the front. He is a devout Muslim, an
Asian Londoner who talks Cockney English. The gold rings on his fingers were from India,
his stylish, (13) ..... blue cardigan – “pure wool,” he told me proudly – from Prohibito, a
clothes shop on Oxford Street popular among teenagers. “I want to go into fashion,” he said.
“I want to go to the London School of Fashion.”

A caused F immigration K recent
B converted G majority L reminded
C crowds H midnight M rooted
D cultures I nationalities N slicked
E echoed J reaction O thousands
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
I
Score: 13 points

TTaasskk 6600
You are going to read the first part of a magazine article about two police officers.
Some words are missing from the text. Choose the most appropriate word form
the list (A-Q) for each gap (1-14) in the text. There are two extra words that you
do not need to use. Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There is an
Partners on patrol
ike most married couples, Andy and
Helen Butler are used to taking the
rough with the smooth. But at least by
working together they never have to argue
about (0) _____ turn it is to drive.
Because Andy and Helen are the first
police husband and wife team on Britain’s
roads. They live, sleep and work together, 24
hours a day, every day (1) _____ their lives.
“It probably wouldn’t (2) _____ for
every couple,” admits Helen. “But it’s been
great for us. We’ve never (3) _____ a row
in the patrol car and working the same shifts
means we get time (4) _____ together.”
The couple, who serve in the Avon
and Somerset traffic department in Taunton,
(5) _____ spent last Christmas Day
patrolling the M5 motorway together.
“It (6) _____ some time to get used
to having my wife in the same car,” says
Andy, 31, who (7) _____ the force as a
cadet 15 years ago. “But in (8) _____ it’s all
worked out very well.
“And (9) _____ our colleagues
thought it was funny at first, they’ve given
us a tremendous amount of support.”
Helen, who’s also 31, says: “When
we’re (10) _____ work, Andy and I try to
treat each other just as we would (11) _____
other colleague. We’ve both worked with
other officers but it’s much nicer to be
(12) _____ to work with the person you
love.”
The couple, who’ve been married
(13) _____ two and a half years, believe
they are the first – and only – British couple
to serve in the same police car.
“And we’ve done everything we can
to (14) _____ it work. Right from day one
we tried to make a clear distinction between
our private life and our professional life out
on patrol,” says Helen. “We wouldn’t dream
of talking about anything other than work
while we’re on duty.”
L

A able G even M of
B although H fact N off
C any I for O took
D at J had P whose
E behind K joined Q work
F can L make
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
P
Score: 14 points

TTaasskk 6611
You are going to read a text from an encyclopaedia about watches and clocks.
Some words are missing from the text. Choose the best word from the list (A-Q)
for each gap (1-14) in the text. There are two extra words that you do not need to
beginning (0).
Watches and Clocks
ODAY almost every family in the
civilized world has one or more
clocks or watches which tell the
hours, the minutes, and often, the
seconds. This hasn’t always been true.
Julius Caesar, Charlemagne or Alfred
the Great never saw a (0) _____ like
those you can buy for a very small sum.
When primitive man began to think
about the passage of time he found
some measures in (1) _____ . The
succession of light and darkness gave
him the day. The variations of the moon
gave him the month, and the (2) _____
of seasons and the varying number of
hours of daylight gave him the year.
Men had noticed, of course, that the
sun seemed to (3) _____ out of the earth
or the sea into the sky, and then to
descend again. Some thinker noticed
that the (4) _____ of a cliff or a tree
reached almost the same place every
day when the sun was (5) _____ in the
heavens. It was easy to (6) _____ a small
stone at the point reached by the
shadow. So now there were three points
in the day, sunrise, (7) _____ and sunset.
The next step, perhaps, was to trace the
curve of the shadow and (8) _____ other
spots upon it. This was the beginning of
the sundial which was, for a long time,
the principal (9) _____ to show the
passage of time. The division of day
and night into twelve hours, and the
division of the hour into minutes and
seconds, was made by the Babylonian
(10) _____ who really knew a great deal
of astronomy. It is (11) _____ that the
Egyptian obelisks were pointers of
immense sundials.
The sundial was, however,
(12) _____ at night or on a cloudy day. In
the course of time various methods
which would be of service in a house, or
at (13) _____, were invented. The
sandglass is one of these methods.
Various (14) _____ of water-clock or
clepsydra, as the Greeks called it, were
also used. In some, water dripping
from a large vessel into a smaller one
raised a float, which pointed to the
hour upon a column.
The Book of Knowledge
T

A build J midday
B change K priest
C clock L place
D device M possible
E high N rise
F forms O shadow
G nature P timetable
H night Q useless
I mark
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
C
Score: 14 points

TTaasskk 6622
You are going to read a newspaper article. Some words are missing from the text.
Choose the most appropriate word from the list (A-P) for each gap (1-13) in the
text. Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
Rustlers ruin girl’s showjump dreams
A BRILLIANT young showjumper’s
career lay in ruins last night after
rustlers stole her £70,000 champion
horse.
(0) _____ star Penny Miller, 19, will
have to (1) _____ her European
Championship hopes unless the
thorough-bred gelding called Lucky is
(2) _____.
She said: “It feels (3) _____ the end
of everything for me. I would die for
that horse.”
Thieves (4) _____ through three wire
fences and used sausages to (5) _____
guard dogs, before breaking into the
horse’s stable early yesterday morning.
Police believe a well-organised gang
of horse thieves is (6) _____ the raid
that has wrecked Penny’s one (7) _____
– to reach the top in her sport.
Talented
Her five-year-old bay is (8) _____
30th in Britain after two major victories
at Wembley’s Horse of the Year Show.
Penny became the Young Riders
Champion and the International
Under-21 Champion in 1985.
Last year her talented jumper – full
name My Lucky Maywood – (9) _____
her win £12,000 prize-money, and it
has already earned £3,000 in the first
few weeks of this year’s season.
Hopes were (10) _____ that his
performances would guarantee her a
place in this year’s International
Championship. But last night Penny,
of Shaw Close, Shorne, Kent, said: “It’s
all (11) _____ for me.”
“If he doesn’t come back there’s no
(12) _____ I’ll make Europe. Everything
I have lived for over the last five years
will be gone.”
Det Sgt Paul Kinnill, in charge of the
(13) _____, said the rustlers took the
horse from stables near Rochester,
Kent, before 2am yesterday.
“The horse is very well known in
international showjumping circles and
cannot be of any use to the thieves,” he
said.

A abandon G investigation L rising
B ambition H like M silence
C behind I over N suffer
D cut J ranked O supported
E helped K returned P way
F high
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
L
Score: 13 points

TTaasskk 6633
You are going to read a text taken from a booklet for tourists. Some parts of the
text are missing. Choose the most appropriate part from the list (A-N) for each
gap (1-11) in the text. There are two extra parts that you do not need to use.
beginning (0).
The Houses of Parliament
Few people know that the modern buildings of the Houses of Parliament were built on the site
of the Royal Palace of Westminster, constructed by Edward the Confessor in the 14th
century.
In the early 19th
century, however, the Palace was (0) ........ by fire. When the old Palace of
Westminster (1) ........ in flames on the night of 16 October 1834, Charles Barry was (2) ........
to London and saw the red glow from a distance. At once he came to join (3) ........ absorbed
in the terror and grandeur of the sight. Barry was already (4) ........ but his success two years
later in the competition to design a new Parliament House was crucial (5) ........ . The New
Palace with its picturesque exterior and well-organised interior (6) ........ the main monument
to him and to his collaborator, A. Welby Pugin, whose genius dominated (7) ........ the
elaborate furniture, carving and fittings.
The 1834 fire (8) ........ of the rambling medieval palace whose unsuitability as the seat
of Parliament had long been recognised. After the fire, the mood of the times was (9) ........
creating a new structure that could be a symbol of the spirit of Reform; a monument to the
history of the nation and a comfortable well-planned building. Barry’s design was (10) ........
of the 1836 competition with his palace in the Gothic style, (11) ........ with the nearby Abbey
and Westminster Hall. From then until his death in 1860 he was preoccupied with supervising
the construction of the building.

A intended to harmonise
B destroyed almost all
C stands as
D the clear winner
E badly damaged
F a leading architect
G the crowd of sightseers
H driving back
I practical arrangements
J in favour of
K the design of
L went up
M trying to recreate
N to his reputation
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
E
Score: 11 points

TTaasskk 6644
You are going to read a text taken from a book on children. Some words are
missing from the text. Choose the most appropriate word from the list (A-R) for
each gap (1-15) in the text. There are two extra words that you do not need to
beginning (0).
The New Education
Children are always attracted to the same objects in a room. If someone sets down
something that was not there before, the child will immediately see the new object and (0) .....
what it is. One girl, being taken out to play one day, noticed a stone lying near a wall. The
stone impressed her, and every time she went out, she was not (1) ..... unless she stopped to
look at it.
There is no doubt that children love light and flowers and watching (2) ..... , which is
understandable because we know that they are acute observers who can order the (3) ..... of
what they perceive. The child always acts to satisfy his passion for observation. He will, for
example, watch closely the (4) ..... of an individual adult who speaks to him, yet we often
think that to claim the attention of a child it is necessary to (5) ..... or call him by name. This
is not so, for instead of speaking, if we make small but (6) ..... movements with our lips, the
child will become very attentive. This is something which fascinates him, for what is
developing in him is his awareness of a task he must accomplish – he is becoming (7) ..... to
language. If one holds a child of four months near a person who makes only lip movements,
the child will watch with great (8) ..... . Evidently these movements please him more than
most things because they (9) ..... the imitative capacity that coincides with his necessary inner
development.
Let us look at older children. I had the occasion to watch some Japanese fathers who
demonstrated a deeper (10) ..... of children than we do. One was taking a walk with his two-
year-old son, who (11) ..... sat down on the sidewalk. His father did not shout at him, ‘The
sidewalk is (12) ..... – get up!’ but waited patiently until the little boy got up by himself to
(13) ..... the walk. Even this is the exercise of an educator, for the father submerged his
dominant personality to that of the (14) ..... by respecting his activity. I saw another of these
fathers standing with his legs spread apart so that his child could (15) ..... in and out between
them. The poor man even managed to look dignified in that position.
Maria Montessori: The child in the Family

A animals G dirty M run
B ask H distinct N satisfied
C badly I exactly O sensitive
D child J images P shout
E comprehension K interest Q stimulate
F continue L mouth R suddenly
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B
Score: 15 points

TTaasskk 6655
You are going to read the first part of a newspaper article. Some words are
missing from the text. Choose the most appropriate word from the list (A-O) for
beginning (0).
Hunters become the hunted as Hungary gets
tough with trigger happy tourists
After years of turning a blind eye, park rangers and police are finally pouncing on Italian
parties who travel to neighbouring countries to shoot birds, often protected species, in their
thousands.
The rangers from the Kiskunsag National
Park watched the Italian hunters through
binoculars. There was no sound at first,
except for the (0) ...... of the hunters’
voices, and the rain along the (1) ...... of the
Szelidi lake.
Then the shooting started. Flocks of
(2) ...... birds rose noisily into the air as the
eight hunters blasted away and birds started
(3) ...... the ground. Then the rangers moved
in.
“The Italians were very surprised to see
us, as were their Hungarian (4) ...... ,” said
Gabor Wundic, one of the rangers. “They
knew very well what they were shooting.”
They had bagged 35 turtle doves – a
protected species.
The photographs will be presented at the
hearing next Tuesday at one of the first
legal actions brought (5) ...... those who
shoot protected species in Hungary. There
will also be (6) ...... of the 135 other turtle
doves shot the previous day, and found in
the Italians’ fridge at their hotel, along with
a redshank and a bee-eater – for the killing
of which the hunters could be (7) ...... .
After years of turning a blind eye, the
Hungarian nature protection authorities and
police were carefully (8) ...... for the start of
the hunting season. Throughout the country,
working on information (9) ...... by
ornithological societies and, in rare cases,
Hungarian hunters, they began raiding
hunting parties.
In the past (10) ...... they have caught
three groups. Apart from protected species
like the turtle dove, they had preyed on
more strictly protected birds, (11) ...... the
ferruginous duck and the curlew.
Hungarian (12) ...... officers have been
trained to recognise the birds. At the border
with Slovenia and Croatia, they found
hundreds of dead quail and skylarks in one
week.

A against F fortnight K prepared
B bringing G hitting L shores
C companions H including M startled
D customs I jailed N supplied
E details J murmur O wildlife
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
J
Score: 12 points

TTaasskk 6666
You are going to read a newspaper article about the map of the London Tube.
Some words have been removed from the text. Choose the most suitable word
from the list of words (A - R) for each gap (1 - 15) in the text. There are two extra
words that you do not need to use. There is an example at the beginning (0). Write
your answers in the boxes after the text.
Squeezing the Tube
The London Underground map is a
design classic. They keep a copy in the
New York Museum of Modern Art. One
of the century’s most famous images, it is
as much a (0) ... symbol of London as
Big Ben and Beefeaters. But it only came
about because a young engineering
draughtsman living in High Barnet (end
of the Northern Line) was laid off and
began (1) ... a map to fill the time.
At first 19-year-old Harry Beck’s design
was (2) ... as too revolutionary by London
Transport. Urged on by friends, he tried
again. This time his map was grudgingly
accepted and in 1933 500 were (3) ... in a
trial. It was an immediate success: for the
first time the travelling public could see
the Tube system as a (4) ... and could
work out how to get around London at a
glance.
Before Beck, maps were concerned
with literal representation of (5) ... and
expanding, meandering routes became
bewilderingly difficult to follow. Beck
realised that what was important was to
show the (6) ... of stations and their
connections. Clarity, not geography, was
what counted.
So Beck’s map (7) ... He squeezed the
suburbs and out-lying country areas and
stretched the heavily-used central
section. His trains ran not on winding
routes but in (8) ... lines which were
colour coded with clearly shown
connections and (9) ... lettering. For 28
years Beck constantly (10) ... his design.
Only one feature remained unchanged -
the stylised River Thames. The map –
really a diagram (11) ... on electrical
circuitry plans – became an obsession.
But in 1961 he and his brainchild were
(12) ... aside when the then head of
London Transport’s publicity, Harold
Hutchison, decided he could do better.
Beck, who had been paid five guineas
for his design by London Transport, could
do nothing. A verbal agreement on
copyright made years earlier was
disputed and he was unable to find (13) ...
confirmation. He looked on helplessly as
his design made way for Hutchison’s; a
spiky, ugly effort which proved (14) ...
and was withdrawn in 1964.
The new design reverted to Beck’s but
was taken on by Paul E. Garbutt, who,
like Beck was not a specialist designer.
He was London Transport’s assistant
secretary and works manager. “It was
Christmas 1963 and I thought ‘I’ve run
out of puzzles, I think I’ll (15) ... the
map’,” he said years later.
Since 1979 a variety of design
consultants have refined the map, but
basically the design remains Beck’s. So
successfully does it guide two and a half
million passengers a day around 275
stations on 250 miles of track that it has
become a model for Tube systems
throughout the world.
The Guardian Weekly

A based
B distance
C easy-to-read
D lied
E order
F printed
G pushed
H redesign
I rejected
J return
K reworked
L sketching
M straight
N travelling
O unpopular
P whole
Q worldwide
R written
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Q
Score: 15 points

TTaasskk 6677
You are going to read a text about crosswords. Some words are missing from the
text. Choose the correct word from the list (A-M) for each gap (1-10) in the text.
There are two extra words that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the
boxes after the text. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Never a crossed word
Thanks to a combination of computer graphics and clever mathematical short cuts,
crossword puzzle fans can finally play the game in three dimensions – and on the Internet,
too. A new Internet (0) ….. called Horizon began releasing the puzzles at
www.3dcrossword.com last month. Using a special browser plug-in, players can solve a cube-
like crossword puzzle. Words run not only up and down, but also through the (1) ..... , which
you rotate in 3D space as you solve each line. Horizon’s idea is to (2) ..... the puzzles as
kooky content for other websites.
“I’ve been around crosswords for 20 years, and this is the first time I’ve heard a 3D
crossword even rumoured to be in existence. Even a 2D crossword is (3) ….. to construct
mathematically,” says Timothy Parker, who constructs crosswords for the Universal Press
syndicate. Parker is (4) ..... with Horizon to edit its 3D crosswords.
Good human crossword constructors can create a newspaper crossword puzzle in a
matter of hours. But add the third dimension, and the task is virtually (5) ..... . Horizon’s chief
executive Dan Moran says he knows someone who hand-constructed a 3D crossword in a
seven-by-seven-by-seven cube – (6) ..... it took five years.
Even a computer might find the problem beyond it, since the number of combinations
is so large. Crunching through (7) ..... the combinations in a 10-space cube could take years,
even for a fast computer. But Moran says the company created algorithms that allow the
computer to (8) ..... when it’s labouring at a dead end, or to rearrange the spaces to make a
puzzle (9) ..... to create. Using the algorithms, Horizon’s computer can spit out a new puzzle
about every 15 minutes.
All Horizon has to do now is create the clues for the puzzles, which still have to be
(10) ..... . Parker says he wants to make sure the puzzles conform to the same high standards
as the 2D world, such as not having too many obscure words.
New Scientist

A all H guess
B but I handwritten
C company J impossible
D crossed K negotiating
E cube L seem
F difficult M sell
G easier
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C
Score: 10 points

TTaasskk 6688
You are going to read a magazine article from a travellers’ magazine. Some parts
of the text are missing. Choose the most appropriate part from the list (A-L) for
each gap (1-9) in the text. There are two extra parts that you do not need to use.
beginning (0).
Low Price Feasts for Fast Foodies
Customers have been very pleasantly surprised by the high standards of cuisine
offered on Sheffield’s new Pullman, the Master Cutler, launched last May. ‘Cuisine 2000 has
been (0) .......... ,’ says InterCity Catering Manager, David Summer, ‘and Britain is leading the
way in a (1) .......... revolution.
The recent renaissance in all areas of InterCity catering has produced some (2) ..........
– tasty, healthy sandwiches on sale in buffet cars for example – and also some (3) .......... the
disappearance of black tea. The leaf tea, which replaced the notorious powdered variety, had
(4) .......... in the tea-bag. However, due to demand from passengers, straight black tea has
been reinstated with (5) .......... from David Sumner.
The latest development is the appearance of bar meals at competitive (6) ........... .
Many buffets now offer hot snacks like cheese and tomato pizza or Cornish pasties for 90p
and Early Riser breakfast of bacon, chipolatas, tomato, hash browns and (7) .......... for £2.49.
Cross-country services are selling hot food on board the (8) .......... and have opened Cross-
Country Grills to serve cheap meals throughout the day, a innovation for (9) .......... between
the north-east and south-west of Britain.

A humble apologies
B disasters such as
C mushroom omelette
D trains
E internationally applauded
F family prices
G challenging job
H train catering
I passengers travelling
J excellent results
K milk included
L sealed windows
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
E
Score: 9 points

TTaasskk 6699
You are going to read a text taken from a tourist magazine. Some words are
missing from the text. Choose the most appropriate word from the list (A-N) for
each gap (1-12) in the text. There is one extra word that you do not need to use.
beginning (0).
Enjoy Your Wanderings
All towns and villages within the Dartmoor
area are equally worth a visit. A number of
important towns circle Dartmoor, (0) .....
Ivybridge, Tavistock (birthplace of Francis
Drake) and Okehampton, each a good base
from which to explore the (1) ..... area. The
latter, on the north Dartmoor foothills, is
home to the fascinating Museum of Dartmoor
Life and Devon's largest medieval castle.
Within the National Park and flanked
by (2) ..... lies Chagford. It is an architectural
delight, containing a fine array of shops.
In the village of Sticklepath is Finch
Foundry, a working edge tool factory driven
by (3) ..... and now owned by the National
Trust. The village of Dunsford, lying on
eastern most Dartmoor, is dominated by cob
and thatch buildings.
South Brent is good base from which
to explore unspoiled valleys and the high
moor. Yelverton and Horrabridge on south
west Dartmoor are important providers of
services to local (4) ..... and offer good
amenities for visitors. Villages such as
Widecombe-in-the-Moor and Lydford also
merit a visit.
In the (5) ..... of the National Park
stands Princetown, famed for HM Prison
Dartmoor. A village trail gives a good
insight into the (6) ..... of this community
and there are numerous opportunities to
explore the high moorland beyond.
There, too, is the Dartmoor National
Park Authority’s superb High Moorland
Visitor Centre, which is (7) ..... all year
round, except for Christmas Day.
Most towns and villages hold a
number of local shows, fetes and carnivals
during the (8) ..... .
The National Park Authority plays
its part in seeking to protect and enhance the
built (9) ..... of Dartmoor. Where possible
and appropriate, it also assists in the
provision of local services and facilities in
such a way as to (10) ..... community well-
being without harm to the local
environment.
Please remember, as a visitor you
can also help support and look after the area
in a number of ways. By using public
transport you can (11) ..... to the viability of
local services - most towns and villages in
the Dartmoor area are served by public
transport links. If travelling by car, please
(12) ..... in designated areas or, if not
provided, park with consideration for other
people.
Where possible, support the local
community by buying locally produced
goods including food, souvenirs and crafts.
Above all, enjoy your wanderings!
Dartmoor Visitor

A complain
B contribute
C environment
D heart
E hills
F history
G including
H open
I park
J people
K protect
L surrounding
M waterpower
N year
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
G
Score: 12 points

TTaasskk 7700
You are going to read a text on basketball. Some words are missing from it.
Choose the most appropriate word from the list (1 - 11) for each gap (A - N) in the
text. There are two extra words which you do not need to use. Write your
Basketball
Basketball is a game played with an inflated ball between two teams of five players each on
a rectangular court. Each team tries to (0) ..... by tossing the ball through the opponent’s
goal, an (1) ..... , horizontally mounted hoop and net called basket.
Basketball was invented in 1891 by James Naismith, a physical education (2) ..... at the Young
Men’s Christian Association Training School (now Springfield College) in Springfield, Mass.,
US. The game (3) ..... quickly in the United States, and in 1896 the first college basketball game
with five team members on a (4) ..... was played at the University of Iowa.
During the 1930s several rules were changed to (5) ..... the game; e.g. each team had 10
seconds in which to advance the ball beyond midcourt or lose (6) ..... of it, and a player could
not stand (7) ..... the opposing team’s foul area (in front of the basket) for more than three
seconds. The centre jump was eliminated, and the adoption of the one-hand shot (8) ..... to
higher scoring games.
With the inclusion of basketball in the Olympic Games in 1936, the game (9) ..... worldwide
attention. The International Federation of Amateur Basketball was organised in 1932 to
(10) ..... the international game, establishing world championships for men in 1950 and for
women in 1953. In the Olympic Games, the US men’s team has been dominant and from
1992 was (11) ..... of professional players. In women’s Olympic competition, contested since
1976, the US and Soviet teams have been most successful.

A caught on
B composed
C elevated
D gained
E govern
F in front
G inside
H instructor
I led
J possession
K set out
L score
M side
N speed up
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
L
Score: 11 points

TTaasskk 7711
You are going to read a text taken from a book on literature. Some words are
missing from the text. Choose the most appropriate word from the list (A-O) for
use. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Character
One of the great pleasures of reading fiction is getting aquainted with new people. We can meet
in fiction a wider range and variety of people than we could ever (0) ..... in life, and often the
characters in fiction are more interesting than the people we meet in life. They are more
interesting because we can know them better. Fiction, for two (1) ..... , allows us to see more
deeply into the inner nature of a character than we usually can in life. First, it (2) ..... its
characters in crucial situations, which test them and expose their nature more clearly than would
ordinary situations. Second, the author can, when he wishes, take us inside a character and let us
(3) ..... at first-hand inner thoughts and feelings which in life we could only (4) ..... at from
outward actions. Of course, fictional characters are imaginary people and have only imaginary
existence. Yet if their author has drawn them (5) ..... , we can, by understanding them, gain a
better appreciation of real people. Indeed, we may come to understand (6) ..... better by reading
about characters who are like us in certain ways.
If fiction is to give us these benefits, however, it must be written by an author who is
deeply interested in (7) ..... nature. Not all fiction is. Some writers are (8) ..... to engage our
momentary interest in following the adventures of a brave, resourceful hero or in sharing the
good fortune of a beautiful heroine. Such a writer is likely to present us with (9) ..... characters
who have none of the complexity of real people. To be believable, a character cannot be either
all good or all bad; we know that real people are not like that. Also, a character must be
consistent in his actions: he must not (10) ..... one way on one occasion and an entirely different
way on another. In addition, his actions should be clearly (11) ..... : that is, we should be able
to understand the reasons for his acting as he does. If a character changes during the course of
the (12) ..... , we should be able to understand why he changes. Sudden changes of heart for no
apparent reason are more commonly found in third-rate than in first-rate fiction.
Adventures in Appreciation

A accurately
B act
C experience
D frequently
E guess
F human
G know
H motivated
I ourselves
J oversimplified
K places
L readers
M reasons
N satisfied
O story
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
G
Score: 12 points

TTaasskk 7722
You are going to read a newspaper article about a work of art. Some words are
missing from the text. Choose the most appropriate word from the list (A-M) for
use. Write your answers in the boxes on the opposite page. There is an example at
the beginning (0).
Smuggled queen heads back to Egypt
Art of stone
The stone head of a queen who died more than 3,000 years ago is being returned to
Egypt after six years of detective work by the British museum, Scotland Yard, and
the Egyptian government’s antiquities department, writes Maev Kennedy.
Jonathan Tokely-Parry, the leader of the gang of smugglers that (0) ...... the
sculpture from an Egyptian archaeological store, was (1) ...... for six years. His
downfall (2) ...... in 1994, when the British Museum was (3) ...... the head and other
objects from a royal tomb site at Saqqara, the necropolis of the pharaohs’ ancient city
of Memphis. The museum (4) ...... the police.
The head had been (5) ...... to make it more attractive to a collector. The forger
(6) ...... out the interior to get enough matching ancient stone to reconstruct the
(7) ...... cheeks, eyes, nose and mouth, (8) ...... the fragments together with modern
adhesives before (9) ...... the face.
If the experts’ identification is correct - that it is a funerary temple image of
Nefertari, principal queen of one of the greatest and longest (10) ...... pharaohs,
Rameses II - it could easily fetch more than £1m on the international market.

A based
B distance
C easy-to-read
D lied
E order
F printed
G pushed
H redesign
I rejected
J return
K reworked
L sketching
M straight
N travelling
O unpopular
P whole
Q worldwide
R written
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Q
Score: 15 points

Chapter 10
Multiple choice
The testing technique used here is called multiple choice, because for each gap
in the text you have a choice of four different options, marked with A, B, C, and
D, only one of which fits best. You must only make one choice – if you choose
two, even if one is the correct answer, your response will be marked wrong.
In multiple-choice tests, you may be tested on both linguistic structures and
vocabulary. These questions may test your awareness of the differences between
meanings of synonyms, whether verbs, nouns, or adjectives, like, for example
the difference between “domain”, “field” and “site”, or “unchanged”, “unaltered”
and “unrenovated”, or “contain”, “consist” and “include” – all of which may be
correct in one context, but not in another. They also commonly test awareness
of the differences between verb tenses in terms of their forms, functions and
the contexts in which they are used, knowledge of collocations (words that
belong together) (“shake hands”, “solve a problem”, “install a computer”,
“significant amount”, “flowers bloom”), of linking words/connectors (“although”,
“however”, “despite”), determiners/pronouns (the definite/ indefinite articles,
demonstratives [that, those], quantifiers [some, any, each, both, neither, several,
all], possessive adjectives [your, its, his]), phrasal verbs, as well as prepositions.
One of the most important features of multiple-choice questions, which you
should always bear in mind when doing such tests, is that of the four options
provided, always only one is intended to be correct; the other three options are
there to ‘distract’ your attention from the correct answer by being very similar
to it, either in form or meaning (which is why they are called 'distractors').
The best way to approach these items is not to look at the options until you
have read the text before and after each item. Try to imagine what the missing
word might be – what meaning is required – and then look at the four choices
for that item, and decide which of the four is closest to the meaning you decided
upon. Of course, there may not be any word among the choices that matches
your choice, in which case you will have to consider each choice in terms of how
well it fits in with the meaning of the text. Then, you also need to make sure
that your final choice is appropriate in terms of form as well.
The tasks in this chapter, as you will see, also test a wide range of grammatical
points as well as vocabulary items. Some of the tasks were designed to assess
grammatical structures rather than vocabulary, other tasks mainly include
vocabulary items, while, in yet other tasks, you will find a reasonably balanced
number of both lexical and structural items.

The Sample Task on the next two pages is a test of your vocabulary and how
familiar you are with collocations. In many cases, there are only subtle
differences between two of the choices, and so one strategy to use with such
tests is to eliminate impossible choices first, which usually leaves two, and then
decide which of the two best fits – or does not fit so well. Multiple-choice items
are often thought to be tricky – they present you with choices you might not
have thought of, and which are difficult to distinguish unless you know the
exact meaning of the word or are familiar with its collocations. For that reason,
tasks like this are often quite difficult – at C1 or even higher.
Now you should try to do the Sample Task, “Harnessing Moor Water”.

You are going to read an article from a tourist magazine about a historic town in
England. Some words are missing from the text. Choose the most appropriate
answer from the options (A-D) for each gap (1-12) in the text. Write your answers
in the boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Harnessing Moor Water
Throughout England, the Cistercians
were associated with sheep husbandry
and the wool trade. It is this industry,
powered by the waters of the River
Mardle and the Dean Burn, which until
(0) _____ recently sustained the
economy of Buckfastleigh.
About seven mills were in (1) _____ in
the 16th century and two serge mills are
recorded in 1850, together with 300
woolcombers. The peak of the town’s
industrial prosperity was (2) _____ in
the late 19th century when there were at
one time five blanket, serge and
combing mills, (3) _____ corn and paper
mills and a tannery.
The same period saw a (4) _____ amount
of building in the town including
modest workers’ cottages and public
buildings.
The town plan is very interesting.
Historically, there were four discrete
elements: the Abbey, set within (5) _____
own precincts on the west bank of the
River Dart, the isolated 13th century
parish church, badly (6) _____ by fire in
July 1992, and Higher and Lower Town.
As recently as the mid 19th century,
Higher and Lower Town were separate
settlements. Both are centred on a single
thoroughfare (Market Street and Fore
Street) (7) _____ buildings along the
street frontages, and long, narrow
burgage plots extending back from them.
(8) _____ development of the town,
particularly down these plots, has
given rise to narrow alleyways at right
angles to the main streets leading to
courts behind.
(9) _____ there are similarities between
Higher and Lower Town, they do show
different (10) _____. The core of Higher
Town presents an almost (11) _____ 19th
century townscape. In Lower Town, the
buildings along Fore Street are (12) _____
outwardly late 18th/early 19th century
in date and character. They show a
variety of styles, shapes and sizes, and
roof heights vary, all adding great visual
interest to the area.

233Chapter 11 Spot the error
0 A slightly B comparatively C approximately D roughly
1 A comparison B process C operation D practise
2 A fulfilled B accomplished C increased D reached
3 A as well as B in addition C moreover D beside
4 A chief B significant C numerous D prominent
5 A the B their C its D —
6 A damaged B spoiled C effected D disturbed
7 A off B around C over D with
8 A Following B Subsequent C Succeeding D Next
9 A Although B In spite of C However D Despite
10 A looks B characteristics C distinctions D possessions
11 A unrenovated B indifferent C infamous D unaltered
12 A typical B firstly C mainly D principal
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
B
Score: 12 points

Answer Key to Sample Task: Harnessing Moor Water
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
B C D A B C A D B A B D C
Item 1: The approximate meaning of the gap is “use” and so “operation” fits best.
Item 2: Since the sentence is about the peak of the town’s prosperity, a verb like
“reach” is appropriate, since that is what one does with a peak.
Item 3: Two choices here are tricky, because they lack a necessary word or
letter: “in addition” needs the preposition “to” and “beside” needs an “s” to
become appropriate (“besides”). Thus “as well as” is the best choice.
Item 4: The best word to collocate with “amount” here is “significant”.
Item 5: A possessive adjective is needed, and since the reference is singular –
“the Abbey” – “its” is correct.
Item 6: Collocation is important here: “fire” “damages” or “destroys”. The other
choices are too weak.
Item 7: The only preposition that makes sense here is “with”.
Item 8: The meaning of the gap is something like “later”, and so “subsequent”
is the best choice.
Item 9: The first part of the sentence is being contrasted with the second
(“similarities” with “different”), and so a conjunction like “although” or “though”
is appropriate.
Item 10: “Looks” and “characteristics” are close in meaning, but “looks” is
usually used with people, not buildings.
Item 11: The meaning of the gap is something like “unchanged”, and closest to
that meaning is “unaltered”, whereas “unrenovated” implies more than just
change.
Item 12: An adverb is needed in this gap, and of the two “firstly” does not fit at
all in terms of meaning. Therefore the correct answer must be

INTO EUROPE Reading and the Use of English236
TTaasskk 7733
You are going to read a part of a short story. Some words are missing from the
text. Choose the most appropriate answer (A, B, C or D) for each gap (1-12) in the
text. Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There is one example at the
beginning (0).
Quick thinking
It happened in 1921, one year before I joined the Indian Police. I had just passed out of
the Police College in England and had not been placed very high in the list. I never was much
(0) ..... at examinations, you know. One day an advertisement in The Times (1) ..... my
attention. It said something about ‘young man wanted for unusual work. Must have cool
head.’ Well, (2) ..... was only three years after the war and there were (3) ..... of young men
who could probably do whatever it was. But I sat down and wrote to the paper and two days
later I had a note asking me (4) ..... at one of London’s best hotels in Piccadilly and ask
(5) ..... Mijnheer Van Lutjens. Well, I put on my best suit and (6) ..... at eleven o’clock I
knocked at the door of room 169.
Van Lutjens was, of course, a Dutchman, and a very pleasant Dutchman. Small, round;
you know, the kind of fellow, with no angles at all but with small bright eyes. He offered me a
smoke and (7) ..... to talk business at once.
It sounded easy (8) ..... . Van Lutjens was one of Amsterdam’s leading diamond
merchants. An American group of diamond buyers (9) ..... asked him to come over to New
York with the famous Rozelles ear-rings. He explained that (10) ..... were two valuable
diamonds, perfectly matched, which he had some time before obtained from a member of one
of Central Europe’s royal families in Paris. He was going to sail in the Berengaria two days
(11) ..... and he wanted someone to watch over the ear-rings. It sounded rather dull and I
didn’t understand why it (12) ..... a ’cool head’, as the advertisement said. But the money he
offered me was generous, and so I accepted.

0 A more B better C good D well
1 A gathered B paid C collected D attracted
2 A I B there C it D these
3 A many B plenty C lot D several
4 A calling B call C calls D to call
5 A for B about C from D of
6 A exactly B shortly C sharply D directly
7 A had started B was starting C started D has started
8 A also B enough C very D quite
9 A had B have C were D has
10 A any B where C some D they
11 A past B later C over D before
12 A needs B has needed C will need D needed
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
C
Score: 12 points

TTaasskk 7744
You are going to read the first part of a magazine article on animal thinking. Some
words are missing from the text. Choose the most appropriate answer
(A, B, C or D) for each gap (1-11) in the text. Write your answers in the boxes
after the text. There is an example at the beginning (0).
CAN ANIMALS EMPATHIZE?
YES
Animals that pass the mirror test are self-aware and thus can infer the states of mind of another
individual
MAYBE NOT
Even though chimpanzees pass the mirror test, they do not seem to conceive of others' - or even
their own - mental states
I used to tell students that no one ever heard, saw, tasted or touched a mind. There is no way for
me to experience your experience, (0) ..... that of a species other than my own. So although minds
may exist, they fall (1) ...... the realm of science.
I have since changed (2) ..... mind. A number of years ago I began to study whether
primates could recognize themselves in a mirror. Most animals react to their images (3) .....
confronted with another animal. But chimpanzees, orangutans and, of course humans learn that
the reflections are representations of (4) ...... - these creatures are objects of their own attention
and are aware of their own existence. In the past three decades, I and other researchers (5) ...... the
mirror test in various ways to explore self-awareness in animals. I conclude that (6) ..... are some
animals aware of themselves but that such self-awareness enables these animals to infer the
mental states of others. In (7) ...... words, species that pass the mirror test are also able to
sympathize and attribute intent and emotions in others – abilities that some might consider the
exclusive (8) ...... in humans.
I began exploring self-awareness with mirrors in 1969, (9) ..... I was at Tulane University.
I presented a full-length mirror (10) ...... preadolescent chimpanzees at the university’s Delta
Regional Primate Research Center. Initially, they reacted as if they were seeing other
chimpanzees, but after a few days they (11) ...... to the mirror and began to use it to make faces,
look at the inside of their mouths, and groom and inspect other parts of their bodies that they had
never seen before.

0 A however B let alone C not only D considering
1 A out B over C outside D of
2 A onto B the C their D my
3 A even though B apart from C as if D even if
4 A them B us C itself D themselves
5 A have used B had been used C were used D was using
6 A probably B not only C possibly D maybe
7 A their B my C other D same
8 A domain B field C yard D site
9 A till B during C throughout D when
10 A ot B to C by D for
11 A grew accustomed B have grown
accustomed
C have accustomed D accustomed
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
B
Score: 11 points

TTaasskk 7755
You are going to read a newspaper article about a British public holiday event.
Some words are missing from the text. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for
each gap (1-9) in the text. Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There is
an example at the beginning (0).
Fayre is coming on strong
The ‘World’s Strongest Man’ will
be performing spectacular feats as the
star attraction at South Staffordshire
Town & Country Fayre over the
August Bank Holiday.
Dace Gauder, who (0) ..... in the
Guiness Book of Records no less than
18 times, will be one of the main
highlights of the event at Weston park.
Visitors will also be able to see an
exciting display from the Military
Manoeuvres Team, who (1) ….. along
a selection of modern vehicles.
They will also provide the (2) …..
for revellers to ride in a Scorpion tank
on the park’s specially prepared 4x4
track.
Dancers in colourful costumes
from (3) ….. the Midlands will be
joining up to present displays of
American Square and Line Dancing.
Spectators will also be encouraged to
have a go under the expert (4) ….. of
callers and experienced dancers.
The event, on Saturday and Sunday
August 30 and 31, promises a feast of
fun for the (5) ….. family, with a
traditional fairground, helicopter rides
and the Wolf Radio Roadshow.
A truck rally featuring ERF lorries
from the first ever built to an example
straight off the production line will
provide an impressive display.
Members of the British Driving
Society will be demonstrating (6) …..
transport, both in the ring and in the
park, and showing how the (7) …..
sighted, blind and disabled can enjoy
the art of carriage driving.
For children there’s an adventure
playground, pets’ corner and woodland
steam railway, plus falconry displays.
A selection of hand-made goodies
(8) ….. in the craft tent, where
crafters will be showing off their
skills, and beer lovers will be able to
sample up to six different real ales in
the beer tent.
Activities in the grounds also
(9) ….. radio-controlled aircraft model
boats, the Black Country at War
display, plus vintage farm machinery
and tractors.
Events run from 11am to 5pm each
day.

0 A has featured B featured C was featured D has been featured
1 A took B are taking C will be taken D will be taking
2 A probability B chance C source D potentiality
3 A above B among C across D inside
4 A instructor B supervisor C guidance D conduction
5 A total B full C all D whole
6 A horse-lead B horse-ridden C horse-guided D horse-drawn
7 A partially B wrongly C little D half
8 A will sell B will be selling C will be on sale D will have sold
9 A engage B include C contain D consist
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
A
Score: 9 points

TTaasskk 7766
You are going to read a holiday advertisement about Singapore. Some words are
missing from the text. Choose the most appropriate answer (A, B, C or D) for
each gap (1-11) in the text. Write your answers in the boxes after the text. There
The great outdoors
Singapore’s remarkable geography (it is one of two cities in the world, the other being Rio de
Janeiro, to have virgin rainforest at its heart) is a lush, green haven for wildlife. At the Bukit
Timak Nature Reserve you can see macaque monkeys, tree shrews, butterflies, birds, lizards
and other fascinating animal and insect life in a carefully conserved (0) ...... . The reserve also
contains Singapore’s highest peak, (1) ...... spectacular views of the island.
(2) ...... major attraction is the Jurong Birdpark, the largest in South Asia with over
8,000 birds, (3) ...... 100 species of parrot and the largest collection of hornbills. Penguins,
flamingos and the birds of prey showcase are other (4) ...... in this beautiful park.
If flora is more your thing, and the (5) ...... exotic the better, then the world’s largest
collection of orchids (6) ...... at the National Orchid Garden. Set amid tropical foliage and water
features are over 700 species and 2,100 hybrids, as well as the VIP orchids named (7) ...... state
dignitaries.
If you prefer your outdoor pursuits with a bit more of a rush, then you might like to try
your hand at the wide (8) ...... of watersports activities. Choose from waterskiing,
windsurfing, sailing, canoeing or wakeboarding. A recent addition (9) ...... the world of
extreme sports and very popular here, wakeboarding is a bit (10) ...... waterskiing on a
snowboard, and sure to pump up the adrenalin.
For those who prefer their feet on (11) ...... ground, there’s rock climbing every
weekend at Bukit Timah Hill, go-karting at Kart World at Jurong every Sunday, or mountain
and dirt biking whenever it takes your fancy.

0 A location B environment C region D ecology
1 A recommending B suggesting C offering D advising
2 A Second B Another C Other D Furthermore
3 A includes B has included C is including D including
4 A highlights B views C particulars D insights
5 A most B last C least D more
6 A waits for B awaits C assembles D expects
7 A as B with C after D for
8 A range B extent C field D possibility
9 A beside B apart from C to D for
10 A similar B like C as the D the same
11 A firm B robust C common D straight
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
B
Score: 9 points

TTaasskk 7777
You are going to read a text taken from the web site of the White House. Some
words are missing from the text. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for
each gap (1-10) in the text. Write your answers in the boxes on the next page.
Presidential Correspondence Today
In today’s fast-paced world, communicating with the President is easier than ever before. In
1993, President Clinton became the first President in history to have a public e-mail address.
That same year, the White House (0) ..... its first web site. Since then, electronic mail has
come to the White House from (1) ..... across the globe.
In fact, there are some very special offices within the White House that help the
President stay in touch with people across America and around the world. The Office of
Presidential Letters and Messages (2) ..... busiest in the White House. There, skilled writers
and editors help the President respond to those who (3) ..... him by carefully bringing together
his policies and initiatives in the letters that will (4) ..... signature. They also help the
President prepare his official proclamations, which recognize observances (5) ..... “National
Children’s Day”, “Mother’s Day”, “National Day of Concern about Young People and Gun
Violence”, and “National Adoption Month”. And they help him stay in touch with groups
across our country (6) ..... preparing some 6,000 messages that he sends each year for events
he is unable to attend.
Ever wonder who helps the President
type all those thousands of letters, messages,
proclamations, and other official documents?
One of the best-kept secrets in the White
House is the (7) ..... speed at which the staff of
the Office of Presidential Support can type and
print a document for the President’s signature.
(8) ..... that the fastest typist can type more than
100 words per minute! (9) ..... the computer
age has taken over the days of the typewriter,
Presidential Support has (10) .....: manual
typewriters, electric typewriters, robotype
machines that used paper tape, magnetic tape
typewriters, plus numerous other pieces of
automated word processing equipment
designed to increase speed, volume, and
accuracy.
Presidential Support Staff proofread a document
before sending it to the President for his signature.

0 A claimed B proposed C launched D declared
1 A over B all C just D nearly
2 A are the B are one of the C is a D is one of the
3 A wrote for B have written to C were writing to D should write for
4 A hold the B make his C bear his D keep the
5 A such as B such like C for example D likewise
6 A by B for C so D among
7 A lightsome B lightness C twilight D lightning
8 A Rumors B Rumor has it C Rumored D Having rumors
9 A During B Nowadays C As D For
10 A seen it all B made a lot C started a lot D had many
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C
Score: 10 points

TTaasskk 7788
You are going to read a text taken from a magazine for youngsters. Some words
are missing from it. Choose the most appropriate answer (A, B, C or D) for each
gap (1-8) in the text. Write your answer in the boxes after the text. There is an
Hot-air ballooning
Over 150 balloons will be floating over Bristol in August – it’s sure to be a breathtaking sight.
The International Balloon Fiesta at Bristol is a unique (0) …… and becoming more popular
every year. Balloonists from all around the world will be (1) …… here for three days. They’ll
be (2) …… two spectacular takeoffs at 6am and 6pm on (3) ...... day of the Fiesta. Some
balloons take only a single pilot while others can carry up (4) ...... eight passengers. You can
also see an original, old-fashioned balloon being (5) ...... and raised by gas – a process which
costs £4,000. Also on site will be clowns and stalls, as well as a funfair and helicopter rides.
A preview is being (6) ...... at Durham Downs, Bristol, on July 28, when the balloons are laid
out for inspection. At (7) ...... they will take off together with the flames from the burners
lighting up the balloons and (8) ...... them glow in the night as they rise into the air.
The Bristol International Balloon Fiesta, at Ashton Court Estate, Ashton Road, Bristol (0272-
223856). August 9 – 11 with takeoffs at 6am and 6pm. Admission is free.

0 A occasion B event C celebration D eventual
1 A collecting B grouping C gathering D organising
2 A staging B producing C preparing D supplying
3 A the B each C first D all
4 A over B along C from D to
5 A illuminated B inflated C infected D installed
6 A seen B taken C held D advised
7 A dusk B noon C once D last
8 A causing B trying C expecting D making
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
B
Score: 8 points

Chapter 11
Spot the error
This testing technique is known as error identification or “spot the error”, and,
in many ways, it resembles what writers have to do when checking what they
have written. They have to pay attention to meaning and syntax in order to
identify words they may have put into the text by mistake.
In tests of this type, you will be asked to read a text which contains some
errors, and
your task is to identify (or, in other words, “spot”) those errors in the text. The
text is presented with its title, and is arranged on the page with its lines
numbered. There may be one or two sentences after and, in some cases, before
the numbered lines. In most numbered lines, there is one unnecessary,
grammatically incorrect, word.
When selecting the extra words for these items, that is, the words to be inserted
in the text, examiners will commonly consider grammatical areas in which stu-
dents typically make mistakes. Therefore, when you are doing such tests, you
should be prepared to identify in the text wrong or unnecessary words that
result from the incorrect use of, for example, comparatives (“the most highest
peak”), prepositions (“at currently”, “go to home”), articles (“move from the village
to village”), quantifiers (“every children”), auxiliary verbs ("she was being found").
Note that while in most lines of the text there is a wrong word that you have to
identify, some lines are correct, and you should indicate these lines with a tick.
Note also that there are two example lines at the beginning of the text, which
are, similarly to examples given in other tests, marked with (0), and may help
you see where and how exactly to indicate your answers.
It is important to read the instructions to this sort of task, because several
things are involved. First you have to read each line, and decide whether it is
correct or not. If it is correct, which it may be, then you put a tick against the
line. Then if it contains an error - an unnecessary word - you need to identify
that word, and write it on the dotted lines provided. If you do not write the
word, you will not get a point. It is a good idea to cross out the word that does
not belong, and re-read the line, before writing the unnecessary word on the
dotted line.
Examiners never add an unnecessary word at the beginning or end of a line,
and so you should concentrate on all words except for the first and last in a

line. Typically the words that have been inserted might fit with the next or
preceding word, but they will not fit in the wider context, so be sure to read the
whole line before deciding which word is unnecessary.
Now you should practise this task type, doing first the Sample Task, “Family and
climbers”.

You are going to read the first part of a newspaper article. In most lines of the text
there is one unnecessary word. Write the unnecessary word in the space provided
after each line. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a tick ( ). The
task begins with two examples (0).
Family and climbers condemn exploitation of the men
who may have reached summit 75 years ago
High on the slopes of Mount Everest 75 years ago, a man lay in the snow and
waited for its death. It had been an epic journey for adventurer George Mallory,
who had battled through the thin Himalayan air was wearing a tweed jacket and
puttees to become the first westerner to conquer the world’s most highest peak.
But this weekend, on the slopes where Mallory came pass to rest - his leg and
arm broken - a row has been broken out over attempts to capitalise on the
discovery of the body. Close-up all pictures of the body of Mallory, dubbed
the Galahad of Everest, are reported to have been sold to Newsweek magazine
for more than $40,000 by the expedition searching look for clues to prove
whether or not Mallory had reached the summit, 29 years ago before Sir
Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay. Last night the picture agency Rex
Features, which nearly controls the copyright to the photographs in Britain,
circulated warnings to national newspapers that they would be face legal action
if they published the photographs. Today, in return for about an undisclosed
sum, when the Mail has published pictures of Mallory’s body. The skin is intact
due to the fact freezing conditions and bleached, resembling alabaster. Mallory
and Andrew ‘Sandy’ Irvine are hold a unique position in the history of British
exploration, and the mystery lost surrounding their deaths has been a potent
myth to each generations of climbers. Family members and leading
mountaineers have condemned the sale of the photographs and accuse the
American climbers who found Mallory of exploitation.
__ __
its
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
_____
0
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
Score: 17 points

Answer Key to Sample Task: Family and climbers
1 was
2 most
3 pass
4 been
5 all
6 P
7 look
8 ago
9 P
10 nearly
11 be
12 about
13 when
14 fact
15 are
16 lost
17 each
Item 1: “was” fits with “wearing”, but it does not have a subject, and, in fact,
what is required is a post-modifying phrase.
Item 2: “most highest” is an incorrect superlative, and so “most” should be
deleted.
Item 3: There are two verbs together (“came pass”), and one must be removed.
“came to rest” is a phrase meaning “stopped”, but “pass to rest” does not exist
as a phrase. This means that “pass” is unnecessary.
Item 4: “been” in “a row has been broken out” indicates a passive clause, which
is inappropriate here, and so “been” must be deleted.
Item 5: “all” does not fit in the phrase “close-up pictures”.
Item 6: The line is perfectly correct.
Item 7: “look” is close to “search” in meaning, but it does not fit grammatically
(an -ing form is needed here).
Item 8: The word “ago” does not belong in this time phrase, which is qualified
by “before”.
Item 9: This line is correct.

Item 10: Either the agency controls or does not control the copyright: “nearly”
does not make sense.
Item 11: “be” fits with the previous word “would”, but not with the words that
follow. “face legal action” is a common collocation.
Item 12: “about” is an unnecessary qualifier before a word like “undisclosed”.
Item 13: What is needed here is a main clause, and so “when”, which
introduces a subordinate clause, is not needed.
Item 14: “fact” does not fit in with the following two words.
Item 15: “are” does not fit in with “hold” and the phrase “hold a position” is a
common collocation.
Item 16: “lost” does not fit in with the following words, and so should be deleted.
Item 17: “each” requires a singular noun, but the word “generations” is plural.
“each” is, therefore, the extra word.

TTaasskk 7799
You are going to read a text on the internet. In most lines of the text, there is one
unnecessary word. Write the unnecessary word in the space provided after each
numbered line. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a tick ( ). The
Internet access grows beyond
104 million American adults
According to the Pew Internet and American Life Project, the number 0
of American adults who have as access to the Internet grew by 16 as 0
million in the second half of before 2000, as women, minorities and 1
families with so modest incomes continue to join the online population. 2
Altogether, for more than 104 million adults had access to the 3
Internet at the end of last year. The project also has made by an 4
initial calculation of the number of American children who have 5
online to access. Approximately 30 million children – 45% of people 6
younger than 18 years of age – are in connected to the Internet. 7
Almost than three-quarters of middle school and high school students 8
ages 12-17 have Internet access and a 29% of children younger than 9
12 are able to be connect to the Internet. Lee Rainie, director of the 10
Pew Internet Project, she noted, “So much attention has been focused 11
on the Woes of dot-com firms in all recent months that many persons 12
have full lost sight of the fact that the appeal of getting access to the 13
Internet is still very strong. We see to substantial increases in Internet 14
penetration across the board, and that is changing the character of 15
the Internet population, which looks at more and more like the rest of 16
America.”
Score: 16 points

TTaasskk 8800
You are going to read a text on the internet. In most lines of the text, there is one
unnecessary word. Write the unnecessary word in the space provided after each
numbered line. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a tick ( ). The
Internet access grows beyond
104 million American adults
According to the Pew Internet and American Life Project, the number 0
of American adults who have as access to the Internet grew by 16 as 0
million in the second half of before 2000, as women, minorities and 1
families with so modest incomes continue to join the online population. 2
Altogether, for more than 104 million adults had access to the 3
Internet at the end of last year. The project also has made by an 4
initial calculation of the number of American children who have 5
online to access. Approximately 30 million children – 45% of people 6
younger than 18 years of age – are in connected to the Internet. 7
Almost than three-quarters of middle school and high school students 8
ages 12-17 have Internet access and a 29% of children younger than 9
12 are able to be connect to the Internet. Lee Rainie, director of the 10
Pew Internet Project, she noted, “So much attention has been focused 11
on the Woes of dot-com firms in all recent months that many persons 12
have full lost sight of the fact that the appeal of getting access to the 13
Internet is still very strong. We see to substantial increases in Internet 14
penetration across the board, and that is changing the character of 15
the Internet population, which looks at more and more like the rest of 16
America.”
Score: 16 points

TTaasskk 8811
You are going to read a text about the Loch Ness monster. In most lines of the
text there is one unnecessary word. Write the unnecessary word in the space
provided after each line. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a tick
( ). The task begins with two examples (0).
The Search for Nessie
The clock in the 200-year-old church tower near Foyers, Scotland, had 0
just struck me nine on the morning of April 23, 1960. For Tim Dinsdale, me 0
standing start with his movie camera on the shore of Loch Ness, it was the 1
most exciting hour of the most important day in his all life. Only a few seconds 2
before, Dinsdale had been sighted the legendary Loch Ness monster. Now 3
he was filming it in the water. Suddenly, the monster sank beneath the 4
water. Dinsdale waited a few moments to be seemingly sure the creature 5
would not surface again. Then he had jumped into his car and drove off 6
to have got the film processed. Those few moments of film changed 7
Dinsdale’s way of his life. It also started the hunt for the creature that has 8
captured the imagination of the world. The film was always responsible for 9
setting up the Loch Ness Phenomena Investigation Bureau even in 1961. The 10
bureau acts as such a conductor for all searches and keeps track of a growing 11
list of sightings. The Loch Ness monster is said to have been first sighted in 12
the sixth century. Since then there have been more than over 3,000 reported 13
sightings of “Nessie,” as the monster is called. People who would have seen 14
it describe it as an ugly, shy, greenish-blackish creature, although from five 15
to sixteen feet long and from one to five feet wide. It is said to have a 16
snakelike head and a long neck tie sticking out from a wide, flat body. The 17
body, itself, is reported to have from one to seven camel-like humps.
Score: 17 points

TTaasskk 8822
You are going to read a newspaper article about a young boy’s disappearance. In
most lines of the text there is one unnecessary word. Write the unnecessary word
in the space provided after each line. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines
with a tick ( ). There are two examples at the beginning (0).
Boy found ‘dinosaur-hunting’
A three-year-old boy who went missing at a remote beauty spot 0
had spent the night was huddled under a bush, his rescuers said was 0
last weekend. Cameron Munro was found as safe and well by a 1
rescue dog and his handler after about going missing for more than 2
16 hours. He had disappeared at the Highland or beauty spot, the 3
Falls of Shin, near by Dornoch, Sutherland, at around 4.30pm last 4
Saturday, and was found the next few day about half a mile away. 5
Flight Sergeant Al Sylvester, from among RAF Kinloss, one of 34 6
RAF rescuers who had spent the night searching for the boy, said: 7
“He was perfectly fine. He wasn’t hurt or upset not at all. He was 8
talking to himself about whole dinosaurs, and he had been looking 9
for dinosaurs in the woods when he did went missing. He had only 10
been out of his mother’s sight for the seconds.” Mr Sylvester added: 11
“When he was found he was a little cold. He must have slept through 12
the night. He was quite sheltered, but it is still his incredible he 13
survived. He lives in a farm area and all must be a hardened wee 14
boy with a real will where to live.” Cameron, from Ardgay, was 15
reported missing from a play area at the Falls of Shin visitor centre
by his mother.
Score: 15 points

TTaasskk 8833
In most lines of the following text there is one unnecessary word. It is either
grammatically incorrect or does not fit in with the sense of the text. Write the
unnecessary word in the space provided after each line. Some lines are correct.
Indicate these lines with a tick ( ). The task begins with two examples (0).
LANGUAGE
Move Over, Webster
Who’s that actsy farang in the tuk-tuk?
Noah Webster never heard of such words too when he was compiling his too 0
famous dictionary, but maybe he’d never traveled in Southeast Asia. Think what he 0
could addtohisvocabularyifhewerearound itnow.InThailand,he’dlearnthat‘farang’ 1
is the accepted word for foreigner, even in polite English conversation. In much of Asia, 2
English is no longer a colonial import. Some 350 million Asians at currently speak 3
English, more than the populations of Britain and the United States have combined. 4
In some countries, Singapore for example, English is often becoming the primary 5
language. Filipinos have spoken English ever since America has colonized their 6
country in the 1890s. Newspapers in the Philippines are published in English, most 7
FM radio stations where broadcast in English and many college courses are 8
routinely conducted in English. For years, even after the end of colonialism, English 9
as spoken in Britain or America was considered a ‘proper’. But English-speaking 10
Asians argue for that the time has come to claim English as their own. ‘The 11
English language is now ours,’ says Filipino the poet Gemino Abad. 12
‘We have colonized it, too.’ If either proof is needed that the former colonies 13
have been ‘conquered’ the colonizers’ language, it is the compilation, now 14
underway in Australia, of the first-ever dictionary of Asian English.
Score: 14 points

TTaasskk 8844
You are going to read part of a magazine article about a rubber duck. In most lines
of the text there is one unnecessary word. Write the unnecessary word in the
space provided after each line. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a
tick (—). There are two examples (0) at the beginning.
THIS RUBBER DUCK’S
WORTH $50,000,000!
A rubber duck with a fortune in diamonds stuffed inside of its body of 0
could be resting on a shelf in an American toy store. That’s what — 0
detectives are saying in Hong Kong, after that the diamonds, worth 1
an estimated to $50 million, were placed inside the duck at a toy 2
factory. “The gems were stolen in last June 3rd from a wealthy 3
importer who was planned to have them set in a gold necklace as a 4
gift to his mistress,” says a Chinese police spokesman. “The cut and 5
polished diamonds, including in a rare pink specimen worth $20 6
million, were given to a factory worker by the thieves hard to place 7
in a rubber duck, one of millions which coming off the assembly line. 8
“Their plan was to keep track of the duck and place it in a shipment 9
bound for Taiwan. But because of the vast great numbers of ducks, 10
the thieves’ accomplice is lost track of the diamond carrier in the 11
packing department, and it was shipped to an unknown destination. 12
We now believe so that destination was the United States.” 13
According to cops, the duck is yellow with a blue beak, has about 14
five inches long and four inches high. It has a few squeaker that 15
probably doesn’t work because of the diamonds are wrapped in 16
newspaper inside.“We are hoping that the honest American who 17
finds out this duck will turn the diamonds over to the police,” a 18
detective says. “As yet, there is no reward having offered for their 19
return, but we will replace the duck.”
Score: 19 points

TTaasskk 8855
You are going to read a newspaper article about childrens’ books. In most lines of
the text, there is one unnecessary word. Write the unnecessary word in the space
provided after each numbered line. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines
with a tick ( ). The task begins with two examples (0).
The word made fresh
The screen has dominated kids’ culture.
Now it has to contend with the return of the book.
WHEN children read the fiction, they sink into an imagined world, immerse the 0
themselves in it entirely, so the real world is forgotten. Writing in The Uses 0
of Enchantment, Bruno Bettelheim said young readers enter to a magic realm 1
in which they can lose their selves and daily worlds, like allowing themselves 2
to be familiar bewitched. It is a crucial part of childhood – this great escape 3
to a dreamy, private interior space where we can build up a reservoir of 4
memories that didn’t happen, and explore both worlds not our own. It is 5
part of the terrible loss of against childhood that books are often pushed 6
aside by the noisier and toward more passive world of computer-games, 7
TV programmes, mass-marketed for entertainment catering to short-attention 8
spans and few manufactured trends. Reading has often not been cool among 9
contemporary kids, too in their loud, quick, zappy, colourful, brutally image- 10
conscious worlds. Yet something is happening, a quiet revolution. In the 11
playground, every children are swapping books as well as electronic games. 12
They are talking about why Harry Potter and Professor Dumbledore, or 13
Lyra in Northern Lights, as well as are doing stunts with their yo-yos. 14
This month, a Children’s Laureate will be get announced. The laureateship, 15
to encourage the culture of its reading, may be riding a wave, not creating it, 16
for children’s books are selling more than ever.
Score: 16 points

TTaasskk 8866
You are going to read a magazine article about reincarnation. In most lines of the
text there is one unnecessary word. Write the unnecessary word in the space
provided after each numbered line. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines
with a tick ( ). The task begins with two examples (0).
You only live once ... or do you?
For centuries, the religions of the East have taught the concept of 0
reincarnation – the idea of that, following death, the soul is reborn again. 0 of
Hindus and Buddhists even believe that evil deeds cause to rebirth as a lower 1
form of life. Lie, steal, or take a life and you risk returning as a ghost, a creepy 2
crawly ... or worse. Bunkum? Maybe, but even though sceptical Westerners 3
are beginning to take note. The first once case came in 1952, when Virginia 4
Tighe, a Colorado housewife, recalled after under hypnosis an earlier life as 5
Bridey Murphy, a girl living in Ireland, while in the early 1800s. The accuracy 6
of the details astonished experts - until a newspaper stand discovered that 7
Virginia had grown high up with an Irish neighbour- one Mrs Anthony 8
Corkell, née Bridey Murphy! However, the explanation of the Bridey Murphy 9
case has done little to discourage reincarnation of believers and, since 1952, 10
many have joined their ranks. In her near previous lives, the actress Shirley 11
Maclaine has been a model for French artist Toulouse Lautrec, a Roman 12
soldier and so the madam of a brothel. Former TV sports presenter David Icke 13
claims to have been during an American Indian chief - as well as Socrates. A 14
recent newspaper poll reported that at around 28 per cent of British adults 15
believe in reincarnation.
Score: 15 points

Chapter 12
Word formation
As is clear from its name, this test method focuses on your ability to form
different types of English words (verbs, nouns, adjectives, adverbs) and your
awareness of how one type of word can be changed into another type to form a
new word with a new meaning.
In word-formation tests, you are given a text which contains usually about 10-12
numbered gaps. After each gap, there is a word in brackets, printed in bold, and
your task is to change this word into another, related one so that the new word
you have formed fits the gap, completing the meaning of the sentence you are
considering,and fitting in with the syntax of the sentence.
The items in any word-formation task may require different types of changes in
the words provided. Depending on what type of word is given, and what type of
word is required in the gap, you may need to change, for example, a verb into
a noun (“collect” – “collection”, “differ” – “difference”), a verb into an adjective
(“differ” – “different”), or a noun into an adjective (“adventure” – “adventurous”),
an adjective into an adverb (“regular” – “regularly”), and so on.
Note that when forming a new word, sometimes you may need to add a word
not only at the end of, but also at the front of, the word that you need to change.
For example, if in the brackets after the gap the adjective “possible” is given,
the syntax of the sentence in which the gap is located may require either a
noun, in which case you need to add what is called a ‘suffix’ at the end of the
word “possible” in order to form the required noun “possibility”, or the gap may
require another, specifically negative, adjective, in which case you need to add
a word, called a ‘prefix’, at the front of the word “possible” in order to arrive at
the required word “impossible”.
When doing such tasks, you should always start with reading through the text
carefully. Then you need to decide what type of word – what part of speech – is
required in the gap, and only then attempt to turn the given word – which is
often a verb – into the correct part of speech. Remember to reread the text
surrounding the gap, to check whether it makes sense with the word you have
inserted. Note also that the word you have formed is only accepted as a correct
answer, if it is correct not only in terms of meaning, but also in terms of spelling.
Now you should start practising this task type, doing first the Sample Task
“Things to do and see in London”.

You are going to read a text about London. Some words are missing from the
text. Use the words in brackets to fill each gap (1-9) in the text. Write your
answers on the lines after the text. Write only one word on each line. There is an
Things to do and see in London
There is so much to see and do in London that visitors can expect to cover only the most
outstanding sights. First of all, they should obtain a map of London and a plan of the
underground railway system, in order to gain some idea of the (0) ..... (locate) of the main
districts of London.
Probably the best-known (1) ..... (build) in London is the Tower of London, which
stands by Tower Bridge in the East End. This (2) ..... (impress) fortress dates from the 1000’s
and is a treasure-house of history. The Crown Jewels are exhibited in the Wakefield Tower,
and a magnificent (3) ..... (collect) of armour in the White Tower. The Ceremony of the Keys,
held each night after sunset, is a (4) ..... (excite) ritual.
The City of London is the (5) ..... (finance) centre of Britain. Many of the solid houses
that crowd its narrow streets belong to banks and (6) ..... (insure) companies. The world’s
shipping merchants also have offices in the City. At Lloyd’s, visitors can see and may hear
the Lutine Bell, which is struck before the (7) ..... (announce) of important information.
Guildhall is the (8) ..... (administer) headquarters of the City. The massive Bank of England
stands in Threadneedle Street, not far from the Mansion House, the (9) ..... (office) residence
of the Lord Mayor of London.
In Throgmorton Street, near the Royal Exchange, stands the Stock Exchange, where
one may watch the busy scene from a public gallery.

265Chapter 12 Word formation
0 location
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
Score: 9 points

Answer Key to Sample Task: Family and climbers
0 location
1 building
2 impressive
3 collection
4 exciting
5 financial
6 insurance
7 announcement
8 administrative
9 official
Item 1: A noun is required in the gap, as the two previous words are a definite
article and an adjective, and the word following is a preposition. There are two
nouns from “build”: “building” and “builder”, but the context here requires the
first noun.
Item 2: An adjective is required in the gap, between a determiner and a noun.
A suitable adjective from “impress” is “impressive” (NOT “impressing”).
Item 3: Again, like item 1, a noun is required in this gap, because the two words
before the gap are an article and an adjective and the word following is a
preposition. Both “collection” and “collector” are nouns from “collect”, but the
context here requires the first one.
Item 4: An adjective is required here, since we have an article before the gap,
and the last word in the passage follows the gap, so the last word must be a
noun. A suitable adjective from “excite” is “exciting” (NOT, because of the
meaning of this context, “excited”).
Item 5: Yet again, the gap requires an adjective because, like item 2, an article
comes before the gap and a noun afterwards. The adjective from “finance” is
“financial”.
Item 6: The part of speech required here is some form of modifier – either a
noun modifier, or an adjective, since the next word is a noun. There is no
adjective from “insure” that makes sense here (“insurable” is conceivable but
makes little sense), and so the best word is the noun “insurance”.
Item 7: A noun is required here, since the word before the gap is an article and
the gap is followed by a preposition. There are two nouns from the verb
“announce”: “announcement” and “announcer”, but the meaning of the sentence
here requires "announcement".

Item 8: Like items 2 and 5, an adjective is required here because the word
before the gap is an article, and the word following the gap is a noun. A suitable
adjective from “administer” is “administrative”.
Item 9: Like Item 8, an adjective is required in the gap, and a suitable adjective
from “office” – which this time is not a verb! – is “official”.

TTaasskk 8877
You are going to read some advice on health taken from a magazine. Some words
are missing from the text. Use the words in brackets to fill each gap (1-12) in the
text. Write your answers on the lines after the text. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
HAPPY-MAKING HEALTH-BOOSTS
TIME YOUR VITAMINS. Vitamins are best absorbed with a main meal (or a sandwich, at
least) as a full-strength multi-vitamin can cause nausea. Take calcium and iron at different
times for optimum (0) ........ (absorb) .
DRY OUT. Change into dry clothes after swimming – hanging around in a damp swimsuit
encourages yeast (1) ........ (infect) .
READ COSMOPOLITAN! Not just for the health advice, either. A long-term Swedish study
of over 1200 people found that those who (2) ........ (regular) attended the theatre, movies and
art exhibition and read books and magazines were one and a half times less (3) ........ (like) to
die during the study.
EAT SOMETHING NEW EVERY DAY. “The important thing is to enjoy your food and be
(4) ........ (adventure),” says Amanda Wynne, Nutrition Scientist at the British Nutrition
Foundation. “You need more than forty (5) ........ (differ) nutrients for good health and no
single food can supply them all.”
SAY NO TO DIET PILLS. Don’t be seduced by slimming pills - herbal or otherwise. “Many
of them work on the central (6) ........ (nerve) system and can have potential (7) ........ (harm)
side-effects,” warns nutritionist Janet Thomson.
NOW WASH YOUR HANDS. Do it often and for at least 15 seconds. It’s the most (8) ........
(effect) way to halt the spread of germs, according to the Centre for Disease Control and
(9) ........ (prevent).
BEFRIEND A KIWI. One kiwi fruit delivers almost all your recommended daily (10) ........
(ALLOW) of vitamin C, has as much fibre as a banana (with half the calories) and contains
vitamin E, magnesium and potassium.
ADJUST YOUR CAR’S HEADREST. The best way to prevent neck (11) ........ (injure) is to
line up the top so that it’s no more than three-and-a-half inches below the top of your head.
EAT CHOCOLATE – GUILT-FREE. Chocolate contains copper, which is necessary for the
blood to carry oxygen round the body. Tests at the University of Nebraska show the average
woman needs 2-3 mg each day, but their usual (12) ........ (consume) is only 1 mg.

0 absorption
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
Score: 12 points

TTaasskk 8888
You are going to read a newspaper article about African birds. Some words are
missing from the text. Use the words in brackets to form the words that fit in the
gaps (1-10) in the text. Write your answers on the lines on the opposite page.
Flying to the rescue of the forest
In the open-air markets of West Africa it is usual to find among the lines of brilliantly
coloured fruit and vegetable stands a number of vendors surrounded by exotic
bundles of leaves or dried herbs, heaps of roots, peeled bark, lumps of stone and
mineral fragments. These are all key elements in the continent’s ancient and
traditional (0) _____ (collect) of drugs.
But other routine ingredients on the African medicine stall are bird feathers. Two
types are (1) _____ (wide) found: a short pale pink feather and a long quill irregularly
patterned with dark crimson. The first comes from the tail of the grey parrot, the
second from an African forest bird called a turaco. Both are cherished as (2) _____
(power) remedies, and in some regions of Nigeria whole villages are consumed by
disputes between those wanting to catch grey parrots for the lucrative pet-bird trade,
and those who prize and sustainably harvest the wild birds’ tail feathers for
medicine.
Just across the border, in Cameron’s (3) _____ (mountain) north-western region, a
species of turaco has became an even greater cause célèbre. The bird in question is
called Bannerman’s turaco after the Scottish (4) _____ (ornithology) who first
described it earlier this century. But to the local Oku people it is known more simply
as “fen”, and seeing the (5) _____ (create), finding its nest, or even just hearing its
hoarse whooping call are all a source of good luck and (6) _____ (heal). Its flight
feathers are treasured as a potent medicinal ingredient by traditional doctors and
also play a key role in Oku society, with only the most (7) _____ (esteem) members of
the community being allowed to wear them.
It is deeply fitting that this totem bird is as physically beautiful as it is culturally
important. Pigeon-sized, it has a bright olive body that (8) _____ (dark) on the tail to
a deep royal blue. The top of the head sports a (9) _____ (drama) scarlet crest. But it is
when the bird flies that it looks most (10) _____ (impress): the wing feathers are deep
crimson, and during the short time that it takes to the air it sets the forest canopy
momentarily ablaze.

0 collection
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Score: 10 points

TTaasskk 8899
You are going to read part of a magazine article on animal thinking. Some words are
missing from the text. Use a modified form of the words in brackets to fill each gap
(1-10) in the text. Write your answers on the lines provided after the text. Write only
one word on each line. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Reasoning in animals
The ability to think and plan is taken by many of us to be the hallmark of the human mind.
Reason, which makes (0) ..... (think) possible, is often said to be uniquely human and thus sets us
apart from the beasts. In the past two decades, however, this (1) ..... (comfort) assumption of
intellectual superiority has come under (2) ..... (increase) skeptical scrutiny. Most researchers
now at least entertain the once heretical (3) ..... (possible) that some animals can indeed think. At
the same time, several of the apparent mental triumphs of our species – language, for instance –
have turned out to owe as much to innate (4) ..... (programme) as to raw cognitive power.
This reversal of fortune for the status of human intellectual (5) ..... (unique) follows nearly
a century of academic neglect. The most devastating and long-lasting blow to the idea of animal
(6) ..... (intelligent) stemmed from the 1904 incident of Clever Hans the horse. Oskar Pfungst, the
(7) ..... (research) who unraveled the mystery of an animal that seemed as intelligent as many
humans, described the situation (8) ..... (vivid): “At last the thing so long sought for was
apparently found: a horse that could solve arithmetical problems-an animal, which thanks to long
training, mastered not merely rudiments, but seemingly arrived at a power of abstract thought
which surpassed, by far, the highest (9) ..... (expect) of the greatest enthusiast.” Highness could
also read and understand spoken German.
After expert groups had tested the horse (often in the (10) ..... (absent) of his owner, Mr.
von Osten) and agreed that no trickery could be involved, Pfungst undertook to study the animal
in detail.

0 thinking
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Score: 10 points

TTaasskk 9900
You are going to read a text about conflicts between parents and children. Some
words are missing from the text. Use the words in brackets to fill each gap (1-10)
in the text. Write your answers on the lines after the text. There is an example at
the beginning (0).
Old-fashioned
Most young people accuse their parents of being old-fashioned when they come into
conflict with them. That in itself is significant since the (0) ..... (intend) is to use it as a
weapon when it will hurt most. Very rarely, for instance, do teenagers bother calling their
grandparents old-fashioned. They know they are. So this is an (1) ..... (accuse) made to solicit
favour for some (2) ..... (permit) or possession that they wish to acquire. It is highly
manipulative because you wish to refute the (3) ..... (imply) without losing your sense of
values.
If it was just to do with clothing, it would be a simple issue. It is quite true that you
don’t always like their (4) ..... (choose) of clothes, or their music. There is something to be
said for their (5) ..... (argue) that they don’t want you to like it; they just want you to accept
their liking. All too often, parents criticise the young person and it is this which makes for the
hurt and (6) ..... (angry) and retaliation of insults.
There has to be a (7) ..... (differ) between values and standards and fashions and
tastes. If big issues are made about everything, it is very (8) ..... (likely) that the young person
will listen to his or her parents on the(9) ..... (real) important matters that you are most
concerned with.
Too much talking just invites young people to cut off and ignore you. If you then goad
them into replying, they will be rude and angry.
It is a time at which the adolescent has (10) ..... (difficult) in moderating the voice and
controlling the amount of feeling. If he/she chooses to do this by silence, it is unfair to force
him/her into disagreement.

0 intention
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Score: 10 points

TTaasskk 9911
You are going to read a text about London's history. Some words are missing
from it. Use a modified form of the words in brackets to fill each gap (1-12) in the
text. Write your answers on the lines provided after the text. Write only one word
on each line. There is an example at the beginning (0).
The city’s history
The Tower, fortunately, was saved, but the price paid to save it was high, since the houses in
Tower Street and next to the Tower all had to be destroyed. Demolition of the houses and a
sudden drop in the wind saved the rest of London from certain (0) ..... (destroy). It was now a
question of rebuilding the city,and London was (1) ..... (fortune) in having the man for the
task, the architect hristopher Wren, the man who was to give London its (2) ..... (monument),
grandiose, Baroque aspect. London’s population returned to its earlier levels all too soon and
the problem of overcrowding in the city emerged; within the old walls there had been 140,000
(3) ..... (inhabit), but now, including the suburbs, a total of 670,000 was reached. This (4) .....
(consider) figure increased even more in the years after 1750 with the great expansion in
industry and commerce. Expansion also led to the (5) ...... (create) of new residential areas,
such as Chelsea, Kingston and Lambeth, where the bankers and merchants, with their new-
found riches, built their luxurious (6) ..... (dwell), large, well-lit mansions situated in splendid
parks or on top of pleasant hills. The 19th
century was the Victorian century, and for most of it
Queen Victoria reigned. Britain withdrew from involvement in (7) ..... (Europe) questions,
seeking splendid isolation and dedicating its energies to the (8) ....... (enlarge) of its Empire
and its economic might. On the (9) ...... (die) of Queen Victoria, in 1901, London had reached
a population of three million. The spectre of German imperialism drew England into the first
world war in 1914, a war from which Britain emerged (10) ..... (victory), so that its Empire
was extended even further. Then came the second world war, in which London suffered great
damage: the City was almost completely destroyed, with the (11) ...... (except) of the
Cathedral of St Paul, which became a symbol of the courage and tenacity with which the
country for two years faced alone the threat of (12) ..... (invade). London today is a city
which is continually changing but which remains faithful to its past.

0 destruction
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
Score: 12 points

PPAARRTT FFOOUURR
Answer Keys – Reading
TTaasskk 11 PPaarriiss iinn sspprriinngg
0 three hours
1 four and a half (hours)
2 Waterloo station / Eurostar terminal
3 20 (minutes)
4 75 (minutes)
5 300 (kilometres) (an hour) / 186 (miles an hour)
6 trolley service (for refreshments)
7 (2) buffet cars
8 (on the) train
TTaasskk 22 TTrraavveelllleerr’’ss ttrruutthhss
0 53
1 Mama Tina
2 Ireland
3 (in) England
4 a far-off island / an island / (the) Seychelles
5 (Genghis-style) coat
6 writing (dreams) and reading (poetry)
TTaasskk 33 TThhee OOxxffoorrdd SSttoorryy EExxhhiibbiittiioonn
0 in the centre
1 signposts / call in advance
2 a souvenir guide / (admission to) The Oxford Story
3 four (two adults + two children)
4 (every) 20 minutes
5 Christmas Day
6 (about/at least/approximately) 1 hour
279Answer Keys – Reading

TTaasskk 44 BBoonn JJoovvii
0 none
1 (a) construction worker
2 (on) Monday night(s)
3 (for) (nearly) 20 years
4 ‘Moonlight and Valentino’
5 10 / ten (films)
6 its creator / David E. Kelley
7 (skintight) leather pants / leather trousers
8 (he watched) none / zero / 0 / no episodes / not any / didn’t watch
any
TTaasskk 55 AAddvveerrttiisseemmeennttss –– AAuu PPaaiirr BBuurreeaauu
TTaasskk 66 AAddvveerrttiisseemmeennttss--JJuulliiee wwaannttss ttoo ppuubblliisshh ......
TTaasskk 77 SSaannddwwiicchh mmaakkeerr
TTaasskk 88 GGoorriillllaass iinn UUggaannddaa’’ss mmiisstt
TTaasskk 99 JJeerreemmyy NNoorrtthhaamm
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
G F I A E C B H
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
H E F D A G B K N O M
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
G C H A B D E
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
B D A C H E G
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
D C F H A B G

TTaasskk 1100 SSwwiimmmmiinngg wwiitthh sshhaarrkkss
TTaasskk 1111 TTaallkkiinngg HHeeaaddss
TTaasskk 1122 88 wwaayyss ttoo kkeeeepp kkiittttyy ccoonntteenntt
TTaasskk 1133 FFiillmm aanndd tthheeaattrree
TTaasskk 1144 111100,,000000 kkmm ooppeenn rrooaadd aahheeaadd
TTaasskk 1155 TThhee wwaayy tthheeyy wweedd
TTaasskk 1166 CCaauugghhtt oouutt iinn tthhee rraaiinn
TTaasskk 1177 GGiiaanntt PPaannddaa ffaaccttss
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
G C H A D B E
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
E K F H B I J G C A
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
E B G J A C D H
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
C I F E A D B H
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
C I B J E G F H
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
D J A H L B I E C G
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
H G F A B C E
0 1 2 3 4 5
F B A G D E

TTaasskk 1188 LLoonnddoonn oonn aa rroollll
TTaasskk 1199 BBeeiinngg wweett ggoott uuss aa ttrraaiinn bbaann
TTaasskk 2200 TTiippss ffoorr aa ssaaffee vviissiitt
TTaasskk 2211 TThhee nnaakkeedd aanndd tthhee rreedd
TTaasskk 2222 FFiirrsstt lleessssoonnss iinn vveerrbbaall aabbuussee
TTaasskk 2233 TThhee ttrraaddeerr
TTaasskk 2244 LLiiffee’’ss rriicchh ttaappeessttrryy
TTaasskk 2255 LLaauurriiee LLeeee
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
H C B G A I F D
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
I F C D A H B E
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
J C D H E I B F A
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
E G F B I J C D H K
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
F J B I E C G A D
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
E C D F J B H I A
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
F D C B A H E
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
E C K F B G A D I L H

TTaasskk 2266 UUpp tthhee NNeevvaa
TTaasskk 2277 SSeeccoonndd ttiimmee aarroouunndd
TTaasskk 2288 BBaarrnnssttaappllee
TTaasskk 2299 FFlloocckkiinngg ttoo tthhee ffuuttuurree
TTaasskk 3300 AAnniimmaallss uunnddeerr tthhrreeaatt
TTaasskk 3311 VViiccttoorr BBoorrggee
TTaasskk 3322 LLeessss ccaalloorriieess ++ mmoorree eexxeerrcciissee
TTaasskk 3333 SSiibbeerriiaa
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
E C K F B G A D I L H
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
J B G F I E A C D
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
C A J F G E K H D
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
H C E D B G I K A
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
G E C I A H B D J
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
J G B E A F K C I
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
I C E A L B K D G H F
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
B A E D C H G I K

TTaasskk 3344 EExxpplloorreerrss
TTaasskk 3355 CCllaassss ooff 660000
TTaasskk 3366 FFoouurr LLoonnddoonn ZZoooo ggiirraaffffeess
TTaasskk 3377 TThhee mmaann wwhhoo mmaaddee hhiissttoorryy
TTaasskk 3388 CCrruuiissee ccoonnttrrooll
TTaasskk 3399 QQuueeeenn mmeeeettss ggaarrddeenneerr
TTaasskk 4400 AA ssmmaasshhiinngg ccaassee
TTaasskk 4411 CCoolloonneell JJoohhnn HHuunntt
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
D J F B H I C E A
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
G D F A E B C
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
K I E B G C H A D J
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
G F H A J I C E B
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
D G F H A I L C J B
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
J D C I F E A H B G
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
C F A G E B D
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
G C F D A E B

TTaasskk 4422 CCeelleebbrriittyy hhoommeess--JJaannee GGuurrnneetttt
TTaasskk 4433 AArrrraannggeedd mmaarrrriiaaggeess
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
C F A E B G D
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
C D F B A E I G H

Answer Keys – Reading
TTaasskk 4444 II eennjjooyy hheellppiinngg ppeeooppllee
0 in
1 about / over 7 them
2 it 8 mind
3 a / the 9 the
4 others 10 to
5 her 11 there
6 help 12 could / can / would / did
TTaasskk 4455 SShhuuttttiinngg ddoowwnn yyoouurr ccoommppuutteerr
0 however 7 reason
1 it 8 if / when
2 but / however / yet 9 should / must
3 of 10 at
4 is 11 the
5 are / get / become 12 have
6 which / this / that 13 as
TTaasskk 4466 KKooaallaass aanndd kkiiwwiiss
0 is 8 the
1 by 9 When / when
2 language 10 its
3 between 11 also
4 are 12 that / which
5 else 13 like
6 is 14 for
7 do

TTaasskk 4477 PPrrootteecctt yyoouurrsseellff
0 when 6 even
1 that / which 7 or / under
2 every / after 8 of
3 on / during 9 out
4 a 10 with
5 the / your
TTaasskk 4488 RRSSPPBB FFaacctt ffiillee
0 the 7 from
1 with 8 for
2 on 9 to / with
3 to 10 where
4 of 11 example
5 a 12 one
6 is
TTaasskk 4499 II nneevveerr ffoorrggeett aa ffaaccee
0 is 8 well / much
1 from 9 which
2 more 10 course
3 like / saying / suggesting / stating 11 get
4 him / them 12 to
5 spoken / talked 13 whether / if / that
6 be / become 14 have / ‘ve
7 who / that
TTaasskk 5500 PPaarrttnneerrss oonn ppaattrrooll
0 whose 7 although / though
1 a / per 8 at
2 had / started / begun 9 as/ like
3 same 10 be
4 spent 11 for / almost / nearly
5 took 12 between
6 ago
287Answer Keys – Use of English

TTaasskk 5511 WWhheerree ddoo bbiirrddss ccoommee ffrroomm??
0 there 8 from
1 up 9 on
2 about 10 whereas/while/but
3 to 11 which/that
4 as 12 such
5 was / looked 13 by
6 a 14 be
7 of
TTaasskk 5522 UUnnccoommmmoonn TTaalleennttss
0 this 8 like
1 on 9 the
2 out 10 for
3 at 11 so
4 his 12 how
5 when 13 if
6 of 14 been
7 a
TTaasskk 5533 SSppoorrtt iiss bbaacckk
0 some 7 members
1 took/needed/required 8 survey/study/research/report
2 despite 9 is
3 for/over 10 this/the/that
4 was/felt/got 11 falling/decreasing/declining
5 up/out 12 by
6 were
TTaasskk 5544 EEllssaa aanndd NNuurruu
0 wear 7 for
1 a 8 while / as / when
2 which 9 although
3 looked 10 for
4 out 11 suddenly
5 gave 12 voice
6 such

TTaasskk 5555 EEllssaa aanndd wwiilldd lliioonnss
0 happens 7 took / let
1 at 8 spent
2 who / that 9 succeeded
3 any 10 it
4 how / when 11 been
5 much / even / far / still 12 as
6 against / to / onto 13 point
TTaasskk 5566 CCoonnssuummiinngg ppaassssiioonnss
0 be 8 or
1 as 9 is
2 to 10 speaking/talking/chatting
3 up 11 younger/older
4 used 12 for
5 when / whenever /as 13 idea
6 taken 14 out
7 up
TTaasskk 5577 CCooookkiinngg
0 from 6 easy
1 been 7 other / many
2 as 8 that
3 many/different 9 also
4 become 10 this/that
5 changing 11 eaten/served/taken/usually
TTaasskk 5588 YYoouu aasskkeedd aabboouutt ppeettss
TTaasskk 5599 LLoonnddoonn oonn aa rroollll
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
P H M K D G I F O L A C J B
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
I G G M C E F B K A D L N H

TTaasskk 6600 PPaarrttnneerrss oonn ppaattrrooll
TTaasskk 6611 WWaattcchheess aanndd CClloocckkss
TTaasskk 6622 RRuussttlleerrss rruuiinn ggiirrll''ss sshhoowwjjuummpp ddrreeaammss
TTaasskk 6633 TThhee HHoouusseess ooff PPaarrlliiaammeenntt
TTaasskk 6644 TThhee NNeeww EEdduuccaattiioonn
TTaasskk 6655 HHuunntteerrss bbeeccoommee tthhee hhuunntteedd
TTaasskk 6666 SSqquueeeezziinngg tthhee TTuubbee
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
P M Q J N G O K H B D C A I L
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
C G B N O E L J I D K M Q H F
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
L A K H D M C B J E F I P G
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
E L H G F N C K B J D A
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B N A J L P H O K Q E R G F D M
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
J L M G C A E I K N F H D
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Q L I F P B E D M C K A G R O H

TTaasskk 6677 NNeevveerr aa ccrroosssseedd wwoorrdd
TTaasskk 6688 LLooww PPrriiccee FFeeaassttss
TTaasskk 6699 EEnnjjooyy yyoouurr wwaannddeerriinnggss
TTaasskk 7700 BBaasskkeettbbaallll
TTaasskk 7711 CChhaarraacctteerr
TTaasskk 7722 SSmmuugggglleedd qquueeeenn hheeaaddss
TTaasskk 7733 QQuuiicckk tthhiinnkkiinngg
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C E M F K J B A H G I
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
E H J B K A F C D I
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
G L E M J D F H N C K B I
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
L C H A M N J G I D E B
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
G M K C E A I F N J B H O
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
M G B J C A F D E K L
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
C D C B D A A C B A D B D

TTaasskk 7744 CCaann aanniimmaallss eemmppaatthhiizzee??
TTaasskk 7755 FFaayyrree iiss ccoommiinngg oonn ssttrroonngg
TTaasskk 7766 TThhee ggrreeaatt oouuttddoooorrss
TTaasskk 7777 IInnssiiddee tthhee WWhhiittee HHoouussee
TTaasskk 7788 HHoott--aaiirr bbaalllloooonniinngg
TTaasskk 7799 IInntteerrnneett aacccceessss ggrroowwss
0 P 8 than
0 as 9 a
1 before 10 be
2 so 11 she
3 for 12 all
4 by 13 full
5 P 14 to
6 to 15 P
7 in 16 a
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
B C D C D A B C A D B A
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
A D B C C D D A C B
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
B C B D A D B C A C B A
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B D B C A A D B C A
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
B C A B D B C A D

TTaasskk 8800 BBrriittiisshh ddiipplloommaattss rreessccuuee wwoommaann
0 be 8 a
0 P 9 out
1 to 10 P
2 from 11 been
3 P 12 if
4 the 13 rarely
5 being 14 by
6 while 15 because
7 has 16 P
TTaasskk 8811 TThhee sseeaarrcchh ffoorr NNeessssiiee
0 P 9 always
0 me 10 even
1 start 11 such
2 all 12 P
3 been 13 over
4 P 14 would
5 seemingly 15 although
6 had 16 P
7 got 17 tie
8 his
TTaasskk 8822 BBooyy ffoouunndd ''ddiinnoossaauurr--hhuunnttiinngg’’
0 P 8 not
0 was 9 whole
1 as 10 did
2 about 11 the
3 or 12 P
4 by 13 his
5 few 14 all
6 among 15 where
7 P

TTaasskk 8833 MMoovvee oovveerr,, WWeebbsstteerr
0 too 7 P
0 P 8 where
1 it 9 P
2 P 10 a
3 at 11 for
4 have 12 the/Filipino
5 often/becoming 13 either
6 has 14 been
TTaasskk 8844 RRuubbbbeerr dduucckk
0 of 10 great/vast
0 P 11 is
1 that 12 P
2 to 13 so
3 in 14 has
4 was/planned 15 few
5 P 16 of/are
6 in 17 P
7 hard 18 out
8 which 19 having
9 P
TTaasskk 8855 TThhee wwoorrdd mmaaddee ffrreesshh
0 the 8 for
0 P 9 few
1 to 10 too
2 like 11 P
3 familiar 12 every
4 P 13 why
5 both 14 are
6 against 15 get
7 toward 16 its

TTaasskk 8866 YYoouu oonnllyy lliivvee oonnccee
0 P 8 high
0 of 9 P
1 to 10 of
2 P 11 near
3 though 12 P
4 once 13 so
5 after 14 during
6 while 15 at
7 stand
TTaasskk 8877 HHaappppyy--mmaakkiinngg hheeaalltthh--bboooossttss
0 absorption 7 harmful
1 infections 8 effective
2 regularly 9 Prevention / prevention
3 likely 10 allowance
4 adventurous 11 injuries / injury
5 different 12 consumption
6 nervous
TTaasskk 8888 FFllyyiinngg ttoo tthhee rreessccuuee ooff tthhee ffoorreesstt
0 collection 6 health/healing
1 widely 7 esteemed
2 powerful 8 darkens
3 mountainous 9 dramatic
4 ornithologist 10 impressive
5 creature
TTaasskk 8899 RReeaassoonniinngg iinn aanniimmaallss
0 thinking 6 intelligence
1 comfortable 7 researcher
2 increasing/increasingly 8 vividly
3 possibility 9 expectation
4 programming/programmes 10 absence
5 uniqueness

TTaasskk 9900 OOlldd--ffaasshhiioonneedd
0 intention 6 anger
1 accusation 7 difference
2 permission 8 unlikely
3 implication 9 really
4 choice 10 difficulty / difficulties
5 argument
TTaasskk 9911 TThhee cciittyy''ss hhiissttoorryy
0 destruction 7 European
1 fortunate 8 enlargement
2 monumental 9 death
3 inhabitants 10 victorious
4 considerable 11 exception
5 creation 12 invasion
6 dwellings

APPENDIX
Ó British Council, Hungary
Guidelines for
Writers of Reading and
Use of English Tests

1 Introduction
These Guidelines were originally written to help secondary school and
university teachers, who had been trained in language testing, to write test
items for the British Council English School-leaving Examination Reform
Project. We believe that they are also useful for English teachers in general,
even if they have not received specific training in language testing, to help them
write better classroom language tests. And even if teachers do not wish or do
not have to write their own tests, understanding how Reading and Use of
English tests are constructed should help teachers understand the tests better,
and should help them prepare their students better for modern European
English examinations.
In this document, you will find both general and specific guidelines for the
construction of Reading and Use of English test items and tasks. Each set of
guidelines deals with text selection, task selection, task design, and rubrics.
Normally, guidelines like these are accompanied by test specifications.
Specifications are, if you like, the blueprint for what the test should contain.
They indicate who the test-takers are (how old they are, what level of ability
they have, and so on), what the purpose of the test is, the level of the test (for
example in terms of the Common European Framework), what abilities the test
is intended to test, the number of sections or separate papers in the test, the
timing of each section or paper, the weighting of each section (how many
points), which text types should be used, how long they should be, which
language skills and elements should be tested, which test tasks or item types
should be used, how rubrics should be worded, what criteria should be used
for marking, and so on.
Test writers need to understand the specifications for the test they are writing
items for, and they need to refer to them constantly. However, classroom
teachers may not have any such specifications to refer to. Clearly test writing
is easier if you have such specifications, and so it is often very helpful to
develop specifications for tests you need to write, preferably in consultation
with colleagues. Such specifications will help you write better tests. If you do
not have, or do not know how to write, such specifications, do not despair!
Simply following the Guidelines that follow will help you write better tests. And
once you have written a test according to these Guidelines, it should become
clearer to you what you need to decide in terms of what content, etc, your tests
should contain. In other words, following these Guidelines will help you to see
the need for specifications, and should also help you draft specifications for
your own tests.
Item writing is part of the test construction process, and examination boards
usually follow internationally accepted procedures. These procedures were also

followed in producing the tasks in this book. The first part of the test
construction process includes the following steps:
Familiarising with Specifications and Guidelines
ß
Writing items
ß
Small-scale pre-testing followed by revision of items
ß
Receiving feedback from pre-editing
ß
Revising items
ß
Receiving acceptance or rejection from an Editing Committee
The second part of this process normally includes the following steps:
ß
Pre-testing items on a larger scale
ß
Analysing items statistically
ß
Revising items centrally
ß
Optional further pre-testing
ß
Building item banks
ß
Constructing test papers
Such an elaborate process is often beyond the possibilities of classroom
teachers, be they at secondary school or university. However, small-scale pre-
testing on suitable students, perhaps in colleagues' classes, is often possible
and is certainly highly desirable. And even if you do not have a formal Editing
Committee, it is almost always possible to ask fellow English teachers to look
over your test items, to check them for errors that you may not have seen, to
check that they understand what they have to do, that they get the right
answer, and so on. In fact, it is a general principle of language testing that it is
impossible to write good test items alone. You ALWAYS need to get the opinions
of colleagues about the items and wherever possible to try them out on
students. Analysing test results after administering a test to your class is also
a good way of seeing how well you wrote the test items. You can then revise and
improve them for another occasion – you could even construct your own bank
of test items for use again and again.
299Appendix

2 General guidelines
2.1 Text selection
2.1.1 All texts must be authentic.
2.1.2 Texts must not be taken from printed material in other examinations
or English language teaching materials.
2.1.3 The topic of the texts must be accessible to the students' age group.
2.1.4 Texts must not be offensive, distressing or violent.
2.1.5 Texts must be of a suitable length.
2.1.6 Texts must be of a suitable level of difficulty.
2.1.7 A text must have a title unless it is used as part of the item.
2.1.8 The same text can be used with more than one task. For example, a
reading text with different tasks could be used for intermediate and
more advanced levels, or a reading text used with intermediate stu-
dents could be used as part of a Use of English task for more advanced
students.
2.2 Task selection
2.2.1 Have a clear idea what skill and sub-skill(s) you intend to test and
select the task and text/prompts accordingly.
2.2.2 The task type must be one which is familiar to the students who are to
be tested.
2.2.3 Tasks must be accessible to the students' age group.
2.2.4 Tasks must not be offensive, distressing or violent.
2.2.5 The time allocated for each task must be sufficient for somebody who
has the ability being tested to complete the task comfortably within the
time limit.
2.2.6 Students must be able to see easily how the task relates to the text.
2.2.7 No more than one testing technique should be used in each task. Do
not switch from multiple-choice to single-word answers in a single task,
for example.
2.3 Task design
2.3.1 There should be a minimum of five items in a task.
2.3.2 Items must follow the text sequence.
2.3.3 Items must be spread evenly through the text.
2.3.4 It must not be possible to answer any item without reference to the text.
This must be checked carefully.

2.3.5 In non-sequencing tasks, items must not be interdependent -students
should not need one answer in order to find another.
2.3.6 Items must not overlap.
2.3.7 Two items must not have similar answers.
2.3.8 Items must have a complete answer key. All possible good answers and
predictable wrong answers should be provided.
2.3.9 The items in each task must be numbered sequentially.
2.3.10 One item in each task must have an answer provided as an example.
The example item, written in italics, should be marked 0 and should
precede the other items. If the options to be selected are marked with
letters, the answer to the example should be marked with a letter
according to its place among the options.
2.3.11 The example answer must be provided in the form in which students
are expected to write their answers and, where appropriate, it must be
hand-written.
2.3.12 "Find the wrong answer" type items are not acceptable in multiple-
choice tasks.
2.3.13 Each item must score one point.
2.4 Rubrics
2.4.1 Rubrics should be in English. They must be clear, simple and brief.
Redundancies must be deleted. Do not use exclamation marks and
meta-language.
2.4.2 Conform to standard rubrics, for example, the ones in this textbook.
2.4.3 Indicate clearly what students have to do i.e. what they have to write
and where.
2.4.4 The rubrics should be in bold.
2.4.5 Put the total number of points available for each task (in other words,
the number of items) at the end of the task in bold.
2.5 Checklist
Text
2.5.1 Is the text type worth testing?
2.5.2 Is the text user-friendly in style and acceptable in content?
2.5.3 Is the length of text appropriate for your students?
2.5.4 Is the level of difficulty appropriate? Do any alterations to the text
conform to the Guidelines?
Task
2.5.5 Is the rubric clear, brief and in bold?
2.5.6 Has an example been provided for each task?
2.5.7 Is there a complete answer key for each task?
2.5.8 Is the task type familiar to students?
301Appendix

2.5.9 Is the task accessible and acceptable?
2.5.10 Is the number of items acceptable?
2.5.11 Are the items spread evenly through the text?
2.5.12 Are all items properly labelled: questions with numbers, options with
letters?
2.5.13 Can each question be answered independently?
2.5.14 Do items follow the text sequence?
2.5.15 Have you provided a full key?
2.5.16 Do answer keys reflect the form in which the answer is expected?
2.5.17 Does the answer key include alternative answers (if applicable)?
2.6 Acknowledgement
The following reference materials have been used in compiling these guidelines:
Alderson, J. C., Clapham, C., & Wall, D. (1995). Language Test Construction
and Evaluation. Cambridge Language Teaching Library. Cambridge: Cambridge
University Press.
Milanovic, M. (Ed.). (1996). User’s Guide for Examiners. Council of Europe, CC-
LANG, 10.

3 Reading Paper
3.1 Text selection
3.1.1 Use texts that are authentic and suitable for the selected task type.
3.1.2 Select texts whose topic is accessible to the students’ age group.
3.1.3 Try to select texts that are likely to be interesting for students. Be aware
that humorous texts might be enjoyable and easy for you but very
difficult for students.
3.1.4 Avoid offensive or distressing topics.
3.1.5 Avoid well-known novels as text sources.
3.1.6 Select texts of suitable length.
3.1.7 Do not use more illustrations than necessary. When illustrations are
used, they should be clear and photocopiable.
3.1.8 Do not use published teaching materials.
3.1.9 Do not use texts with content covered in detail in any textbook. You do
not want to test knowledge of content, but ability to understand texts.
3.1.10 Do not make any changes to the original text. Do not delete words,
sentences or paragraphs from the selected body of text. If the text
contains any offensive words that you think should be replaced, only
change these with great care and always seek the advice of a fellow
teacher or a native speaker as to the acceptability of the changes you
have made.
3.1.11 If the text used is not the beginning part of a longer text, make sure it
stands alone and does not contain references to previous parts of the
original text.
3.1.12 Wherever possible, begin the text with its title or headline.
3.1.13 Edit the text layout so that it resembles the original text as closely as
possible but make sure this does not make the text too difficult to read
(e.g. in gap filling tasks).
3.2 Task selection
3.2.1 Have a clear idea about the purpose of each reading task, which
reading skill is tested in a particular task, and why a particular task
type is used.
3.2.2 The task should reflect the way in which people usually read the type
of text used.
3.2.3 Consider applying more difficult texts with easier tasks and vice versa.
303Appendix

3.3 Task design
3.3.1 There should be a minimum of five items in a task.
3.3.2 Do not design in any one task more than 10 items for a passage of
approximately 100 words.
3.3.3 The wording of the items should be such that it is easy to understand,
is below the language level of the text and does not require more
reading than the text itself.
3.3.4 Provide an example, written in italics and marked with (0), at the
beginning of each task. Example answers should be given in a hand-
written form where appropriate.
3.3.5 Make sure that no item can be answered correctly without reading the
text.
3.3.6 Make sure that each question can be answered independently; that is,
the answer to one question does not depend on the answer to another
question (except in sequencing tasks).
3.3.7 Make sure that items do not overlap.
3.3.8 Make sure there is only one possible answer to each question. If more
than one answer is required, this fact must be clearly indicated, and
they must count as different items.
3.3.9 Avoid questions which demand much imagination.
3.3.10 Sequence items in the order they appear in the original text (other than
sequencing tasks!).
3.3.11 Number items and use letters to mark options.
3.3.12 Avoid Yes/No questions and True/False items, because guessing the
right answer is easier.
3.3.13 Do not delete the first words or beginnings of sentences.
3.3.14 In any gap-filling task (e.g. modified cloze, banked cloze, discourse
cloze) there should be a sentence at the beginning (before the example)
for lead-in and a sentence at the end for lead-out, which do not have
any items.
3.3.15 In a gapped text, where you take out paragraphs, do not take out the
first or the last paragraph, in order to leave enough context for
comprehension.
3.3.16 In gap-filling tasks there should be at least five words between gaps to
provide enough context.
3.3.17 In banked cloze tasks the items must be numbered in the gaps in brack-
ets, and the options, marked with letters, must be listed in alphabetical
order either at the bottom of the page or on the facing page.
3.3.18 Provide four options for multiple-choice items. Multiple-choice
questions should have only one correct answer and should not offer
“either a) or b)” or “both a) and b)” type of answers as an option,
because these are tricky.
3.3.19 “Not mentioned” must not be used as an optional answer, because this
can be misinterpreted. Many things “not mentioned” can still be inferred.
3.3.20 In one task, the number of matches must not be more than 10 for
intermediate students, and 12 for advanced students. Provide more

choices than matches in matching tasks and banked gap-filling tasks
(minimum 1, maximum 2 distractors to be provided).
3.3.21 Make sure that ambiguous matches are excluded.
3.3.22 Make sure that in sequencing tasks there is only one correct order and
no more than 6-7 items for intermediate students, or 8-9 items for
advanced students. Be careful if using newspaper articles in
sequencing tasks: they are rarely in chronological order.
3.3.23 Clearly indicate the required length of the answers (maximum 3 words)
in open-ended (short-answer) questions.
3.3.24 Design tasks with clear and consistent layout. The input text should
retain the original format as much as possible. Paragraph texts clearly
with indentations.
3.3.25 Design one task (including rubric, text, questions, space or boxes for
answers) to fit on one page. If this is not possible, the task must be
arranged on two facing pages.
3.3.26 Provide answer keys reflecting the form in which answers are expected.
Give all possible or acceptable answers. Unacceptable answers that are
likely to occur should also be indicated. In tasks where the correct
answer may be phrased in various ways, the answer key should provide
content-related instructions concerning acceptable answers.
3.3.27 Weight items equally (1 item = 1 point).
3.4 Rubrics
3.4.1 Indicate what type of text students are going to read and/or the text
source (preferably both).
List of reference books
Alderson, J C (2000) Assessing Reading. Cambridge Language Assessment
Series. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press.
Alderson, J. C., Clapham, C., & Wall, D. (1995). Language Test Construction and
Evaluation. Cambridge University Press.
Alderson, J. C. & Urquhart, A. H. (Eds.) (1984). Reading in a Foreign Language.
Longman.
Bachman, L. F. (1990). Fundamental Considerations in Language Testing.
Oxford University Press.
Bachman, L. F. and Palmer, A. S. (1996) Language Testing in Practice. Oxford:
Carrell, P. L., Devine, J. & Eskey, D. E. (Eds.) (1988). Interactive Approaches to
Second Language Reading. Cambridge University Press.
Harrison, A. (1983). A Language Testing Handbook. Macmillan.
Heaton, J.B. (1998). Writing English Language Tests. Longman.
Hughes, A. (1989). Testing for Language Teachers. Cambridge University Press.
305Appendix

Nuttall, C. (1996). Teaching Reading Skills in a Foreign Language. Heinemann
Publishers. Second edition
Urquhart, A. H. & Weir, C. (1998). Reading in a Second Language: Process,
Product and Practice. Longman.
Wallace, C. (1992). Reading. Oxford University Press.
Weir, C. (1990). Communicative Language Testing. Prentice Hall.
Weir, C. (1993). Understanding and Developing Language Tests. Prentice Hall.
Practice test booklets and practice books for the Cambridge FCE and CAE
examinations

4 Use of English Paper
4.1 Text selection
4.1.1 Choose relevant, interesting and intrinsically motivating topics for the
age group of students concerned.
4.1.2 Use authentic texts, where possible. Texts taken from graded readers
as they appear in the original are acceptable. Do not take texts or
sentences from language teaching materials other than readers or from
dictionaries.
4.1.3 Use texts at an appropriate level of difficulty. In order to ensure that
the task tests Use of English and not Reading, select texts the language
level of which is below the tested level.
4.1.4 Only make changes to the original text if absolutely essential. Do not
delete words, sentences or paragraphs from the selected body of text. If
the text contains any offensive words that should be replaced, or you
feel that any other changes would be necessary, only make these
changes with great care and always seek the advice of a fellow teacher
or a native speaker as to the acceptability of the changes you have made.
4.1.5 Do not use texts exceeding 300 words.
4.1.6 Normally provide a title. It helps to contextualise the meaning.
4.1.7 Edit the text layout so that it resembles the original text as closely as
possible but make sure this does not make the text too difficult to read
(e.g. in gap filling tasks).
4.2 Task selection
4.2.1 The selected task type must be familiar to the students.
4.2.2 Do not use "Find the wrong answers" multiple-choice tasks, because
these are very tricky and may test intelligence rather than language.
4.3 Task design
4.3.1 Test a range of different linguistic points in one task.
4.3.2 Balance the number of lexical and structural items in text-based tasks
(except in word transformation tasks).
4.3.3 Use only one testing technique in one task.
4.3.4 There should be a minimum of ten, a maximum of 20 items in a task,
in an approximate ratio of one item per 10-15 words in text-based
tasks.
4.3.5 Highlight items clearly by using boldface (e.g. 1. He (live) here since he
was born.).
4.3.6 Provide an example in italics marked (0), and an example answer in a
handwritten form. The example should follow the lead-in sentence.
307Appendix

4.3.7 Make sure that each question can be answered independently; that is,
the answer to one question does not depend on the answer to another
question (except in sequencing tasks).
4.3.8 Make sure that items do not overlap.
4.3.9 Number items and use letters to mark options.
4.3.10 Provide enough context in between gaps (at least five words) in gap-
filling tasks.
4.3.11 In any gap-filling task (e.g. modified cloze, banked cloze, discourse
cloze) provide a sentence with no items at the beginning (before the
example) for lead-in and one at the end for lead-out. This will help
students understand the context of the items.
4.3.12 In banked cloze tasks the items must be numbered in the gaps in
brackets, and the options, marked with letters, must be listed in
alphabetical order either at the bottom of the page or on the facing page.
4.3.13 When designing multiple-choice cloze tasks, consult good monolingual
dictionaries and books that give synonyms and near synonyms.
4.3.14 Provide four options for multiple-choice items. Multiple-choice questions
should have only one correct answer and should not offer “either a) or
b)” or “both a) and b)” type of answers as an option, because these are
tricky and difficult to understand.
4.3.15 Put only one item in a line in intrusive-word tasks, “spot-the-error” and
“spot-and-correct” tasks.
4.3.16 Do not use an item at the beginning or at the end of a line in intrusive-
word tests. Students should be required to write the word to be deleted
in the space provided. Crossing out the intrusive word is not the right
way to indicate the answer. Deleting an irrelevant word may make the
student delete another word.
4.3.17 In intrusive-word tests the word to be deleted must not appear in the
line more than once.
4.3.18 Design one task to fit on one page if possible, or on facing pages.
4.3.19 Design tasks with clear and consistent layout. The input text should
retain the original format as much as possible. Paragraph texts clearly
with indentations.
4.3.20 Provide enough space for answers.
4.3.21 Provide answer keys reflecting the form in which answers are expected.
Give all possible or acceptable answers. Unacceptable answers that are
likely to occur should also be indicated.
4.3.22 Each item scores one point.
4.4 Rubrics
4.4.1 Give the number of errors in “spot-the-error” tasks, and indicate that
students must tick error-free lines. In “spot-the-error” tasks identified
errors and identified error-free lines each score 1 point. In “spot-and-
correct” tasks only corrected items score; no marks are given for errors
identified but not corrected.

List of reference books
Alderson, J. C., Clapham, C., & Wall, D. (1995). Language Test Construction
and Evaluation. Cambridge University Press.
Bachman, L. F. (1990). Fundamental Considerations in Language Testing.
Bachman, L. F. and Palmer, A. S. (1996) Language Testing in Practice. Oxford:
Harrison, A. (1983). A Language Testing Handbook. Macmillan.
Heaton. J. B. (Ed.). (1982). Language Testing. Modern English Publications.
Heaton, J.B. (1998). Writing English Language Tests. Longman.
Hughes, A. (1989). Testing for Language Teachers. Cambridge University Press.
Purpura, J. (2004) Assessing Grammar. Cambridge Language Assessment
Series. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press.
Weir, C. (1990). Communicative Language Testing. Prentice Hall.
Weir, C. (1993). Understanding and Developing Language Tests. Prentice Hall.
Practice test booklets and practice books for the Cambridge FCE and CAE
examinations
309Appendix

Publisher's acknowledgements
The authors and publisher are grateful to the authors, publishers and others
who have given permission for the use of copyright material in the text. It has
not been possible to identify, or trace, sources of all the materials used and in
such cases the publishers would welcome information from copyright owners.
The Arizona Game and Fish Department; The Atlanta Journal-Constitution, TV
Week; The Australian Women's Weekly; Avon Books; Bella; Best Magazine;
Better Nutrition; The Budapest Sun; Casa Editrice Bonechi; Cassell Ltd, Geoffry
Chapman Book: Parents Listen (1986) by Lucienn Pickering; Chancellor Press:
Born free (1986) by Joy Adamson; Conde Nast Traveller; Cosmopolitan; Daily
Express; The Daily Telegraph; A Dartmoor Visitor Supplement: Dartmoor towns
and villages; The Economist; Encyclopaedia Britannica; Geographical; Glencoe:
World Geography (1989) by McGraw-Hil; The Globe and Mail; Grolier Society;
The Guardian; The Guardian Weekly; A Guide to the Grand Canyon National
Park; HAMLYN: The World's Greatest Trials (1986) by Tim Healey; Harcourt,
Brace, Jovanovich Publishers; Harris, B. (1989) Pennsylvania. A photographic
journey; The Independent; The Independent on Sunday – Reality Magazine;
Jarrold Publishing; Just Seventeen; The Lady; Microsoft Press; National
Examiner; National Geographic Magazine; National Wildlife Federation,
Washington: Ranger Rick's NATURE SCOPE; New Scientist; The News of
Wolverhampton; Newsweek; North Devon Holiday and Accommodation Guide;
The Observer; Orionbooks; OWL, The Discovery Magazine for Children;
Penninsula Press LTD; People; Property Today; Reader's Digest; Royal Society for
the Protection of Birds; School Zone Publishing Company; Scientific American
Presents; Scribner Educational Publishers; SUN; Sunday Express; The Sunday
Telegraph; The Times Educational Supplement; Woman's Own; Woman's
Weekly; World Book Encyclopaedia.

INTO EUROPE
Series Editor: J. Charles Alderson
The Speaking Handbook
Ildikó Csépes
Györgyi Együd
This handbook provides an introduction to the assessment of speaking ability.
It is aimed at those language teachers who need to learn how to design, adminis-
ter or prepare students for tests of speaking ability.
The authors sicuss what may influence test takers’ oral performance, and
describe how to design test task, including guidelines for designing interview qu-
estions, picture description tasks, role plays and discussion activities. They
stress the importance of the roles of interlocutor and assessor in speaking
assessments, and the Handbook presents a step-by-step description of the pro-
cedures that should be used in the training of interlocutors and assessors.
The Handbook is accompanied by a video/DVD that illustrates various spe-
aking activitiess in different examination modes (individual vs. paired exams).
In addition, it includes a selection of benchmarked performances representing
different levels on the Common European Framework, which have been
assessed by a group of experts. The experts’ comments are included in the
Handbook.
Language teachers who are required to design test tasks and administer spe-
aking examinations will find the Handbook an indispensable guide to assessing
EFL learners’ oral language ability in both classroom and exam situations.

INTO EUROPE
Series Editor: J. Charles Alderson
The Writing Handbook
Judit Bognár Csolák
Gyula Tankó
This handbook provides an introduction to tests of writing ability, and gives gui-
dance on how teachers can assess writing. It looks at how writers write, and
what features make a learner’s script good, from a testing perspective. It also de-
scribes key concepts in assessing writing in teaching and examination settings
(for example, the use of rating scales, the importance of ensuring reliable sco-
res and how to do this and so on).
The handbook provides a range of different writing tasks, together with a de-
scription of what the main features of these tasks are and how teachers can
create similar writing tasks. It also presents scripts produced by real learners,
which are annotated with raters' comments on the strength and weaknesses of
the scripts. The scripts have been selected to represent the levels specified by
the Common European Framework of Reference for Languages
This volume focuses on the most frequent writing tasks used in modern
English language tests. The publication serves as a tool for professional
development, gives advice on how teachers can prepare their students for the
writing section of modern European English examinations and is a valuable
resource for classroom practice.

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