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Name: _______________________________
Grade & Section: ____________________________
Summative Test
GRADE 10 – SCIENCE
Instructions. There are twenty (20) questions in this paper, and each is followed by four possible answers. Choose the one that
best completes the statement or answers the question. Write the letter in the space provided.
_____ 1. Which two (2) hormones produced by the ovary contribute to the healthy function of the Female Reproductive system?
A. Testosterone and progesterone
B. Androgen and testosterone
C. Progesterone and estrogen
D. Estrogen and androgen
_____ 2. Which of the following best describes the role of testosterone in the Male Reproductive system?
A. Stimulates sperm production
B. Stimulates secretion of luteinizing hormone
C. Testosterone stimulates secondary sex characteristics
D. Increases the production of Follicle Stimulating Hormone
_____ 3. What stage of the Menstrual Cycle is characterized by the collapse of the uterine wall and the subsequent release of
blood and tissues from the body?
A. Follicle stage
B. Menstrual stage
C. Ovulation stage
D. Corpus Luteum stage
_____ 4. What would happen inside the uterus if fertilization occurs?
A. The fertilized egg will get implanted in the uterus
B. The uterine wall will collapse, releasing blood and tissues
C. The egg cell will be fertilized by the sperm cell in the uterus
D. The uterine wall will continue to thicken in preparation for ovulation
_____ 5. The female ovaries are responsible for producing estrogen and progesterone. How is the ovary affected by the hormones
released by the pituitary gland?
A. LH stimulates the release of estrogen while FSH inhibits the release of progesterone
B. LH inhibits the release of estrogen while FSH stimulates the release of progesterone
C. FSH causes the follicles to grow in the ovary, while LH causes the release of egg cells.
D. FSH causes the release of egg cells from the ovary, while LH causes the growth of follicles.
_____ 6. A feedback mechanism is a process where the level of one substance affects the level of another substance. Which two
(2) substances exhibit this process?
A. Estrogen and luteinizing hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone and glucagon
C. Insulin and follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone and estrogen
_____ 7. Ate Gurlie skipped her lunch for the day. How will the hormones from the pancreas help her body cope with the
abnormally low blood sugar level?
A. Insulin is released to increase the blood sugar level
B. Glucagon is released to increase the blood sugar level
C. Insulin is released to convert blood sugar to glycogen
D. Glucagon is released to convert blood sugar to glycogen
_____ 8. During a hot, humid day, how will your body achieve homeostasis aside from fanning yourself?
A. Shaking
B. Sweating
C. Drinking hot beverage
D. Wearing thick clothing
_____ 9. A DNA strand contains the following nitrogen bases: C – A – G – A – T – A.
Which of the following anticodons will be produced by the tRNA?
A. G – T – C – T – A – T
B. G – U – C – U – A – U
C. C – A – G – A – U – A
D. C – A – G – A – T – A
Use the Genetic Code Table below for question No. 10
____ 10. Given the anticodon translated by the tRNA: C – A – U – U – A – G, what amino acids are coded by the codons from the
mRNA?
A. Valine and isoleucine
B. Start codon and valine
C. Histidine and stop codon
D. Glutamine and isoleucine
____ 11. If an mRNA transcribed the following: C – A – U – U – A – G – A – U – A – U – A – U and lost the italicized underlined red
letters during translation, which of the following would be the translated tRNA?
A. CUA – AUA – AGA – UAA C. AUC – UGA – UAU
B. AUU – AGA – UAU – UCA D. UAU – CUA – AUA
____ 12. How do embryological and biochemical similarities among different animals support evolution?
A. Both indicate different genes from a common ancestor, presumably.
B. Both contradict the representation of genes from a common ancestor.
C. Both falsify the representation of genes from a common ancestor.
D. Both indicate similar genes, presumably from a common ancestor.
____ 13. Biologists use multiple types of evidence to trace evolutionary changes that occur over long time periods. Which of the
following is inconsistent with that statement?
A. Homologous physical features shared between species can provide evidence for common ancestry.
B. Similarities and differences among biological molecules can be used to determine species' relatedness.
C. Biogeographical patterns provide clues about how species, both alive and extinct, are related to each other.
D. The fossil record, as long as complete, provides valuable information about what species existed at particular
times in history.
____ 14. How does natural selection work?
A. Natural selection "rejects" organisms that are well adapted to an environment to survive and reproduce.
B. Natural selection "chooses" those organisms which are well adapted to survive and reproduce in an
environment.
C. Natural selection decreases organisms that are adapted to survive and reproduce in an environment.
D. Natural selection breeds perfectly adapted organisms, so they survive.
____ 15. Reasons for preserving biodiversity include all of the following except
A. Isolating unique genetic material so it can be incorporated into existing crops
B. Increasing the chances of discovering organisms with medicinal value
C. Preventing natural evolution
D. Finding new plants that can supplement the world's food supply
____ 16. What causes new species to form?
A. Separation and the accumulation of genetic differences between groups in the population.
B. Isolation and accumulation of genetic differences between two groups within the original population.
C. New species are formed by speciation, in which an ancestral population splits into two or more descendant
populations that are genetically distinct.
D. New species are formed by speciation, in which genetically identical descendant populations are split into an
ancestral population.
____ 17. The fact that organisms are adapted to survive in particular environments helps us to explain why
A. captive-breeding programs are often ineffective
B. non-native plant species never flourish in new areas
C. habitat destruction accounts for most extinctions D. compromise is impossible on
environmental issues.
____ 18. Carrying capacity is:
A. The maximum number of individuals that can fit into an area
B. The ability of an environment to accommodate a growing population
C. The greatest number of individuals that an area can sustain over the long term
D. The maximum number of species that can co-exist in an area.
____ 19. A stable age distribution would indicate a population that was:
A. growing rapidly, not near its carrying capacity
B. growing slowly, close to its carrying capacity
C. declining because it has exceeded its carrying capacity
D. growing rapidly near its carrying capacity
____ 20. After a population reaches carrying capacity:
A. It begins to grow exponentially
B. It begins to grow logistically
C. It stops growing
D. It begins to decline
Answer Key
1. C 11. D
2. C 12. D
3. B 13. D
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. B 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. C
8. B 18. C
9. B 19. A
10. A 20. D

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Summative test science 10

  • 1. Name: _______________________________ Grade & Section: ____________________________ Summative Test GRADE 10 – SCIENCE Instructions. There are twenty (20) questions in this paper, and each is followed by four possible answers. Choose the one that best completes the statement or answers the question. Write the letter in the space provided. _____ 1. Which two (2) hormones produced by the ovary contribute to the healthy function of the Female Reproductive system? A. Testosterone and progesterone B. Androgen and testosterone C. Progesterone and estrogen D. Estrogen and androgen _____ 2. Which of the following best describes the role of testosterone in the Male Reproductive system? A. Stimulates sperm production B. Stimulates secretion of luteinizing hormone C. Testosterone stimulates secondary sex characteristics D. Increases the production of Follicle Stimulating Hormone _____ 3. What stage of the Menstrual Cycle is characterized by the collapse of the uterine wall and the subsequent release of blood and tissues from the body? A. Follicle stage B. Menstrual stage C. Ovulation stage D. Corpus Luteum stage _____ 4. What would happen inside the uterus if fertilization occurs? A. The fertilized egg will get implanted in the uterus B. The uterine wall will collapse, releasing blood and tissues C. The egg cell will be fertilized by the sperm cell in the uterus D. The uterine wall will continue to thicken in preparation for ovulation _____ 5. The female ovaries are responsible for producing estrogen and progesterone. How is the ovary affected by the hormones released by the pituitary gland? A. LH stimulates the release of estrogen while FSH inhibits the release of progesterone B. LH inhibits the release of estrogen while FSH stimulates the release of progesterone C. FSH causes the follicles to grow in the ovary, while LH causes the release of egg cells. D. FSH causes the release of egg cells from the ovary, while LH causes the growth of follicles. _____ 6. A feedback mechanism is a process where the level of one substance affects the level of another substance. Which two (2) substances exhibit this process? A. Estrogen and luteinizing hormone B. Luteinizing hormone and glucagon C. Insulin and follicle-stimulating hormone D. Follicle-stimulating hormone and estrogen _____ 7. Ate Gurlie skipped her lunch for the day. How will the hormones from the pancreas help her body cope with the abnormally low blood sugar level? A. Insulin is released to increase the blood sugar level B. Glucagon is released to increase the blood sugar level C. Insulin is released to convert blood sugar to glycogen D. Glucagon is released to convert blood sugar to glycogen _____ 8. During a hot, humid day, how will your body achieve homeostasis aside from fanning yourself? A. Shaking B. Sweating C. Drinking hot beverage D. Wearing thick clothing
  • 2. _____ 9. A DNA strand contains the following nitrogen bases: C – A – G – A – T – A. Which of the following anticodons will be produced by the tRNA? A. G – T – C – T – A – T B. G – U – C – U – A – U C. C – A – G – A – U – A D. C – A – G – A – T – A Use the Genetic Code Table below for question No. 10 ____ 10. Given the anticodon translated by the tRNA: C – A – U – U – A – G, what amino acids are coded by the codons from the mRNA? A. Valine and isoleucine B. Start codon and valine C. Histidine and stop codon D. Glutamine and isoleucine ____ 11. If an mRNA transcribed the following: C – A – U – U – A – G – A – U – A – U – A – U and lost the italicized underlined red letters during translation, which of the following would be the translated tRNA? A. CUA – AUA – AGA – UAA C. AUC – UGA – UAU B. AUU – AGA – UAU – UCA D. UAU – CUA – AUA ____ 12. How do embryological and biochemical similarities among different animals support evolution? A. Both indicate different genes from a common ancestor, presumably. B. Both contradict the representation of genes from a common ancestor. C. Both falsify the representation of genes from a common ancestor. D. Both indicate similar genes, presumably from a common ancestor. ____ 13. Biologists use multiple types of evidence to trace evolutionary changes that occur over long time periods. Which of the following is inconsistent with that statement? A. Homologous physical features shared between species can provide evidence for common ancestry. B. Similarities and differences among biological molecules can be used to determine species' relatedness. C. Biogeographical patterns provide clues about how species, both alive and extinct, are related to each other. D. The fossil record, as long as complete, provides valuable information about what species existed at particular times in history. ____ 14. How does natural selection work? A. Natural selection "rejects" organisms that are well adapted to an environment to survive and reproduce. B. Natural selection "chooses" those organisms which are well adapted to survive and reproduce in an environment. C. Natural selection decreases organisms that are adapted to survive and reproduce in an environment. D. Natural selection breeds perfectly adapted organisms, so they survive. ____ 15. Reasons for preserving biodiversity include all of the following except A. Isolating unique genetic material so it can be incorporated into existing crops B. Increasing the chances of discovering organisms with medicinal value C. Preventing natural evolution
  • 3. D. Finding new plants that can supplement the world's food supply ____ 16. What causes new species to form? A. Separation and the accumulation of genetic differences between groups in the population. B. Isolation and accumulation of genetic differences between two groups within the original population. C. New species are formed by speciation, in which an ancestral population splits into two or more descendant populations that are genetically distinct. D. New species are formed by speciation, in which genetically identical descendant populations are split into an ancestral population. ____ 17. The fact that organisms are adapted to survive in particular environments helps us to explain why A. captive-breeding programs are often ineffective B. non-native plant species never flourish in new areas C. habitat destruction accounts for most extinctions D. compromise is impossible on environmental issues. ____ 18. Carrying capacity is: A. The maximum number of individuals that can fit into an area B. The ability of an environment to accommodate a growing population C. The greatest number of individuals that an area can sustain over the long term D. The maximum number of species that can co-exist in an area. ____ 19. A stable age distribution would indicate a population that was: A. growing rapidly, not near its carrying capacity B. growing slowly, close to its carrying capacity C. declining because it has exceeded its carrying capacity D. growing rapidly near its carrying capacity ____ 20. After a population reaches carrying capacity: A. It begins to grow exponentially B. It begins to grow logistically C. It stops growing D. It begins to decline Answer Key 1. C 11. D 2. C 12. D 3. B 13. D 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. B 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. C 8. B 18. C 9. B 19. A 10. A 20. D