Machine design - II - MCQ

SEM - VII MACHINE DESIGN - II
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MODULE NUMBER OF QUESTION Page Number
1 136 82
2 62 58
3 33 73
4 44 46
5 114 1
6 60 30
TOTAL 449
MACHINE DESIGN - II
MOD - 5 - BELT DRIVE, FLYWHEEL & CHAIN DRIVE
Q1 - A V-belt designated as B4430 LP has
a) 4430 mm diameter of small pulley
b) 4430mm as nominal pitch length
c) 4430 mm as diameter of large pulley
d) 4430 mm as centre distance between pulleys
Q2 - In replacing the V-belt a complete set of new belts is used instead of replacing a
single damaged belt because
a) belts are available in sets
b) only one belt cannot be fitted with other used belts
c) the new belt will carry more than its share and result in short life
d) new and old belts will cause vibrations

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Q3 - The belt slip occur due to
a) heavy load
b) loose belt
c) driving pulley too small
d) any one of above
Q4 - The power transmitted by the belt drive can be increased by
a) increasing the initial tension in the belt
b) decreasing the belt to increase the coefficient of friction
c) increasing wrap angle by using idler pulley
d) A,B and C
Q5 - In case of V-belt drive the belt makes contact at
a) the bottom of groove in the pulley
b) the bottom and the sides of groove in the pulley
c) the sides of groove in the pulley
d) none of the above
Q6 - The centrifugal tension in belts
a) decrease the power transmitted
b) increase the power transmitted
c) increase the wrap angle
d) increases the belt tension without increasing power transmission
Q7 - The arms of the pulleys for flat belt drive have
a) elliptical cross-section
b) major axis in plane of rotation
c) major axis twice the minor axis
d) all the above 3 characteristics

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Q8 - The objective of idler pulley in belt drive is to
a) decreas the tendency of belt to slip
b) increase the power transmission capacity
c) increase the wrap angle and belt tension
d) all the above objective
Q9 - The objective of ‘Crowning’ of flat pulleys of belt drive is to
a) prevent the belt from running off the pulley
b) increase the power transmission capacity
c) increase the belt velocity
d) prevent the belt joint from damaging the belt surface
Q10 - The groove angle of pulleys for V-belt is
a) 34 - 36 degree
b) 42 - 45 degree
c) more then 400
d) 30 - 32 degree
Q11 - The included angle between the sides of V-belt is
a) 400
b) 450
c) 380
d) 420
Q12 - If P1 and P2 are the tight and slack side tension in the belt, then the initial tension
Pi ( according to Barth ) will be equal to

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a) [
√ 𝑷 𝟏+√𝑷 𝟐
𝟐
] 𝟐
b) P1+P2
c)
1
2
(P1+P2)
d)
1
2
(P1+P2)+Pc
where Pc is centrifugal tension
Pi ( considering centrifugal tension ) will be equal to
a) P1 - P2
b) P1+P2
c)
1
2
(P1+P2)
d)
𝟏
𝟐
(P1+P2)+Pc
Pi ( neglecting centrifugal tension ) will be equal to
a) P1 - P2
b) P1+P2
c)
𝟏
𝟐
(P1+P2)
d)
1
2
(P1+P2)+Pc
Q15 - The stress induced in the belt is
a) tensile stress
b) compressive stress
c) direct shear stress
d) torsional shear stress

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Q16 - In a horizontal flat belt drive, it is customary to use
a) bottom side of belt as slack side
b) top side of belt as slack side
c) idler pulley
d) bottom side of belt as tight side
Q17 - When the belt is transmitting maximum power the belt speed should be
a) √
𝑃 𝑚𝑎𝑥
2𝑚
b) √
𝑷 𝒎𝒂𝒙
𝟑𝒎
c) √
𝑃 𝑚𝑎𝑥
𝑚
d) √
3𝑚
𝑃 𝑚𝑎𝑥
where m = mass of belt per meter (kg/m)
Pmax = maximum permissible tension in belt (N)
Q18 - The ratio of belt tension (P1/P2) considering centrifugal force in flat belt is given by
a)
𝑷 𝟏−𝒎𝒗 𝟐
𝑷 𝟐−𝒎𝒗 𝟐
= 𝒆 𝒇𝜶
b)
𝑃1
𝑃2
= 𝑒 𝑓𝛼
c)
𝑃1
𝑃2
= 𝑒−𝑓𝛼
d)
𝑃1−𝑚𝑣2
𝑃2−𝑚𝑣2
= 𝑒−𝑓𝛼
where m = mass of belt per meter
v = belt velocity (m/s)
f = coefficient of friction
𝛼 = 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑟𝑎𝑝

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Q19 - The condition for maximum power transmission is that the maximum tension in the
flat belt should be equal to
a) 3Pc
b) Pc
c) Pc/3
d) 2Pc
Pc = tension in belt drive due to centrifugal force
Q20 - Fabric belt are used in industrial application because
a) they are cheap
b) they are easily available
c) they are unaffected by moisture and humidity
d) they can work at high temperature
Q21 - Which is positive drive ?
a) flat belt drive
b) v-belt drive
c) crossed belt drive
d) timing belt
Q22 - The coefficient of friction in belt drive depends upon
a) material of belt
b) material of pulley
c) material of belt and pulley
d) belt velocity

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Q23 - When belt speed increases
a) power transmitted increases
b) power transmitted decreases
c) power transmitted increase to a maximum value and then decreases
d) power transmitted remains the same
Q24 - The creep in the belt is due to
a) effect of temperature on belt
b) material of belt
c) unequal extensions in the belt due to tight and slack side tensions
d) stresses beyond elastic limit of belt material
Q25 - The suitable material for belt in agricultural machinery is
a) leather
b) rubber
c) cotton duck
d) balata gum
Q26 - The suitable material for belt used in floor mill is
a) leather
b) rubber
c) canvas or cotton duck
d) balata gum
Q27 - The power transmitted by belt drive depend on
a) belt velocity
b) initial belt tension
c) arc of cotton
d) all of above

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Q28 - Which flat belt drive system has two pulleys mounted on driven shaft and one
pulley on driving shaft?
a) Multiple belt drive
b) Cone pulley drive
c) Fast and loose pulley drive
d) idler pulley
Q29 - The moment on the pulley which produces rotation is called.......
a) inertia
b) momentum
c) work
d) torque
Q30 - Creep in belt drive is due to.......
a) .material of the pulley
b) material of the belt
c) larger size of the driver pulley
d) uneven extensions and contractions due to varying tension
Q31 - Crowning on pulleys helps.......
a) in increasing velocity ratio
b) in decreasing the slip of the belt
c) for automatic adjustment of belt position so that belt runs centrally
d) increase belt and pulley life
Q32 - Idler pulley is used.......
a) for changing the direction of motion of the belt
b) for applying tension
c) for increasing velocity ratio
d) all of the above

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Q33 - The velocity ratio of two pulleys connected by an open belt or crossed belt is
a) directly proportional to their diameters
b) inversely proportional to their diameters
c) directly proportional to the square of their diameters
d) inversely proportional to the square of their diameters
Q34 - Due to slip of the belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive
a) decreases
b) increases
c) does not change
d) constant
Q35 - V-belts are usually used for
a) long drives
b) short drives
c) long and short drives
d) neither short nor long
Q36 - The ratio of the driving tensions for V-belts is _____________ times that of flat
belts.
a) sin β
b) cos β
c) cosec β
d) sec β
Q37 - A V-belt designated by A-914-50 denotes
a) a standard belt
b) an oversize belt
c) an undersize belt
d) none of the mentioned

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Q38 - V belts have v shaped cross section.
a) No, rectangular
b) No, trapezium
c) No, circular
d) No, spherical
Q39 - The efficiency of flat belt drive is 35%. If all the parameters are same and flat belt
is replaced by V belt, than the efficiency of V belt will be?
a) <35%
b) >35%
c) =35%
d) Cant be determined
Q40 -The layer of a belt is generally called as
a) Ply
b) Layer
c) Segment
d) Sediment
Q41 - The diameter of the shorter pulley in leather belt drive is 265mm. It is rotating at
1440 rpm. Calculate the velocity of the belt.
a) 25m/s
b) 20m/s
c) 30m/s
d) 40m/s
Q42 - If maximum tension in the belt is 900N and allowable belt load is 500N. Calculate
the number of belts required to transmit power.
a) 2

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b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Solution : Number of belt = 900/500 =1.8
Q43 - Calculate the belt length if diameter of the two pulleys are 550mm and 300mm.
Also the centre distance is 2800mm.
a) 6.5m
b) 4.66m
c) 6.94m
d) 5.26m
Solution: L = 2C + π(D+d)/2 + (D-d)²/4C.
Q44 - The velocity ratio for v-belt is upto
a) 2:1
b) 4:1
c) 7:1
d) 15:1
Q45 - The angle of contact for crossed belt drive is given by
a) 180-𝛽
b) 180+ 𝛽
c) 180-2 𝛽
d) 180+2 𝜷
Q46 - In which of the following drive there is no slip
a) open belt drive
b) cross belt drive
c) rope drive
d) chain drive

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Q47 - Stretching in a belt can be controlled by
a) decreasing belt length
b) increasing center distance
c) increasing pulley diameter
d) reducing stress in the belt
Q48 - The tensions in the tight and slack sides of the belt in a belt drive are 250N and
150N respectively. What will be the initial tension in the belt if centrifugal tension is 30N.
a) 230N
b) 200N
c) 143.33N
d) 153.33N
Solution : T1 = 250N , T2 = 150N , TC=30N
Ti = T1+T2+2TC / 2
Q49 - A open belt drive consist of two pulleys, where pulley A acts as driving pulley while
pulley B act as driven. The diameter of pulleys are 300mm and 625mm respectively. Also
the angle of contact is 1500 and 2100 respectively. if the tension in the slack side is 250N,
what will be the tension on tight side of the belt. Take coefficient of friction between the
belt and pulley as fA=0.33 & fB = 0.2.
a) 175N
b) 456.178N
c) 593.12N
d) 241.92N
Solution : 𝜃𝐴 = 150 ×
𝜋
180
= 2.618𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑛, 𝜃 𝐵 = 210 ×
𝜋
180
= 3.665𝑟𝑎𝑑
ratio of tension is given by
𝑇1
𝑇2
= 𝑒 𝑓 𝐴×𝜃 𝐴 , where T2 = 250N

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Q50 - Tension in the tight side of a belt drive is 100N & that in the slack side is 60N if the
belt breadth is 10cm & thickness 4cm what is the maximum stress induced in the belt ?
a) 2.5N/cm2
b) 1.5N/cm2
c) 4N/cm2
d) 2N/cm2
Solution : Tmax =𝜎 × 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 = 𝜎 × 𝑏 × 𝑡
or 𝜎 =
𝑇𝑚𝑎𝑥
𝑏𝑡
=
100
10×4
= 2.5

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CHAIN DRIVE
Q1 - The length of the chain in terms of pitches is approximately given by
a) 𝟐 (
𝒂
𝒑
) + (
𝒛 𝟏+𝒛 𝟐
𝟐
) + (
𝒛 𝟐−𝒛 𝟏
𝟐𝝅
) 𝟐
× (
𝒑
𝒂
)
b) 2 (
𝑎
𝑝
) + (
𝑧1+𝑧2
2
) − (
𝑧2−𝑧1
2𝜋
)2
× (
𝑝
𝑎
)
c) 𝑝 (
𝑧1+𝑧2
2
)
d) (
2𝑎
𝑝
)
where z1,z2 = number of teeth on small and big sprocket
a = center distance
p = pitch
Q2 - The relationship between pitch circle diameter of the sprocket (D), pitch of the chain
(p) and the number of teeth on sprocket (z) is given by
a) 𝑝 = 𝐷 sin (
180
𝑧
)
b) 𝑜
c) o
d) o
Q3 - What will be the average velocity of the chain if sprocket rotates at speed of 1200rpm.
Also the number of teeth on sprocket are 24. The chain has a pitch of 6.35mm and length
1.3m.
a) 1.476m/s
b) 4.945m/s
c) 3.048m/s
d) 6.35m/s
Solution : n=1200rpm, z=24, p=6.35mm, L=1.3m

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Velocity of chain is given by V =
𝑧𝑝𝑛
60×1000
Q4 - Which type of chain used in motor cycle ?
a) bush roller
b) silent
c) pintle
d) ewast
Q5 - What is the purpose of using steel chains?
a) To avoid slipping
b) To avoid friction
c) To avoid accelerated motion
d) To avoid jerks
Q6 - The variation in chain speed is due to
a) chordal action
b) slip
c) creep
d) backlash
Q7 - A chain drive is used for
a) short distance
b) long distance
c) medium distance
d) distance is no criteria for chain drive

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Q8 - The number of teeth on driving sprocket should be more than 17 in order to
a) reduce wear
b) reduce interference
c) reduce variation in chain speed
d) reduce undercutting
Q9 - Silent chain is made up of
a) links and blocks
b) links, pins, bushes & rollers
c) links
d) inverted tooth overlapping
Q10 - In some application chain drive is preferred to belt drive because of
a) compact construction
b) positive transmission
c) low cost
d) a & b
Q11 - The number of teeth on sprocket should be odd in odder to
a) reduce polygon effect
b) reduce wear
c) reduce back sliding
d) evenly distribute all wear on sprocket teeth
Q12 - Main type of failure in roller chain are
a) breakage of link plate
b) wear of roller and pin
c) wear of sprocket wheel
d) all of the above

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Q13 - As compare to belt drive chain drive transmit
a) more power
b) less power
c) same power
Q14 - Which of the following is true regarding chain drives?
a) The chain drives may be used when the distance between the shafts is less
b) The production cost of chains is relatively low
c) The chain drive needs low maintenance
d) The chain drive has no velocity fluctuations
Q15 - The distance between hinge centres of two corresponding links is known as
_______
a) Pitch
b) Pitch circle diameter
c) Sprocket length
d) Sprocket diameter
Q16 - Which of the following chains fall under the category of hoisting and hauling chains?
a) Chain with oval links
b) Closed joint chain
c) Detachable chain
d) Block chain
Q17 - Which of the following chain is used to provide elevation continuosly?

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a) Conveyor chains
b) Power transmitting chains
c) Hoisting chains
d) Hauling chain
Q18 - In the designation ‘04B’, pitch of the chain is?
a) 12.7mm
b) 6.35mm
c) 4mm
d) 7
Solution: Pitch=[04/16]x25.4 = 6.35mm
Q19 - The designation ‘04B’ is as per ANSI series.
a) Yes
b) No, it is as par British standards
c) One digit is missing
d) None of the listed
Q20 - The maximum achievable efficiency of the chain drives is .
a) It is about 50%
b) It is about 96-98%
c) It is about 75%
d) It is always <40%
Q21 - The number of links of the chain should be always ______
a) Odd
b) Even
c) Multiple of 3
d) Integer

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Q22 - The driving sprocket has 19 teeth and rotates at 1100rpm. The pitch of the chain
is 18mm. Calculate the velocity of the chain.
a) 5.6m/s
b) 6.3m/s
c) 5.8m/s
d) 5.1m/s
Solution : v=zpn/60×1000 = 6.27m/s
Q23 - Calculate the pitch circle diameter of the driving pulley is pitch is given as 18mm
and sprocket has 19 teeth.
a) 112.33mm
b) 109.36mm
c) 102.66mm
d) 105.33mm
Solution :: D=p/sin(180/z) = 109.35mm
Q24 - . Driving and driven pulleys are rotating at 1000rpm and 500rpm. If number of teeth
on driving sprocket are 20, find number of teeth in the driven sprocket.
a) 41
b) 40
c) 10
d) 11
Solution : n1z1 = n2z2
Q25 - If centre distance for a chain drive is 750mm with number of teeth on the driving
and driven sprockets being 40 and 20 respectively, then calculate the number of links
required. Given: Pitch is taken as 19mm.
a) 112

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b) 120
c) 111
d) 109
Solution : 2 × (
𝑎
𝑝
) + (
𝑧1+𝑧2
2
) + (
𝑧2−𝑧1
2𝜋
)2
×
𝑝
𝑎
= 109.20mm
Q26 - . In silent chain sprocket teeth have a rectangular profile.
a) Yes rectangular
b) No trapezoidal
c) No circular
d) No hyperbolic
Q27 - The type of chain drive shown is
a) Leaf chain
b) Roller chain
c) Silent chain
d) Roller less chain
Q28 - The type of chain drive is shown is

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a) Silent chain
b) Roller chain
c) Leaf chain
d) Rollerless chain
Q29 - The ____link chains used to minimize the deformation and link easily
a) Stud
b) Square
c) Oval
d) Rectangle
Q30 - If the driving sprocket of a chain has 30 teeth and the driven sprocket has 20 teeth,
the driven sprocket rotates
a) slower than the driving sprocket
b) 0.67times faster than the driving sprocket
c) at the same speed as the driving sprocket
d) 1.5 times as fast as the driving sprocket
Q31 - Chain drive gears turn in the _____ direction
a) same
b) linear
c) oscilating
d) opposite
Q32 - What is the chain ratio if the drive chain has 12 teeth and the driven chain has 60?
a) 5:1
b) 1:5
c) 7:1
d) 5:2

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Q33 - A chain should be replaced when its length becomes _____longer than the original
a) 10%
b) 20mm
c) 40mm
d) 3%
Q34 - _____ is a stick - slip phenomenon between the pin and the bushing
a) Chain drive
b) Belt drive
c) Galling
d) Silent chain
Q35 - Number of teeth on driving sprocket is 23 then the value of tooth correction factor
will be
a) 0.53
b) 1.35
c) 1.00
d) 1.73
Q36 - Find length of chain for given data: Number of links = 106, Pitch = 23
a) 2438mm
b) 83mm
c) 2444mm
d) 129mm
Solution: Length of chain (L) = M x p

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FLYWHEEL
Q1 - A flywheel is used
a) to limit the fluctuation of speed during each cycle
b) to control the mean speed of the engine
c) to maintain a constant speed
d) to come into action when the speed varies
Q2 - A flywheel is made of
a) cast iron
b) high strength steels
c) graphic fiber reinforced polymer
d) any one of the above materials
Q3 - The maximum fluctuation of energy of flywheel is
a) difference between maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
b) difference between maximum and mean kinetic energy during the cycle
c) difference between mean and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
d) mean of maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
Q4 - The rim of the flywheel is subjected to,
a) direct tensile stress and bending stress
b) torsional shear stress and bending stress
c) direct shear stress and bending stress
d) compressive stress and bending stress

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Q5 -The spokes of the flywheel are subjected to
a) direct shear stress
b) torsional shear stress
c) tensile stress
d) compressive stress
Q6 - The tensile stress in the rim of the flywheel is given by
a) 𝜌𝑣2
/2
b) 𝜋𝜌𝑣2
c) 𝝆𝒗 𝟐
d) 2𝜌𝑣2
Q7 - The hub diameter of the flywheel is taken as
a) 2.5(shaft diameter)
b) 1.5(shaft diameter)
c) 4(shaft diameter)
d) 2(shaft diameter)
Q8 - For finding out the bending moment for the arm (spoke) of flywheel the arm is
assumed as
a) a cantilever beam fixed at the rim and subjected to tangential force at the hub
b) a simply supported beam fixed at hub and rim and carrying uniformly distributed
load
c) a cantilever hub fixed at the rim and subjected to tangential force at the rim
d) a fixed beam fixed at hub and rim and carrying uniformly distributed load

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Q9 - The cross section of flywheel arm is
a) I section
b) Rectangular
c) Elliptical
d) Circular
Q10 - The coefficient of fluctuation of energy of flywheel is
a) ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to work done per cycle
b) ratio of to work done per cycle to maximum fluctuation of energy
c) difference between maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
d) ratio of maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
Q11 - The coefficient of fluctuation of speed of flywheel is
a) ratio of maximum and minimum speeds during the cycle
b) ratio of maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed
c) ratio of mean speed to maximum fluctuation of speed during the cycle
d) sum of maximum fluctuation of speed and the mean speed
Q12 - In vehicle flywheel is place between
a) clutch and propeller shaft
b) engine and clutch
c) before engine
d) propeller shaft and differential
Q13 - Energy stored in flywheel in the form of
a) heat energy
b) kinetic energy
c) solar energy
d) thermal energy

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Q14 - Flywheel is used in
a) drilling machine
b) milling machine
c) surface grinder
d) punch press
Q15 - The flywheel is accelerate when
a) driving torque > load torque
b) driving torque < load torque
c) driving torque = load torque
d) driving torque / load torque
Q16 - Maximum fluctuation of energy =
a) Max KE - Min KE
b) Max KE + Min KE
c) Max KE > Min KE
d) Max KE < Min KE
Q17 - Reciprocal of coefficient of fluctuation of speed is called
a) fluctuation of energy
b) fluctuation of speed
c) maximum fluctuation of speed
d) coefficient of fluctuation of speed
Q18 - Split flywheel is made to
a) avoid cooling stress

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b) reduce weight
c) increase weight
d) maximize large centrifugal force
Q19 - A flywheel connected to a punching machine has to supply energy of 400 Nm while
running at a mean angular speed of 20 rad/s. If the total fluctuation of speed is not exceed
to ±2% the mass moment of inertia of the flywheel in kgm2 is
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
d) 125
Solution : E = 𝐼𝜔2
𝑐 𝑔
400 = I (20)2 (0.04)
I = 25kgm2
Q20 - A circular solid of uniform thickness 20 mm, radius 200 mm and mass 20 kg, is
used as a flywheel. If it rotates at 600 rpm, the kinetic energy of the flywheel, in joules is
a) 395
b) 790
c) 1580
d) 3160
Solution : E =
1
2
𝐼𝜔2
=
1
2
×
𝑚𝑟2
2
× 𝜔2
=
1
2
(
1
2
× 20 × 0.22
) ( 2 ×
𝜋×600
60
) 2
= 790 N-m
Q21 - Which of the following is used to control the speed variations of the engine caused
by the fluctuations of the engine turning moment?
a) D-slide valve
b) Governor

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c) Flywheel
d) Meyer's expansion valve
Q22 - The radius of Gyration (k) for Rim Type Flywheel having radius ‘r’ is given by
a) k = 2r
b) k = r/2
c) k = r
d) k = r/3
Q23 - The coefficient of fluctuation of speed of Flywheel is given by
a) (N1-N2)/N
b) (N1+N2)/N
c) (N1-N2) x N
d) (N1+N2) x N
Where N1 =Maximum speed, N2 = Minimum speed, N = Mean speed.
Q24 - . When the driving torque is more than load torque, flywheel is ______
a) Accelerated
b) Decelerated
c) Constant velocity
d) Can’t be determined
Q25 - Calculate the coefficient of fluctuation of speed if maximum speed is 2500rpm and
minimum speed is 1800rpm.
a) 1.44
b) 1.33
c) 0.33
d) 0.44

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Solution : C = 2 (
𝑁 𝑚𝑎𝑥−𝑁 𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝑁 𝑚𝑎𝑥+𝑁 𝑚𝑖𝑛
) = 0.32
Q26 - In a flywheel the safe stress is 25.2MN/m2 and the density is 7 g/cm3. Then what is
the maximum peripheral velocity ?
a) 30m/s
b) 45m/s
c) 60m/s
d) 120m/s
Solution: Circumference stress = 𝛿𝑣2
25.2× 106
𝑁/𝑚2
= 7 × 1000 × 𝑣2
𝑣2
=
25.2×106
7×1000
= 60𝑚/𝑠
Q27 - Flywheel absorbs energy during those periods of crank rotation when
a) The twisting moment is greater than the resisting moment
b) The twisting moment is equal to the resisting moment
c) The twisting moment is less than resisting moment
d) The load on engine falls
Q28 - A flywheel of moment of inertia 9.8kgm2 fluctuates by 30 rpm for a fluctuation in
energy of 1936 joules. The means speed of flywheel is (in rpm)
a) 600
b) 900
c) 968
d) 2940
Solution : ∆𝐸 = 𝐼𝜔2
× (
𝑁1−𝑁2
𝑁 𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛
)
∆𝐸 = 𝐼(
2𝜋
𝑁
)2
× (
𝑁1−𝑁2
𝑁 𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛
)
1936 = 9.8 × (
2𝜋
60
)2
× 𝑁 × 30 = N = 600.48rpm

P a g e | 30
MOD - 6 - CLUTCHES & BRAKES
Q1 - The friction moment in a clutch with uniform wear as compared to friction moment
with uniform pressure is
a) more
b) equal
c) less
d) more or less depending on speed
Q2 - The friction radius for new clutch compared to worn out clutch will be
a) more
b) equal
c) less
d) more or less depending on size of clutch
Q3 - Torque transmitting capacity of clutch depends on
a) coefficient of friction
b) dimension of friction lining
c) axial forces provided to engage the clutch
d) all of the above
Q4 - In the beginning of engagement of a centrifugal clutch
a) the centrifugal force on shoe is slightly more than spring force
b) the centrifugal force on shoe is equal to spring force
c) the centrifugal force on shoe is less than spring force
d) none of above

P a g e | 31
Q5 - In the running condition, the net force acting on the drum of centrifugal clutch is equal
to
a) the centrifugal force on shoe
b) the centrifugal force on shoe minus spring force
c) the centrifugal force on shoe plus spring force
d) the spring force
Q6 - In case of multi - disk clutch oil is used
a) to reduce the friction
b) to carry away the heat
c) to lubricate the contacting surfaces
d) for all above function
Q7 - A Jaw clutch is
a) friction clutch
b) disk clutch
c) positive action clutch
d) cone clutch
Q8 - The clutch used in truck is
a) centrifugal clutch
b) cone clutch
c) multi - plate clutch
d) single plate clutch
Q9 - The clutch used in scooters is
a) centrifugal clutch

P a g e | 32
b) cone clutch
c) multi - plate clutch
d) single plate clutch
Q10 - The friction material of the clutch should have
a) high coefficient of friction
b) low coefficient of friction
c) high surface hardness
d) high endurance limit strength
Q11 -The torque transmitted by single plate clutch, working on uniform wear criterion is
given by
a) 0.25 𝜇 𝑃𝑅 𝑚𝑖𝑛
b) 0.50 𝜇 𝑃𝑅 𝑚𝑖𝑛
c) 0.75 𝜇 𝑃𝑅 𝑚𝑖𝑛
d) 𝝁 𝑷𝑹 𝒎𝒊𝒏
Q12 - In case of multi - plate clutch if n1 = number of disks on driving shaft , n2 = number
of disks on driven shaft, then the number of pairs of contacting surface is given by
a) n1 + n2
b) n1 + n2 + 1
c) n1 + n2 - 1
d) n1 + n2 - 2
Q13 - The cone clutches have become obsolete because
a) strict requirement of coaxiality of two shafts
b) difficult to disengage
c) difficult construction
d) none of above

P a g e | 33
Q14 - The following is an automatic clutch which is controlled by engine speed.
a) Cone clutch
b) Centrifugal clutch
c) Fluid clutch
d) Disc clutch
Q15 - Which type of clutch does not require clutch pedal?
a) Single plate
b) Multi plate
c) Centrifugal
d) Cone
Q16 - The following is not a Friction clutch.
a) Fluid clutch
b) Centrifugal clutch
c) Cone clutch
d) Disc clutch
Q17 - Which clutch is known as wet clutch?
a) Single plate clutch
b) Multi plate clutch
c) Dog clutch
d) Cone clutch
Q18 - In centrifugal clutches, when is the contact between shoe friction lining and surface
of drum observed?

P a g e | 34
a) When centrifugal force is less than spring force
b) When centrifugal force is equal to spring force
c) When centrifugal force is greater than spring force
d) When centrifugal force is constant to spring force
Q19 - The commonly used angle between leather or asbestos friction lining surface and
axis of cone clutch for a cone clutch is
a) 14.5°
b) 20°
c) 12.5°
d) 45°
Q20 - In the running condition, the net force acting on the drum of centrifugal clutch is
equal to
a) The centrifugal force on shoe
b) The centrifugal force on shoe minus spring force
c) The centrifugal force on shoe plus spring force
d) The spring force
Q21 - . In case of single plate worn out clutches and brakes, the friction radius is equal to
Where, ‘D’ and ‘d’ are outer and inner diameters of friction lining respectively.
a) ⅓ [(D3 - d3)/(D2 - d2)]
b) ½[(D3 - d3)/(D2 - d2)]
c) ¼ [(D3 - d3)/(D2 - d2)]
d) ¼ (D + d)
Q22 - In case of single plate new clutches and brakes, the friction radius is equal to
Where, ‘D’ and ‘d’ are outer and inner diameters of friction lining respectively.
a) ⅓ [(D3 - d3)/(D2 - d2)]

P a g e | 35
b) ½[(D3 - d3)/(D2 - d2)]
c) ¼ [(D3 - d3)/(D2 - d2)]
d) ¼ (D + d)
Q23 - Identify the clutch
a) Single plate clutch
b) Conical clutch
c) Centrifugal clutch
d) Multi plate clutch
Q24 - In a single plate clutch, considering uniform pressure, T = nµWR. What is R equal
to?
a) 2(𝑟1
3
+ 𝑟2
3
) / 3(𝑟1
2
+ 𝑟2
2
)
b) 2(𝒓 𝟏
𝟑
− 𝒓 𝟐
𝟑
) / 3(𝒓 𝟏
𝟐
− 𝒓 𝟐
𝟐
)
c) (𝑟1 − 𝑟2)/2
d) (𝑟1 + 𝑟2)/2
Q25 - In a single plate clutch, considering uniform wear, T = nµWR. What is R equal to?
a) 2(𝑟1
3
+ 𝑟2
3
) / 3(𝑟1
2
+ 𝑟2
2
)
b) 2(𝑟1
3
− 𝑟2
3
) / 3(𝑟1
2
− 𝑟2
2
)
c) (𝑟1 − 𝑟2)/2
d) (𝒓 𝟏 + 𝒓 𝟐)/𝟐

P a g e | 36
Q26 - In a single plate clutch, the pressure is uniformly distributed. If the outer and inner
radii are 100 mm and 70 mm respectively, find the value of R.
a) 76.39 mm
b) 23.48 mm
c) 85.88 mm
d) 34.98 mm
Solution:: uniform pressure theory in a single plate clutch, T = nµWR
where R = 2(𝑟1
3
+ 𝑟2
3
) / 3(𝑟1
2
+ 𝑟2
2
)
r1=100mm , r2=70mm
Q27 - Find the axial thrust to be provided by the springs if the maximum intensity of
pressure in a single plate clutch should not exceed 0.2 N/mm2. The outer and the inner
radius is 75 mm and 35 mm. Assume theory of uniform wear.
a) 1792.01 N
b) 1789.21 N
c) 1723.41 N
d) 1759.29 N
Solution: Given: pmax = 0.2 N/mm2, r1 = 75 mm and r2 = 35 mm
W = 2 π x pmax x r2 (r1 – r2) = 2 π x 0.2 x 35 (75 – 35) = 1759.29 N.
Q28 - Find the average pressure in a single plate clutch if the axial force is 5 kN. The
inside radius and the outer radius is 30 mm and 70 mm respectively. Assume uniform
wear.
a) 398 N/mm2
b) 0.398 N/m2
c) 0.398 N/mm2
d) 398 N/m2
Solution: Given: W = 5 kN = 5 x 103 N, r1 = 70 mm and r2 = 30 mm
Average pressure =
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑒
𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑜𝑠𝑒 𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑒
=
𝑊
(𝜋(𝑟1
2−𝑟2
2)

P a g e | 37
Q29 - In a multi plate clutch, the formula for T is given by ______
a) n.µ.W.R
b) n.µ.W.r1
c) n.µ.W.r2
d) n.µ.W.(r1+r2)
Q30 - In a multi plate clutch, T = 150 N-m, n = 4, µ = 0.3 and R = 0.1 m. Find the axial
thrust.
a) 18
b) 1800
c) 1250
d) 200
Solution: T = nµWR
150 = 4 x 0.3 x W x 0.1
W = 1250 N
Q31 - Which of the following is a part of clutch disc?
a) friction lining
b) strap
c) retracting spring
d) diaphragm spring
Q32 - Which of the following is not a part of clutch cover?
a) strap
b) pivot stud
c) torsional coil spring
d) pressure plate

P a g e | 38
Q33 - It transfer the force of the driver’s foot the clutch components in order to disengage
the clutch
a) slave cylinder
b) clutch pedal
c) master cylinder
d) release fork

P a g e | 39
BRAKES
Q1 - In order to prevent the brake arm from grabbing, the moment of friction force about
the brake arm pivot should be
a) less than the total required braking effort
b) more than the total required braking effort
c) equal to the total required braking effort
d) constant to the total required braking effort
Q2 - The percentage of total brake effort that results from self-energizing action depends
upon
a) the location of brake arm pivot
b) coefficent of friction
c) direction of rotation of brake drum
d) all of the above
Q3 - In block brakes, the ratio of shoe width and drum diameter is kept between
a) 0.1 to 0.25
b) 0.25 to 0.50
c) 0.50 to 0.75
d) 0.75 to 1.0
Q4 - When the frictional force helps to apply the brake, the brake is said to be
a) partially self energizing
b) self locking
c) back-stop
d) self acting

P a g e | 40
Q5 - The friction material of the brake should have
a) high coefficient of friction
b) low coefficient of friction
c) high surface hardness
d) high endurance limit strength
Q6 - The heat generated in brake depends upon
a) (pv)
b) (p/v)
c) (pv2)
d) ½ pv2
Q7 - The brake used in most of motorcycles is
a) internal expanding brake
b) block brake
c) band brake
d) disk brake
Q8 - The brake used in most of the automobile vehicles is
a) internal expanding brake
b) block brake
c) band brake
d) disk brake
Q9 - The brake used in railway coaches is
a) shoe brake
b) block brake

P a g e | 41
c) band brake
d) disk brake
Q10 - The Basic function of Brakes is
a) To control the vehicle to be retained when descending a hill
b) To stop or slow down the vehicle in the shortest possible distance in emergencies
c) Stop the vehicle with safety
d) All above
Q11 - Braking Distance is….
a) Proportional to brake efficiency
b) Proportional to square of the speed
c) Inversely proportional to Velocity
d) Proportional to deceleration
Q12 - The power source for a brake booster is
a) Exhaust manifold pressure
b) Electricity
c) pressure difference between the atmospheric pressure and the vacuum
pressure in the intake manifold
d) Hydraulic pump
Q13 - The operation of removing trapped air from the hydraulic braking system is known
as
a) Trapping
b) Tapping
c) Bleeding
d) Cleaning

P a g e | 42
Q14 - The sequence in which the force is transmitted through a brake pedal is depressed
is
a) Brake pedal, master cylinder, brake lines, vacuum servo mechanism, brake pads
b) Brake pedal, vacuum servo mechanism , master cylinder, brake lines, brake
pads
c) Brake pedal, master cylinder, vacuum servo mechanism brake lines, brake pads
d) Brake pedal, master cylinder, brake lines, vacuum servo mechanism, brake pads
Q15 - In ventilated disc brake
a) A duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling while the vehicle moving
b) Caliper is covered with cooling fins
c) Disc contains many small holes for optimum cooling performance
d) Disc contains redial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for optimum cooling
performance
Q16 - The main function of brake fluid is
a) Lubrication
b) Power transmission
c) Cooling
d) heat
Q17 - The effect of vapor locking on the brake performance is that the
a) Brake function more effectively
b) Brakes fail completely
c) Brake operation is delayed after depression of the brake pedal
d) Vapor locking has no effect on brake performance
Q18 - During braking, the brake shoe is moved outward the lining against the

P a g e | 43
a) Wheel piston or cylinder
b) Anchor pin
c) Brake drum
d) Wheel rim or axle
Q19 - When the front wheels of a vehicle locked during braking, then
a) Stopping distance becomes extremely long
b) Front tyres skid across the road surface , and the vehicle spine around
c) Rear tyres skid across the road surface , and the vehicle spine around
d) Driver loses control over the steering and vehicle continues moving in its
current direction
Q20 - Stopping Distance =………
a) V 2/2a
b) V/a
c) a/V
d) V/2a
Q21 - Brake is used to _____the energy possessed by a moving system or mechanism
by means of friction
a) absorb
b) release
c) minimize
d) maximize
Q22 - The energy absorbed by brake is
a) kinetic energy
b) potential energy
c) kinetic and potential energy
d) thermal energy

P a g e | 44
Q23 - The energy absorbed by the brake is converted into
a) mechanical energy
b) heat energy
c) thermal energy
d) kinetic energy
Q24 - In block brake with long shoe, the semi-block angle is
a) 2𝜃
b)
𝜃
2
c) 𝜽
d)
𝜃
4
Q25 - -The hand brake of the automobile is usually
a) External contracting brake
b) Internal expanding brake
c) Disc brake
d) band brake
Q26 - In disc brake, the disc is attached to the
a) wheel
b) axle
c) suspension system
d) chassis

P a g e | 45
Q27 - -The power brake may be exerted by
a) electrical energy
b) engine vacuum
c) air pressure
d) mechanical energy

P a g e | 46
MOD 4 - CAM & FOLLOWERS
Q1 - Which type of cam does not require any external force to have contact between cam
and follower?
a) Preloaded spring cam
b) Conjugate cam
c) Both a. and b.
d) None of the above
Q2 - Which of the following statements is/are true for cam profile?
a) Pitch point on the pitch curve has minimum pressure angle
b) In case of roller follower, trace point represents centre of the roller
c) Pitch circle is drawn through trace point from the center of cam
d) In case of roller follower, trace point represents edge of the roller
Q3 - What is meant by jump phenomenon in cam and follower system?
a) Follower looses contact with cam surface when cam rotates beyond
particular speed due to inertia forces
b) Follower looses contact with cam surface when follower rotates beyond particular
speed due to gravitational force
c) Follower looses contact with cam surface when cam rotates beyond particular
speed due to gravitational forces
d) Follower looses contact with cam surface when cam rotates beyond particular
speed
due to kinetic energy
Q4 - Which of the following equation is used to measure pressure angle between direction
of follower motion and force exerted by the cam on follower when eccentricity is zero?
Where,

P a g e | 47
rb = base circle radius
y = displacement of follower
a) cot Φ = (dy /dθ) / ( rb + y)
b) tan Φ = (dy /dθ) / ( rb + y)
c) tan Φ = (dy /dθ) x ( rb + y)
d) cot Φ = (dy /dθ) x ( rb + y)
Q5 - Which of the following conditions can be used to minimize undercutting in cam and
follower mechanism?
a) By using larger roller diameter
b) By using internal cams
c) By decreasing the size of the cam
d) By using external cams
Q6 - Which of the following statements is false for SHM follower motion?
a) SHM can be used only for moderate speed purpose
b) The acceleration is zero at the beginning and the end of each stroke
c) The jerk is maximum at the mid of each stroke
d) Velocity of follower is maximum at the mid of each stroke
Q7 - Which motion of follower is best for high speed cams?
a) SHM follower motion
b) Uniform acceleration and retardation of follower motion
c) Cycloidal motion follower
d) Uniform velocity motion

P a g e | 48
Q8 - The size of a cam depends upon
a) base circle
b) pitch circle
c) prime circle
d) pitch curve
Q9 - . The retardation of a flat faced follower when it has contact at the apex of the nose
of a circular arc cam, is given by
a) ω2 × OQ
b) ω2 × OQ sinθ
c) ω2 × OQ cosθ
d) ω2 × OQ tanθ
Q10 - The displacement of a flat faced follower when it has contact with the flank of a
circular arc cam, is given by
a) R(1-cosθ)
b) R(1-sinθ)
c) (R-r1)(1-cosθ)
d) (R-r1)(1-sinθ)
Q11 - The linear velocity of the reciprocating roller follower when it has contact with the
straight flanks of the tangent cam, is given by
a) ω(r1-r2)sin θ
b) ω(r1-r2)cos θ
c) ωr1+r2)sin θ sec2 θ
d) ω(r1+r2)cos θ cosec2 θ

P a g e | 49
Q12 - For high speed engines, the cam follower should move with
a) uniform velocity
b) simple harmonic motion
c) uniform acceleration and retardation
d) cycloidal motion
Q13 - For low and moderate speed engines, the cam follower should move with
a) uniform velocity
b) simple harmonic motion
c) uniform acceleration and retardation
d) cycloidal motion
Q14 - Which of the following displacement diagrams should be chosen for better dynamic
performance of a cam-follower mechanism ?
a) simple hormonic motion
b) parabolic motion
c) cycloidal motion
d) uniform acceleration and retardation
Q15 - A radial follower is one
a) that reciprocates in the guides
b) that oscillates
c) in which the follower translates along an axis passing through the cam centre of
rotation.
d) avoid jerk
Q16 - . Offset is provided to a cam follower mechanism to
a) minimize the side thrust
b) accelerate

P a g e | 50
c) avoid jerk
d) displacement
Q17 - The cam follower extensively used in air-craft engines is
a) knife edge follower
b) flat faced follower
c) spherical faced follower
d) roller follower
Q18 - In a radial cam, the follower moves
a) in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
b) in a direction parallel to the cam axis
c) in any direction irrespective of the cam axis
d) along the cam axis
Q19 - A circle drawn with centre as the cam centre and radius equal to the distance
between the cam centre and the point on the pitch curve at which the pressure angle is
maximum, is called
a) base circle
b) pitch circle
c) prime circle
d) pitch radius
Q20 - The cam follower generally used in automobile engines is
a) knife edge follower
b) flat faced follower
c) spherical faced follower
d) roller follower

P a g e | 51
Q21 - Angle of ascent of cam is defined as the angle
a) during which the follower returns to its initial position
b) of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
c) through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in
highest position
d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches
its highest position
Q22 - Angle of action of cam is defined as the angle
a) of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
b) through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in
the highest position
c) moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its
highest position
d) moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to the termination of descent
Q23 - Throw of a cam is the maximum distance of the follower from
a) base circle
b) pitch circle
c) root circle
d) prime circle
Q24 - . Cam angle is defined as the angle
a) during which the follower returns to its initial position
b) of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
c) through which, the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in
the highest position
d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its
highest position

P a g e | 52
Q25 - For S.H.M. cam, the acceleration of the follower at the ends of the stroke and aimed
stroke respectively, is
a) maximum and zero
b) zero and maximum
c) minimum and maximum
d) zero and minimum
Q26 - Tangent cams are symmetric about __________
a) Centre line of cam shaft
b) Tangent line of cam shaft
c) Radial line of cam shaft
d) Along the roller
Q27 - In a given fig cam is contact with
a) Nose
b) Straight flank
c) Arm
d) Shaft
Q28 - . If θ is the angle turned by the cam from the beginning of the roller displacement,
then minimum acceleration pf the follower occurs at what value of θ in degrees?

P a g e | 53
a) 0
b) 30
c) 45
d) 60
Q29 - . If θ is the angle turned by the cam from the beginning of the roller displacement,
how the velocity changes with the change in theta?
a) Increases with increase in theta
b) Decreases with increase in theta
c) Increases with negative change in theta
d) Independent of theta
Q30 - The given figure is a velocity time diagram for which of the follower motion?
a) Simple harmonic
b) Uniform acceleration
c) Uniform velocity
d) Uniform retardation

P a g e | 54
a) Simple harmonic
c) Uniform velocity
Q32 - Which of the following motion is not suitable from a practical point of view?
a) Simple harmonic
c) Uniform velocity
a) Simple harmonic
c) Uniform velocity
d) Uniform acceleration and retardation

P a g e | 55
Q34 - . Which of the following motion has the maximum number of infinite jerks in one
rotation of the cam shaft?
a) Simple harmonic
c) Uniform velocity
Q35 - Which of the following motion is used only up to moderate speeds?
a) Simple harmonic
c) Uniform velocity
Q36 - On which of the following factors does the pressure angle of the cam does not
depend?
a) Offset between centre lines of follower and cam
b) Angle of ascent
c) Lift of the follower
d) Shape of cam
Q37 - Flat faced follower’s acceleration when in contact with a circular arc cam is given
by _________
a) ω2(R-r1)
b) ω2(R+r1)sin φ
c) ω2(R-r1)cos φ
d) ω2(R+r1)cos φ

P a g e | 56
Q38 - Which is not a terminology of cam & follower
a) cam profile
b) SHM
c) base circle
d) Pitch curve
Q39 - ______is a point on the follower which is used to generate the pitch curve
a) Pitch point
b) Pitch curve
c) Trace point
d) Base circle
Q40 - The path traced by the trace point is called
a) Pitch point
b) Pitch curve
c) Trace point
d) Base circle
Q41 - When there is no displacement of the follower the angle turned by the cam is called
a) angle of rise
b) angle of fall
c) angle of dwell
d) angle of return
Q42 - The angle turned during the fall of follower is called
a) angle of rise
b) angle of fall
c) angle of dwell
d) angle of return

P a g e | 57
Q43 - The normal force between cam and follower depend on
a) displacement
b) force
c) pressure angle
d) cam angle
Q44 - The angle turned by the cam when the follower lifts from the base circle upto its
maximum rise is called
a) angle of fall
b) angle of rise
c) angle of return
d) angle of dwell

P a g e | 58
MOD - 2 - ROLLING CONTACT BEARING
Q1 - Rolling contact bearing are classified according to
a) type of rolling element
b) direction of load
c) magnitude of load
d) a & b
Q2 - The last two digits of the bearing designation give the bore diameter of rolling contact
bearing when multiplies by
a) 10
b) 5
c) 100
d) 𝜋
Q3 - The catalogue life of bearing is
a) minimum life that 90% of the bearing will reach or exceed
b) maximum life for 90% of the bearing
c) average life
d) median life
Q4 - Taper roller bearing is used to take
a) only radial load
b) only axial load
c) only torque
d) both axial and radial loads

P a g e | 59
Q5 - The heavy series bearings have _____higher load carrying capacity than medium
series bearing of the same bore diameter
a) 30 - 40 %
b) 20 - 30 %
c) 40 - 50 %
d) 10 - 20 %
Q6 - The medium series bearings have _____higher load carrying capacity than medium
series bearing of the same bore diameter
a) 30 - 40 %
b) 20 - 30 %
c) 40 - 50 %
d) 10 - 20 %
Q7 - The rollers of rolling contact bearing are made of
a) case hardened steel
b) plain carbon steel
c) high carbon chromium steel
d) free cutting speed
Q8 - The balls of rolling contact bearing are made of
a) case hardened steel
b) plain carbon steel
c) high carbon chromium steel
d) free cutting steel
Q9 - The rolling contact bearing is known as
a) sleeve bearing
b) thin film bearing

P a g e | 60
c) antifriction bearing
d) bush bearing
Q10 - In an application the bearing is subjected to radial as well as axial loads. Which
type of rolling contact bearing you would suggest?
a) angular contact bearing
b) spherical roller bearing
c) taper roller bearing
d) any one of above three types
Q11 - Stress induced in the ball or rollers of rolling contact bearing is
a) torsional shear stress
b) tensile stress
c) crushing stress
d) contact stress
Q12 - A bearing is designated by the number . It means that it is a bearing of
a) light series with bore diameter of 10mm
b) heavy series with bore diameter of 50mm
c) medium series with bore diameter of 50mm
d) light series with bore diameter of 50mm
Q13 - Rolling contact bearing as compared to sliding contact bearing have
a) lower staring torque
b) require considerable axial space
c) generate less noise
d) costly

P a g e | 61
Q14 - A bearing number XX10 indicates that the bearing is having
a) bore diameter of 10mm
b) bore diameter of 100mm
c) bore diameter of 50mm
d) bore diameter of 100mm
Q15 - Antifriction bearing are
a) oil lubricated bearing
b) bush bearing
c) ball and roller bearing
d) boundary lubricated bearing
Q16 - In thrust bearings the load acts
a) along the axis of rotation
b) perpendicular to the axis of rotation
c) parallel to axis of rotation
d) a & c
Q17 - In radial bearing the load acts as
a) along the axis of rotation
b) perpendicular to the axis of rotation
c) parallel to the axis of rotation
d) a & c
Q18 - Which of the following bearing have spherical bore on outer race ?
a) roller bearing
b) thrust ball bearing

P a g e | 62
c) angular contact bearing
d) self aligning ball bearing
Q19 - Which among the following bearing can take the vertical load but cannot take a
radial load?
a) roller bearing
b) ball bearing
c) taper roller bearing
d) thrust ball bearing
Q20 - Which of the following bearing deign of taking an axial thrust load as well as radial
load
a) needle bearing
b) roller bearing
c) angular contact bearing
d) ball bearing
Q21 - In case of plain bus bearing to prevent the rotation of bush in bearing it should be
fitted with
a) screw or key
b) soldering
c) brazing
d) welding
Q22 - The portion of the shaft which is carried in the bearing is called
a) journal
b) inner race
c) cage
d) outer race

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Q23 - Which one of the following bearing are intended for heavy radial load
a) self aligning roller bearing
b) thrust bearing
c) ball bearing
d) roller bearing
Q24 - Journal bearing are sometime called
a) anti - friction bearing
b) friction bearing
c) ball bearing
d) thrust bearing
Q25 - A Needle bearing is a roller bearing with rollers whose length are least_____times
their diameter
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Q26 - What type of bearing will you recommended use in conveyor belt?
a) roller bearing
b) ball bearing
c) magnetic bearing
d) needle bearing

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Q27 - Which one of the following parts of a ball bearing is mounted to the housing and its
stationary ?
a) rolling element
b) cage
c) inner race
d) outer race
Q28 - Which one of the following parts of a ball bearing is mounted to the rotating shaft
and tends to rotate the shaft ?
a) inner race
b) cage
c) roller elements
d) outer race
Q29 -Which one of the following parts of a ball bearing acts as barrier between the balls
preventing them from bumping to each other ?
a) inner race
b) cage
c) outer race
d) roller element
Q30 - The speed of fluid and magnetic bearing is limited by
a) centrifugal force
b) centripetal force
c) radial force
d) axial force

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Q31 - Different type of bearing are design at different operating speeds. speeds are
specified as the maximum
a) meters/ second
b) meters / minute
c) meters / hours
d) RPM
Q32 - Load applied parallel to the axis of bearing are called
a) radial load
b) thrust load
c) concentric load
d) center load
Q33 - Bearing in car wheel are subjected to
a) thrust load only
b) both thrust and radial load
c) radial load only
d) center load
Q34 - The rib _____the roller in a tapered roller
a) turns
b) restraint
c) lubricate
d) fix
Q35 - The tapered roller bearing has the ability to handle
a) radial load
b) center load
c) thrust load

P a g e | 66
d) all load in combination
Q36 - A self-aligning ball bearing has a basic dynamic load rating (C10, for 106
revolutions) of 35 kN. If the equivalent radial load on the bearing is 45 kN, the expected
life (in 106 revolutions) is
a) below 0.5
b) 0.5 to 0.8
c) 0.8 to 1.0
d) above 1.0
Solution: C = 35kN, Pc = 45kN then L90 = (
𝐶
𝑃𝑐
)3
= 0.4705𝑀𝑅
Q37 - Ball bearings are rated by a manufacturer for a life of 106 revolutions. The catalogue
rating of a particular bearing is 16 kN. If the design load is 2 kN, the life of the bearing will
be
p × 106 revolutions, where p is equal to
a) 514
b) 500
c) 512
d) 412
Solution: C = 16kN, F = 2 kN then L90 = (
𝐶
𝐹
)3
= 512𝑀𝑅
Q38 - Two identical ball bearings P and Q are operating at loads 45 kN and 30 kN
respectively. The ratio of the life of bearing P to the life of bearing Q is
a) 81/16
b) 8/27
c) 9/4
d) 3/2
Solution: L = (
𝐶
𝑃
)
1
3⁄
here ball bearing are identical therefore their load carrying capacity
C will be same.

P a g e | 67
𝑃𝑝
3
× 𝐿 𝑝 = 𝑃𝑄
3
× 𝐿 𝑄
453
× 𝐿 𝑃 = 303
× 𝐿 𝑄
𝐿 𝑃
𝐿 𝑄
=
23
33
=
8
27
Q39 - A sleeve bearing of inch dimensions is numbered as XXYY-ZZ, using the SAE
numbering system. What does YY represents.
a) Internal diameter in sixteenths of inch
b) Internal diameter in inch
c) External diameter in sixteenths of inch
d) External diameter in inch
Q40 - The type of bearing used in crankshaft is
a) Plain bearing
b) Roller bearing
c) Ball bearing
d) Magnetic bearing
Q41 - For Ovens and dryers, the following material is used to make bearings
a) Babbitt
b) Graphite alloy
c) Cast iron
d) Bronze
Q42 - When the load of bearing is carried by direct surface to surface contact is called
a) Full film condition
b) Boundary condition
c) Dry condition

P a g e | 68
d) None of the above
Q43 - When the bearing is subjected to large fluctuations of load and heavy impacts, the
bearing characteristic number should be _________ the bearing modulus.
a) 10 times
b) 5 times
c) 15 times
d) 20 times
Q44 - Which of the following is a Stribeck's equation to determine basic static capacity of
ball bearings? (where d = roller diameter, L = roller length)
a) KdLZ / 5
b) Kd2 Z / 5
c) K2 dL / 5Z
d) 5 Kd / Z
Q45 - Type of bearing used in household mixer grinder
a) needle bearing
b) sleeve bearing
c) ball bearing
d) roller bearing
Q46 - Type of bearing used in Railway wheels and axle
a) Spherical roller bearing
b) ball bearing
c) thrust bearing
d) needle bearing

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Q47 - Bearing number 6215, what does 2 indicates
a) bearing type
b) bearing series
c) bore diameter
d) bearing speed
Q48 - The relationship between the bearing life and the reliability can be best
approximated by the statistical distribution known as
a) Stribeck’s distribution
b) Weibull distribution
c) Reliability distribution
d) Statistical distribution
Q49 - Deep groove ball bearings creates a lot of noise.
a) Yes
b) They create very less noise
c) Depends on the application
d) No reference frame for comparison is mentioned
Q50 - In angular contact bearings, ____ bearings are required to take thrust load in both
directions.
a) 1
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3

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Q51 - Which of the following isn’t the property of taper roller?
a) High rigidity
b) Easy dismantling
c) Take low radial and heavy loads
d) All are the properties of tapper roller
Q52 - Static load is defined as the load acting on the bearing when shaft is _____
a) Stationary
b) Rotating at rpm<10
c) Rotating at rpm<5
d) None of the listed
Q53 - In the expression of dynamic load capacity P=XVF(r) + YF(a), V stands for ?
a) Race rotation factor
b) Radial factor
c) Thrust factor
d) Bearing factor
Q54 - The bearing is subjected to a radial load of 4000N. Expected life for 90% bearings
is 9000h and shaft is rotating at 1500rpm. Calculate the dynamic load capacity.
a) 42.21Kn
b) 37.29kN
c) 26.33kN
d) 35.22kN
Solution : C=4000x(810)⅓
Q55 - A rolling contact bearing is specified as X307. Calculate the bearing diameter.
a) 35mm
b) 28mm

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c) 21mm
d) 7mm
Solution : Diameter=5 times the last two digits.
Q56 - . A rolling contact bearing is specified as X307. Determine the series.
a) Extra light series
b) Light series
c) Medium series
d) Heavy series
Q57 - The rated life of a bearing varies
a) Directly as load
b) Inversely as square of load
c) Inversely as cube of load
d) Inversely as fourth power of load
Q58 - The dynamic load carrying capacity of a ball bearing is increased to 3 times without
any change in the equivalent load then life of bearing will increase to
a) 3 times
b) 9 times
c) 27 times
d) 81times
Q59 - In a ball bearing if load is doubled then life is
a) 8times of initial
b) 4times of initial
c) 1/8 times of initial
d) ¼ times of initial

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Q60 - At high speed friction is maximum in
a) roller bearing
b) ball bearing
c) hydrodynamic
d) hydrostatic bearing
Q61 - If the load on a ball bearing is reduced to half then its life would be
a) decrease by 8 times
b) decrease by 4 times
c) increase by 8 times
d) increase by 4 times
Q62 - Most commonly the material used for bearing is
a) white metal
b) cast iron
c) steel alloy
d) Cu alloy

P a g e | 73
MOD - 3 - SLIDING CONTACT BEARING
Q1 - . If we exclude the cost factor, which bearing is preferred?
a) Hydrostatic
b) Hydrodynamic
c) Both are equally preferred
d) Cannot be determined
Q2 - A clearance bearing is design accurately to keep the radius of journal and bearing
equal.
a) Journal radius is kept larger
b) Journal radius is kept smaller
c) True
d) Can’t be determined
Q3 - Temperature rise in partial bearing is ____ than full bearing.
a) Lesser
b) Greater
c) Equal
d) Undeterminable
Q4 - A journal bearing is a ______ contact bearing working on the hydrodynamic
lubrication and which supports load in____ direction.
a) Sliding, Axial
b) Rolling, Radial
c) Sliding, Radial
d) Rolling, Axial

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Q5 - A sliding bearing which operates without any lubricant present, is called
a) zero film bearing
b) boundary lubricated bearing
c) hydrodynamic lubricated bearing
d) hydrostatic lubricated bearing
Q6 - In hydrodynamic bearings
a) The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
b) The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
c) Do not require external supply of lubricant
d) Grease is used for lubrication
Q7 - . Oil in journal bearing should be applied at the point where load is
a) Nil or lightest
b) Maximum
c) Average
d) Any one of the above
Q8 - The bearing characteristic number in a hydrodynamic bearing depends upon
a) Length, width and load
b) Length, width and speed
c) Viscosity, speed and load
d) Viscosity, speed and bearing pressure
Q9 - The cone angle of a pivot bearing is increased by 2% the maximum load carrying
capacity at the bearing will be increased by
a) 0.05%
b) 1%
c) 0.5%

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d) 0%
Q10 - A Journal bearing of diameter 25cm and length 40cm carries a load of 150kN The
average bearing pressure is
a) 1.5kN/cm2
b) 15kN/cm2
c) 150kN/cm2
d) 0.15kN/cm2
Solution: The avg bearing pressure given by = load/ projected area = 150 / 25 x 40 =
0.15
Q11 - In case of full journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bearing with respect to
the journal is :
a) 1200
b) 1800
c) 2700
d) 3600
Q12 - A journal bearing of 100mm length and 50mm diameter carrying load of 5kN at
1200rpm. Viscosity of lubricant used is 25mPa-S. If radial clearance is 0.05mm then,
sommerfield number will be
a) 0.120
b) 0..125
c) 0.130
d) 0.145
Solution: Z = 25 x 10 -3 Pa-S , n = 1200rpm = 20rps
p = 5000/(100 x 50 ) = 1MPa = 106Pa
Diametrical clearance c = 2 x radial clearance = 0.1mm
D = 50mm

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Sommerfield number S =
𝑍𝑛
𝑝
× (
𝐷
𝑐
) 2
Q13 - A Hydrostatic thrust bearing has the following data : Viscosity of the lubricant =
15mpas, length = diameter = 50mm, revolution per second = 60 , radial clearance ( c ) =
50 𝜇𝑚, operating load in the bearing is = 5kn the sommerfield number of the bearing is ?
a) 0.0003
b) 0.1125
c) 0.2222
d) 0.1345
Solution: bearing pressure P = W/LD = 5000/0.50 x 0.50 = 2 x 106 Pa
Sommerfield number is S = (
𝑟
𝑐
)
2
×
𝜇𝑁 𝑆
𝑃
= (
25
0.05
)
2
×
15×10−3×60
2×106
= 0.1125
Q14 - The coefficient of friction in journal bearing is mainly governed by the:
a) Petroff’s equation
b) Reynold’s equation
c) Sommerfield’s equation
d) Wiebull’s equation
Q15 - A friction circle is drawn when the journal rotates in bearing its radius depends on
the coefficient of friction and
a) magnitude of force on journal
b) radius of the journal
c) clearance between journal and bearing
d) angular velocity of the journal

P a g e | 77
Q16 - The ability to yield and adopt its shape to that of the journal
a) conformability
b) embeddability
c) bondability
d) easeability
Q17 -In thick film hydrodynamic journal bearing coefficient of friction 𝜇
a) increase with increase with load
b) independent of load
c) decrease with decrease with load
d) may decrease or increase with increase of load
Q18 - In a full journal bearing radial clearance is 0.03mm. The eccentricity ratio is 0.27.
Find the minimum film thickness in mm.
a) 0.065
b) 0.045
c) 0.087
d) 0.022
Solution : Eccentricity ratio ∑ =
𝑒
𝑐
0.27 =
𝑒
0.03
e = 0.0081mm
Minimum film thickness ho = c - e = 0.03 - 0.0081 = 0.022mm
Q19 - The most suitable bearing having high starting torque requirement support the shaft
at higher speeds and is used for light loads in starting condition is
a) hydrostatic
b) hydrodynamic
c) anti-friction
d) roller

P a g e | 78
Q20 -In oil lubricated journal bearing coefficient of friction between the journal and bearing
a) remains constant
b) is maximum at zero speed and increases monotically with increase in speed
c) is maximum at zero speed and decrease monotically with increase in speed
d) becomes minimum at an optimum speed and then increase with further
increase in speed
Q21 - The length to diameter ratio for short bearing is
a) more than 1
b) less than 1
c) ∞
d) 1
Q22 - The length to diameter ratio for a long bearing is
a) more than 1
b) less than 1
c) ∞
d) 1
Q23 - The length to diameter ratio for a square bearing is
a) more than 1
b) less than 1
c) ∞
d) 1
Q24 - As compared with oil with VI=80, a lubricating oil with VI=90
a) has more viscosity

P a g e | 79
b) has less viscosity
c) has more rate of change of viscosity with respect to temperature
d) has less rate of change of viscosity with respect to temperature
Q25 - Sommerfield number is
a) similar to bearing characteristic number
b) similar to Reynold’s number
c) dimensionless parameter that contains all the design parameter
d) used to find out dynamic load carrying capacity of the hydrodynamic bearing
Q26 - In Petroff’s equation , it assumed that the lubricant film is
a) converging
b) diverging
c) uniform
d) converging diverging
Q27 - Petroff’s equation is used to find out
a) load carrying capacity of bearing
b) frictional losses in bearing
c) unit bearing pressure on bearing
d) pressure distribution around the periphery of the journal
Q28 - The unit of viscosity is
a) N/mm2
b) N-mm
c) N-s/mm2
d) N-mm/s

P a g e | 80
Q29 - In hydrodynamic bearing
a) the axis of journal is eccentric with respect to axis of bearing
b) the axis of journal is concentric with respect to axis of bearing
c) the axis can be either eccentric or concentric depending upon speed
d) the axis can be either eccentric or concentric depending upon viscosity
Q30 - In hydrostatic bearing
a) the axis of journal is eccentric with respect to axis of bearing
b) the axis of journal is concentric with respect to axis of bearing
c) the axis can be either eccentric or concentric depending upon speed
d) the axis can be either eccentric or concentric depending upon viscosity
Q31 - Boundary lubricated bearing is
a) thick film bearing
b) thin film bearing
c) hydrodynamic bearing
d) hydrostatic bearing
Q32 - _______is time in seconds required for known volume of oil to separate from an
equal volume of condensed steam
a) Neutralization number
b) Demulsibility number
c) Foaming
d) base number

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Q33 - The journal bearing with length to diameter ratio between 0.5 and 2.0 are
considered as
a) infinitely long journal bearing
b) infinitely short journal bearing
c) finite length journal bearing
d) finite short journal bearing

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MOD - 1 - DESIGN OF GEAR
❖ WORM GEAR
Q1 - In worm gears, the angle between the tangent to the pitch helix and an element of
the cylinder, is known as
a) Helix angle
b) Pressure angle
c) Pitch lead angle
d) None of these
Q2 - . Worm gears are widely used when
a) Velocity ratio is high
b) Space is limited
c) Axes of shafts are non-intersecting
d) All the three
Q3 - To make the worm gear drive reversible, it is necessary to increase
a) Center distance
b) Number of starts
c) Diametral quotient
d) Velocity ratio
Q4 - The main advantage of worm gear drive is
a) Ease of manufacturing
b) High velocity ratio
c) Low power loss
d) Low cost

P a g e | 83
Q5 - The lead angle of worm is given by,
a) tan=1 (1/πd1)
b) tan-1 (z1/q)
c) tan-1 (πmz1)
d) Both (A) and (B) above
Q6 - . The number of starts on worm for a velocity ratio of 40 is
a) Single
b) Double
c) Triple
d) Quadruple
Q7 - What is the effect of large diametral quotient on worm and worm wheel?
a) Strength and rigidity of worm shaft is high
b) Efficiency of worm shaft increases
c) Worm shaft becomes weaker
d) All of the above
Q8 - The shortest distance between worm gear and axes of the worm is given as
_________
a) m (zw + zg) / q
b) m (zw + zg) / 2
c) m (q + zg) / 2
d) √m (q + zg) / 2

P a g e | 84
Q9 - A standard worm gear pair is designated as 4/40/10/8, what does number 10 in it
indicate?
a) Number of starts on worm
b) Diametral quotient
c) Centre distance
d) Module
Q10 - A worm gear pair is designated as 1/30/10/8. Calculate the reduction ratio?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 10
d) 1
Solution : G = Zg /Zw = 30/1 = 30
Q11 - A worm gear pair is designated as 2/30/10/8. Calculate center distance ?
a) -80mm
b) 160mm
c) 9600mm
d) 200mm
Solution: ZW = 2, Zg = 30, q=10, m =8mm
dw = mq = 8 x 10 = 80mm
dg = mZg = 8 x 30 = 240mm
Center distance ( a ) = dw + dg / 2 = 160mm
Q12 - The number of starts on worm for a velocity ratio of 40 is
a) single
b) double
c) triple
d) quadruple

P a g e | 85
Q13 - The axial component of resultant force on worm wheel is equal to
a) tangential component on worm
b) radial component on worm
c) axial component on worm
d) none of above
Q14 - A pair of worm gear is designated as 1/30/10/8 the velocity ratio is
a) 160
b) 30
c) 80
d) 96
Q15 - The main advantage of worm gear drive is
a) ease of manufacturing
b) high velocity ratio
c) low power loss
d) low cost
Q16 - For proper meshing of the worm and worm wheel , the axial pitch of the worm
compared with circular pitch of worm wheel should be
a) more
b) equal
c) less
d) high

P a g e | 86
Q17 - To make the worm gear drive reversible it is necessary to increase
a) center distance
b) number of starts
c) diametral quotient
d) velocity ratio
Q18 - The worm helix angle is the _____ of the worm lead angle.
a) Complement
b) Half
c) Double
d) Supplement
Q19 - If worm helix angle is 30⁰, then worm should have at least ___ threads.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Q20 - A pair of worm gear is written as 2/40/12/6. Calculate the centre distance.
a) 40mm
b) 156mm
c) 200mm
d) 80mm
Solution: C=m(q+z)/2 where m=6mm, q=12 and z=40.
Q21 - A pair of worm gear is written as 2/40/12/6. Calculate the speed reduction.
a) 2
b) 20
c) 15

P a g e | 87
d) 6
Solution: i=40/2.
Q22 - 1. A pair of worm gear is written as 2/40/12/6. Calculate the pitch circle diameter of
worm wheel.
a) 72mm
b) 240mm
c) 260mm
d) 320mm
Solution: d=mxz where m=6mm and z=40.
Q23 - 4. If tangential force on worm is 1500N, then axial force on worm wheel will be?
a) 1500N
b) 3000N
c) 1500√2 N
d) 750N
Solution: P₂(axial)=P₁(tangential).
Q24 - In worm gears, the angle between the tangent to the thread helix on the pitch
cylinder and the plane normal to the axis of worm is called
a) pressure angle
b) lead angle
c) helix angle
d) friction angle
Q25 - The normal lead, in a worm having multiple start threads, is given by
a) lN = l / cos λ
b) lN = l . cos λ

P a g e | 88
c) lN = l
d) lN = l tan
Q26 - The axial thrust on the worm (WA) is given by
a) WA = WT . tan φ
b) WA = WT / tan φ
c) WA = WT . tan λ
d) WA = WT / tan λ

P a g e | 89
❖ BEVEL GEAR
Q1 - When two bevel gear having equal teeth and equal pitch angle are used to transmit
power between shafts that are intersecting at right angle they are called
a) spiral bevel gears
b) miter gears
c) straight bevel gear
d) hypoid gears
Q2 - When bevel gears are used to transmit power between shafts that are intersecting
at an angle greater than 900 and if the pitch angle of one of the gears is 900 they are
called
a) spiral bevel gears
b) crown gears
c) straight bevel gears
d) hypoid gears
Q3 - In a concrete mixer, the bevel gears for the rotating the drum are generally made by
a) casting
b) forging
c) hobbing
d) shaping
Q4 - The relationship between actual number of teeth (z) formative number of teeth(z’)
and pitch angel (𝛾) is given by
a) z’ = (
𝒛
𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜸
)
b) z’ = z cos 𝛾
c) z’ = (
𝑧
𝑐𝑜𝑠3 𝛾
)

P a g e | 90
d) z’ = z cos3 𝛾
Q5 - The bevel factor for a bevel gear with cone distance A0 and face width b is given by
a) [ 1 -
𝒃
𝑨 𝟎
]
b) [
𝑏
𝐴0
]
c) [
1
3
]
d) [ 1 -
𝑏
2𝐴0
]
Q6 - The root angle of a bevel gear is equal to
a) pitch angle + addendum angle
b) pitch angle - addendum angle
c) pitch angle + dedendum angle
d) pitch angle - dedendum angle
Q7 - The face angle of a bevel gear is equal to
a) pitch angle + addendum angle
b) pitch angle - addendum angle
c) axial pitch
d) diametral pitch
Q8 - In case of skew bevel gear the axes of shaft are
a) parallel
b) intersecting
c) non-parallel and non- intersecting and the teeth are straight
d) non- parallel and non- intersecting and the teeth are curved

P a g e | 91
Q9 -In case of external bevel gears
a) the pitch angle is more than 900
b) the pitch angle is 900
c) the pitch angle is less than 900
d) pitch angle has no effect on type
Q10 - In case of internal bevel gear
a) the pitch angle is more than 900
b) the pitch angle is 900
c) the pitch angle is less than 900
d) pitch angle has no effect on type
Q11 - In case of hypoid gears the axes of shafts are
a) parallel
b) intersecting
Q12 - In case of zerol gears the axes of shafts are
a) intersecting and teeth are straight
b) intersecting and teeth are curved
Q13 - When two identical bevel gears are used to transmit power between shafts that are
intersecting at right angle they are called
a) spiral bevel gear
b) miter gears

P a g e | 92
d) hypoid gears
Q14 - Miter gears are
a) spur gear with same number of teeth
b) bevel gear with same number of teeth mounted on perpendicular shafts
c) helical gears with same number of teeth
d) spiral bevel gear with zero spiral angle
Q15 - There are ____ common types of bevel gears.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Q16 - Which of the following creates smoother motion?
a) Straight bevel gears
b) Spiral bevel gears
c) Equal for straight and spiral
d) Non equal to bevel gear
Q17 - For crown bevel gear, pitch angle is
a) <90
b) =90
c) >90
d) =80

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Q18 - . If pitch angle is >90, the bevel gear is?
a) Internal
b) External
c) Crown
d) Static
Q19 - . Which of the following are characteristics of skew bevel gears?
a) Straight teeth
b) Mounted on parallel shafts
c) Mounted on intersecting shafts
d) Spiral teeth
Q20 -If pitch angle and addendum angles are 5⁰ and 12⁰ respectively, then face angle is
equal to?
a) 17⁰
b) 7⁰
c) 5⁰
d) 12⁰
Solution : Face angle=pitch angle+ addendum angle.
Q21 - If pitch angle is 8⁰ and dedendum angle is 4⁰, then find root angle.
a) 12⁰
b) 4⁰
c) 8⁰
d) 150
Solution : Root angle=pitch angle-dedendum angle.

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Q22 - If back cone distance is 12mm and module at large end of the tooth is 4mm, then
formative number of teeth will be?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 4
d) 12
Solution: Formative number=2r/m.
Q23 - Calculate the cone distance of in a pair of bevel gears if pitch circle diameter of
pinion and gear are 20mm and 24mm respectively.
a) 44mm
b) 22mm
c) 15.6mm
d) 20.2mm
Solution : A=√(20/2)²+(24/2)².
Q24 - Calculate the pitch angle if pitch circle diameter of the pinion and gear are 150mm
and 210mm.
a) 28.14⁰
b) 35.54⁰
c) 36.22⁰
d) 63.22⁰
Solution: tanϒ=D(p)/D(g)=150/210.
Q25 - Lewis equation is used to obtain ____ strength of bevel gears.
a) Beam
b) Abrasive
c) Wear
d) Corrosive

P a g e | 95
Q26 - . If back cone distance is 10mm, then pitch circle diameter of the formative pinion
is given by?
a) 10mm
b) 20mm
c) 5mm
d) 10√2 mm
Solution: PCD=2xr.
Q27 - If velocity is 5m/s, then velocity factor for a cut teeth is
a) 0.55
b) 0.66
c) 1.55
d) 1.66
Solution: C=6/6+v.
Q28 - 8. If velocity is 5m/s, then velocity factor for generated teeth is
a) 0.71
b) 1.1
c) 0.9
d) 1.71
Solution: C=5.6/5.6+√v.
Q29 - If surface hardness for a par of bevel gears is 400BHN, then material constant is
a) 3N/mm²
b) 2.56N/mm²
c) 0.98N/mm²
d) 1.44N/mm²
Solution: K=0.16x[BHN/100]²

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Q30 - If service factor is 1.4 & tangential ad dynamic load is 1180N and 1500N
respectively, then calculate the effective load.
a) 3662N
b) 2889N
c) 3152N
d) 2236N
Solution: Effective load=1.4×1180 + 1500.
Q31 - Bevel gears with shafts angle of 900 are termed as
a) zerol gears
b) angular bevel gears
c) mitre gears
d) hypoid gears
Q32 - Bevel gears with shafts angle of 900 are termed as
a) zerol gears
b) angular bevel gears
c) mitre gears
d) hypoid gears
Q33 - . Formative number of teeth on bevel gears is equal to
a) 2 x actual number of teeth
b) actual number of teeth/ cosɸ
c) actual number of teeth/cosα
d) actual number of teeth/cosϴ

P a g e | 97
Q34 - Lewis Equation for bevel gear is corrected for
a) variation in p.c.d.
b) variation in tooth thickness
c) taking care of axial thrust
d) variation in torque acting on the tooth
Q35 - Ratio factor Q in wear load equation of bevel gear is given by
a) 2gear ratio G/G + 1
b) 2ratio of formative number of teeth of gear and pinion G
c) G + 1/G‘ +1
d) 2G‘/G
Q36 - Bevel factor should not be less than
a) 0.75
b) 0.8
c) 0.67
d) 0.76
Q37 - The face width of the bevel gear is 0.3 times the radius of pitch cone. Here the
bevel factor must be
a) 1.3
b) 3
c) 0.7
d) 1.7
Solution: Face width = Pitch cone radius/3

P a g e | 98
Q38 - Interchangibility is possible only in
a) bevel gear
b) helical gear
c) spur gear
d) mitre gear
Q39 -For a bevel gear having the pitch angle θ, the ratio of formative number of teeth
(TE) to actual number of teeth (T) is
a) 1/sin θ
b) 1/cos θ
c) 1/tan θ
d) sin θ cos θ

P a g e | 99
❖ HELICAL GEARS
Q1 - The initial contact in helical gears is
a) point
b) line
c) surface
d) unpredictable
Q2 - In helical gears the distance between two similar points on adjacent teeth measured
in a plane perpendicular to tooth element is called
a) normal circular pitch
b) transverse circular pitch
c) axial pitch
d) diametral pitch
Q3 - In a pair of helical gears the pinion has the right hand helical teeth. The hand of helix
for mating gears should be
a) right hand
b) left hand
c) right or left depending upon direction of rotation
d) both right and left hand
Q4 - The range of helix angle for a single helical gear is
a) 150 to 250
b) 200 to 450
c) 100 to 150
d) 50 to 100

P a g e | 100
Q5 - The range of helix angle for a double helical gear is
a) 150 to 250
b) 200 to 450
c) 100 to 150
d) 50 to 100
Q6 - Which of the following gear have zero thrust ?
a) herringbone gear
b) bevel gear
c) worm gear
d) helical gear
Q7 - Compared with spur gear, helical gears
a) run more smoothly
b) run with noise and vibration
c) consume less power
d) run exactly alike
Q8 - In a pair of crossed helical gears both gears have right hand helical teeth with 450
helix angle. The angle between the shafts of two gears is
a) 450
b) 900
c) 22.50
d) 00

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Q9 - In a pair of crossed helical gears both gears have right hand helical teeth with 450
helix angle. The angle between the shafts of two gears is
a) 450
b) 900
c) 22.50
d) 00
Q10 - The angle at which the teeth of the gear are inclined to the axis of a gear is called
as __________
a) pitch angle
b) normal angle
c) helix angle
d) gear angle
Q11 - The distance between the corresponding points on adjacent teeth measured on the
pitch circle is called ______________
a) helical pitch
b) normal pitch
c) gear pitch
d) circular pitch
Q12 - . For two gears having shaft angle 90° and friction angle 6°, find the maximum
efficiency of the helical gears.
a) 89.23%
b) 85.64%
c) 79.02%
d) 81.07%
Solution: θ = 90°, φ = 6°
ηmax = (cos(θ+φ)+1)/ (cos(θ-φ)+1) = 0.8107 = 81.07%

P a g e | 102
Q13 - . If T is the actual number of teeth on a helical gear and φ is the helix angle for the
teeth, the formative number of teeth is written as
a) T sec3 φ
b) T sec2 φ
c) T/sec3φ
d) T cosec φ

P a g e | 103
❖ SPUR GEARS
Q1 - Which of the following type of drives transmit power by friction ?
a) spur gear drive
b) chain drive
c) worm gear drive
d) belt drive
Q2 - When the axes of two shafts are perpendicular and intersecting use
a) spur gears
b) bevel gear
c) worm gears
d) helical gears
Q3 - When the axes of two shafts are perpendicular and non-intersecting use
a) spur gears
b) bevel gear
c) worm gears
d) helical gears
Q4 - When the axes of two shafts are parallel use
a) crossed helical gears
b) bevel
c) worm gears
d) spur or helical gears

P a g e | 104
Q5 - When the axes of two shafts are non- parallel and non-intersecting use
a) helical gears
b) crossed helical gears
d) spiral bevel gears
Q6 - Maximum efficiency of a pair of spur gears is
a) 99%
b) 80%
c) 50%
d) 92%
Q7 - Maximum gear ratio for a pair of spur gears is
a) 10
b) 3
c) 100
d) 6
Q8 - For transmitting power a simple gear train consisting of 11 gears is used. Then the
driver and driven shafts will be rotating in
a) same direction
b) opposite direction
c) same or opposite direction
d) none of above
Q9 - For transmitting power a simple gear train consisting of 12 gears is used. Then the
driver and driven shafts will be rotating in
a) same direction

P a g e | 105
b) opposite direction
c) same or opposite direction
d) none of above
Q10 - In metric system the size of the gear tooth is specified by
a) circular pitch
b) diametral pitch
c) module
d) pitch circle diameter
Q11 - In involute gear teeth the base circle must be
a) under the root circle
b) under the pitch circle
c) above the pitch circle
d) at the root circle
Q12 - The angle through which a gear turns from the beginning of contact of a pair of
teeth until the contact arrives at the pitch point is known as
a) angle of contact
b) angle of recess
c) angle of approach
d) angle of action
Q13 - Spur gears used for machine tool gearbox must have the contact ratio
a) equal to 1
b) less than 1
c) more than 1.4
d) equal to 2

P a g e | 106
Q14 - The pitch circle diameter and number of teeth in a spur gear are d’ and z
respectively . The module m is define as
a) (
𝜋𝑑′
𝑧
)
b) (
𝑧
𝑑′
)
c) (
𝒅′
𝒛
)
d) (d’z)
Q15 - The product of diametral pitch P and circular pitch p is equal to
a) 1/𝜋
b) 𝝅
c) 𝜋/2
d) 1
Q16 - In Lewis equation gear tooth is considered as
a) simply supported beam
b) cantilever beam
c) curved beam
d) none of above
Q17 - Buckingham’s equation of gear tooth is based on
a) maximum crushing stress in gear tooth
b) maximum bending stress in gear tooth
c) maximum shear stress in gear tooth
d) maximum contact stress in gear tooth

P a g e | 107
Q18 - Permissible bending stress for gear tooth is usually taken as
a) one third of ultimate tensile strength
b) one half of ultimate tensile strength
c) one third of tensile yield strength
d) one third of surface endurance strength
Q19 - Dynamic force on gear tooth is induced due to
a) inaccuracies of tooth profile and errors in tooth spacing
b) misalignment in bearings
c) elasticity of parts and inertia of rotating masses
d) a,b and c
Q20 - Dynamic force on gear tooth depends on
a) pitch line velocity
b) sum of errors between two meshing teeth
c) modulus of elasticity of pinion and gear materials
d) a,b,c
Q21 - The number of grades used to specify the quality of gears is
a) 10
b) 3
c) 12
d) 6
Q22 - Static force on gear tooth is due to
a) power transmitted by gears
b) misalignment in bearing
c) acceleration of gears
d) bearing reactions

P a g e | 108
Q23 - According to Lewis equation
a) pinion is always weaker than gear
b) pinion is weaker than gear if made of same material
c) gear is weaker than pinion if made of same material
d) none of above
Q24 - Beam strength of gear tooth should be
a) less than effective load consisting of static and dynamic load
b) more than effective load consisting of static and dynamic load
c) more than wear strength of gear tooth
d) more than load due to power transmission
Q25 - Wear strength of gear tooth should be
a) less than effective load consisting of static and dynamic load
b) more than effective load consisting of static and dynamic load
c) more than wear strength of gear tooth
d) more than load due to power transmission
Q26 - The working depth for a pair of gears is given by
a) addendum plus dedendum
b) twice the addendum
c) twice the dedendum
d) dedendum minus addendum
Q27 - The whole depth of for a pair of gear is given by

P a g e | 109
Q28 - The outside diameter of an involute gear is equal to pitch circle diameter plus
Q29 - The curves that satisfy fundamental law of gearing are
a) cycloid
b) spiral
c) involute
d) a and c
Q30 -The curve traced by a point on a line as it rolls on a circle is called
a) cycloid
b) epicycloid
c) involute
d) hypocycloid
Q31 - In which type of gears slight variation in center diastance does not affect velocity
ratio ?
a) cycloid
b) epicyloid
c) involute
d) hypocycloid

P a g e | 110
Q32 - The pressure angle in involute teeth gears
a) remains constant
b) often changes
c) rarely changes
d) unpredictable
Q33 - Which of the following type of gear is free from interference ?
a) cycloidal gears
b) spiral gears
c) involute gears
d) stub gears
Q34 - A rack is a gear with
a) infinite number of teeth
b) infinite module
c) infinite circular pitch
d) none of above
Q35 - The clearance between meshing teeth is
a) radial distance between dedendum circle and addendum circle
b) dedendum minus addendum
c) radial distance between pitch circle and base circle
d) radial distance between dedendum circle and pitch circle
Q36 - A screw will be over hauling if its efficiency is
a) less than 50%
b) more than 50%

P a g e | 111
c) equal to 50%
d) less than 20%
Q37 - A screw will be self locking
a) friction angle is less than helix angle
b) friction angle is more than helix angle
c) friction angle is equal than helix angle
d) friction angle is not equal than helix angle
Q38 - The gears are termed as medium velocity gears, if their peripheral velocity is
a) 1–3 m / s
b) 3–15 m / s
c) 15–30 m / s
d) 30–50 m / s
Q39 - . The size of gear is usually specified by
a) pressure angle
b) pitch circle diameter
c) circular pitch
d) diametral pitch
Q40 - A spur gear with pitch circle diameter D has number of teeth T. The module m is
defined as
a) m = d / T
b) m = T / D
c) m = π D / T
d) m = D.T

P a g e | 112
Q41 - . In a rack and pinion arrangement, the rack has teeth of _______________ shape.
a) square
b) trepazoidal
c) oval
d) circular
Q42 - The product of the diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to
a) 1
b) 1/π
c) π
d) π × No. of teeth
Q43 - The backlash for spur gears depends upon
a) module
b) pitch line velocity
c) tooth profile
d) both (a) and (b)
Q44 - The contact ratio for gears is
a) zero
b) less than one
c) greater than one
d) equal to one
Q45 - The form factor of a spur gear tooth depends upon
a) circular pitch only
b) pressure angle only

P a g e | 113
c) number of teeth and circular pitch
d) number of teeth and the system of teeth
Q46 - Lewis equation in spur gears is used to find the
a) tensile stress in bending
b) shear stress
c) compressive stress in bending
d) fatigue stress
Q47 - The minimum number of teeth on the pinion in order to avoid interference for 20°
stub system is
a) 12
b) 14
c) 18
d) 32
Q48 - The allowable static stress for steel gears is approximately ____________ of the
ultimate tensile stress.
a) one-fourth
b) one-third
c) one-half
d) double
Q49 - Lewis equation in spur gears is applied
a) only to the pinion
b) only to the gear
c) to stronger of the pinion or gear
d) to weaker of the pinion or gear

P a g e | 114
Q50 - Pick out the false statement about relationships of spur gears.
a) Pitch diameter = module x No. of teeth
b) Module = 25.4/diametral pitch
c) dedendum = 1.25 x module
d) Base pitch = module x п x sinɸ
Q51 - . In measuring the chordal thickness, the vertical scale of a gear tooth caliper is set
to the chordal or corrected addendum to locate the caliper jaws at the pitch line.If a =
addendum, t = circular thickness of tooth at pitch diameter D, then chordal thickness is
equal to
a) a + t/D
b) a + t2 /D
c) a + t3 /2D
d) a + t2 /4D
Q52 - In gears, interference takes place when
a) the tip of a tooth of a mating gear digs into the portion between base and
root circles
b) gears do not move smoothly in the absence of lubrication
c) pitch of the gears is not same
d) gear teeth are undercut
Q53 - . The gear train usually employed in clocks is a
a) simple gear train
b) reverted gear train
c) sun and planet gear
d) differential gear

P a g e | 115
Q54 - What is the load stress factor for cast iron gear pair if BHN = 300?
a) 1.89 N/mm2
b) 1.62 N/mm2
c) 1.44 N/mm2
d) 1.413 N/mm2
Solution : The load stress factor for cast iron gear pair given by K = 0.21 × [
𝐵𝐻𝑁
100
]2
Q55 - Which of the following gear tooth failures is/are induced when maximum Hertz
contact stress on gear tooth surface exceeds surface endurance strength of tooth?
a) Abrasive strength
b) Corrosive wear
c) Destructive pitting
d) Galling
Q56 - If (σb x Y)pinion > ( σb x Y)gear then ________ is designed for bending.
a) pinion
b) gear
c) both a. and b.
Q57 - What is the deformation or dynamic factor if sum of errors on meshing teeth of
steel pinion and gear is 32 x 10-3 mm?
a) 284.8 N/mm
b) 300.23 N/mm
c) 320.5 N/mm
d) 368 N/mm
Solution : C = K × 𝑒 × [
𝐸 𝑝×𝐸 𝑔
𝐸 𝑝+𝐸 𝑔
]
in case of steel pinion and gear , K = 0.111, Ep = Eg = 207 x 103 N/mm2

P a g e | 116
Q58 - What is meant by contact ratio in gears?
a) Ratio of length of arc of approach and circular pitch
b) Ratio of circular pitch and length of arc of contact
c) Ratio of length of arc of recess and circular pitch
d) Ratio of length of arc of contact and circular pitch

Machine design - II - MCQ

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