150 PMP Questions

©Bay3000 Corporate Education Final Sample Exam Questions
FINAL SAMPLE PMP EXAM
1) The term strong matrix and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure in
project organization refer to the:
A. Ability of the organization to achieve its goals
B. Physical proximity of project team member to one another and to the project
manager
C. Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources
D. Degree to which team members bond together
2) Legitimate power is:
A. Power to distribute information as one sees fit.
B. Power based on a person’s technical knowledge.
C. Power derived from a person’s formal position in the organization.
D. Power based on a person’s qualities or abilities.
3) The purpose of flowcharting is to:
A. Help analyze how problems occur
B. Show dependencies between tasks
C. Show the results of a process
D. Forecast future outcomes
4) On a camping trip your can opener breaks. You end up using your Swiss Army
Knife to open your chili. This is an example of:
A. A work around
B. Indirect loss
C. Personal loss
D. Consequential loss
5) Risk mitigation involves:
A. Using performance and payment bonds
B. Eliminating a specific threat by eliminating the cause
C. Avoiding the schedule risk inherent in the project
D. Reducing the expected monetary value of a risk event by reducing the probability
of occurrence.
6) You are using a cause and effect diagram to determine potential factors that may
be linked to possible problems for a particular aspect of your project. In which of
the following processes are you involved?
A. Quality control
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality management
D. Quality planning

7) The belief that management’s high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to
workers leads to high levels of motivation and productivity on the part of workers
is part of which motivation theory?
A. Theory Z
B. Theory Y
C. Theory X
D. Contingency Theory
8) The purpose of the review of deliverables and project performance at the
conclusion of a project phase is to:
A. Determine how many resources are required to complete the project according to
the project baseline
B. Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance
C. Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables
D. Determine whether the project should continue to the next phase
9) Scoring models, comparative approaches and benefit contribution are all part of:
A. mathematical models for selecting projects
B. Benefit measurement models for selecting projects
C. Quality measurement techniques
D. Information distribution tools
10)All the following are examples of tools and techniques used in integration
management except:
A. Expert judgment
B. Project Management Information System
C. Project Management Methodology
D. Critical Chain Method
11)All of the following aid in achieving consensus except:
A. Avoiding conflict
B. Maintaining a focus on the problem, not each other
C. Avoiding voting, trading or averaging
D. Avoiding self-oriented behaviour
12)A principal objective of project stakeholder management is to:
A. Identify all potential users of the project to ensure complete requirements analysis
B. Thwart criticism of the project by developing a list of responses to known
stakeholder concerns
C. Be proactive in curtailing stakeholder activities that might adversely affect the
project
D. Build goodwill in the case of schedule and cost overruns

13)You are the project manager on a new electrical plant installation that is currently
in progress. You are working with the quality assurance department to improve
everyone’s confidence that the project will satisfy the quality standards. Which of
the following is needed before they can begin this process?
A. Quality control measurements
B. Rework
C. Quality problems
D. Quality improvement
14)A chart that shows who is assigned to do a task without regard to when it will be
done is called a:
A. Resource matrix
B. Branson diagram
C. Responsibility index
D. Task assignment chart
15)An activity has an early start date of the 10th
and a late start date of the 19th
. The
activity also has duration of 4 days. There are no non-workdays. From the
information given, what can be concluded about the activity?
A. Total float for the activity is 9 days.
B. The slack is 5 days
C. The late finish date is the 25th
D. The activity can be completed in 2 days if the resources devoted to it are doubled.
16)A change control system should include all the following except:
A. Procedures for automatic approval of defined categories of change
B. Paperwork, tracking systems, and approval levels necessary for authorizing
changes
C. A description of the powers and responsibilities of the change control board
D. Procedures for conducting a post project review
17)You have contracted skilled labour for the construction of a new sewer main. The
wage rate of the workers is $19.00. Fringe benefit costs are 25% of the wages and
the overhead costs are 70% of the wages plus benefits. What is the ‘loaded’
hourly rate for these workers?
A. $23.75
B. $40.37
C. $25.62
D. $33.37

18)An example of a conflict of interest would be:
A. As a project manager you make a decision about a contract award that will benefit
you personally.
B. You and a functional manager disagree with a task
C. Senior management decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports
the company strategy.
D. Your personality conflicts with your sponsor.
19)A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most
likely to be achieved by:
A. Planning it into the project
B. Developing careful mechanisms to inspect for quality
C. Striving to do the best job possible
D. Conducting quality circle activities
20)The critical path in a schedule network is the path that:
A. Takes longest time to complete
B. Must be done before any other tasks
C. Is not affected by schedule slippage
D. Is the most efficient
21)The “rule of seven” as applied to statistical process control charts means that:
A. Seven rejects typically occur per thousand inspections
B. Seven consecutive points are ascending, descending, or the same
C. At least seven inspectors should be in place for every thousand employees
D. A process is not out of control even though seven measurements fall outside the
lower and upper control limits.
22)During activity definition, a team member identifies an activity that needs to be
accomplished, however another team member does not think the activity is part
of the project as defined by the Charter. As project manager, what should you
do?
A. Discuss with the initiator.
B. Have the team members reexamine the project needs and achieve consensus
C. Let the end user determine whether the activity is essential to the project.
D. Have a confronting meeting
23)A Pareto diagram is used to:
A. Show how many results were generated, by type or category of identified cause
B. Forecast future outcomes based on historical results
C. Show which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome
D. Show how various causes and sub causes combine to create potential problems or
effects.

24)What is the earned value acronym for “how much you spent to date”?
A. EV (BCWP)
B. EAC
C. BAC
D. AC (ACWP)
25)The key way for a project manager to promote optimum team performance in
project teams whose members are not collocated is to:
A. Build trust
B. Establish a reward and recognition system
C. Obtain the support of the functional managers in the other locations
D. Exercise his or her right to control all aspects of the project
26)The project is well underway and you discover disagreements among the
technical team members. As project manager, what should you do to deal with
this conflict?
A. Listen to their disagreements and make a decision
B. Advise the sponsor.
C. Seek out other expert opinion.
D. Listen to their disagreements and encourage and facilitate agreement.
27)All the following statements about analogous estimating are true except that it:
A. Supports top-down estimating
B. Is a form of expert judgment
C. Has an accuracy rate of ±10% of actual costs
D. Involves using the cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the
cost of the current project.
28)While reviewing estimates you discover that one cost estimate from a functional
manager is higher than those submitted for previous projects. What should you
do?
A. Reject the estimate and report him to senior management
B. Request the supporting details for the estimate to ensure it has been properly
prepared.
C. Accept the estimate
D. Question each functional manager for more information
29)A schedule performance index (SPI) of less than 1.0 indicates that the:
A. Project is running behind the monetary value of the work planned to accomplish
B. Earned valued physically accomplished thus far is 100%
C. Project has experienced a permanent loss of time
D. Project may not be on schedule, but the project manager need not be concerned.

30)A technique used to integrate the projects scope, schedule and resources to
measure project performance is called:
A. Earned Value Management
B. Integrated Change Control
C. Project Performance Analysis
D. Triple Constraint Analysis
31)As project manager you may be required to assess the competencies of your
team. Occasionally, some weakness or areas for improvement will be identified.
The project manager should:
A. Dismiss team members because of their weaknesses.
B. Reserve additional resources in the event you need to augment the team.
C. Begin project work to see whether a team member will fail in their assigned tasks
and then take disciplinary action.
D. Discuss the strengths and weakness with the team member and establish a
performance development program.
32)The scope statement:
A. Does not include project objectives such as cost, schedule, or quality measures.
B. Includes a description of project assumptions and constraints
C. Provides a documented base for preparing the PERT/CPM network
D. Describes how the WBS will be structured
33)All the following are characteristics of a dummy activity except that it:
A. Is used only in activity-on-arrow networks
B. Has zero duration
C. Requires resources
D. Indicates a precedence relationship
34)Adjusting the timing of tasks so that resources are not over committed is called:
A. Resource Leveling
B. Pairwise trade-off
C. The Multi-attribute Utility Theory
D. Resource Management
35)The project office of a large insurance company in North America is reviewing the
projects that have been suggested for the year. They have to select only one from
among four that are being considered. Project Alpha will take 4 years and has a
NPV of $40,000, project Bravo will take 2 years and have a NPV of $65,000, project
Charlie will take 6 years and have a NPV of $80,000 and finally project Delta will
take 1 year with a NPV $50,000. Which project should the PMO pick?
A. Alpha
B. Bravo
C. Charlie
D. Delta

36)If a project is to employ two people each for 40 hours at a labor rate of $30 per
hour with overhead included and a third person for 30 hours during the same
period but at a loaded labor rate of $50 per hour, the PV (BCWS) for the week is:
A. $2,400
B. $3,600
C. $3,660
D. $3,900
37)The quality management plan describes all the following except the:
A. Method for implementing the quality policy
B. Project quality system
C. Organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures, processes, and resources
needed to implement project quality management
D. Procedures used to conduct trade-off analyses among cost, schedule, and quality.
38)The Project Scope Statement is a key input to the risk identification process
because it:
A. Identifies the work (deliverables) that must be done and, therefore, helps identify
potential sources of risk.
B. Identifies all the work that must be done and, therefore, includes all the risks on the
project already
C. Helps organize all the work that must be done on the project
D. Identifies the various sources of risk
39)You are assigned a new project. Your company has executed similar projects
successfully in the past. During which phase of the project would you first
consider referring to previous project documents for the similar projects?
A. Scope Planning
B. Scope Definition
C. Project Close-Out
D. Initiation
40)If operations on a work package were estimated to cost $1,500 and finish today
but, instead, have cost $1,350 and are only two thirds complete, the cost variance
is:
A. +$150
B. -$150
C. -$350
D. -$500

41)A significant difference between independent estimates and proposed pricing
could mean that:
A. The independent estimates are most likely incorrect and the proposed pricing is
correct.
B. The statement of work was not adequate.
C. The performing organization does not have qualified staff.
D. The project manager provided the independent estimate.
42)Which of the following risk analysis method takes into account the decision
maker’s attitude towards risk?
A. Monte Carlo Method
B. Utility Theory
C. Decision Tree Analysis
D. Delphi Method
43)The greatest degree of uncertainty is encountered during which phase of the
project life cycle?
A. Concept
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Closeout
44)The quality objectives are approved in the conceptual stage of the project by the:
A. Project Engineer
B. Project Manager
C. Quality Assurance Manager
D. Customer
45)Conflicts in which of the following three areas represent over 50% of all project
conflicts?
A. Personalities, cost objectives, and schedules
B. Schedules, technical opinions, and project priorities
C. Personalities, project priorities, and cost objectives
D. Schedules, project priorities, and resources (manpower)
46)You are the project manager for a new urban development project. You discover
that a payment of $1,150,000 was paid without proper approval. What should you
do?
A. Ignore the information
B. Bury the cost in another project account
C. Divide the cost in another expense
D. Contact your sponsor

47)A responsibility assignment matrix is used to show all the following:
A. Who is responsible for what
B. When key deliverables will be completed
C. What amount of effort is needed to fulfill the objectives of the project
D. Who reports to whom
48)Which of the following is an appropriate management style to use when the
project manager wants to encourage the staff to pool its knowledge to make the
best decision possible?
A. Laissez-faire
B. Democratic
C. Autocratic
D. Directive
49)Project Managers can contribute to their organization’s knowledge base and to
the profession of project management most effectively by:
A. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process
B. Establishing strict guidelines
C. Promote the use of ad hoc project management methodologies
D. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed.
50)Contract closure and administrative closure are similar in that they both require:
A. That someone other than the project manger manage the activates involved
B. Verification that no errors occurred at any time while the work was being performed
C. That a WBS be prepared
D. Verification that the work was completed satisfactorily
51)During the schedule development process the Project Manager may have to go
through several iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule
baseline. All of the following are tools and techniques that may be used during
this process:
A. Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements
B. Resource Leveling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendars
C. schedule compression, resource leveling, Critical Chain
D. GERT, PERT, Leads, Lags
52)Cost control is concerned with:
A. Influencing the factors that create change to the cost baseline to ensure that the
change is approved.
B. Developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete the
project.
C. Allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items
D. Establishing a cost baseline

53)An effective method for improving a project managers knowledge base is by:
A. Coaching and mentoring
B. Referent power
C. Discipline
D. Fast Tracking
54)Which of the following techniques for cost estimating is considered the least
accurate?
A. Analogous estimating
B. Parametric modeling
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Computerized tools
55)You are a project manager in a corporation, which expects your role to negotiate
contracts. During the solicitation phase, you hold a bidder’s conference to:
A. Ensure the potential sellers have a clear understanding of the work under the
contract.
B. Negotiate individual deals with each bidder.
C. Allow the prospective vendors to make presentations to your company.
D. Disclose each potential contractor’s issues with the RFP
56)As an effective communicator a project manager ensures that stakeholders
receive and understand project related information and status. Prior to delivering
this information the project manager should:
A. Transmit project communication to selected stakeholders with whom you know.
B. Research and understand the related experience of the stakeholders.
C. Provide information with respect to technical details only.
D. Filter the information to remove any details.
57)At least ________ of the cost of quality is the direct responsibility of management
A. 25%
B. 85%
C. 50%
D. 100%
58)To maintain the project schedule, massive overtime will be required between
Christmas and New Years. Many of your team members have put in for vacation
during this time. You should:
A. Let the schedule slip and inform the customer
B. Make the employees cancel their vacation plans
C. First give the employees the choice of working overtime.
D. Hire temporary employees

59)Which of the following is an output of cost control?
A. Work performance information
B. Duration estimates (updates)
C. EAC
D. The scope statement updates
60)During the risk planning the team could not come up with an effective way to
mitigate or transfer against the risk of damage due to poor weather. What would
be the best solution?
A. Cancel the project
B. Accept the risk
C. Ignore the risk
D. Look for ways to use insurance
61)What are the strategies for dealing with conflict when your concern is for others?
A. Avoiding, fighting
B. Bargaining, problem solving
C. Problem Solving, smoothing
D. Smoothing, bargaining
62)A precedence diagram and an arrow diagram are both examples of networks.
Which statement describes the primary differences between them?
A. The arrow diagram incorporates PERT in the activity duration.
B. The precedence diagram represents activities as nodes
C. The arrow diagram does not indicate critical path.
D. The precedence diagram uses float as part of the activity duration.
63)A preliminary press release for your project has a major discrepancy regarding
some key project financial estimates. As the project manager it is your
responsibility to:
A. Approve the release
B. Approve the release but send a memo to the sponsor advising that you are aware
of the discrepancy and will refer any questions you have to senior management
C. Inform the project sponsor of the discrepancy and refuse to approve the release
D. Completely rewrite the press release.
64)As a recipient of the PMP designation you are required to adhere to the
responsibilities described in the “Code of Conduct. Responsibilities to customers
and the public include
A. Qualifications, Experience, and Performance of Professional Services
B. Conflict of Interest Situations and other prohibited professional conduct
C. Advancement of the profession
D. A and B

65)Which statement best describes the role decomposition plays in activity
definition as compared to Create the WBS?
A. Final output is described in terms of work packages in the WBS.
B. Final output is described as deliverables or tangible items.
C. Final output is described as schedule activities or action steps.
D. Decomposition is used the same way in both
66)You are in charge of developing a new product for a bank. Your quality metrics
are based on the 80th
percentile of each of the last three products developed. This
is an example of:
A. Statistical sampling
B. Metrics
C. Benchmarking
D. Operational Definitions
67)You have been asked to select tools and techniques to implement a quality
assurance program to augment your existing quality control activities. Which of
the following is most appropriate?
A. Trend analysis
B. Ishikawa diagrams
C. Pareto diagrams
D. Quality audits
68)One common way to calculate Estimate At Completion (EAC) is to take the project
Budget At Completion (BAC) and:
A. Multiply it by the cost performance
B. Multiply it by the schedule performance index
C. Divide it by the schedule performance index
D. Divide it by the cost performance index
69)Of the following factors, which one has the greatest effect on the project’s
communication requirements?
A. The organizational structure
B. External information needs
C. Availability of technology
D. The resource assignment matrix
70)Employee unions would most likely satisfy which level in Maslow’s hierarchy of
needs?
A. Belonging
B. Self-actualization
C. Safety
D. Empowerment

71)A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team
members and formulates solutions as a group is called:
A. Diplomatic
B. Autocratic
C. Consensus
D. Consultative
72)Of the four types of risk inherent in project management, which one will have the
most lasting effect from the customer’s perspective if not managed well?
A. Scope risk
B. Schedule risk
C. Cost risk
D. Quality risk
73)Given the following information, what is the expected value of the risk event?
Probability Result
.4 -10,000
.3 -7,500
.2 -5,000
.1 +2,500
A. –10,000
B. –7,000
C. –7,500
D. +2,500
74)One of your employees is up for promotion. If the promotion is granted, the
employee will be reassigned elsewhere causing a problem for you on your
project. You should:
A. Tell the employee that it is his responsibility to find a suitable replacement
B. Arrange to delay the promotion until the project is completed.
C. Ask the employee to refuse the promotion.
D. Support the promotion but work with the employee and the employee’s new
manager to develop a good transition plan.
75)During project execution the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean that
he is entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the
clause and disagree with the client’s conclusion. As project manager what should
you do?
A. Immediately correct the clause yourself to remove any possible misinterpretation
by the customer.
B. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address
interpretations and disputes.
C. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted
in favor of the contractor.
D. Disregard the customer’s conclusion.

76)A CPIF contract has a target cost of $230,000 and target profit (fee) of $40,000 a
target price of $270,000 a ceiling price of $290,000, and a share of 80/20. The
actual cost is $260,000. How much profit does the seller make?
A. 30,000
B. 6,000
C. $0
D. $2400
77)You learn that a new team member was recently hired from a competitor and
offers to share proprietary information from her previous company. You should:
A. Accept the information and agree to keep it confidential between you and the new
hire.
B. Advise the new team member of the non-compete clause in their condition of
employment.
C. Review the information and only accept what may have a direct impact on the
project’s financial status.
D. Ignore the offer to share the information and move forward with the project.
78)Which of the following is the primary objective of establishing a quality assurance
process?
A. Completed checklists
B. Process adjustments
C. Quality Improvement
D. The quality management plan
79)The three project situations that require the most negotiation skills are:
A. Working with functional mangers to ensure that resources are available to support
the project, providing performance appraisals to project team members, and
developing the WBS
B. Determining the WBS, determining the master schedule, and managing project
changes
C. Using subcontractors, developing the project scope statement, and managing
changes after the project is under way
D. Securing upper management support for the project, working with functional
managers, and building the project team.
80)A specific part has a 20% change of failing, and a corresponding risk event that
we won’t be able to find a replacement has a 30% change of occurring. What is
the probability that both the part will fail and a replacement won’t be found?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 6%
D. 10%

81)Which of the following is an input to contract closeout?
A. The payment system
B. Contract documentation
C. The procurement audit
D. Formal acceptance
82)In which type of organization would team building be most difficult?
A. Matrix
B. Functional
C. Projectized
D. Expedited
83)Which of the following is indicative of negative float?
A. The late start date is earlier than the early start date
B. The critical path supports the imposed end date.
C. The early finish date is equal to the late finish date
D. The project is sinking
84)Where is the bulk of the project budget spent?
A. Scope management
B. Production
C. Labor and materials
D. Project plan executing
85)During the project closeout phase, most conflict arises from:
A. Schedule problems
B. Cost overruns
C. Technical problems
D. Working interfaces
86)Which term is not a common name for a procurement document that solicits an
offer from prospective sellers?
A. Invitation for bid
B. Request for information
C. Request for quotation
D. Invitation for negotiation

87)Find the duration of the following project. Task A can start immediately and has a
duration of 4 days. Task B can start after Task A is completed and has a duration
of 8 days. Task C can start after Task B is completed and has duration of 5 days.
Task D can start after Task A is completed and has duration of 8 days. Task E
must run concurrently with Task C and can start after Tasks D and B with a
duration of 3 days.
A. 17
B. 18
C. 12
D. 15
88)As a project manager, you know how important communications are to the
success of your project. You know that generally, a receiver’s interpretation of a
message is based on more than the words spoken in the message. What is the
total impact of nonverbal communications on the message?
A. 90%
B. 7%
C. 93%
D. 55%
89)What type of contract combines both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price type of
arrangements?
A. Fixed Price
B. Time & Materials
C. Cost Reimbursable
D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee
90)The major difference between PERT & CPM is that PERT:
A. Used the distribution’s mean (expected valued) in computing the schedule
B. Uses the most likely estimate to compute float
C. Focuses on calculating float to determine which activates have the least
scheduling flexibility
D. Includes non-sequential activities such as loops or conditional branches as part of
the diagram.
91)Quality assurance:
A. Refers to the prevention of product defects by assuring standards are in place
B. Is an auditing function that provides feedback to the project team and client about
the quality of output being produced during execution
C. Is the technical process that includes the construction of control charts, which
specify acceptability limits for conforming output.
D. A & B

92)To assess the implications of crashing a project, a project manager should first
compute:
A. The cost and time slope for each critical activity that can be expedited.
B. The cost of additional resources to be added to the project’s critical path
C. The time that will be saved in the overall schedule when tasks are expedited on the
critical path
D. Three probabilistic time estimates of PERT for each critical path activity.
93)Control charts are used to:
A. Show statistical relationships between historical data and other variables
B. Determine who is responsible for significant errors
C. Show defects generated by category of identified cause
D. Monitor project management processes such as cost or schedule variances
94)If PV = $2,000, EV = $2,000, (AC)ACWP = $2,500 and BAC= $10,000, what is the
cost variance (CV)?
A. +$300
B. -$300
C. +$500
D. -$500
95)The process of establishing clear and achievable objectives, measuring their
achievement and adjusting performance in accordance with results of the
measurement is called:
A. Strategic planning
B. Management by objectives
C. Contingency planning
D. Just in time planning
96)The project’s scope change control system is:
A. A collection of formal, documented procedures to define the steps by which official
project documents may be changed
B. A documented process used to apply technical and administrative direction and
surveillance to identify and document functional and physical characteristics of
items, record and report change, control change, and audit the items and system
to verify conformance to requirements.
C. A set of procedures by which project scope may be changed, including the
paperwork, tracking systems, and approval levels necessary for authorizing
change.
D. Mandatory for use of projects so that the scope management plan cannot be
changed without prior review and sign-off.

97)The following statements all refer to team building except:
A. Should start early in the life of the project
B. Requires a concerted effort and continued attention throughout the life of the
project
C. Should be conducted only if there are issues with the project
D. Is the job of the project manager
98)Which of the following situations describes a violation of the PMP®
Professional Code of Conduct?
A. Disclosing public information to a potential customer about their competitor
B. Accepting a gift that is customary in the country you are currently working in.
C. Use of confidential information to advance your position or influence a critical
decision.
D. Complying with laws and regulations of the country you are working in.
99)You have been asked to make a presentation towards the end of the project. The
project you were managing involved very important R&D work and during the
project, a number of issues did occur. When discussing reasons why the project
is over budget at the end of the project, which of the following pieces of
information provided by you would be the least credible?
A. There were a number of risks that materialized
B. The vendor’s costs ended up being higher in a Cost Plus Contract
C. The resources used took longer to complete the deliverables
D. The CPI was 1.05
100) What are processes of risk management?
A. Risk identification, qualitative risk analysis, quantitative risk analysis, risk
monitoring and controlling
B. Risk identification, risk analysis, risk planning, risk evaluation
C. Risk planning, qualitative risk analysis, quantitative risk analysis, risk mitigation
planning
D. Avoidance, planning, mitigating, and responding
101) What two factors are critical elements of customer satisfaction?
A. Conformance to requirements and fitness for use
B. Ease of use and functionality
C. Cost, and schedule
D. Technical performance and cost

102) You are a project manager recently assigned to work on an international team
comprised of team members from Japan and New Zealand. The project has a lot
of complexity and many interfaces. The project is very lengthy, what is the most
important thing a project manager can do to ensure communications?
A. Define roles and responsibilities clearly
B. Produce weekly progress reports
C. Hold weekly status meetings
D. Have regular conference calls
103) At which of the following does the project team first address the project
objectives?
A. Initiation meeting
B. Planning meeting
C. Implementation meeting
D. Kick off meeting
104) A new project designed to develop a new IT system has been approved and you
are the project manager. You know that you will have to acquire goods from
outside the organization. Which of the following types of contracts would be the
most RISKY for the Sponsor?
A. Cost plus Fixed Fee
B. Lump Sum
C. Firm Fixed Price
D. Cost plus Incentive Fee
105) Which of the following statement is true about the WBS?
A. The WBS can be an effective tool to enhance communications
B. The WBS includes all the schedule activities with the work packages
C. The WBS should not be updated once it is created
D. The WBS uses schedule compression
106) Which of the following statements is true about the Chart of Accounts?
A. It is any numbering scheme that uniquely represents the elements at the bottom of
the WBS
B. Is the same thing as the Code of Accounts
C. Is any numbering system that is used to monitor costs by category
D. Is the Organizational Chart that allows you to monitor who is accountable for what

107) The Scope statement is best described as:
A. A document that forms the basis for making future decisions and ensures a common
understanding of project scope among stakeholders
B. A document that guides you in how scope is going to be managed on the project
C. A statement of the business need and justification for the project
D. An interim project management document that is used in planning but does not
require approvals
108) What would not be included in a final project closure report?
A. Lessons learned
B. Project documents
C. Final risk assessment
D. Final project scope
109) A way to describe progress reports is that
A. They help you predict future performance and project outcomes
B. They are a very important element of project communications
C. They help you with the status of tasks
D. They clarify the risks that have to be handled
110) You are the project manager working on a multi million dollar project to make
improvements to a manufacturing facility. The functional manager of the
engineering department informs you that at the present time, their work is on
schedule and no delays are expected. However he says that if for some reason
there are delays, their team members will stay overtime to complete the work on
schedule. What should you do?
A. Document this commitment in a formal written document
B. Update your risk response plan
C. Replace the resources
D. Implement your risk mitigation plan
111) Things in your project that limit the range of options that the team can consider
can be considered what?
A. Assumptions
B. Constraints
C. Alternatives
D. Risks

112) Information about the project that you document and take as facts without proof
or evidence can be considered what?
A. Constraints
B. Assumptions
C. Allowances
D. Unknown Unknowns
113) A project is said to create or add value when ..
A. Cost of capital is less than the rate of return of capital invested
B. Rate of return of capital is less than the cost of capital invested
C. The stakeholders and the customer are satisfied
D. The payback period is at least 6 months
114) What is the difference between Direct Costs, Indirect Costs, Fixed Costs, and
Variable Costs?
A. Direct Costs and Indirect costs are ways to measure cost, and Fixed Costs and
Variable Costs are the way Costs behave
B. Direct Costs and Indirect costs are they way costs behave and Fixed Costs and
Variable Costs are ways to measure costs
C. Direct Costs is the same as Fixed Costs and Indirect Costs is the same as Variable
Costs
D. There is no difference
115) You have been assigned as the new Project Manager for a project in the United
States. You were the individual that was responsible for having removed the
previous project manager. You know you are going to have to deal with several
issues related to the team and resources. What is the first thing you should do?
A. Define roles and responsibilities
B. Build credibility
C. Develop a staffing management plan
D. Create an organizational chart
116) If CPI is .875 and AC is 400; what is the EV (BCWP)?
A. 350
B. 400
C. 50
D. .575

117) Which of the following is representative of GERT?
A. Loops and conditional logic
B. Precedence diagramming
C. Pert and CPM
D. Use of dummy activities
118) What is the main difference between CPM and PERT?
A. CPM uses a three point estimate and PERT uses one
B. PERT uses a three point estimate and CPM uses one
C. CPM is used when there are only finish to start relationships
D. They can be use interchangeably on most projects
119) You have been asked to manage a new project in a pharmaceutical company.
The project is within the R&D department and you will be working with the leading
research teams. Which of the following methods would you be best to use
related to activity duration estimating?
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. Objective Programming
D. Bottom up
120) Thinking of the project lifecycle, which of the following would be most
accurate?
A. Uncertainty is lowest at the start and ability to influence changes is highest at the start
B. Uncertainty is highest at the start and ability to influence changes is highest at the start
C. Uncertainty is highest at the start and ability to influence changes is lowest at the start
D. Uncertainty is highest at the end and ability to influence changes is lowest at the end
121) What are the direct inputs to contract closure?
A. Contract documentation
B. Work results
C. Contract files
D. Acceptance and verification of deliverables

122) When do you do administrative closure?
A. At the end of each phase
B. Only at the end of the entire project
C. At the start of each phase
D. Whenever the sponsor requests administrative closure
123) What types of activities should a Project Manager delegate?
A. Team members performance review on the project
B. Motivational activities
C. Providing constructive criticism
D. Things that others do better
124) What types of activities could a Project Manager delegate?
A. Team performance assessments
B. Providing feedback to team members
C. Managing stakeholders
D. Authority to release of the technical drawings by the engineer to an external party
125) What is a key best practices principle of good negotiations?
A. Focus on positions and attitudes
B. Focus on interests and not positions
C. Focus on ensuring that your project objectives are met
D. Ensure you get what you want
126) What is the definition of authority?
A. To be able to make spending decisions, and to get people to do what you want
B. Ability to apply resources, make funding decisions, expend funds, or give approvals
C. The ability to make resourcing decisions and change decisions on a project
D. The ability to make financial and resourcing decisions
127) You have been working on a project at a client site for some time now. The
project was such that during the project you had access to many of the company
systems and internal processes. Accidentally, you uncovered or obtained
information that was confidential to the organization, what should you do?
A. Inform the client about this inadvertent breach
B. Don’t use the information; there is no need to bring it up
C. Let your manager know of the situation in case it comes up later
D. As long as you don’t intend to use it to your benefit, you don’t need to do anything

128) You are working on a project and this particular project and you uncover during
implementation that the work is highly dependent during implementation on a
specific supplier’s skills. What should you do about this situation first?
A. Divide the work between two suppliers
B. Update the risk plan
C. Escalate the issue to senior management
D. Hold a team meeting to discuss the options
129) When you have a number of problems and you need to focus on the most
important problems and don’t have time to resolve everything, which tool can you
use?
A. Pareto
B. Control Charts
C. WBS
D. Matrix
130) A control chart helps you to
A. Determine if a process is out of control
B. Helps you track task completion
C. Helps you control the project changes
D. Helps you manage the team
131) Delphi is most useful as technique when
A. There is a lot of historical information
B. You need to tap into experts opinions
C. When the estimates are well established and you need to confirm them
D. You need to crash a project
132) You have been assigned as the project manager for an infrastructure project.
The project is very complex and will be comprised of team members, five
functional (technical) managers, several subject matter experts, a quality
assurance specialist, a controls officer, a contracts manager, and several regional
managers who will be managing their own sub projects. What structure for the
project should you set up to give you the most authority?
A. Projectized
B. Strong Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Expediting

133) What is the difference between NPV (net present value) and EPV (expected net
present value)?
A. NPV is the present value of money without taking into account uncertainty, and
ENPV is the present value of money accounting for uncertainty
B. ENPV is the present value of money without taking into account uncertainty, and
NPV is the present value of money accounting for uncertainty
C. There is not a lot of difference and generally they mean exactly the same thing
D. NPV is the present value of the money and ENPV is the expected value of the risks
of that money
134) All of the following elements should be considered when defining the
communication technology requirements of the stakeholders except for:
A. The project duration
B. The available technology
C. The stakeholder preferences and needs for communications
D. The project assumptions identified in the project charter
135) You are managing a project that relates to building a new community centre in
your town. During the project execution, the change control board approved 3
new scope changes. How would you describe the impact of this on the CPI of the
project?
A. The CPI would be decreased because costs will be added to the project
B. The CPI would improve because you have more money to do the work
C. There would be no impact to the CPI from this information
D. The CPI would vary slightly, but only at the next phase
136) Which of the following theories include as important motivators the need for
Power, Achievement, and Affiliation
A. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
B. Herzberg’s hygene theory
C. The X and Y Theory
D. McClelland's achievement motivation theory
137) There are three important aspects and factors that have to be in place for
Earned Value. These include having a high level budget, detailed facilitating
schedules, and what else?
A. Regular integrated performance measurement
B. Bottom up estimates
C. A single management control point
D. A strong team

138) The concept of describing and assessing in foreign cultures the norms of one's
own culture and these are taken to be absolutes is called
A. Ethnocentricity
B. Ethocentricity
C. Autocracy
D. Cultural Distortion
139) Which of the following is the most important factor in selecting the Project
Management Methodology to be used?
A. Realism and Capacity
B. Management’s strategies
C. The customer need
D. The complexity of the project
140) Who is the customer?
A. The buyer of the outcome and product of the project
B. The individual who benefits and uses the outcome and product of the project
C. The buyer of the outcome and product of the project and the one who benefits and
uses the outcome
D. The one who provides the funding for the project
141) Who would benefit the most from buy-in, adoption and acceptance of a Best in
Class project management methodology?
A. The sponsor
B. The customer
C. The team
D. The project manager
142) You are the project manager on a $200,000 project. The deliverables that were
agreed upon were completed but the customer is refusing to provide final
acceptance until a few minor modifications are done. What should you do?
A. Document the situation
B. Change the acceptance criteria
C. Do what the customer asks
D. Contact your manager

143) You have a FPIF contract, the ceiling price is $1250, the Target price is $1100,
the target cost is $1000, and the share is 75/25 what is the PTA (point of total
assumption)?
A. 1200
B. 1250
C. 400
D. 400
144) You are working on a cost-reimbursable contract, your just discovered that on
one of the deliverables, the customer was overcharged due to a mistake in
currency conversion during the original estimates. What should you do first?
A. Don’t do anything until you see if the remainder of the project rectifies the situation
B. Contact your manager
C. Do not charge the customer and do the work for the original price
D. Contact the customer to discuss the mistake and the overcharge
145) You are the sponsor, the project manager comes to you for advice, he has a
conflict that is relatively low impact on the team. You would recommend the
following conflict method to the project manager in this situation?
A. Smoothing
B. Avoiding
C. Confronting
D. Compromising
146) You are assigned to manage a project that requires outside resources. You
really want to work hard at putting in place a contract type that gives you the
most flexibility and opportunity to work together with the seller to resolve
financial, performance, and technical issues. Which of the following contract
types would be best?
A. Fixed Firm Price
B. Cost plus Incentive Fee
C. Lump Sum
D. Open Contract
147) What contract gives the seller the most risk?
A. Fixed price
B. Cost plus percentage cost
C. Time and materials
D. Cost plus Incentive fee

148) You are working on planning and identify that there is a 50% chance that the
seller with deliver their work behind schedule. There is currently a purchase
order for $1,000,000 in place and a $200,000 penalty for schedule delays. What is
the Expected Monetary Value?
A. $500,000
B. $100,000
C. $600,000
D. There is not enough information to determine EMV
149) You have just been hired by the customer. Working with the customer is another
vendor and you have been asked by the customer to also manage all the vendors
on the project. You were not involved in the contract negotiations when the
vendor was put in place. What would be the risk that you will have to likely deal
with?
A. Because you were not involved, there may have been nobody focused on the project
objectives and thus important work or interpretation of the work may have been
missed
B. You are going to have to spend a lot more time with the customer to review and clarify
the objectives because they may not have been addressed during negotiations
C. There is no risk – not having been involved in negotiations, you are starting clean with
the vendor
D. The project manager should never be involved in contract negotiations, only the one
who is buying and the one who is selling should be involved.
150) You have been working on an international project on a virtual team. You have
regular conference calls and language differences have been very difficult. You
have a conflict between two team members that up to now has been generally
constructive, but now it has become a real issue with these two team members
not understanding each other. What conflict resolution method should you use in
this situation?
A. Collaborating
B. Confronting
C. Smoothing
D. Compromising

FINAL SAMPLE PMP EXAM: ANSWERS
QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
1 C It is important to understand your organizational
structure so that you are clear on your authority levels
and when influencing without authority skills become
important.
2 C This is the definition of legitimate power (not ..based
on a persons OWN formal position)
3 A Read the quality management PMBOK chapter and the
description of flowcharting – by analyzing a process
you can uncover where and why problems occur.
Don’t confuse flow chart with network diagram.
4 A Read the Risk section in PMBOK – Monitoring and
Control – you can use fall back or workaround to deal
with risks that have occurred
5 D You can Either reduce probability of occurring or
reduce the impact in order to reduce the EMV of a risk
event (this is mitigation) – in this case, the question
only included one of the elements (reducing
probability).
6 D You are in quality planning because you are using
cause and effect diagram to plan for possible
problems – if problems already occurred, you would
have been using a cause and effect diagram in Quality
Control.
7 A Read over the Bay3000 notes on Motivation. This is
the definition of Ouchi’s Theory Z
8 C At the end of a phase, you are trying to get
acceptance (closing); if you were at the beginning of a
phase, you would be trying to determine if the project
should continue (initiation)
9 B All are project selection methods that incorporate a
comparison of benefit in some way (i.e. scoring
benefit levels, cost versus benefit, NPV is also one of
that type). There is a small mention in PMBOK of
benefit measurement methods and mathematical
models
10 D This method is used in scheduling

QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
11 A All of the others HELP in getting to consensus (i.e.
everyone buys into the solution) ...if you avoid
conflict you are not tackling issues head-on and
therefore are not likely to get consensus of a
solution. The reason that avoiding voting (and
trading/averaging) helps in achieving consensus is
that if you just rely on votes in making decisions –
there will be some who don’t buy into the solution-
voting is not the same as consensus.
12 C This question is talking about stakeholder
management throughout the project – a key
objective is to ensure that stakeholders do not take
actions that adversely impact the project – in other
words, to ensure stakeholders’ actions support the
objectives of the project (i.e. ensure there is no gold
plating, that change control is followed, etc, etc.).
Identifying all potential users is good and is part of
stakeholder analysis during requirements – but is
not the principal objective of stakeholder
management.
13 A You are in EXECUTION – an input to execution is
quality control measurements
14 A This is a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM),
or RACI chart (see PMBOK HR Knowledge Area) – it
CAN identify who is assigned to work but does not
include a schedule (i.e. does not show when they
will be done)
15 A LS-ES is equal to float (also, LF-EF is also equal to
float)
16 D Read the description of change control system in
PMBOK – general best practices says that a good
change control system includes responsibilities of
the CCB, Paperwork or documentation, tracking,
approval levels, and possibly automated approval
categories.
17 B 23.75+16.62- just have to systematically do the
math
18 A Simple conflict of interest situation
19 A Quality is planned in and not inspective in – this is
why quality planning and even quality assurance is
so important and one should not rely only on
quality control (inspection)
20 A Longest path is the Critical Path or shortest amount
of time in which the project can be completed

QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
21 B Seven consecutive points on same side of the mean
may require a review of the process ; known as the
rule of seven – may mean the process is getting out
of control
22 A The project initiator knows best how to interpret the
project charter as such, that person should be
involved in the discussion at this point. Having a
problem solving meeting (confronting meeting) is
ok but since the issue is with charter interpretation
first thing to do is discuss with the initiator of the
project. Answer B sounds good – but the issue and
real problem is with charter interpretation – so
better to involve the initiator.
23 A This is one of the uses of a Pareto chart – to
identify frequency of defects or results by type of
cause – anytime the chart looks at frequency or
cumulative frequency, think of a Pareto since it is a
histogram type of chart.
24 D This known as Actual Cost
25 A Answers B and C are necessary and helpful, but
when you have virtual teams without trust they are
generally not successful;
26 D This is a collaborating form of problem solving
27 C There is no known accuracy rate rule of thumb for it
– the other 3 statements do relate to analogous
method of estimating
28 B Anytime you do not understand the estimates or
they seem to be very different than typical, you
need to explore what could be the reasons for the
differences and thus asking for supporting details
and basis for the estimates is the best way to
understand
29 A SPI of under 1 and CPI of under 1 means a ‘behind
condition’ – either behind schedule or overrunning
your costs. You do not know the loss of time is
permanent and there is nothing to say that the PM
need not be concerned; all we know is that we have
not accomplished as much work (in monetary
value) as we planned to accomplish.
30 A This is what Earned Value Management is
31 D This is one of the responsibilities of the project
manager – read up on the HR knowledge area
32 B The only true statement about the Scope Statement
is that is should include assumptions & constraints

QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
33 C Dummy activities are used in AOA and are just
connectors to demonstrate some precedence
relationships and therefore do not require
resources
34 A Read Resource Leveling in the PMBOK glossary for
added definition.
35 C
The project with the greater NPV is the best choice
– how long it will take is irrelevant as this has been
taken into account in NPV calculations. Review the
difference between NPV and payback period also.
36 D $2400+1500 = planned value is the value of the work
planned over a period of time
37 D Procedures for trade-offs among cost, schedule,
quality are likely not in the quality management
plan, but perhaps in some type of change control
system; all the others are part of the quality
management plan
38 A Only A is a correct statement; it identifies
deliverables which then can be used to identify
potential sources of risk.
39 D During project initiation you may have had to even
provide a high level or top down estimate as well as
high level risks – referring to past projects would be
very helpful here
40 C CV=EV-AC (EV=.75 of 1500)
41 B This is often the cause of variances between
independent estimates and proposals.
42 B This is a method that looks at utility (usefulness) of
decisions and takes into account risk tolerances –
this is as much as you need to know about utility
theory
43 A Uncertainty is highest at the start; so choose the
earliest phase or stage provided in the answers
44 D Quality objectives should be approved by the
customer (among choices provided)
45 D This is from research; learn these as the top
areas/sources of conflict; not that personality is
often low on the list as a source of conflict
46 D Being truthful is part of the code of ethics
47 A RAM is for identifying responsibilities
48 B Allowing staff to make the decision is a type of
democratic process

QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
49 A Encouraging lessons learned is away to increase an
organizations knowledge base or increase the value
of the organization process assets
50 D Both require verification and also both require
acceptance – the contract closure is specific for
work under the contract
51 C Straight from PMBOK techniques
52 A A project manager should be keeping an eye on
factors that create change and maintain the
integrity of the baseline – to make sure changes do
not go unapproved and unrecorded and that they
are necessary for the project. All other choices are
planning things not controlling.
53 A By coaching others, you also learn a lot
54 A Analogous is a form of top down based on a prior
similar project – known as somewhat less accurate
but is generally fast to use
55 A This is what the bidders conference is for ; allows
them to understand the work and to ask questions
56 B Stakeholder analysis is key to a lot of successful
project management; need to understand the needs
of stakeholders.
57 B Comes from the class notes; commonly known that
management takes responsibility of up to 85% of
cost of quality (i.e. if they do not support training
for example, then projects may suffer)
58 C Need to balance stakeholder interests – if there had
been a choice to involve stakeholders in coming up
with ideas – that would have been an even better
answer.
59 C See PMBOK
60 B First try to mitigate, if you can’t then try to transfer
and last, if you can’t do either you can Accept.
Insurance is a form of transfer and it already said
that they team could not find a way to transfer
against the risk of damage so therefore getting
insurance is not a new option.

QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
61 C Problem Solving, Smoothing, Collaborating,
Confronting tend toward concern for others.
Problem solving is there because you are
solving based on interests of both parties and
smoothing is more completely concern for
others. Smoothing is generally I lose/ you win –
you give in to others, it was the only one with
smoothing and something else that is plausible
– bargaining is not a problem solving method
formally.
62 B Please review carefully the PERT vs CPM and
AOA vs AON material in the notes
63 C Truthfulness is part of your professional
responsibility
64 D A and B are related to public…C is more around
the profession internal and less the public
65 C Both use decomposition as a technique that’s
true, but the question is asking for the
differences… in Activity definition you end up
with a list of schedule activities as an output
66 C Comparing with another standard or another
company is a form of benchmarking (the
example is that of a quality metric or operational
definition) – but more specifically, it is an
example of using benchmarking to set the
metric
67 D Read the quality knowledge area carefully –
quality audits are tools of quality assurance- the
question is telling you there are augmenting
their QC controls by introducing more QA things
68 D This is one of the many ways to calculate EAC –
it happens to be a second method (for typical
variances) – see PMBOK for additional methods
69 A Back to the discussion of the matrix vs.
functional, etc – based on the organizational
structure, your communication needs would
vary greatly – more communications necessary
in a matrix. B and C may have some effect – but
greatest is the structure.
70 A This may surprise you and you may have
chosen C – but the theory tells us that Unions
more closely linked to Belonging (being part of a
group).

QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
71 C When a leader relies on the team to jointly make
a decision as a group it is a consensus type of
style.
72 D Depending on the project and the needs any of
the others may be important but we can’t
generalize- however we can generalize that all
customers want quality (quality=requirements
are met and customer is satisfied)
73 B Multiply each probability * result and add them
up (take care of tracking the plus or minus)
74 D Balance stakeholder interests; also D
incorporates some collaboration strategy
75 B Refer to contract always when disputes occur to
check if the contract terms address how to
resolve disputes or address issues.
76 A -30000*.20=- 6000; 40000-6000=34000 he should
get; but the contract has a ceiling of $290 & he
spent 260 in costs. So the extra $30,000 is the
profit.
77 B This is assuming there is one; but either way it
is the most truthful and ethical answer
78 C Looks at the full description of quality
assurance – note that it describes at the end of
the day being there for quality improvement
purposes.
79 C Anytime you use a 3rd
party and dealing with
changes once the project is in execution you
end up having to negotiate
80 C Probability of multiple events all occurring you
multiple their respective probabilities of
occurring – so .20 * .30 = .06 or 6%
81 B Straight from PMBOK
82 A Because projects are cross organizational often
and team members report to functional bosses,
they don’t always feel part of a project team –
especially when they are split among many
project teams
83 A Float = LS-ES. So if the LS is earlier than the ES
then you get a negative number (i.e. 5-7 = -2)
84 D Review the chart in PMBOK – most of the budget
is spent in execution

QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
85 A Based on research; at the end, people have a
tough time closing a project because they need
a little more time to wrap things up, and want
more time – thus schedule
86 B RFI does not ask for an offer (ie it is not binding)
whereas the others ask for an offer that if they
get selected they guarantee to provide at the
quoted price, etc. RFI is just informational
87 A Critical path is A-B-C
88 C Total non verbal is 93% (it can be further split
into tones and body language) and verbal only
7% - from research
89 B Materials is cost reimbursable and Time is fixed
price (ie fixed $ per hour worked) – but there still
is no limit on number of hours worked
90 A PERT uses expected value (uses risk and is
often used for uncertain projects)
91 B This is what QA is to a degree; not worded well,
but quality assurance generally as a whole is an
auditing function and it occurs during execution,
it provides feedback along the way such as
interim walkthrough, peer reviews, ex. – read the
quality again, it is very confusing. Answer
cannot be A, because that is clearly Quality
Planning and therefore D is eliminated. QA is
not the process of creating control charts so
therefore C is not a possible answer – leaving
you with B.
92 A You may not have seen it put like this, but in
crashing a project you are figuring out how to
get the most compression for the least cost – in
mathematical terms, this relates to slope
93 D Usually used to monitor other processes such
as factory outputs or products; but can be used
for any process – and project management
processes are included – you can look at
whether cost and schedule are within limits for
example and whether process is in control
94 D CV=EV-AC
95 B Just a management theory to know – no need to
know anything else on it – you need to set
objectives, track them, and measure them for it
to work.

QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
96 C Read PMBOK description of Scope Change
Control …describes HOW scope may be
changed
97 C Too reactive if you are only doing it when there
are issues
98 C Basic professional responsibility question
99 D If CPI was over 1 then project was not over
budget
100 A Straight from PMBOK
101 A Important factors of customer satisfaction;
review the course notes on quality
102 A Clear roles and responsibilities is critical in
virtual teams
103 D You don’t have a team acquired until execution,
then you can kick off the project to start working
on the plan (review of the project plan is one of
the activities of the kickoff meeting)
104 A Vendor has no incentive to control costs
105 A Read WBS description; does not include
activities, is regularly updated, and does not use
scheduling tools.
106 C Is not the same as code of accounts (see
PMBOK glossary) – used to track and report
costs by category –usually categories are
related to financial chart of accounts
107 A Without a scope statement, you have no basis
for determining what is in scope and will lead to
stakeholder misinterpretations and issues
108 C The final report should describe the final scope
that was produced, the documents of the project
and the lessons learned – a final risk
assessment is not necessary, project is done.
109 A Yes, they are important, but what is more
important is that by looking at progress, you can
better predict future performance and outcomes.
110 B You regularly update the risk response plan
during monitoring and controlling – they are
giving you a risk response strategy that needs to
be documented in the right place
111 B Read PMBOK glossary
112 B Read PMBOK Glossary

QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
113 A If you are paying less interest to borrow money
to use in the project than the rate of return you
are getting in the project – then it adds value
114 A Costs vary with elements of the project such as
people or scope – therefore fixed/variable are
behaviours ---
115 A Defining roles and responsibilities is critical –
especially if resource issues are foreseen – you
can build credibility by the actions you take and
earn it. Answer A addresses a common rot
cause of bad communications – and is the most
proactive answer; all others are good but A is
better.
116 A CPI=EV/AC …just plug in numbers
117 A This is all you have to remember about GERT –
that it allows LOOPS
118 B CPM uses single deterministic estimate and
PERT uses a three point estimate (takes into
account also weighted averages and standard
deviation).
119 A Because PERT for estimating uses 3 point
estimate, takes into account risk and thus is
useful for projects where there is uncertainty.
120 B Check the PMBOK chart – uncertainty is highest
at start --- and so is the ability to influence
changes. -
121 A Direct from PMBOK
122 A PMBOK repeats many times that all processes
are done at each phase (i.e. lessons learned, etc)
123 D PM should not delegate A,B, or C so that only
leaves D as a possible choice – not great, but
only one that you can choose
124 D PM should never delegate their Project
Management responsibilities
125 B Basic theory of ‘Principled Negotiations’ –just
remember you NEVER start by defining
positions as it does not lead to win win
outcomes generally
126 B Read the PMBOK definition in Glossary
127 A Truthfulness and disclosure

QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
128 D Collaborate; bring in various opinions and
involve the team in coming up with options
129 A Tool for focusing on which problems to solve
first is the Pareto (80/20)
130 A This is one of the roles of the control chart; if
you got this one wrong, read PMBOK fully
131 B Expert and Anonymous opinion is tapped using
Delphi Method
132 B Although projectized gives you the most—it is
not a structure you can set up here….the best
you can do is strong matrix because they
already tell you there are functional managers.
133 A Whenever you see the word Expected ---
probably has to do with risk – this ENPV takes
into account a probability of making certain
benefit and probability of incurring certain cost.
134 D Read section in PMBOK
135 C From the information given; difficult to say the
impact. Reason is that the CPI would not be
retroactively calculated -hard to know the
impact
136 D This is an additional theory of motivation – PAA
– power, achievement, and affiliation – just
remember that this is McClelland’s theory
137 C If you don’t have a single control point – earned
value would not work as you would be having
various interpretations of %complete and other
factors that are critical to earned value
138 A This is a definition – just know it
139 D This is a tough question – based on complexity,
you can choose the PMBOK processes that
most are necessary – other factors also impact,
but mostly the complexity of the project should
impact. Careful with this question as it has come
up in various forms and wordings
140 B Read the PMBOK Definition in the glossary
141 B Customer ultimately should win
142 A This is a change request really – change control
system has paperwork, so first document then –
assess impact, etc, etc - ..customer is
requesting modifications and thus a change has
to be documented and tracked – contacting your
manager is not necessarily relevant – why your
manager?

QUESTION # CORRECT
ANSWER
Notes
143 A (Ceiling price-target price / buyer share ) + target
cost .. $150/.75 + 1000 = $1200
144 D Truthfulness; it is cost reimbursable contract
145 C Even though it is low impact – avoiding or
withdrawing does not solve the problem.
Confronting is the same thing as problem
solving.
146 B This allows maximum flexibility in working
together ; no such thing as open contract
147 A Learn contract types and relative risk position to
the buyer and to the seller -
148 D You do not know the value/outcome of the risk
of schedule delays. The fact that you put a
$200K penalty into the contract likely was a
result of risk response planning – probably
$200K may have been the EMV – likely there was
a 50% chance of delays with an outcome of
$400,000 – making the EMV $200000 – but there
really is not enough information there to make
that assumption for sure here.
149 A A major role of the PM in negotiations is to
provide interpretation of the work and to ensure
that the contract and negotiations support the
project objectives. Answer B is not
appropriate…why would you have to spend
more time with the customer? – A customer
hired you, if anything you will have to spend
more time with the vendor because you were not
involved. That situation would not add to the
time you have to already spend with the
customer anyway because you still need to
create a project plan, etc. – but you are having to
manage vendors that you were not involved in
choosing and thus it is possible that no overall
pm was focused on the project objectives. You
may need to spend a lot more time with the
vendors to ensure objectives are clear.
150 A In collaborating, you are bringing multiple
viewpoints together toward solving the problem
jointly.

150 PMP Questions

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150 PMP Questions