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Top Exam Practice Questions and Answers
CompTIA Security+
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Introduction
If youโ€™re gearing up for the CompTIA Security+ certi๏ฌcation exam (SY0-701),
you already know this isnโ€™t just another examโ€”itโ€™s your gateway to a thriving
career in cybersecurity. Whether youโ€™re an aspiring IT Security Professional, a
Network Administrator, or even a career switcher looking to break into
information security, passing the CompTIA Security+ exam is crucial.
But letโ€™s be honestโ€”studying for the CompTIA Security+ can feel
overwhelming. The exam covers ๏ฌve core domains that are critical in
information security:
Each domain carries a different weightage in the exam, making it essential to
focus on high-scoring areas while ensuring a strong grasp of all topics. And
thatโ€™s just scratching the surface! So, how do you ensure youโ€™re ready to tackle
those tricky multiple-choice and performance-based questions with
con๏ฌdence?
Thatโ€™s where this guide becomes your go-to resource. Weโ€™ve compiled the top
CompTIA Security+ exam practice questions and answers to help you:
Domain 1: General Security Concepts (12%)
Domain 2: Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
Domain 3: Security Architecture (18%)
Domain 4: Security Operations (28%)
Domain 5: Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
Master key cybersecurity concepts with real-world scenarios
Test your knowledge before the big day
Identify weak areas and improve your score
Gain con๏ฌdence to ace the Security+ exam on your ๏ฌrst try
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This isnโ€™t just another Security+ practice testโ€”itโ€™s a carefully curated collection
of high-quality, exam type questions that simulate what youโ€™ll actually face on
exam day. Plus, we'll provide in-depth explanations and study hacks to make
your prep journey smoother.
Ready to crush the CompTIA Security+ exam and kickstart your cybersecurity
career? Letโ€™s dive in!
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Q.1. What encryption method should be used to secure ๏ฌles both at rest and
during transfer while allowing user-speci๏ฌc access?
Partition encryption
File encryption
Full-disk encryption
Record-level encryption
Answer: B. File encryption
Explanation: File encryption ensures that each ๏ฌle is encrypted individually,
allowing for granular, user-speci๏ฌc access control. It also protects data both at
rest and in motion, making it ideal for sensitive ๏ฌles shared across networks.
Answer: B. File encryption
Explanation: File encryption ensures that each ๏ฌle is encrypted individually,
allowing for granular, user-speci๏ฌc access control. It also protects data both at
rest and in motion, making it ideal for sensitive ๏ฌles shared across networks.
Domain 1 General Security Concepts (12%)
Partition Encryption --> Protects sections of a drive
File Encryption --> Secures individual ๏ฌles (Best for access control)
Full-disk Encryption --> Protects entire drives (Good for lost/stolen devices)
Database-level Encryption --> Secures speci๏ฌc database records
STUDY HACK
Use the acronym "P-F-F-D" to remember encryption types:
CompTIA Security+
Practice Exam Questions and Answers
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Q.2. What type of certi๏ฌcate should Valerie use to secure multiple subdomains
like sales.example.com and support.example.com?
Self-signed certi๏ฌcate
Root of trust certi๏ฌcate
CRL certi๏ฌcate
Wildcard certi๏ฌcate
Answer: D. Wildcard certi๏ฌcate
Explanation: A Wildcard SSL certi๏ฌcate allows securing multiple subdomains
under the same main domain (example.com). It is cost-effective and easier to
manage than issuing separate certi๏ฌcates for each subdomain.
Answer: D. Wildcard certi๏ฌcate
Explanation: A Wildcard SSL certi๏ฌcate allows securing multiple subdomains
under the same main domain (example.com). It is cost-effective and easier to
manage than issuing separate certi๏ฌcates for each subdomain.
Q.3. During an urgent security update, a development team recommends
restarting a live, customer-facing application. What is the primary technical
concern when performing this restart?
Application con๏ฌguration changes caused by the restart
Whether the patch will apply properly
Lack of security controls during the restart
The downtime during the restart
STUDY HACK
Remember Wildcard certi๏ฌcates as a "Wildcard in a deck of cards"โ€”one
card (certi๏ฌcate) can cover multiple values (subdomains).
Domain 1
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Answer: D. The downtime during the restart
Explanation: Restarting a production system can cause temporary service
disruptions, which can impact business operations and user experience. To
minimize downtime, organizations often use rolling updates, blue-green
deployments, or canary releases to test patches on a small portion of users
before a full rollout.
Answer: D. The downtime during the restart
Explanation: Restarting a production system can cause temporary service
disruptions, which can impact business operations and user experience. To
minimize downtime, organizations often use rolling updates, blue-green
deployments, or canary releases to test patches on a small portion of users
before a full rollout.
STUDY HACK
Plan downtime
Deploy updates in stages
Rollback if issues occur
Remember "PDR" for updates:
Q.4. A Security Analyst is concerned that a critical system's password could be
vulnerable to brute-force attacks. Which technique helps reduce the risk by
increasing the time needed to test each possible key?
Master keying
Key stretching
Key rotation
Passphrase armoring
Answer: B. Key stretching
Explanation: Key stretching enhances password security by adding
computational delay to brute-force attempts. Common algorithms include
PBKDF2, bcrypt, and Argon2, which require attackers to invest more
computing power to crack passwords.
Answer: B. Key stretching
Explanation: Key stretching enhances password security by adding
computational delay to brute-force attempts. Common algorithms include
PBKDF2, bcrypt, and Argon2, which require attackers to invest more
computing power to crack passwords.
Domain 1
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STUDY HACK
Remember "Stretching Takes Time"โ€”Key stretching is all about slowing
down brute-force attacks.
Q.5. What type of control category does log monitoring fall under?
Technical
Managerial
Operational
Physical
Answer: C. Operational
Explanation: Log monitoring is an Operational control because it involves
continuous monitoring, analysis, and response to security events as part of
security operations.
Answer: C. Operational
Explanation: Log monitoring is an Operational control because it involves
continuous monitoring, analysis, and response to security events as part of
security operations.
Technical --> Uses software/hardware (Firewalls, IDS, Encryption)
Managerial --> Policy and procedures (Risk assessments, Training)
Operational --> Daily security tasks (Log monitoring, Incident response)
Physical --> Tangible security (CCTV, Locks, Guards)
STUDY HACK
Use the "T-M-O-P" method to classify security controls:
Domain 1
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Domain 2 Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
Q.1. A cybersecurity team is analyzing potential threat actors that may target
their organization's infrastructure and systems. Which of the following is the
most likely motivation behind a nation-state actor's activities?
Financial gain
Blackmail
Espionage
Extortion
Answer: C. Espionage
Explanation: Nation-state threat actors primarily focus on cyber espionage,
gathering intelligence, and disrupting the operations of rival nations or
organizations. Unlike cybercriminals seeking ๏ฌnancial gain, these actors often
conduct long-term, highly sophisticated attacks.
Answer: C. Espionage
Explanation: Nation-state threat actors primarily focus on cyber espionage,
gathering intelligence, and disrupting the operations of rival nations or
organizations. Unlike cybercriminals seeking ๏ฌnancial gain, these actors often
conduct long-term, highly sophisticated attacks.
Governmental interests (Political, military, or economic spying)
Infrastructure disruption (Critical infrastructure attacks)
Propaganda and misinformation campaigns
STUDY HACK
Remember โ€œGIP (Government, Infrastructure, and Propaganda)โ€ for
Nation-State Motivations:
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Q.2. An investment ๏ฌrm's Marketing Executive receives an email encouraging
them to take part in a survey by clicking on an embedded link. The email
appears to come from an industry organization, but the recipient is unsure of
its legitimacy. What type of attack does this represent?
Phishing
Social engineering
Spear phishing
Trojan horse
Answer: C. Spear phishing
Explanation: Spear phishing is a targeted attack where cybercriminals craft
personalized emails to deceive speci๏ฌc individuals or organizations. Unlike
generic phishing, these attacks use relevant details to gain trust and increase
the likelihood of interaction.
Answer: C. Spear phishing
Explanation: Spear phishing is a targeted attack where cybercriminals craft
personalized emails to deceive speci๏ฌc individuals or organizations. Unlike
generic phishing, these attacks use relevant details to gain trust and increase
the likelihood of interaction.
Speci๏ฌc recipient targeting
Personalized details
Email urgency or requests for sensitive information
Attachment or link included
Red ๏ฌ‚ags like unknown senders or slight misspellings in URLs
STUDY HACK
Use "SPEAR" to identify spear phishing signs:
Domain 2
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Q.3. A cloud-based application infrastructure is managed by a third-party IT
service provider. What is the most effective way to mitigate risks associated
with potential security threats from the managed service provider (MSP)?
Conduct regular vulnerability scans
Implement shared incident response drills
Ensure strong contractual security agreements
Require an annual penetration test
Answer: C. Ensure strong contractual security agreements
Explanation: Third-party security risks must be addressed through clear
contractual obligations that de๏ฌne data protection, compliance requirements,
and security responsibilities. Organizations should also enforce regular security
audits and incident response collaboration.
Answer: C. Ensure strong contractual security agreements
Explanation: Third-party security risks must be addressed through clear
contractual obligations that de๏ฌne data protection, compliance requirements,
and security responsibilities. Organizations should also enforce regular security
audits and incident response collaboration.
Contracts that de๏ฌne security expectations
Continuous monitoring of MSP activities
Mandatory security assessments & compliance checks
STUDY HACK
Remember "CCM" for MSP Security Management:
Domain 2
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Q.4. A cybersecurity advisory warns about a vulnerability that allows software
running on a virtual machine to execute commands on the underlying
hypervisor. What type of security issue does this describe?
Resource reuse ๏ฌ‚aw
VM escape vulnerability
Jailbreaking exploit
Sideloading attack
Answer: B. VM escape vulnerability
Explanation: VM escape occurs when a malicious process breaks out of the
virtual machine, and gains control over the hypervisor or host system. To
prevent this, organizations should:
โ€ข Use strict hypervisor security con๏ฌgurations
โ€ข Implement strong VM isolation techniques
โ€ข Apply timely hypervisor updates and patches
Answer: B. VM escape vulnerability
Explanation: VM escape occurs when a malicious process breaks out of the
virtual machine, and gains control over the hypervisor or host system. To
prevent this, organizations should:
โ€ข Use strict hypervisor security con๏ฌgurations
โ€ข Implement strong VM isolation techniques
โ€ข Apply timely hypervisor updates and patches
STUDY HACK
Think of VM escape as a prisoner escaping jailโ€”the attacker moves from a
restricted VM to take control of the broader system.
Domain 2
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Q.5. A Network Administrator is tasked with enhancing workstation security
against ransomware threats. Which of the following measures would be most
effective?
Enabling host-based ๏ฌrewalls
Installing endpoint protection software
Deploying a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)
Removing unnecessary software
Answer: B. Installing endpoint protection software
Explanation: Endpoint Protection Solutions (EPPs) integrate antivirus,
behavioral analysis, and real-time scanning to detect ransomware activity
before it encrypts ๏ฌles. Advanced solutions may also include ransomware
rollback features.
Answer: B. Installing endpoint protection software
Explanation: Endpoint Protection Solutions (EPPs) integrate antivirus,
behavioral analysis, and real-time scanning to detect ransomware activity
before it encrypts ๏ฌles. Advanced solutions may also include ransomware
rollback features.
Detect threats using advanced endpoint protection
Deny execution of unauthorized programs
Data backup strategy for fast recovery
STUDY HACK
Remember "3D Defense" for Ransomware Prevention:
Domain 2
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Domain 3 Security Architecture (18%)
Q.1. Nancyโ€™s organization wants to de๏ฌne the amount of data loss they can
tolerate and the maximum time allowed for system recovery after a failure.
Which two key parameters should she establish?
Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
Recovery File Backup Time (RFBT) and Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) and Recovery File Backup Time (RFBT)
Answer: A. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective
(RTO)
Explanation: RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is the maximum amount of data
loss that an organization can tolerate due to an incident. RTO (Recovery Time
Objective) is the duration within which services must be restored to avoid
major disruptions.
Answer: A. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective
(RTO)
Explanation: RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is the maximum amount of data
loss that an organization can tolerate due to an incident. RTO (Recovery Time
Objective) is the duration within which services must be restored to avoid
major disruptions.
STUDY HACK
RPO determines how much data loss is acceptable, while RTO de๏ฌnes how
quickly systems must be restored. RPO is like a โ€œdata clockโ€ (tolerable data
loss in time) and RTO is a โ€œstopwatchโ€ (time to restore systems).
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Q.2. John manages an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) for his organizationโ€™s
network. Occasionally, the IDS reports normal network traf๏ฌc as an attack.
What is this situation called?
False positive
False negative
False trigger
False ๏ฌ‚ag
Answer: A. False positive
Explanation: A false positive happens when an IDS incorrectly identi๏ฌes
normal behavior as a threat, leading to unnecessary alerts and wasted
investigation time.
Answer: A. False positive
Explanation: A false positive happens when an IDS incorrectly identi๏ฌes
normal behavior as a threat, leading to unnecessary alerts and wasted
investigation time.
STUDY HACK
P โ€“ Ping! Too many alerts (Over-reporting)
O โ€“ Ordinary activity misclassi๏ฌed (Normal traf๏ฌc ๏ฌ‚agged)
S โ€“ Security team distraction (Wastes time & resources)
I โ€“ Incorrect detection (Wrongly identi๏ฌes threats)
T โ€“ Tuning required (IDS needs better rules)
I โ€“ Impact on ef๏ฌciency (Real threats may be overlooked)
V โ€“ Very frustrating (Annoying for analysts)
E โ€“ Extra veri๏ฌcation needed (Manual investigation required)
To quickly remember False Positives, think:
Domain 3
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Q.3. Joy is responsible for protecting his companyโ€™s backup data from malware.
Currently, they back up critical servers to a networked storage device. Which
option would be the most effective in preventing backup infections?
Isolating the backup server on a separate VLAN
Completely air-gapping the backup server
Placing the backup server in a different network segment
Deploying a honeynet
Answer: B. Completely air-gapping the backup server
Explanation: Air-gapped backups are completely isolated from any network,
making them immune to ransomware and malware that spread through
connected environments.
Answer: B. Completely air-gapping the backup server
Explanation: Air-gapped backups are completely isolated from any network,
making them immune to ransomware and malware that spread through
connected environments.
A โ€“ Absolutely isolated (No network connection)
I โ€“ Immune to ransomware & malware
R โ€“ Requires physical access for backup & restore
STUDY HACK
To remember Air-Gapped Backups, think:
If no online connection exists, malware canโ€™t spreadโ€”air-gapping wins!
Domain 3
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Q.4. Joy wants a contract with a facility that is fully equipped and can be
immediately used for operations in case of a disaster. What type of recovery
site should he choose?
Hot site
Cold site
Warm site
RTO site
Answer: A. Hot site
Explanation: A hot site is a fully functional facility that allows businesses to
resume operations immediately after a disaster, making it ideal for critical
systems requiring high availability.
Answer: A. Hot site
Explanation: A hot site is a fully functional facility that allows businesses to
resume operations immediately after a disaster, making it ideal for critical
systems requiring high availability.
H โ€“ Highly available (Minimal downtime)
O โ€“ Operational immediately (No setup needed)
T โ€“ Technology pre-installed (Fully functional)
STUDY HACK
HOT = "Ready to GO" Trick
Hot site = Instant recovery, Cold site = Delayed setup, Warm site = Partial setup!
Domain 3
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Q.5. Jack is designing IoT devices and wants to ensure that unauthorized
parties cannot modify the device's operating system after purchase. What is
the best security measure to achieve this?
Set a default password
Require signed and encrypted ๏ฌrmware
Check the MD5 hash of ๏ฌrmware versions
Apply regular software patches
Answer: B. Require signed and encrypted ๏ฌrmware
Explanation: Firmware signing and encryption prevent attackers from injecting
malicious ๏ฌrmware, which can lead to backdoors, botnets, and device
takeovers.
Answer: B. Require signed and encrypted ๏ฌrmware
Explanation: Firmware signing and encryption prevent attackers from injecting
malicious ๏ฌrmware, which can lead to backdoors, botnets, and device
takeovers.
STUDY HACK
A ๏ฌrmware signing is like a digital passportโ€”only veri๏ฌed updates get through!
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Domain 3
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Domain 4 Security Operations (28%)
Q.1. John wants to enhance his organizationโ€™s router security. There are no
known vulnerabilities currently affecting the device. Which hardening measure
would provide the greatest security improvement?
Indicator of Compromise (IoC) development
Threat hunting
Root cause analysis
Incident eradication
Answer: B. Threat hunting
Explanation: Threat hunting proactively detects hidden threats by analyzing
system logs and network traf๏ฌc for anomalies. Even without known
vulnerabilities, attackers may exploit miscon๏ฌgurations or weak security
practices. By identifying suspicious activities like unauthorized account creation,
threat hunting helps prevent persistence mechanisms before an attack occurs.
Answer: B. Threat hunting
Explanation: Threat hunting proactively detects hidden threats by analyzing
system logs and network traf๏ฌc for anomalies. Even without known
vulnerabilities, attackers may exploit miscon๏ฌgurations or weak security
practices. By identifying suspicious activities like unauthorized account creation,
threat hunting helps prevent persistence mechanisms before an attack occurs.
A โ€“ Analyze logs and network traf๏ฌc for anomalies.
C โ€“ Catch suspicious patterns like unauthorized access attempts.
T โ€“ Thwart potential threats before they escalate.
STUDY HACK
โ€œACTโ€ Method for Security Hardening
If thereโ€™s no known vulnerability, go proactive with Threat Hunting instead of
waiting for an attack!
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Q.2. John's company provides an API for customers. She wants to ensure that
only paying customers can access the API. What is the best way to enforce this?
Require authentication
Con๏ฌgure a ๏ฌrewall
Filter based on IP addresses
Deploy an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Answer: A. Require authentication
Explanation: To ensure that only paying customers access the API,
implementing authentication mechanisms such as API keys, OAuth, or
token-based authentication is the best approach. These methods verify users
before granting access, preventing unauthorized usage.
Answer: A. Require authentication
Explanation: To ensure that only paying customers access the API,
implementing authentication mechanisms such as API keys, OAuth, or
token-based authentication is the best approach. These methods verify users
before granting access, preventing unauthorized usage.
P โ€“ Protect with authentication (API keys, OAuth, tokens)
A โ€“ Authorize users based on payment status
I โ€“ Implement rate limiting to prevent misuse
D โ€“ Deny access to unauthorized users
STUDY HACK
Remember "PAID" to secure API access for paying customers:
Always enforce authentication for API access controlโ€”๏ฌrewalls, IP ๏ฌlters,
and IPS wonโ€™t differentiate paying vs. non-paying users!
Domain 4
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Q.3. Pooja needs access to a network protected by a NAC system that validates
devices based on their MAC addresses. How could she potentially bypass this
security control?
Spoof a valid IP address
Perform a Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack on the NAC system
Clone a legitimate MAC address
None of the above
Answer: C. Clone a legitimate MAC address
Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) systems that rely solely on MAC
address ๏ฌltering authenticate devices based on their MAC addresses. However,
they do not verify the actual legitimacy of the device behind the MAC.
Attackers can easily spoof or clone a legitimate MAC address using readily
available tools, allowing them to bypass NAC restrictions.
Answer: C. Clone a legitimate MAC address
Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) systems that rely solely on MAC
address ๏ฌltering authenticate devices based on their MAC addresses. However,
they do not verify the actual legitimacy of the device behind the MAC.
Attackers can easily spoof or clone a legitimate MAC address using readily
available tools, allowing them to bypass NAC restrictions.
Domain 4
M โ€“ Modify your MAC address using spoo๏ฌng tools
A โ€“ Analyze a valid device's MAC address on the network
C โ€“ Clone the legitimate MAC to gain access
STUDY HACK
Remember โ€œMAC ATTACKโ€ to recall NAC bypass tricks:
MAC-based NAC security is weak without additional authentication like 802.1X,
certi๏ฌcates, or endpoint security checks!
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Q.4. Sonika subscribes to a private cybersecurity intelligence service that is
only available to vetted users who pay a subscription fee. What type of
intelligence feed is this?
Proprietary threat intelligence
Open-source intelligence (OSINT)
Electronic Intelligence (ELINT)
Corporate threat intelligence
Answer: A. Proprietary threat intelligence
Explanation: Proprietary threat intelligence refers to paid, exclusive threat
intelligence services provided by specialized vendors. These services offer
curated, real-time security insights based on con๏ฌdential or premium sources,
available only to vetted users who pay a subscription fee.
Answer: A. Proprietary threat intelligence
Explanation: Proprietary threat intelligence refers to paid, exclusive threat
intelligence services provided by specialized vendors. These services offer
curated, real-time security insights based on con๏ฌdential or premium sources,
available only to vetted users who pay a subscription fee.
P โ€“ Proprietary (Paid, Exclusive, Subscription-based)
P โ€“ Public (OSINT) (Free, Open, Community-driven)
E โ€“ Electronic (ELINT) (Signals, Military, Communications)
C โ€“ Corporate (Internal, Business-Speci๏ฌc, Private Analysis)
STUDY HACK
Use "PPEC" to remember Threat Intelligence Categories:
If access requires payment and vetting, it's likely proprietary threat
intelligence!
Domain 4
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Q.5. Ruchi wants to enhance her organizationโ€™s router security. There are no
known vulnerabilities currently affecting the device. Which hardening measure
would provide the greatest security improvement?
Assigning administrative interfaces to a dedicated VLAN
Disabling all unnecessary services
Updating the router OS to the latest patch
Enabling SNMP-based logging
Answer: B. Disabling all unnecessary services
Explanation: Disabling unnecessary services reduces the attack surface by
preventing attackers from exploiting unused or default functionalities that could
be vulnerable to misuse. Many routers come with pre-enabled services that
may not be required for operations, and keeping them active increases security
risks.
Answer: B. Disabling all unnecessary services
Explanation: Disabling unnecessary services reduces the attack surface by
preventing attackers from exploiting unused or default functionalities that could
be vulnerable to misuse. Many routers come with pre-enabled services that
may not be required for operations, and keeping them active increases security
risks.
D โ€“ Disable unused services
U โ€“ Update ๏ฌrmware & OS regularly
S โ€“ Segment networks (VLANs, admin interfaces)
T โ€“ Track logs & monitor traf๏ฌc
STUDY HACK
To remember key router hardening steps, think "DUST" (because security
removes unnecessary elements like dust )
First step in router hardening? Always disable whatโ€™s not needed!
Domain 4
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Domain 5 Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
Q.1. Prerna wants to assess whether the Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) suggested
by his team are effective for the organization. Which of the following
characteristics is NOT essential for a useful KRI?
Actionable
Measurable
Relevant
Inexpensive
Answer: D. Inexpensive
Explanation: A Key Risk Indicator (KRI) is a measurable value that helps
organizations predict, monitor, and mitigate risks. For a KRI to be effective, it
must be:
โ€ข Actionable โ€“ It should trigger a response or decision-making process.
โ€ข Measurable โ€“ It must have quanti๏ฌable data to track risk levels over time.
โ€ข Relevant โ€“ It should directly relate to the organization's risk landscape.
While cost ef๏ฌciency is bene๏ฌcial, it does not determine the effectiveness of a
KRI. A highly effective KRI may require investment in tools, data collection, and
analysis, making "Inexpensive" not an essential characteristic.
Answer: D. Inexpensive
Explanation: A Key Risk Indicator (KRI) is a measurable value that helps
organizations predict, monitor, and mitigate risks. For a KRI to be effective, it
must be:
โ€ข Actionable โ€“ It should trigger a response or decision-making process.
โ€ข Measurable โ€“ It must have quanti๏ฌable data to track risk levels over time.
โ€ข Relevant โ€“ It should directly relate to the organization's risk landscape.
While cost ef๏ฌciency is bene๏ฌcial, it does not determine the effectiveness of a
KRI. A highly effective KRI may require investment in tools, data collection, and
analysis, making "Inexpensive" not an essential characteristic.
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A โ€“ Actionable (Leads to clear decisions)
R โ€“ Relevant (Aligned with business risks)
M โ€“ Measurable (Quanti๏ฌable & trackable)
STUDY HACK
To remember essential KRI characteristics, think โ€œARM Your KRIsโ€:
If a KRI is cheap but ineffective, it wonโ€™t help manage risk!
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Domain 5
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Q.2. Amitโ€™s organization has developed a document outlining the acceptable
and unacceptable ways employees can use company resources, including
networks and systems. What type of policy does this represent?
Business continuity policy
Acceptable use policy
Incident response policy
A standard, not a policy
Answer: B. Acceptable use policy
Explanation: An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) de๏ฌnes the permissible and
prohibited ways employees can use company resources, including networks,
systems, and data. This policy ensures compliance, security, and responsible
use of organizational assets.
Answer: B. Acceptable use policy
Explanation: An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) de๏ฌnes the permissible and
prohibited ways employees can use company resources, including networks,
systems, and data. This policy ensures compliance, security, and responsible
use of organizational assets.
A โ€“ Access rules for company systems
U โ€“ Usage guidelines (Whatโ€™s allowed vs. prohibited)
P โ€“ Protection from misuse & legal issues
STUDY HACK
To remember AUP, think:
If it de๏ฌnes how employees can use company tech, it's an AUP.
Domain 5
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Q.3. Anie is conducting a penetration test and retrieves information about her
target using the Shodan search engine without directly interacting with the
systems. What type of reconnaissance is she performing?
Active
Commercial
Scanner-based
Passive
Answer: D. Passive
Explanation: Passive reconnaissance involves gathering information about a
target without directly interacting with its systems, reducing the chance of
detection. Tools like Shodan, WHOIS lookups, and OSINT techniques allow
attackers or penetration testers to collect valuable insights without triggering
security alarms.
Answer: D. Passive
Explanation: Passive reconnaissance involves gathering information about a
target without directly interacting with its systems, reducing the chance of
detection. Tools like Shodan, WHOIS lookups, and OSINT techniques allow
attackers or penetration testers to collect valuable insights without triggering
security alarms.
P โ€“ Publicly available data (Shodan, WHOIS, OSINT)
A โ€“ Avoids direct interaction (No scanning)
S โ€“ Silent approach (Undetectable)
S โ€“ Search engines & open databases used
I โ€“ Information gathering only (No system engagement)
V โ€“ Very low risk of detection
E โ€“ External sources leveraged
STUDY HACK
To remember Passive Reconnaissance, think:
If no direct contact with the target occurs, itโ€™s passive reconnaissance!
Domain 5
www.infosectrain.com
Q.4. Nancyโ€™s company is purchasing cybersecurity insurance to reduce the
๏ฌnancial impact of a potential data breach. What type of risk management
strategy is being used?
Transfer
Accept
Avoid
Mitigate
Answer: A. Transfer
Explanation: Risk transfer shifts the ๏ฌnancial burden of a risk to a third party,
such as an insurance provider, instead of directly mitigating or accepting it. By
purchasing cybersecurity insurance, Nancyโ€™s company ensures that if a data
breach occurs, the insurance provider covers the ๏ฌnancial losses.
Answer: A. Transfer
Explanation: Risk transfer shifts the ๏ฌnancial burden of a risk to a third party,
such as an insurance provider, instead of directly mitigating or accepting it. By
purchasing cybersecurity insurance, Nancyโ€™s company ensures that if a data
breach occurs, the insurance provider covers the ๏ฌnancial losses.
T โ€“ Transfer (Shift risk to insurance or third party)
A โ€“ Accept (Do nothing, absorb the risk)
M โ€“ Mitigate (Implement controls to reduce the risk)
A โ€“ Avoid (Eliminate the risk by discontinuing the risky activity)
STUDY HACK
Remember "TAM-A" for the four main risk management strategies:
If the company buys insurance, it's a risk transfer!
Domain 5
www.infosectrain.com
Summary
Preparing for the CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) certi๏ฌcation exam can be
challenging, but with the right strategy, you can enhance your understanding,
re๏ฌne your exam techniques, and pass with con๏ฌdence on your ๏ฌrst try. This
guide has provided you with real-world practice questions, expert
explanations, and study hacks tailored to each domain, helping you identify
weak areas and strengthen your cybersecurity expertise.
The Security+ certi๏ฌcation is a globally recognized certi๏ฌcation that opens
doors to various cybersecurity roles, including Security Analyst, Network
Administrator, and SOC Analyst. By mastering encryption methods, risk
management strategies, incident response, and security architecture, youโ€™ll be
well-equipped to handle todayโ€™s evolving cyber threats.
But simply reading questions isnโ€™t enoughโ€”you need a structured learning
path with hands-on labs, expert-led training, and real exam simulations to
solidify your understanding.
If youโ€™re serious about passing the CompTIA Security+ exam and advancing
your cybersecurity career, InfosecTrainโ€™s CompTIA Security+ training course is
your ultimate learning solution.
www.infosectrain.com
Contact us
www.infosectrain.com
sales@infosectrain.com
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Top compTIA Security+ Exam Practice Questions and Answers

  • 1. www.infosectrain.com Top Exam Practice Questions and Answers CompTIA Security+
  • 2. www.infosectrain.com Introduction If youโ€™re gearing up for the CompTIA Security+ certi๏ฌcation exam (SY0-701), you already know this isnโ€™t just another examโ€”itโ€™s your gateway to a thriving career in cybersecurity. Whether youโ€™re an aspiring IT Security Professional, a Network Administrator, or even a career switcher looking to break into information security, passing the CompTIA Security+ exam is crucial. But letโ€™s be honestโ€”studying for the CompTIA Security+ can feel overwhelming. The exam covers ๏ฌve core domains that are critical in information security: Each domain carries a different weightage in the exam, making it essential to focus on high-scoring areas while ensuring a strong grasp of all topics. And thatโ€™s just scratching the surface! So, how do you ensure youโ€™re ready to tackle those tricky multiple-choice and performance-based questions with con๏ฌdence? Thatโ€™s where this guide becomes your go-to resource. Weโ€™ve compiled the top CompTIA Security+ exam practice questions and answers to help you: Domain 1: General Security Concepts (12%) Domain 2: Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%) Domain 3: Security Architecture (18%) Domain 4: Security Operations (28%) Domain 5: Security Program Management and Oversight (20%) Master key cybersecurity concepts with real-world scenarios Test your knowledge before the big day Identify weak areas and improve your score Gain con๏ฌdence to ace the Security+ exam on your ๏ฌrst try
  • 3. www.infosectrain.com www.infosectrain.com This isnโ€™t just another Security+ practice testโ€”itโ€™s a carefully curated collection of high-quality, exam type questions that simulate what youโ€™ll actually face on exam day. Plus, we'll provide in-depth explanations and study hacks to make your prep journey smoother. Ready to crush the CompTIA Security+ exam and kickstart your cybersecurity career? Letโ€™s dive in!
  • 4. www.infosectrain.com Q.1. What encryption method should be used to secure ๏ฌles both at rest and during transfer while allowing user-speci๏ฌc access? Partition encryption File encryption Full-disk encryption Record-level encryption Answer: B. File encryption Explanation: File encryption ensures that each ๏ฌle is encrypted individually, allowing for granular, user-speci๏ฌc access control. It also protects data both at rest and in motion, making it ideal for sensitive ๏ฌles shared across networks. Answer: B. File encryption Explanation: File encryption ensures that each ๏ฌle is encrypted individually, allowing for granular, user-speci๏ฌc access control. It also protects data both at rest and in motion, making it ideal for sensitive ๏ฌles shared across networks. Domain 1 General Security Concepts (12%) Partition Encryption --> Protects sections of a drive File Encryption --> Secures individual ๏ฌles (Best for access control) Full-disk Encryption --> Protects entire drives (Good for lost/stolen devices) Database-level Encryption --> Secures speci๏ฌc database records STUDY HACK Use the acronym "P-F-F-D" to remember encryption types: CompTIA Security+ Practice Exam Questions and Answers
  • 5. www.infosectrain.com Q.2. What type of certi๏ฌcate should Valerie use to secure multiple subdomains like sales.example.com and support.example.com? Self-signed certi๏ฌcate Root of trust certi๏ฌcate CRL certi๏ฌcate Wildcard certi๏ฌcate Answer: D. Wildcard certi๏ฌcate Explanation: A Wildcard SSL certi๏ฌcate allows securing multiple subdomains under the same main domain (example.com). It is cost-effective and easier to manage than issuing separate certi๏ฌcates for each subdomain. Answer: D. Wildcard certi๏ฌcate Explanation: A Wildcard SSL certi๏ฌcate allows securing multiple subdomains under the same main domain (example.com). It is cost-effective and easier to manage than issuing separate certi๏ฌcates for each subdomain. Q.3. During an urgent security update, a development team recommends restarting a live, customer-facing application. What is the primary technical concern when performing this restart? Application con๏ฌguration changes caused by the restart Whether the patch will apply properly Lack of security controls during the restart The downtime during the restart STUDY HACK Remember Wildcard certi๏ฌcates as a "Wildcard in a deck of cards"โ€”one card (certi๏ฌcate) can cover multiple values (subdomains). Domain 1
  • 6. www.infosectrain.com Answer: D. The downtime during the restart Explanation: Restarting a production system can cause temporary service disruptions, which can impact business operations and user experience. To minimize downtime, organizations often use rolling updates, blue-green deployments, or canary releases to test patches on a small portion of users before a full rollout. Answer: D. The downtime during the restart Explanation: Restarting a production system can cause temporary service disruptions, which can impact business operations and user experience. To minimize downtime, organizations often use rolling updates, blue-green deployments, or canary releases to test patches on a small portion of users before a full rollout. STUDY HACK Plan downtime Deploy updates in stages Rollback if issues occur Remember "PDR" for updates: Q.4. A Security Analyst is concerned that a critical system's password could be vulnerable to brute-force attacks. Which technique helps reduce the risk by increasing the time needed to test each possible key? Master keying Key stretching Key rotation Passphrase armoring Answer: B. Key stretching Explanation: Key stretching enhances password security by adding computational delay to brute-force attempts. Common algorithms include PBKDF2, bcrypt, and Argon2, which require attackers to invest more computing power to crack passwords. Answer: B. Key stretching Explanation: Key stretching enhances password security by adding computational delay to brute-force attempts. Common algorithms include PBKDF2, bcrypt, and Argon2, which require attackers to invest more computing power to crack passwords. Domain 1
  • 7. www.infosectrain.com STUDY HACK Remember "Stretching Takes Time"โ€”Key stretching is all about slowing down brute-force attacks. Q.5. What type of control category does log monitoring fall under? Technical Managerial Operational Physical Answer: C. Operational Explanation: Log monitoring is an Operational control because it involves continuous monitoring, analysis, and response to security events as part of security operations. Answer: C. Operational Explanation: Log monitoring is an Operational control because it involves continuous monitoring, analysis, and response to security events as part of security operations. Technical --> Uses software/hardware (Firewalls, IDS, Encryption) Managerial --> Policy and procedures (Risk assessments, Training) Operational --> Daily security tasks (Log monitoring, Incident response) Physical --> Tangible security (CCTV, Locks, Guards) STUDY HACK Use the "T-M-O-P" method to classify security controls: Domain 1
  • 8. www.infosectrain.com Domain 2 Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%) Q.1. A cybersecurity team is analyzing potential threat actors that may target their organization's infrastructure and systems. Which of the following is the most likely motivation behind a nation-state actor's activities? Financial gain Blackmail Espionage Extortion Answer: C. Espionage Explanation: Nation-state threat actors primarily focus on cyber espionage, gathering intelligence, and disrupting the operations of rival nations or organizations. Unlike cybercriminals seeking ๏ฌnancial gain, these actors often conduct long-term, highly sophisticated attacks. Answer: C. Espionage Explanation: Nation-state threat actors primarily focus on cyber espionage, gathering intelligence, and disrupting the operations of rival nations or organizations. Unlike cybercriminals seeking ๏ฌnancial gain, these actors often conduct long-term, highly sophisticated attacks. Governmental interests (Political, military, or economic spying) Infrastructure disruption (Critical infrastructure attacks) Propaganda and misinformation campaigns STUDY HACK Remember โ€œGIP (Government, Infrastructure, and Propaganda)โ€ for Nation-State Motivations:
  • 9. www.infosectrain.com Q.2. An investment ๏ฌrm's Marketing Executive receives an email encouraging them to take part in a survey by clicking on an embedded link. The email appears to come from an industry organization, but the recipient is unsure of its legitimacy. What type of attack does this represent? Phishing Social engineering Spear phishing Trojan horse Answer: C. Spear phishing Explanation: Spear phishing is a targeted attack where cybercriminals craft personalized emails to deceive speci๏ฌc individuals or organizations. Unlike generic phishing, these attacks use relevant details to gain trust and increase the likelihood of interaction. Answer: C. Spear phishing Explanation: Spear phishing is a targeted attack where cybercriminals craft personalized emails to deceive speci๏ฌc individuals or organizations. Unlike generic phishing, these attacks use relevant details to gain trust and increase the likelihood of interaction. Speci๏ฌc recipient targeting Personalized details Email urgency or requests for sensitive information Attachment or link included Red ๏ฌ‚ags like unknown senders or slight misspellings in URLs STUDY HACK Use "SPEAR" to identify spear phishing signs: Domain 2
  • 10. www.infosectrain.com Q.3. A cloud-based application infrastructure is managed by a third-party IT service provider. What is the most effective way to mitigate risks associated with potential security threats from the managed service provider (MSP)? Conduct regular vulnerability scans Implement shared incident response drills Ensure strong contractual security agreements Require an annual penetration test Answer: C. Ensure strong contractual security agreements Explanation: Third-party security risks must be addressed through clear contractual obligations that de๏ฌne data protection, compliance requirements, and security responsibilities. Organizations should also enforce regular security audits and incident response collaboration. Answer: C. Ensure strong contractual security agreements Explanation: Third-party security risks must be addressed through clear contractual obligations that de๏ฌne data protection, compliance requirements, and security responsibilities. Organizations should also enforce regular security audits and incident response collaboration. Contracts that de๏ฌne security expectations Continuous monitoring of MSP activities Mandatory security assessments & compliance checks STUDY HACK Remember "CCM" for MSP Security Management: Domain 2
  • 11. www.infosectrain.com Q.4. A cybersecurity advisory warns about a vulnerability that allows software running on a virtual machine to execute commands on the underlying hypervisor. What type of security issue does this describe? Resource reuse ๏ฌ‚aw VM escape vulnerability Jailbreaking exploit Sideloading attack Answer: B. VM escape vulnerability Explanation: VM escape occurs when a malicious process breaks out of the virtual machine, and gains control over the hypervisor or host system. To prevent this, organizations should: โ€ข Use strict hypervisor security con๏ฌgurations โ€ข Implement strong VM isolation techniques โ€ข Apply timely hypervisor updates and patches Answer: B. VM escape vulnerability Explanation: VM escape occurs when a malicious process breaks out of the virtual machine, and gains control over the hypervisor or host system. To prevent this, organizations should: โ€ข Use strict hypervisor security con๏ฌgurations โ€ข Implement strong VM isolation techniques โ€ข Apply timely hypervisor updates and patches STUDY HACK Think of VM escape as a prisoner escaping jailโ€”the attacker moves from a restricted VM to take control of the broader system. Domain 2
  • 12. www.infosectrain.com Q.5. A Network Administrator is tasked with enhancing workstation security against ransomware threats. Which of the following measures would be most effective? Enabling host-based ๏ฌrewalls Installing endpoint protection software Deploying a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) Removing unnecessary software Answer: B. Installing endpoint protection software Explanation: Endpoint Protection Solutions (EPPs) integrate antivirus, behavioral analysis, and real-time scanning to detect ransomware activity before it encrypts ๏ฌles. Advanced solutions may also include ransomware rollback features. Answer: B. Installing endpoint protection software Explanation: Endpoint Protection Solutions (EPPs) integrate antivirus, behavioral analysis, and real-time scanning to detect ransomware activity before it encrypts ๏ฌles. Advanced solutions may also include ransomware rollback features. Detect threats using advanced endpoint protection Deny execution of unauthorized programs Data backup strategy for fast recovery STUDY HACK Remember "3D Defense" for Ransomware Prevention: Domain 2
  • 13. www.infosectrain.com Domain 3 Security Architecture (18%) Q.1. Nancyโ€™s organization wants to de๏ฌne the amount of data loss they can tolerate and the maximum time allowed for system recovery after a failure. Which two key parameters should she establish? Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) Recovery File Backup Time (RFBT) and Recovery Point Objective (RPO) Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) and Recovery File Backup Time (RFBT) Answer: A. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) Explanation: RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is the maximum amount of data loss that an organization can tolerate due to an incident. RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is the duration within which services must be restored to avoid major disruptions. Answer: A. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) Explanation: RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is the maximum amount of data loss that an organization can tolerate due to an incident. RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is the duration within which services must be restored to avoid major disruptions. STUDY HACK RPO determines how much data loss is acceptable, while RTO de๏ฌnes how quickly systems must be restored. RPO is like a โ€œdata clockโ€ (tolerable data loss in time) and RTO is a โ€œstopwatchโ€ (time to restore systems).
  • 14. www.infosectrain.com Q.2. John manages an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) for his organizationโ€™s network. Occasionally, the IDS reports normal network traf๏ฌc as an attack. What is this situation called? False positive False negative False trigger False ๏ฌ‚ag Answer: A. False positive Explanation: A false positive happens when an IDS incorrectly identi๏ฌes normal behavior as a threat, leading to unnecessary alerts and wasted investigation time. Answer: A. False positive Explanation: A false positive happens when an IDS incorrectly identi๏ฌes normal behavior as a threat, leading to unnecessary alerts and wasted investigation time. STUDY HACK P โ€“ Ping! Too many alerts (Over-reporting) O โ€“ Ordinary activity misclassi๏ฌed (Normal traf๏ฌc ๏ฌ‚agged) S โ€“ Security team distraction (Wastes time & resources) I โ€“ Incorrect detection (Wrongly identi๏ฌes threats) T โ€“ Tuning required (IDS needs better rules) I โ€“ Impact on ef๏ฌciency (Real threats may be overlooked) V โ€“ Very frustrating (Annoying for analysts) E โ€“ Extra veri๏ฌcation needed (Manual investigation required) To quickly remember False Positives, think: Domain 3
  • 15. www.infosectrain.com Q.3. Joy is responsible for protecting his companyโ€™s backup data from malware. Currently, they back up critical servers to a networked storage device. Which option would be the most effective in preventing backup infections? Isolating the backup server on a separate VLAN Completely air-gapping the backup server Placing the backup server in a different network segment Deploying a honeynet Answer: B. Completely air-gapping the backup server Explanation: Air-gapped backups are completely isolated from any network, making them immune to ransomware and malware that spread through connected environments. Answer: B. Completely air-gapping the backup server Explanation: Air-gapped backups are completely isolated from any network, making them immune to ransomware and malware that spread through connected environments. A โ€“ Absolutely isolated (No network connection) I โ€“ Immune to ransomware & malware R โ€“ Requires physical access for backup & restore STUDY HACK To remember Air-Gapped Backups, think: If no online connection exists, malware canโ€™t spreadโ€”air-gapping wins! Domain 3
  • 16. www.infosectrain.com Q.4. Joy wants a contract with a facility that is fully equipped and can be immediately used for operations in case of a disaster. What type of recovery site should he choose? Hot site Cold site Warm site RTO site Answer: A. Hot site Explanation: A hot site is a fully functional facility that allows businesses to resume operations immediately after a disaster, making it ideal for critical systems requiring high availability. Answer: A. Hot site Explanation: A hot site is a fully functional facility that allows businesses to resume operations immediately after a disaster, making it ideal for critical systems requiring high availability. H โ€“ Highly available (Minimal downtime) O โ€“ Operational immediately (No setup needed) T โ€“ Technology pre-installed (Fully functional) STUDY HACK HOT = "Ready to GO" Trick Hot site = Instant recovery, Cold site = Delayed setup, Warm site = Partial setup! Domain 3
  • 17. www.infosectrain.com Q.5. Jack is designing IoT devices and wants to ensure that unauthorized parties cannot modify the device's operating system after purchase. What is the best security measure to achieve this? Set a default password Require signed and encrypted ๏ฌrmware Check the MD5 hash of ๏ฌrmware versions Apply regular software patches Answer: B. Require signed and encrypted ๏ฌrmware Explanation: Firmware signing and encryption prevent attackers from injecting malicious ๏ฌrmware, which can lead to backdoors, botnets, and device takeovers. Answer: B. Require signed and encrypted ๏ฌrmware Explanation: Firmware signing and encryption prevent attackers from injecting malicious ๏ฌrmware, which can lead to backdoors, botnets, and device takeovers. STUDY HACK A ๏ฌrmware signing is like a digital passportโ€”only veri๏ฌed updates get through! www.infosectrain.com www.infosectrain.com Domain 3
  • 18. www.infosectrain.com Domain 4 Security Operations (28%) Q.1. John wants to enhance his organizationโ€™s router security. There are no known vulnerabilities currently affecting the device. Which hardening measure would provide the greatest security improvement? Indicator of Compromise (IoC) development Threat hunting Root cause analysis Incident eradication Answer: B. Threat hunting Explanation: Threat hunting proactively detects hidden threats by analyzing system logs and network traf๏ฌc for anomalies. Even without known vulnerabilities, attackers may exploit miscon๏ฌgurations or weak security practices. By identifying suspicious activities like unauthorized account creation, threat hunting helps prevent persistence mechanisms before an attack occurs. Answer: B. Threat hunting Explanation: Threat hunting proactively detects hidden threats by analyzing system logs and network traf๏ฌc for anomalies. Even without known vulnerabilities, attackers may exploit miscon๏ฌgurations or weak security practices. By identifying suspicious activities like unauthorized account creation, threat hunting helps prevent persistence mechanisms before an attack occurs. A โ€“ Analyze logs and network traf๏ฌc for anomalies. C โ€“ Catch suspicious patterns like unauthorized access attempts. T โ€“ Thwart potential threats before they escalate. STUDY HACK โ€œACTโ€ Method for Security Hardening If thereโ€™s no known vulnerability, go proactive with Threat Hunting instead of waiting for an attack!
  • 19. www.infosectrain.com Q.2. John's company provides an API for customers. She wants to ensure that only paying customers can access the API. What is the best way to enforce this? Require authentication Con๏ฌgure a ๏ฌrewall Filter based on IP addresses Deploy an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) Answer: A. Require authentication Explanation: To ensure that only paying customers access the API, implementing authentication mechanisms such as API keys, OAuth, or token-based authentication is the best approach. These methods verify users before granting access, preventing unauthorized usage. Answer: A. Require authentication Explanation: To ensure that only paying customers access the API, implementing authentication mechanisms such as API keys, OAuth, or token-based authentication is the best approach. These methods verify users before granting access, preventing unauthorized usage. P โ€“ Protect with authentication (API keys, OAuth, tokens) A โ€“ Authorize users based on payment status I โ€“ Implement rate limiting to prevent misuse D โ€“ Deny access to unauthorized users STUDY HACK Remember "PAID" to secure API access for paying customers: Always enforce authentication for API access controlโ€”๏ฌrewalls, IP ๏ฌlters, and IPS wonโ€™t differentiate paying vs. non-paying users! Domain 4
  • 20. www.infosectrain.com Q.3. Pooja needs access to a network protected by a NAC system that validates devices based on their MAC addresses. How could she potentially bypass this security control? Spoof a valid IP address Perform a Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack on the NAC system Clone a legitimate MAC address None of the above Answer: C. Clone a legitimate MAC address Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) systems that rely solely on MAC address ๏ฌltering authenticate devices based on their MAC addresses. However, they do not verify the actual legitimacy of the device behind the MAC. Attackers can easily spoof or clone a legitimate MAC address using readily available tools, allowing them to bypass NAC restrictions. Answer: C. Clone a legitimate MAC address Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) systems that rely solely on MAC address ๏ฌltering authenticate devices based on their MAC addresses. However, they do not verify the actual legitimacy of the device behind the MAC. Attackers can easily spoof or clone a legitimate MAC address using readily available tools, allowing them to bypass NAC restrictions. Domain 4 M โ€“ Modify your MAC address using spoo๏ฌng tools A โ€“ Analyze a valid device's MAC address on the network C โ€“ Clone the legitimate MAC to gain access STUDY HACK Remember โ€œMAC ATTACKโ€ to recall NAC bypass tricks: MAC-based NAC security is weak without additional authentication like 802.1X, certi๏ฌcates, or endpoint security checks!
  • 21. www.infosectrain.com Q.4. Sonika subscribes to a private cybersecurity intelligence service that is only available to vetted users who pay a subscription fee. What type of intelligence feed is this? Proprietary threat intelligence Open-source intelligence (OSINT) Electronic Intelligence (ELINT) Corporate threat intelligence Answer: A. Proprietary threat intelligence Explanation: Proprietary threat intelligence refers to paid, exclusive threat intelligence services provided by specialized vendors. These services offer curated, real-time security insights based on con๏ฌdential or premium sources, available only to vetted users who pay a subscription fee. Answer: A. Proprietary threat intelligence Explanation: Proprietary threat intelligence refers to paid, exclusive threat intelligence services provided by specialized vendors. These services offer curated, real-time security insights based on con๏ฌdential or premium sources, available only to vetted users who pay a subscription fee. P โ€“ Proprietary (Paid, Exclusive, Subscription-based) P โ€“ Public (OSINT) (Free, Open, Community-driven) E โ€“ Electronic (ELINT) (Signals, Military, Communications) C โ€“ Corporate (Internal, Business-Speci๏ฌc, Private Analysis) STUDY HACK Use "PPEC" to remember Threat Intelligence Categories: If access requires payment and vetting, it's likely proprietary threat intelligence! Domain 4
  • 22. www.infosectrain.com Q.5. Ruchi wants to enhance her organizationโ€™s router security. There are no known vulnerabilities currently affecting the device. Which hardening measure would provide the greatest security improvement? Assigning administrative interfaces to a dedicated VLAN Disabling all unnecessary services Updating the router OS to the latest patch Enabling SNMP-based logging Answer: B. Disabling all unnecessary services Explanation: Disabling unnecessary services reduces the attack surface by preventing attackers from exploiting unused or default functionalities that could be vulnerable to misuse. Many routers come with pre-enabled services that may not be required for operations, and keeping them active increases security risks. Answer: B. Disabling all unnecessary services Explanation: Disabling unnecessary services reduces the attack surface by preventing attackers from exploiting unused or default functionalities that could be vulnerable to misuse. Many routers come with pre-enabled services that may not be required for operations, and keeping them active increases security risks. D โ€“ Disable unused services U โ€“ Update ๏ฌrmware & OS regularly S โ€“ Segment networks (VLANs, admin interfaces) T โ€“ Track logs & monitor traf๏ฌc STUDY HACK To remember key router hardening steps, think "DUST" (because security removes unnecessary elements like dust ) First step in router hardening? Always disable whatโ€™s not needed! Domain 4
  • 23. www.infosectrain.com Domain 5 Security Program Management and Oversight (20%) Q.1. Prerna wants to assess whether the Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) suggested by his team are effective for the organization. Which of the following characteristics is NOT essential for a useful KRI? Actionable Measurable Relevant Inexpensive Answer: D. Inexpensive Explanation: A Key Risk Indicator (KRI) is a measurable value that helps organizations predict, monitor, and mitigate risks. For a KRI to be effective, it must be: โ€ข Actionable โ€“ It should trigger a response or decision-making process. โ€ข Measurable โ€“ It must have quanti๏ฌable data to track risk levels over time. โ€ข Relevant โ€“ It should directly relate to the organization's risk landscape. While cost ef๏ฌciency is bene๏ฌcial, it does not determine the effectiveness of a KRI. A highly effective KRI may require investment in tools, data collection, and analysis, making "Inexpensive" not an essential characteristic. Answer: D. Inexpensive Explanation: A Key Risk Indicator (KRI) is a measurable value that helps organizations predict, monitor, and mitigate risks. For a KRI to be effective, it must be: โ€ข Actionable โ€“ It should trigger a response or decision-making process. โ€ข Measurable โ€“ It must have quanti๏ฌable data to track risk levels over time. โ€ข Relevant โ€“ It should directly relate to the organization's risk landscape. While cost ef๏ฌciency is bene๏ฌcial, it does not determine the effectiveness of a KRI. A highly effective KRI may require investment in tools, data collection, and analysis, making "Inexpensive" not an essential characteristic.
  • 24. www.infosectrain.com A โ€“ Actionable (Leads to clear decisions) R โ€“ Relevant (Aligned with business risks) M โ€“ Measurable (Quanti๏ฌable & trackable) STUDY HACK To remember essential KRI characteristics, think โ€œARM Your KRIsโ€: If a KRI is cheap but ineffective, it wonโ€™t help manage risk! www.infosectrain.com www.infosectrain.com Domain 5
  • 25. www.infosectrain.com Q.2. Amitโ€™s organization has developed a document outlining the acceptable and unacceptable ways employees can use company resources, including networks and systems. What type of policy does this represent? Business continuity policy Acceptable use policy Incident response policy A standard, not a policy Answer: B. Acceptable use policy Explanation: An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) de๏ฌnes the permissible and prohibited ways employees can use company resources, including networks, systems, and data. This policy ensures compliance, security, and responsible use of organizational assets. Answer: B. Acceptable use policy Explanation: An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) de๏ฌnes the permissible and prohibited ways employees can use company resources, including networks, systems, and data. This policy ensures compliance, security, and responsible use of organizational assets. A โ€“ Access rules for company systems U โ€“ Usage guidelines (Whatโ€™s allowed vs. prohibited) P โ€“ Protection from misuse & legal issues STUDY HACK To remember AUP, think: If it de๏ฌnes how employees can use company tech, it's an AUP. Domain 5
  • 26. www.infosectrain.com Q.3. Anie is conducting a penetration test and retrieves information about her target using the Shodan search engine without directly interacting with the systems. What type of reconnaissance is she performing? Active Commercial Scanner-based Passive Answer: D. Passive Explanation: Passive reconnaissance involves gathering information about a target without directly interacting with its systems, reducing the chance of detection. Tools like Shodan, WHOIS lookups, and OSINT techniques allow attackers or penetration testers to collect valuable insights without triggering security alarms. Answer: D. Passive Explanation: Passive reconnaissance involves gathering information about a target without directly interacting with its systems, reducing the chance of detection. Tools like Shodan, WHOIS lookups, and OSINT techniques allow attackers or penetration testers to collect valuable insights without triggering security alarms. P โ€“ Publicly available data (Shodan, WHOIS, OSINT) A โ€“ Avoids direct interaction (No scanning) S โ€“ Silent approach (Undetectable) S โ€“ Search engines & open databases used I โ€“ Information gathering only (No system engagement) V โ€“ Very low risk of detection E โ€“ External sources leveraged STUDY HACK To remember Passive Reconnaissance, think: If no direct contact with the target occurs, itโ€™s passive reconnaissance! Domain 5
  • 27. www.infosectrain.com Q.4. Nancyโ€™s company is purchasing cybersecurity insurance to reduce the ๏ฌnancial impact of a potential data breach. What type of risk management strategy is being used? Transfer Accept Avoid Mitigate Answer: A. Transfer Explanation: Risk transfer shifts the ๏ฌnancial burden of a risk to a third party, such as an insurance provider, instead of directly mitigating or accepting it. By purchasing cybersecurity insurance, Nancyโ€™s company ensures that if a data breach occurs, the insurance provider covers the ๏ฌnancial losses. Answer: A. Transfer Explanation: Risk transfer shifts the ๏ฌnancial burden of a risk to a third party, such as an insurance provider, instead of directly mitigating or accepting it. By purchasing cybersecurity insurance, Nancyโ€™s company ensures that if a data breach occurs, the insurance provider covers the ๏ฌnancial losses. T โ€“ Transfer (Shift risk to insurance or third party) A โ€“ Accept (Do nothing, absorb the risk) M โ€“ Mitigate (Implement controls to reduce the risk) A โ€“ Avoid (Eliminate the risk by discontinuing the risky activity) STUDY HACK Remember "TAM-A" for the four main risk management strategies: If the company buys insurance, it's a risk transfer! Domain 5
  • 28. www.infosectrain.com Summary Preparing for the CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) certi๏ฌcation exam can be challenging, but with the right strategy, you can enhance your understanding, re๏ฌne your exam techniques, and pass with con๏ฌdence on your ๏ฌrst try. This guide has provided you with real-world practice questions, expert explanations, and study hacks tailored to each domain, helping you identify weak areas and strengthen your cybersecurity expertise. The Security+ certi๏ฌcation is a globally recognized certi๏ฌcation that opens doors to various cybersecurity roles, including Security Analyst, Network Administrator, and SOC Analyst. By mastering encryption methods, risk management strategies, incident response, and security architecture, youโ€™ll be well-equipped to handle todayโ€™s evolving cyber threats. But simply reading questions isnโ€™t enoughโ€”you need a structured learning path with hands-on labs, expert-led training, and real exam simulations to solidify your understanding. If youโ€™re serious about passing the CompTIA Security+ exam and advancing your cybersecurity career, InfosecTrainโ€™s CompTIA Security+ training course is your ultimate learning solution.